8 February 2026, Questions & Answers
48 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
48 questions · 0 topics covered · 10 min revision
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This page contains 48 current affairs questions with answers from 8 February 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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48 QsThe Justice Katakey committee, mentioned in the news regarding illegal mining in Meghalaya, was appointed by which judicial body?
- A.The Supreme Court of India
- B.The National Green Tribunal (NGT)
- C.The Meghalaya High Court✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Ministry of Coal
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Justice (Retd.) BP Katakey was appointed by the Meghalaya High Court as a one-man committee to monitor illegal coal-mining in the state. This is a classic static GK linkage where the examiner tests specific institutional knowledge.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Meghalaya mining incident:
1. The explosion occurred in a legal rat-hole mine in the West Jaintia Hills district.
2. The district administration invoked Section 144 of the CrPC to control assemblies.
3. The Meghalaya High Court took suo-motu cognizance of the incident.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The mine was illegal and located in East Jaintia Hills, not West Jaintia Hills. Statement 2 is incorrect: The administration invoked Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), not CrPC Section 144. Statement 3 is correct as per the article. This tests attention to detail on location, legal provision, and judicial process.
As per the news article, what was the total number of workers reported killed in the recent rat-hole mine incident in Meghalaya?
- A.24
- B.25
- C.27✓ Correct Answer
- D.30
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Explanation
The article states the death toll rose to 27 (24 recovered from the mine + 3 succumbing to injuries). Options like 24 and 25 are close distractors mentioned in different contexts (bodies recovered). Memorizing the final, most updated figure is crucial for Prelims.
The district administration's invocation of BNSS Section 163 following the mining tragedy primarily aims to:
- A.Provide compensation to the victims' families.
- B.Expedite the rescue operations at the site.
- C.Prevent obstruction by assemblies during enforcement actions against illegal mining.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Conduct a judicial inquiry into the incident.
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the order invoked Section 163 BNSS citing "serious likelihood of obstruction to law enforcement by certain individuals or groups during operations against illegal mining activities." This tests comprehension of the administrative rationale behind a specific legal action, a common application-based question.
The recommendations of the Finance Commission are tabled in the Parliament by which constitutional authority?
- A.The President of India
- B.The Prime Minister
- C.The Union Finance Minister✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Chairman of the Finance Commission
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Explanation
As per established practice, the Finance Commission's report is submitted to the President, who then lays it before both Houses of Parliament. This is typically done by the Union Finance Minister. The Commission itself is constituted by the President under Article 280.
Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance Commission's recommendations:
1. It recommended a decrease in West Bengal's share in the divisible pool of central taxes.
2. It allocated a higher grant for urban local bodies compared to rural local bodies for the period 2026-31.
3. It specifically criticized the Lakshmir Bhandar scheme of West Bengal, recommending the inclusion of sunset clauses.
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: West Bengal's share decreased from 7.523% to 7.215%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The grant for rural local bodies (Rs 4.35 lakh crore) is higher than for urban local bodies (Rs 3.56 lakh crore). Statement 3 is correct: The Commission flagged the Lakshmir Bhandar scheme while advocating for sunset clauses in subsidy schemes.
As per the 16th Finance Commission's recommendations, what is Kerala's revised share in the divisible pool of Union taxes?
- A.1.925%
- B.2.382%✓ Correct Answer
- C.3.258%
- D.4.097%
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Explanation
Kerala's share increased from 1.925% under the 15th Finance Commission to 2.382% under the 16th Finance Commission. Option A is its old share. Option C (3.258%) is Assam's new share, and Option D (4.097%) is Tamil Nadu's new share.
The 16th Finance Commission's recommendation to include 'sunset clauses' in subsidy schemes is primarily aimed at:
- A.Increasing the coverage of welfare schemes
- B.Reducing the fiscal burden on state exchequers✓ Correct Answer
- C.Transferring the funding of schemes to the Central government
- D.Making schemes universal and rights-based
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Explanation
Sunset clauses mandate a periodic review and automatic expiry of schemes unless explicitly renewed. This prevents open-ended fiscal commitments, especially for subsidies on 'non-merit private goods', thereby promoting fiscal discipline and reducing the long-term burden on state finances, as highlighted in the Commission's report.
The 'High Level Committee on Banking for Viksit Bharat' was announced by the Finance Minister in which of the following?
- A.Union Budget 2026-27✓ Correct Answer
- B.Economic Survey 2025-26
- C.RBI's Financial Stability Report
- D.Parliamentary Standing Committee Report
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Explanation
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the committee in her Budget speech on February 1, 2026. The Budget is the government's annual financial statement presented to Parliament under Article 112 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The proposed High-Level Committee will focus exclusively on mergers of Public Sector Banks.
2. Power Finance Corporation (PFC) completed the acquisition of REC Ltd. in 2019.
3. Both PFC and REC are Maharatna category Central Public Sector Enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Minister clarified the committee's mandate is broader (creating a banking blueprint for Viksit Bharat), not narrowed to PSB mergers. Statement 2 is correct: PFC acquired REC for ₹14,500 crore in March 2019. Statement 3 is incorrect: Both are Navratna CPSEs, not Maharatna (a higher autonomy category).
As per the news, what was the amount transferred by Power Finance Corporation (PFC) to the government to acquire a majority stake in REC Ltd. in March 2019?
- A.₹10,000 crore
- B.₹12,500 crore
- C.₹14,500 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹16,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "In March 2019, PFC completed the acquisition of a majority stake in REC Ltd by transferring ₹14,500 crore to the government." This is a precise data point often asked in Prelims.
What is the primary objective behind the proposed restructuring and merger of Power Finance Corporation (PFC) and Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) as mentioned in the Budget?
- A.To reduce the government's fiscal deficit
- B.To achieve scale and improve efficiency in public sector NBFCs✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with RBI's new regulations for NBFCs
- D.To privatize the power sector financing
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Explanation
The Budget proposal, as stated in the article, aims "to achieve scale and improve efficiency in the public sector NBFCs, as a first step." Both entities operate in the same space (power sector financing), and consolidation reduces duplication and creates a stronger entity for larger projects.
The Calcutta High Court judgment, which restored a dowry death trial, invoked a famous quote by which legendary Indian judge?
- A.Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
- B.Justice H.R. Khanna
- C.Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justice P.N. Bhagwati
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Explanation
The judgment explicitly references the celebrated proverbial passage, 'No society is free until the last damsel in distress is free', attributed to Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, a stalwart of judicial activism and social justice in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court judgment on the dowry death case:
1. The Court discharged the in-laws of the victim due to lack of evidence.
2. The Court emphasized that 'cruelty' under Section 498A IPC cannot be defined in a straitjacket formula.
3. The case involved the death of a woman and her one-and-a-half-year-old son.
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Calcutta High Court SET ASIDE the trial court's discharge order; it did not discharge the accused. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The child was a one-and-a-half-year-old daughter, not a son.
As per the news article, what was the additional dowry amount allegedly demanded by the in-laws if a girl child was born to the victim?
- A.Rs 2 lakh
- B.Rs 5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 10 lakh
- D.Rs 15 lakh
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Explanation
The article clearly states that witness statements disclosed that soon after the victim’s marriage, the husband and his family demanded an additional amount of Rs 5 lakh from her father if a girl child was born.
What is the primary significance of the Calcutta High Court's observation that 'cruelty cannot be defined in a straitjacket formula' in the context of dowry and domestic violence cases?
- A.It limits the scope of Section 498A IPC to only physical violence.
- B.It mandates a uniform, narrow definition of cruelty for all lower courts.
- C.It advocates for a broader, context-sensitive interpretation of cruelty to include mental harassment and gender-based violence.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It suggests that dowry demands should be dealt with separately from cruelty charges.
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Explanation
The court's rejection of a 'straitjacket formula' underscores the judiciary's move towards a more holistic understanding of 'cruelty' under Section 498A IPC. This includes psychological abuse, harassment for giving birth to a girl child, and other non-physical forms of violence, which is crucial for effective legal protection of women.
The Andhra Pradesh Quantum Valley project is a state-level initiative that aligns with which major central government mission?
- A.National AI Mission
- B.National Quantum Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Digital India Mission
- D.Startup India Mission
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Explanation
The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was launched by the central government in 2023 with an outlay of Rs 6,000 crore to develop quantum technologies. The AP Quantum Valley is a state-level project that complements this national strategic mission.
Consider the following statements regarding the Andhra Pradesh Quantum Valley project:
1. It aims to install India's first 133-qubit quantum computer by December 2026.
2. The project is located in the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
3. Wipro will establish a Centre of Excellence in Amaravati to provide training in the quantum field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the project is located in Uddandarayunipalem village in the Amaravati capital region, not Visakhapatnam (where Google's AI data centre is coming up). Statement 3 is correct as Wipro is providing training through a Centre of Excellence.
What is the target number of students the Andhra Pradesh government aims to train in quantum computing by 2035, as part of the Quantum Valley project?
- A.2.5 million
- B.3.0 million
- C.3.5 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.0 million
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu said they are preparing an action plan to train 3.5 million students in quantum computing by 2035. This is a key data point for prelims-oriented questions.
What is a primary strategic objective behind establishing the Quantum Valley in Amaravati, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To shift all IT companies from Hyderabad to Amaravati.
- B.To create a global hub for quantum technologies and position India as a leader in the field.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To primarily focus on software exports and BPO services.
- D.To serve as a backup data recovery centre for national security.
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Explanation
The project's core vision is to transform Amaravati into a global capital for quantum technologies (computing, sensing, materials, communications) and make India's 'bold declaration of quantum leadership'. It is not about shifting existing IT, focusing on traditional software exports, or being a data recovery centre.
The Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) drive for school children, as reported, is an initiative of which statutory authority?
- A.Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)✓ Correct Answer
- B.National Informatics Centre (NIC)
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
- D.Registrar General of India (RGI)
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Explanation
UIDAI is the statutory authority established under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, responsible for Aadhaar enrolment and updates, including the Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) process.
Consider the following statements regarding the UIDAI's Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) drive: 1. It was conducted exclusively through Aadhaar Seva Kendras and not in schools. 2. The drive was enabled by integration with the UDISE+ database. 3. MBU is mandatory for children upon crossing the ages of 5 and 15 years.
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The drive involved camps at 83,000 schools, in addition to updates at Aadhaar centres. Statement 2 is correct: Integration with UDISE+ helped identify children due for MBU. Statement 3 is correct: MBU is required upon crossing ages 5 and 15 as per Aadhaar regulations.
According to the news, for which age group has UIDAI made Mandatory Biometric Updates (MBU) free for a one-year period?
- A.0-5 years
- B.5-10 years
- C.7-15 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.15-18 years
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Explanation
UIDAI made MBU free for children in the age group of 7 to 15 years for a one-year period starting October 1. This is a specific data point from the article; other ages relate to different rules (0-5 for initial enrolment, 5 & 15 for mandatory updates).
What is a primary consequence for a child if their Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) in Aadhaar is not completed?
- A.They cannot open a new bank account.
- B.They may face difficulties in authentication for government benefits and exam registrations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Their Aadhaar number will be permanently deactivated.
- D.They will be fined as per the Aadhaar Act.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that lack of MBU may lead to difficulties during authentication for receiving benefits under various government schemes and for registering in competitive and university examinations like NEET, JEE, and CUET.
Under which Act does a state government grant consent to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to investigate a case within its territory?
- A.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- B.The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019
- D.The Central Bureau of Investigation Act, 1963
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Explanation
The CBI derives its power to investigate cases in a state from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. Section 6 of this Act mandates that the CBI must obtain the consent of the state government concerned before investigating any offense within that state's jurisdiction.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on the Ponzi scheme probe:
1. The petitioners have alleged a loss of about ₹1,000 crore to approximately 73,000 investors.
2. The State of Kerala has consented to a CBI probe under the Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019.
3. The Justice Govindaraj Committee was formed by the Supreme Court and has successfully auctioned assets to repay depositors.
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Kerala granted consent under Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, not the BUDS Act. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states the Justice Govindaraj Committee has NOT been able to auction any assets for nearly three years.
As per the news article, what is the total amount of alleged life-savings lost by investors in the Ponzi scheme run by Universal Trading Solutions Pvt. Ltd.?
- A.₹500 crore
- B.₹750 crore
- C.₹1,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹1,200 crore
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Explanation
The depositors told the Supreme Court that they lost life-savings aggregating to about ₹1,000 crore. The other figures are close distractors. Memorizing exact financial figures from important economic fraud cases is crucial for prelims.
What is the primary constitutional right invoked by the depositors in their plea to the Supreme Court for a centralized CBI investigation?
- A.Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19
- B.Right to Equality before Law under Article 14
- C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32
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Explanation
The petitioners argued that fragmented state-level investigations lead to a denial of the right to a fair investigation, which is encompassed within the broader Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution, as interpreted by the judiciary.
The Kopra irrigation project, which involves diversion of forest land in a Tiger Reserve, was recommended for approval by the Standing Committee of which statutory body?
- A.National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
- B.National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Empowered Committee (CEC)
- D.Forest Advisory Committee (FAC)
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Explanation
The news states that the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) recommended approval for the Kopra irrigation project. The NBWL is the apex body for wildlife conservation policies in India, constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Consider the following statements regarding the interim India-US trade deal framework:
1. India has agreed to eliminate import duties on all US agricultural products, including dairy and poultry.
2. The United States has committed to remove the additional 25% tariff imposed on Indian goods over Russian oil purchases.
3. India has secured a tariff rate quota (TRQ) for the export of generic pharmaceuticals to the US.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because India has specifically safeguarded sensitive sectors and has NOT extended duty concessions on dairy products and poultry. Statement 2 is correct as per the US executive order. Statement 3 is correct as India secured concessions including a tariff rate quota for generic pharmaceuticals.
As per the interim trade deal framework, to what level has the United States agreed to reduce its tariffs on Indian goods?
- A.From 50% to 15%
- B.From 50% to 18%✓ Correct Answer
- C.From 40% to 18%
- D.From 50% to 25%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'While the US will reduce tariffs on Indian goods to 18 per cent from 50 per cent...'. This is a key data point from the agreement that is highly testable in prelims.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 (ISM 2.0) as highlighted in the news?
- A.To exclusively set up semiconductor fabrication plants (fabs)
- B.To achieve indigenization in chip design and product development✓ Correct Answer
- C.To import and assemble high-end semiconductor equipment
- D.To subsidize the import of Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) for startups
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Explanation
While ISM 1.0 focused on fabs and packaging, ISM 2.0's top priority is to support indigenous chip design companies and startups, aiming to create 'the next Qualcomm from India'. This represents a strategic shift towards capturing higher value in the semiconductor value chain.
The practice of rat-hole mining in Meghalaya was banned by which statutory body?
- A.National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
- B.National Green Tribunal (NGT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
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Explanation
The National Green Tribunal (NGT), established under the NGT Act, 2010, is the specialized judicial body for environmental cases. It banned rat-hole mining in Meghalaya in 2014 due to its environmental and safety hazards.
Consider the following statements regarding rat-hole mining in India:
1. It involves digging narrow, horizontal tunnels to extract coal and is prevalent in Meghalaya.
2. It was declared illegal by the Supreme Court of India in 2015.
3. Despite a ban, it continues due to higher wages compared to government schemes and lack of enforcement.
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Rat-hole mining is defined by narrow tunnels and is common in Meghalaya. Statement 2 is incorrect: The ban was imposed by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2014, not the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is correct: The article highlights that wages are higher than MGNREGA and enforcement is weak, leading to its continuation.
According to the news article, how many violations of the NGT ban on rat-hole mining were recorded by Meghalaya police between April 2014 and November 2018?
- A.Around 250 violations
- B.At least 477 violations✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 600 violations
- D.Approximately 150 violations
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to Meghalaya police records, between April 2014 and November 2018, there were at least 477 violations of the NGT order banning rat-hole mining. This precise data point is crucial for Prelims.
What is identified as a primary reason for the continued operation of rat-hole mining in northeastern states despite a ban, as per the editorial cited in the article?
- A.Advanced technology making it safer
- B.Strong legal support from the state government
- C.High wages compared to MGNREGA and a politician-bureaucracy nexus✓ Correct Answer
- D.Exemption provided by the Central Government for tribal areas
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Explanation
The article's referenced editorial clearly states that in northeastern states, rat-hole mining offers much higher wages than MGNREGA and other government schemes, and it gets a 'free run' when the 'politician-bureaucracy nexus turns an unseeing eye.' This highlights the socio-economic and governance roots of the problem.
The recent breakthrough discovery concerning a metabolic trigger for fungal infections was made by scientists at which premier Indian research institution?
- A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- B.Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
- D.National Institute of Virology (NIV)
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Explanation
The research was conducted at the CSIR–Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad. CCMB is a premier research institute under the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), focusing on frontier areas of modern biology.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent discovery on fungal infections by CSIR-CCMB scientists:
1. The research identified that the shape-shifting ability of fungi is solely controlled by specific genetic networks.
2. The study found that slowing down sugar breakdown (glycolysis) in fungi prevents their transition to invasive forms.
3. The discovery is significant only for human health and has no implications for agricultural food security.
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the study revealed shape-shifting is driven NOT only by genes but also by metabolism. Statement 2 is correct as per the lab experiments described. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly mentions the dual crisis for public health and agriculture.
According to the study, which specific fungal species, a leading cause of global infections, was used as a model to demonstrate the metabolic trigger for virulence?
- A.Aspergillus fumigatus
- B.Cryptococcus neoformans
- C.Candida albicans✓ Correct Answer
- D.Histoplasma capsulatum
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Explanation
The researchers examined a strain of Candida albicans, which is mentioned in the article as a leading cause of fungal infections worldwide. The altered strain with disrupted metabolism showed reduced virulence in mouse studies.
What is the primary strategic advantage of targeting the metabolic pathway (link between glycolysis and sulfur-amino acids) for new antifungal drugs, as highlighted by the CSIR-CCMB discovery?
- A.It is a cheaper method of drug synthesis.
- B.It allows fungi to be used beneficially in industries.
- C.It represents a fundamental 'Achilles' heel' that may be harder for fungi to develop resistance against.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It helps in the rapid diagnosis of fungal infections.
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Explanation
As stated by Dr. Varahan, since these metabolic pathways are fundamental for fungal growth and shape-shifting, targeting them may represent an 'Achilles' heel' that is harder for fungi to escape through resistance, unlike drugs targeting specific proteins which can mutate.
The 'Sahyog Portal', challenged in the Bombay High Court, was developed by which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
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Explanation
The Sahyog Portal was developed by the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). MeitY is the nodal ministry for IT policy and internet governance in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the legal challenge to the Sahyog Portal and IT Rules: 1. The petitioners argue that the mechanisms violate the procedure mandated under Section 69A of the IT Act. 2. The amended IT Rule 3(1)(d) requires intermediaries to remove content within 24 hours of receiving a government notice. 3. The petition claims the provisions infringe upon the fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The petition argues the Sahyog Portal and Rule 3(1)(d) bypass the procedure under Section 69A and the 2009 Blocking Rules. Statement 2 is incorrect: The amended rule specifies a 36-hour window for removal, not 24 hours. Statement 3 is correct: The petitioners contend the provisions violate Article 14 (equality) and Article 19(1)(g) (right to profession).
According to RTI data cited in the news, approximately how many blocking orders were sent to online platforms through the Sahyog Portal between October 2024 and October 2025?
- A.More than 1,500
- B.More than 2,300✓ Correct Answer
- C.More than 3,000
- D.More than 1,000
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Explanation
The article states that RTI data revealed more than 2,300 blocking orders were sent to 19 online platforms (like WhatsApp, Facebook) via the Sahyog Portal between October 2024 and October 2025. This data point highlights the scale of the portal's operation.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the petitioners against the Sahyog Portal and amended IT Rule 3(1)(d)?
- A.They violate the Right to Privacy under Article 21.
- B.They create an unchecked executive power to censor content, violating freedom of speech and equality.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They infringe upon the federal structure by giving powers to state officers.
- D.They contradict the Directive Principles of State Policy.
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Explanation
The core legal argument is that the portal and rule confer wide, unchecked powers to thousands of government officers to issue takedown orders without due process, bypassing the safeguards of Section 69A. This, the petitioners argue, results in an unconstitutional restriction on freedom of speech (implied in Article 19) and violates the right to equality before law (Article 14).
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is a non-member of the State Legislature allowed to be a minister for a limited period?
- A.Article 163(3)
- B.Article 164(4)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 177
- D.Article 75(5)
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Explanation
Article 164(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that a minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the legislature of the state shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister.
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of a Chief Minister who is not a member of the State Legislature:
1. The Constitution allows such an appointment for a maximum period of six months.
2. The Supreme Court upheld this provision in a case related to the appointment of the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 1971.
3. The first instance of such an appointment in India involved B.P. Mandal directly becoming the Chief Minister of Bihar in 1968.
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Article 164(4). Statement 2 is correct; the SC upheld the appointment of UP CM Tribhuvan Narain Singh in 1971. Statement 3 is incorrect; B.P. Mandal was not directly appointed. First, Satish Prasad Singh was made CM for five days to facilitate Mandal's nomination to the Legislative Council.
For how many days did Satish Prasad Singh serve as the Chief Minister of Bihar in January 1968, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Two days
- B.Five days✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ten days
- D.Thirty days
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Explanation
Satish Prasad Singh served as Chief Minister for a deliberately short stint of five days (from January 28, 1968, until February 1, 1968) to facilitate B.P. Mandal's nomination to the Legislative Council.
What is the primary constitutional rationale behind allowing a non-legislator to be appointed as a minister under Article 164(4)?
- A.To allow experts from outside politics to become ministers
- B.To enable the appointment of a person who is likely to command the majority in the house
- C.To provide time for a minister to get elected to the legislature✓ Correct Answer
- D.To allow the Governor to appoint a caretaker government
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Explanation
The primary objective of Article 164(4) is to provide a grace period of six months to a person appointed as a minister (including CM) to secure membership of the state legislature, either by election or by nomination to the Legislative Council, thereby ensuring the principle of collective responsibility to the house is eventually fulfilled.
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