6 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The right to reproductive autonomy and bodily integrity, which formed the core of this judgment, is a well-established judicial expansion of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the pregnancy was 30 weeks, not 32. Statement 2 is correct as per the news. Statement 3 is correct; the Court highlighted this public health risk associated with the restrictive limit.

Explanation

The MTP Act, 1971, sets the general upper limit for legal abortion at 24 weeks of gestation. The Supreme Court's decision to allow a 30-week termination was a specific exception based on the minor's circumstances, not a change in the statutory limit.

Explanation

The core judicial principle established is that in specific, compelling circumstances (like a minor's unwillingness), the right to reproductive autonomy under Article 21 can warrant an exception to the statutory 24-week limit. It does not change the law for everyone but sets a precedent for compassionate interpretation.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, in 2016. Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor stated policy rates will remain at "low levels," not high levels. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the RBI upwardly revised GDP forecast for the first and second quarters of the next fiscal year.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "...net borrowing was ₹11.73 lakh crore." ₹17.20 lakh crore is the gross borrowing figure, which is a common distractor. Accurate recall of fiscal numbers is crucial for Prelims.

Explanation

A prolonged period of low interest rates reduces the cost of borrowing for businesses and individuals. This encourages investment and consumption, thereby stimulating economic growth, which is a key objective of an accommodative monetary policy stance.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the primary regulator for banking and non-banking financial companies. It is responsible for framing guidelines related to customer protection, digital transactions, and loan recovery practices in the financial sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the proposed cap is ₹25,000, not ₹50,000. Statement 2 is incorrect; the exemption is for NBFCs with asset size NOT exceeding ₹1000 crore. Statement 3 is correct as per the news; the RBI has proposed to remove the ₹2.5 lakh crore limit for VRR investments.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed introducing a framework where compensation for losses from small-value fraudulent transactions is capped at ₹25,000 per case. This is a key data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The RBI Governor stated the guidelines aim to focus on loan recovery practices, including the conduct of recovery agents, to prevent harassment and unfair treatment of borrowers. This aligns with the broader objective of consumer protection and ethical banking.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory and institutionalized framework under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, as amended in 2016. Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The CPI inflation for FY26 is projected at 2.1%, which is a specific forecast, not necessarily a 'downward revision' from a previously stated number in this article. The article mentions a 'slight upward revision' in the near-term outlook due to precious metals. Statement 3 is incorrect: The MPC decided to 'continue with the neutral stance.' It did not change it to 'accommodative'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "real GDP growth projections for Q1:FY27... are revised upwards to 6.9%." Option C (7.0%) is the projection for Q2:FY27, making it a close distractor. Memorizing exact quarterly projections is a common Prelims trap.

Explanation

A low policy rate reduces the cost of borrowing for banks, which in turn can lower lending rates for businesses and consumers. This encourages borrowing for investment and consumption, thereby stimulating aggregate demand and supporting economic growth. This is particularly relevant when growth is the priority and inflation is under control, as highlighted in the news.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%, not increased. Statement 2 is correct: The GDP forecast was raised to 7.4%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The CPI inflation forecast was marginally raised to 2.1%, not kept unchanged at 2.0%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "As per the First Advance Estimates, India's economy is projected to grow by 7.4 per cent in 2025-26." The MPC also subsequently increased its forecast to this same number.

Explanation

Policy space refers to the room available for the central bank to maneuver. With inflation below the target and outlook benign, the RBI is not pressured to hike rates to control prices. This allows it to keep rates stable or even consider future cuts to support economic growth, as reflected in the decision to hold the repo rate.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary objective is to determine the policy rate required to achieve the inflation target set by the Government.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The MPC held the repo rate steady at 5.25%, it did not increase it. Statement 2 is correct: The MPC retained a 'neutral' stance. Statement 3 is incorrect: The GDP growth projection for FY26 was revised upwards to 7.4%, not downwards to 7.3%.

Explanation

The RBI MPC marginally revised its retail inflation (CPI) forecast for FY26 to 2.1%, up from the earlier projection of 2%. The slight upward revision was attributed primarily to an increase in prices of precious metals.

Explanation

A 'neutral' stance means the central bank is not committed to a pre-set direction for future policy moves (either tightening or easing). It retains maximum flexibility to respond to incoming data on inflation, growth, and external conditions, allowing it to adjust rates in either direction as needed.

Explanation

While the scheme involves pharmaceuticals and industry, it is a health sector initiative announced in the budget to boost domestic manufacturing of biologics and biosimilars, placing it under the primary domain of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the budget allocated only about 0.26% of GDP, missing the 2.5% target. Statement 3 is incorrect; the TCS was reduced from 5% to 2%, not from 10% to 5%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman fronted the Biopharma SHAKTI scheme with a ₹10,000 crore investment over the next five years to transform India into a manufacturing hub for biologics and biosimilars.

Explanation

The direct objective of such duty exemptions is to lower the final cost of treatment for patients, thereby reducing their financial burden or out-of-pocket expenditure, which is a major challenge in India's healthcare system.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted as a statutory committee under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, following the 2016 amendment. This grants it legal authority for inflation targeting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the MPC kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%, it did not increase it. Statement 2 is incorrect as the stance was 'neutral', not 'accommodative'. Statement 3 is correct as per Governor Malhotra's announcement.

Explanation

Governor Sanjay Malhotra stated that forex reserves were 'very healthy at $723.8 billion by the end of January.' This exact figure is a potential data-based question in Prelims. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

A 'neutral' stance means the central bank is not pre-committed to either tightening or easing monetary policy. It keeps its options open, allowing future decisions (rate hikes, cuts, or pauses) to be data-dependent, responding to evolving growth-inflation dynamics.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), specifically through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), is responsible for announcing GDP growth projections as part of its bi-monthly monetary policy statements. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, SEBI regulates securities markets, and the Finance Commission deals with center-state fiscal relations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the revision was upwards to 6.9%, not downwards to 6.7%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the news mentions the India-EU FTA and a prospective India-US deal, not an India-UK FTA. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which cites these factors for supporting agricultural activity.

Explanation

The RBI revised its projection for Q2 (July-September) of FY27 to 7.0%. The previous projection from December 2025 was 6.8%. Option A (6.7%) was the old projection for Q1, and Option C (6.9%) is the revised projection for Q1. This tests precise recall of quarterly data.

Explanation

The article mentions GST rationalization, high capacity utilization, and the India-EU FTA as positive factors. There is no mention of an increase in direct tax rates; in fact, such an increase could potentially dampen growth, not support an upward revision. This question tests the application of understanding the growth drivers mentioned in the policy statement.

Explanation

Articles 369 to 392 (which include Article 371A) are enshrined in Part XXI of the Constitution, titled 'Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions'. This part deals with special status for states like Nagaland, Mizoram, etc.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The agreement explicitly states it does NOT affect Article 371(A). Statement 2 is correct: SGBs are government securities issued by the RBI. Statement 3 is incorrect: India has the second-largest road network; NHs constitute only about 2.3% of it.

Explanation

The data shows fatalities fell from 64,772 in 2024 to 57,482 in 2025, a reduction of over 11%. This is a key data point for prelims, highlighting the impact of recent road safety initiatives.

Explanation

The core criticism is that applying a tax retrospectively breaches the original promise of tax-free gains for SGB holders, damaging policy stability. This mirrors past controversies like the 2012 retrospective tax, which adversely affected foreign investment.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's Aravalli judgment involves interpreting the state's duty under Article 48A to protect and improve the environment. While Articles 21 and 51A(g) are also relevant, the core constitutional mandate being examined is the Directive Principle under Article 48A.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the 2025 Supreme Court judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Vanashakti judgment banning retrospective clearances was recalled by the Supreme Court within five months. Statement 3 is correct as the Vellore case (1996) indeed established the precautionary principle in Indian environmental law.

Explanation

The article states that judicial authorizations allowed the felling (and transplanting) of about 34,000 mangrove trees for infrastructure development in Mumbai. Option D (158) refers to mangroves destroyed in Raigarh for Adani Cementation Limited, which is a different case mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article argues that protecting only landforms above 100 metres while exposing surrounding ecosystems to exploitation creates an absurd classification that violates Article 14's guarantee of equality and non-arbitrariness. This height-based definition has no rational connection to actual ecological conservation goals.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, as amended in 2016. This is a key static GK fact for Economy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The repo rate was kept at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC maintained a 'neutral' stance, not an 'accommodative' one. Statement 3 is correct: Governor Sanjay Malhotra mentioned the India-EU trade deal as a factor for sustained growth momentum.

Explanation

The RBI's Monetary Policy Committee kept the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. This is a precise data point crucial for Prelims. Distractors use close numbers like 5.0% or 5.5%.

Explanation

As stated by the Governor, the new inflation data based on the revised GDP series will help in providing a clearer assessment of price trends (inflation) and broader macroeconomic conditions. This accurate assessment is crucial for 'fine-tuning' future policy actions like rate changes.

Explanation

The RBI Governor stated the compensation will be paid from the Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund. This fund is maintained by the RBI and is credited with unclaimed deposits from banks, used for depositor education and awareness purposes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the framework explicitly states 'no questions will be asked' even if the victim gave an OTP. Statement 2 is correct (65% figure mentioned). Statement 3 is correct (both victim and bank have 'skin in the game' bearing 15%).

Explanation

The RBI has proposed to compensate victims 'up to ₹25,000'. The calculation is 85% of the lost amount or ₹25,000, whichever is lower. Thus, ₹25,000 is the absolute upper limit for compensation per incident.

Explanation

The Deputy Governor stated the intent is to cover the segment 'unwittingly becoming victims'. The policy aims to provide relief to a large number of customers for whom small amounts matter significantly, thereby safeguarding consumer confidence in the digital ecosystem, which is crucial for financial inclusion.

Explanation

The Supreme Court bench explicitly directed the J.J. Group of Hospitals in Mumbai to conduct the procedure. This tests specific factual recall from the news item.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect; the petitioner was the minor's mother. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court strongly emphasized reproductive autonomy as a key ground.

Explanation

The MTP Act, as amended in 2021, sets the upper limit at 24 weeks for specific categories of women. The news case (30 weeks) was an exception granted by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The Court's reasoning was based on reproductive autonomy and the right to make choices about one's body, which are derived from the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. This includes the right to dignity and privacy.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC voted 5:1 to keep the stance as 'neutral', not change it to 'accommodative'. Statement 3 is correct: The RBI revised its FY26 CPI inflation forecast to 2.1% from 2%.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised its GDP growth forecast for FY26 to 7.4% from an earlier estimate of 7.3%. This revision reflects the central bank's confidence in the ongoing strong growth momentum.

Explanation

A 'long pause' in the repo rate means the benchmark lending rate remains stable. Consequently, banks are unlikely to change their lending rates, keeping EMIs on existing floating-rate home, vehicle, and personal loans steady. This provides predictability for borrowers and supports sustained consumption demand.

Explanation

The 'Right to be Forgotten' (RTBF) derives from the Right to Privacy, which was explicitly recognized as a fundamental right under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) case. Article 21 guarantees the 'Right to Life and Personal Liberty'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Express (IE Online Media Services) challenged the Delhi HC order. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Delhi HC did not declare RTBF as absolute; it balanced it against other rights but favored the individual's dignity in this specific case. Statement 3 is correct: The articles were based on ED press releases and court proceedings, i.e., public records.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The matter is now listed for March 16.' The other dates are distractors: February 06 is the article publication date, December 2025 is when the Delhi HC gave the impugned judgment, and November 2025 is when the trial court granted the interim injunction.

Explanation

The plea argued that allowing RTBF to erase factual reports 'sets a dangerous precedent', 'opens the floodgates', and has the 'effect of concealing by erasure matters of public record... in a manner that distorts history.' It specifically warned of a 'chilling effect on the freedom of speech.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the primary regulator for banking and credit policies. Announcements regarding bank lending limits and permissions are made by the RBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect because the permission is for lending to listed REITs under a strong regulatory framework. Statement 3 is incorrect as the new limit applies to loans sanctioned or renewed from April 1, 2026, not all existing loans immediately.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The revised norms will apply to loans sanctioned or renewed from April 1, 2026." February 6, 2026, is the announcement date, not the effective date.

Explanation

As highlighted in the article, this policy aims to expand access to stable, long-term bank finance for REITs, which supports healthier balance sheets by reducing the frequency of refinancing. It does not replace other investors, allow direct property development, or change the primary regulator (SEBI).

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, responsible for monetary policy and regulation of the banking sector. All announcements regarding banking regulations, customer compensation frameworks, and initiatives for cooperative banks like Mission SAKSHAM fall under the RBI's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The proposed compensation limit is up to ₹25,000, not ₹50,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: The extant instructions were issued in 2017, not 2019. Statement 3 is correct: Mission SAKSHAM (Sahakari Bank Kshamta Nirman) is explicitly aimed at capacity building for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs).

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor specifically announced the proposal to introduce a framework to compensate customers up to an amount of ₹25,000 for loss incurred in small-value fraudulent transactions. This data point is crucial for Prelims.

Explanation

Mission SAKSHAM (Sahakari Bank Kshamta Nirman) is a sector-wide capacity-building and certification framework launched by the RBI specifically for Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs). It aims to develop skills, technical capabilities, and operational resilience in UCBs, which are vital for financial inclusion.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, which regulates monetary policy and the banking sector. Announcements regarding loan limits and banking regulations typically fall under its purview, as seen in this news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the limit was doubled from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh, not from Rs 5 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect as the RBI emphasized that lending to REITs will be subject to specified prudential norms. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India has proposed doubling the limit for collateral-free loans to MSMEs from the previous Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh. This is a key data point for Prelims.

Explanation

As stated in the article, allowing bank lending to REITs is aimed at improving liquidity in the real estate market, particularly in the commercial segment (like offices and retail spaces). It provides a new funding avenue for REITs, not for retail home buyers.

Explanation

The Vishaka case (1997) is the landmark precedent where the Supreme Court laid down guidelines to prevent sexual harassment at the workplace until Parliament enacted a law. The article draws a direct parallel, suggesting a similar approach is needed for hate speech legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states hate speech laws are 'scattered' across IPC, election law, etc., lacking coherence. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the Amish Devgan case. Statement 3 is incorrect; Article 19(2) lists multiple grounds including public order, decency, morality, and not just violence or defamation.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Amending the Representation of the People Act to expressly recognise hate speech as a ground for disqualification would send a clear message...' This is a key proposal to enhance electoral accountability.

Explanation

The article criticizes the single-track criminal model as ill-suited. The graduated framework aims for smarter regulation, using corrective measures for low-intensity cases and reserving criminal sanctions for aggravated offences, especially by public officials. This ensures a proportionate response.

Explanation

Under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) is laid before Parliament by the President. However, it is presented by the Finance Minister on behalf of the President. The Ministry of Finance prepares the budget.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FM termed the 10% estimate 'realistic', not 'conservative'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the SEBI report cited showed that 90% of retail participants in F&O were losing money, not making profits.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The government has allocated Rs 12.22 lakh crore towards capex for next year." This precise numerical data is a classic target for Prelims and other objective exams.

Explanation

The FM explicitly stated, "At the moment we are looking at sustaining growth and therefore, we will have to do it, so we are doing it. That will be our primary object — sustaining growth." This highlights the government's current growth-centric fiscal strategy.

Explanation

The Eastern Nagaland Peoples' Organisation (ENPO) is the apex civil society body representing seven tribes from the six eastern districts. It was the key stakeholder and signatory from the region, alongside the Centre and State Government.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. FNTA is created via a tripartite agreement, not under the Sixth Schedule. Statement 2 is correct as per the official statement. Statement 3 is correct; the agreement provides for a mini-secretariat headed by an Additional Chief Secretary/Principal Secretary.

Explanation

The FNTA will cover six eastern districts of Nagaland: Tuensang, Mon, Kiphire, Longleng, Noklak, and Shamator. This is a key data point from the news.

Explanation

The agreement's stated objective is the 'overall development of eastern Nagaland through financial autonomy, enhanced decision-making... and optimum resource utilization.' It is an autonomy-for-development model within the existing state, not a move for statehood or a constitutional overhaul.

Explanation

The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a scheme for rooftop solar installation, which directly falls under the domain of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the nodal ministry for promoting renewable energy in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect; PM-KUSUM allocation was sustained at ₹5,000 crore, not reduced. Statement 3 is incorrect; the duty exemption was extended only until 2035, not indefinitely.

Explanation

The Budget 2026-27 specifically announced a proposed five-year outlay of ₹20,000 crore for the Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS) scheme. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The editorial clearly states that due to the EU's CBAM, which will impose carbon costs on imports, decarbonising industrial production is no longer just a climate imperative but a question of export competitiveness for key exports like steel and aluminium.

Explanation

The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in India, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is responsible for policy and guideline formulation, including the newly released DVI SOPs. NDRF is the response force, NIDM is a training institute, and MHA is the administrative ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The guidelines propose a National Dental Data Registry. Statement 2 is correct: Forensic archaeology is included, with a reference to the NFSU project on WWII remains. Statement 3 is incorrect: The three primary scientific identifiers, as per Interpol guidelines adopted, are fingerprints, odontology (dental), and DNA profiling. Visual confirmation and property recovery are secondary/less reliable methods.

Explanation

The article cites the AI 171 plane crash in Ahmedabad, which involved 260 victims. The bodies were charred and commingled, making traditional identification difficult and underscoring the need for robust forensic methods like odontology. Memorizing this specific number is key for prelims.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to ensure recognition, registration, and dignified handover of remains to families. The guidelines standardize the process across four stages to achieve this. While they incorporate modern methods (like digital biometrics from phones), the primary goal is humanitarian and procedural, not technological replacement or centralization.

Explanation

The 2026 REAIM summit was held in A Coruna, Spain. The Hague, Netherlands hosted the 2023 summit, and Seoul, South Korea hosted the 2024 summit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The US and China opted out and did not sign. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: The declaration is explicitly stated to be non-binding.

Explanation

Only 35 countries out of the 85 attending signed the commitment. 60 was the number of nations endorsing the previous 'blueprint' in 2023/2024.

Explanation

Dutch Defence Minister Ruben Brekelmans explicitly described the situation as a 'prisoner's dilemma,' where nations are caught between the collective benefit of responsible restrictions and the individual fear of being disadvantaged if adversaries do not comply.

Explanation

The MoU was signed in the presence of Sarbananda Sonowal, the Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Maritime infrastructure and shipping lines are core responsibilities of this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: CMAS has an outlay of ₹10,000 crore, not ₹15,000 crore. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect as BCSL involves public sector undertakings (PSUs) like SCI and CONCOR.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "India aims to achieve an annual domestic manufacturing capacity of approximately one million TEUs over the next decade." The other figures are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article quotes Minister Sonowal saying BCSL "will anchor India's container trade in Indian hands." This aims to reduce reliance on foreign shipping lines, lower logistics costs, and enhance strategic control, aligning with broader economic sovereignty goals.

Explanation

The Union Budget, including the defence outlay, is presented by the Finance Minister on behalf of the government. The Ministry of Defence is the implementing body, but the budgetary allocation is part of the Union Budget presented in Parliament.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The budget is 2% of GDP with a 15% (double-digit) hike. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because 75% of the capital acquisition budget is earmarked for domestic industries, not foreign companies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 75% of the capital acquisition budget for procurement has been earmarked for domestic industries, which includes private players. This is a key figure supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in defence.

Explanation

The article cites the Prime Minister's remark that indigenous shipbuilding has a 6.5 multiplier effect on employment to illustrate how defence spending can spur economic growth and job creation in ancillary industries, moving beyond the traditional 'guns vs butter' debate.

Explanation

The Disaster Management Act, 2005, under Section 3(2), states that the Prime Minister shall be the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority. This is a fundamental static GK fact.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the guidelines. Statement 2 is incorrect because the guidelines explicitly state that DVI does not conclude merely with identification; it includes dignified return of remains and communication with families. Statement 3 is correct as the guidelines specify the DVI Leader may be from the Health Department.

Explanation

The NDMA guidelines clearly define four stages of DVI: Scene, Post-Mortem (PM), Ante-Mortem (AM), and Reconciliation. Memorizing this exact number is crucial for prelims.

Explanation

The Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2024, empowers state governments to constitute their own State Disaster Response Forces (SDRF). This is a key provision that complements the national framework and is highly relevant for mains answers on cooperative federalism in disaster management.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Karnataka Labour Department has formed four committees for this purpose. Labour is a Concurrent subject, allowing states to frame their own rules under the central Labour Codes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because officials are discussing integration options (API or incorporation) with central portals (Shram Suvidha, SAMADHAN), not developing a completely independent system. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions "reported directions from the Central Government to implement the Codes from 1 April 2026". This is a crucial date for tracking the implementation timeline of this major labour reform.

Explanation

The integration aims for operational efficiency and unified compliance under the new Labour Codes. Shram Suvidha is a centralized portal for business and labour regulation, and integrating state systems with it reduces duplication and eases compliance for establishments operating across states.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts the Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) to assess households' perceptions of the general economic situation. Other surveys like the Inflation Expectations Survey of Households (IESH) are also conducted by the RBI to inform monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The urban CSI declined marginally, marking a reversal after three rounds of improvement, not a fourth consecutive improvement. Statement 2 is correct: The rural CSI has stayed range-bound above the neutral level. Statement 3 is incorrect: One-year-ahead inflation expectations increased sharply by 60 bps to 8.6%, not declined.

Explanation

The urban Current Situation Index (CSI) stood at 98.1 in the latest survey round. Option C (98.4) is the value from the previous round, which is a common distractor. Option D (123.4) is the value of the Future Expectations Index (FEI).

Explanation

Persistently high inflation expectations can become self-fulfilling, as households and firms adjust their behaviour (demanding higher wages, raising prices). To prevent this from de-anchoring inflation, the central bank (RBI's MPC) may have to maintain a tighter monetary policy stance (higher interest rates or delayed cuts) to reinforce its commitment to price stability.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the gazette notification was issued by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal body for startup-related policies in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: deep tech startups must spend most money on R&D. Statement 2 is incorrect: the eligibility period is up to 20 years, not 15. Statement 3 is correct: the Inter-Ministerial Board includes reps from DBT and DST, along with DPIIT.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a deep tech startup can have a turnover of up to ₹300 crore. This is higher than the ₹200 crore limit for a regular startup, acknowledging the longer commercialization runway needed for deep tech ventures.

Explanation

The article links the definition directly to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) and its ₹1 lakh crore RDI Fund. A clear definition allows for precise identification and channeling of concessional finance and investments to high-risk, long-gestation deep tech ventures, which is the policy's core objective.

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains the anti-defection law. The Speaker/Chairman acts as the adjudicating authority under this Schedule.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the deadline was three weeks, not four. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Supreme Court has consistently held that the Speaker does NOT enjoy constitutional immunity while acting as a tribunal under the Tenth Schedule. Statement 3 is correct as per the news article.

Explanation

The article states that in December 2025, the Speaker rejected 7 petitions. Later, a decision was taken on one more. Therefore, by the February 2026 hearing, decisions were pending on only the last two MLAs, meaning 8 petitions had been decided.

Explanation

The core judicial intervention here is to prevent the Speaker from using delay as a tactic to let disqualification petitions become infructuous, thereby upholding the intent of the anti-defection law. The Court has not transferred power (D) nor addressed suspension (A) or house business (B).

Explanation

As per the article, the National Steering Committee (NSC) for approving the selection of industry partners and monitoring NSTIs is chaired by the Secretary of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). This ministry is the nodal agency for all skill development initiatives in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The outlay is ₹60,000 crore over a five-year period, not ten years. Statement 2 is correct: The guidelines make a minimum industry contribution of 17% mandatory for ITI clusters. Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme aims to upgrade 1000 Government ITIs (200 Hub and 800 Spoke), not 500.

Explanation

The NITI Aayog 2023 report stated that only 405 candidates were placed out of 4,14,247 trained, which translates to a placement rate of just 0.09 per cent. This key data point highlights the critical need for schemes like PM-SETU.

Explanation

The article quotes an expert noting that due to geographical and infrastructural considerations, urban ITIs may benefit more from the cluster model, while rural ITIs serving different local skill needs may face logistical challenges or risk being left out. This highlights an equity concern in the scheme's implementation.

Explanation

The report titled 'Punctuality and Travel Time in Train Operations in Indian Railways' was tabled by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) on February 4, 2026. The PAC examines CAG audit reports.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The benchmark is 55 kmph for BG. Statement 2 is incorrect: The benchmark was set in May 2007 and has not been revised since. Statement 3 is correct: The PAC recommended aligning with global standards of ~100 kmph.

Explanation

The PAC report explicitly states that out of 478 Superfast trains, the scheduled speed of 123 Superfast trains was less than 55 kmph. The number 47 refers to trains from this list which were later found to be running above 55 kmph.

Explanation

The PAC concluded that the demarcation as 'superfast' was primarily to apply higher charges (Superfast surcharge). It noted that when train speeds fell below the benchmark, Railways did not remove the tag or revise the fare, impacting consumer interest.

Explanation

The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) and its Standing Committee are constituted under Section 5A and Section 5B of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This is a fundamental static GK link for environment-related questions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The diversion is in the CORE area, not the buffer zone. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The NTCA noted concerns about impacts on tiger movement. The trap is swapping 'core' with 'buffer' and assuming NTCA's silence as approval.

Explanation

The SC-NBWL approved the diversion of about 272 hectares of forest land. 310 hectares is for compensatory afforestation. 1,044.52 hectares is the total submergence area, and 716.62 hectares is the private land within that submergence. Close attention to labels is key.

Explanation

The article quotes the inspection report and the state's PCCF (Wildlife) stating that the project structures will serve as a natural barrier, restricting entry from border villages and reducing grazing pressure. This is a typical argument used to justify infrastructure in PAs, focusing on indirect benefits.

Explanation

The New START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a bilateral treaty between the United States and the Russian Federation, signed in 2010. It is a key part of the post-Cold War nuclear arms control framework between the two largest nuclear powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The New START treaty expired on February 5, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: China's Foreign Ministry explicitly stated it 'will not participate in nuclear disarmament negotiations at this stage'. Statement 3 is correct: SIPRI is a renowned institute that publishes annual data on global military expenditure and nuclear arsenals.

Explanation

The article states that SIPRI estimates China has at least 600 nuclear warheads. This is a key data point highlighting the scale of China's arsenal, which is growing but is still below the 1,550 limit formerly imposed on the US and Russia by New START.

Explanation

The article quotes a joint statement by former officials warning that the end of New START could lead to 'a new era of unconstrained nuclear competition'. UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres also highlighted the increased risk of nuclear weapon use. This is the core strategic implication of the treaty's lapse.