9 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly's Joint Report of the Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other Than Assam) and the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas Sub-Committee was chaired by Gopinath Bordoloi and A. V. Thakkar. This report is a key historical document influencing the Fifth and Sixth Schedules and the concept of special provisions for distinct regions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 371A grants special status to Nagaland, protecting its religious & social practices, customary law, and land resources. Statement 2 is correct: Article 371F contains special provisions for Sikkim following its accession. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 371I, applicable to Goa, only specifies the minimum strength of its Legislative Assembly (40 members). It does not contain comprehensive environmental safeguards, which is the core demand in the article.

Explanation

Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1961 and became a Union Territory. The 1967 Opinion Poll rejected its merger with Maharashtra. It was finally granted statehood on 30th May 1987, under the prime ministership of Rajiv Gandhi. This is a crucial static GK fact often asked.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that India's Constitution already has a mechanism (Article 371 series) to accommodate states with distinct geography, livelihoods, and culture. It cites examples like Nagaland and Sikkim. For Goa, its fragile coastal ecology, Comunidade systems, and demographic pressures necessitate similar special governance tools to prevent irreversible damage, thus applying the principle of asymmetric federalism.

Explanation

Article 280 of the Constitution mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier. It defines its composition and duties, which include recommending the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The FNTA was created by a tripartite agreement between ENPO, Nagaland Govt, and MHA. The agreement explicitly states it does not affect Article 371(A). Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the news: FNTA covers six districts (Tuensang, Mon, Kiphire, Longleng, Noklak, Shamator) and involves devolution of 46 subjects.

Explanation

The news states that following the interim agreement, Washington lowered tariffs on India to 18% from the 50% imposed in August 2025. The 50% comprised a 25% reciprocal tariff and a 25% penal tariff for purchasing Russian arms and crude.

Explanation

The RBI's proposal aims to create a framework to compensate customers up to Rs. 25,000 for losses incurred in small-value fraudulent digital transactions, even in cases where the customer may have shared an OTP. This is primarily a consumer protection measure to build trust in digital payments.

Explanation

The judgment was based on the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, specifically Articles 14 (equality), 15 & 16 (prohibition of discrimination), and 21 (right to life and personal liberty).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the court's observation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the judgment extensively relied on constitutional provisions (Articles 14, 15, 16, 21). Statement 3 is correct as the court levied a Rs 500 per day penalty.

Explanation

The Orissa High Court directed that a delay beyond eight weeks would attract an additional levy of Rs 500 per day, payable to the petitioner and recoverable from the erring officials.

Explanation

The judgment's core significance lies in its strong reaffirmation of the constitutional principle of equality (Articles 14-16). It strikes down an artificial classification based on marital status for daughters, terming it discriminatory and unconstitutional.

Explanation

The Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a central sector scheme administered by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). KVIC is a statutory body under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, established by an Act of Parliament.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The mandate is for collateral-free loans up to ₹20 lakh. Banks may, based on internal policy, increase this limit to ₹25 lakh, but it is not a blanket mandate for all MSEs. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the RBI circular explicitly states that accepting voluntarily pledged gold/silver will not be construed as a violation.

Explanation

The RBI amendment has enhanced the limit for collateral-free loans to MSEs from the previous ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh. While banks can internally raise it to ₹25 lakh, the mandated enhanced limit is specifically ₹20 lakh.

Explanation

As stated by the RBI Governor, the core objective is to 'facilitate improved access to formal credit, support entrepreneurial activity and strengthen last mile credit delivery for MSEs with limited collateral.' The other options are not the primary goals of this specific policy measure.

Explanation

NHSRCL is the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) incorporated in 2016 specifically to finance, construct, maintain, and manage India's high-speed rail corridors. While the Railway Board provides policy direction, NHSRCL is the dedicated implementing agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the estimated cost is Rs 16 lakh crore, not Rs 18 lakh crore (a classic data trap). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Surat-Billimora stretch becoming operational by August 15, 2027.

Explanation

The article states the cost has almost doubled to Rs 1.98 lakh crore from an initial estimate of Rs 1.08 lakh crore. Option A is the old estimate, making it a common distractor. Options B and D are plausible but incorrect figures.

Explanation

The directive aims to fast-track the Detailed Project Report (DPR) stage, which is crucial for feasibility studies, approvals, and financing. This creates a project pipeline, signaling serious intent for network expansion beyond the first corridor. The other options are either not the primary objective or are inaccurate exaggerations of the plan.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India, established under Article 324, is responsible for conducting elections and revising electoral rolls nationwide, including Special Intensive Revisions (SIR). State Election Commissions handle local body elections, not parliamentary or assembly rolls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC highlighted the software's inability to fathom natural differences like 'Roy' vs 'Ray'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the extension was by one week, not two weeks. Statement 3 is correct as the Court asked EC to deploy 8,505 fresh personnel. Hence, option C is accurate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Court asked the EC to deploy a fresh batch of 8,505 personnel provided by the West Bengal government for SIR work. Other options are close distractors often used in exams to test attention to detail.

Explanation

The SC specifically noted that the tools are 'very restrictive' and eliminate 'natural differences' like surname variations ('Roy' vs 'Ray') and middle names ('Kumar') common in Bengali households, leading to unjustified notices and potential voter exclusion.

Explanation

The Finance Ministry is the nodal ministry for banking sector policies and data related to the financial health of banks. While the RBI collects and regulates banking data, the official announcement citing the data was made by the Finance Ministry, as per the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The data is for September 30, 2025 (as on Sept. 2025), not the end of FY 2024-25 (March 2025). Statement 2 is incorrect as the article clarifies that RBI does NOT collect Gross NPA data on a monthly basis. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article provides a clear breakdown: Gross NPA ratio for SCBs was 2.15%, for PSBs was 2.50%, for Private Sector Banks (PVBs) was 1.73%, and for Foreign Banks was 0.80%. The question specifically asks for PSBs, making 2.50% the correct answer.

Explanation

The article directly states that the decline in NPAs has 'led to reduced provisioning by them, which in turn has improved their profitability'. This is a direct cause-and-effect relationship. The other options are not mentioned as direct impacts in the context of this news.

Explanation

Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) is implemented by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Its objective is to provide Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct as mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Jal Jeevan Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), meaning its cost is shared between the Centre and States, not fully funded by the Union Government.

Explanation

The article specifically states that about 1,131 kilometers of roads were damaged during the pipeline laying work in Mahoba district. 572 km is the pipeline laid in Chitrakoot, 576 km is the total planned pipeline there, and 544 is the number of villages covered in Banda.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes how women had to walk long distances for water, which was a major hardship. The tap connection has ended this drudgery, saving time, improving health, and enhancing dignity. While other options might be indirect benefits, the primary and highlighted impact is on women's empowerment.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically directed the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to consider the SOPs of RBI and DoT and come up with a draft MoU. MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security, including cybercrime coordination.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court asked the Centre (in consultation with RBI, banks, DoT) to draft the SOP, not RBI unilaterally. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the news report.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the amount siphoned off by digital fraud is more than the budgets of many small states.' This is a direct data point for factual recall.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Supreme Court also asked the RBI, the DoT and others to jointly hold a meeting to come up with a framework for providing compensation in digital arrest cases.' This highlights the victim-centric and restorative justice angle of the directive.

Explanation

INCOIS, headquartered in Hyderabad, is the autonomous institution under the Ministry of Earth Sciences mandated to provide ocean information and advisory services, including operating the ITEWC. IMD handles weather, NIOT focuses on ocean tech, and NDMA is the apex body for disaster management policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the RSC is planned at Vijaynagar, Swaraj Dweep. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the new system aims to detect tsunamis from non-seismic causes (landslides, volcanoes) as well. Statement 3 is correct; 270-km sub-sea cables are proposed to overcome limitations of buoys.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions laying 270-km-long sub-sea cables along the subduction zone. The other options are close distractors. Remembering exact figures like project cost (Rs 300 crore) and cable length is crucial for Prelims.

Explanation

The article states the RSC will be a tsunami-related coordination centre and will offer services to partnering countries like Sri Lanka. This enhances regional disaster preparedness and positions India as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean Region, aligning with SAGAR policy. Other options, while relevant to the islands, are not the stated primary objective of the RSC.

Explanation

The policy, planning, and development of Indian Railways, including approval of new projects, falls under the purview of the Ministry of Railways. Other ministries handle their respective infrastructure domains.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article specifies the Jharkhand project is under South Eastern Railway (SER). Statement 2 is incorrect: The primary purpose of Electronic Interlocking (EI) is to enhance safety and operational efficiency on high-density routes, not specifically to increase Rajdhani speeds. Statement 3 is correct: The Rajpura Bypass Line's objective is to provide direct connectivity to the DFC station and bypass the congested yard.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Railways approved projects worth around Rs 2,414 crore. The other figures are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the report.

Explanation

The core theme of all approved projects is decongestion and capacity augmentation. The Alappuzha project specifically removes a 'critical single-line constraint,' enabling more trains and freight. While automation (via EI) is a means, the primary objective is capacity enhancement, not workforce reduction or privatization.

Explanation

The news article explicitly mentions the 'Madras High Court' orders. The Madras High Court has jurisdiction over Tamil Nadu, where Madurai district is located. Its principal seat is in Chennai with a bench in Madurai.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court did not make any declaration on the essentiality of namaz; it only refused to entertain the petition. Statement 2 is incorrect: The SC 'refused to entertain' the challenge, which is not the same as actively 'upholding' the order; it let the HC order stand by default. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'The Supreme Court... refused to entertain a challenge...'

Explanation

The article states: 'The October 10, 2025 order was passed by a third judge...' June 24, 2025 is when the Division Bench gave a split view. August 25, 1923 is the date of the historic civil court decree. February 9, 2026 is the news publication date.

Explanation

The petition specifically cited violations of Article 25 (freedom of conscience and profession of faith) and Article 26 (denominational right to manage its own religious affairs). While Articles 14 and 21 were also mentioned in the petition, the core legal challenge was framed around the freedom of religion provisions.

Explanation

As per the government's affidavit in the Delhi High Court, the PM CARES Fund is registered as a Public Charitable Trust under the Registration Act, 1908. It is not created under the Constitution or any specific parliamentary law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The leaders welcomed the establishment of a Strategic Affairs Working Group (SAWG). Statement 2 is incorrect: The pact aims to integrate India's semiconductor DESIGN capabilities with Malaysia's MANUFACTURING and packaging strengths. Statement 3 is correct: The joint statement unequivocally condemned terrorism in all forms, including cross-border terrorism.

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh borrowed at an average yield of 7.66% in February 2026. The option 7.15% was the rate from a year ago (Feb 2025), 6.73% is the yield for 10-year Government of India securities, and 5.25% is the current RBI repo rate.

Explanation

The 'crowding out' effect occurs when large government borrowings increase demand for loanable funds, leading to higher interest rates. This makes borrowing more expensive for the private sector, potentially stifling private investment and economic growth, as highlighted in the article's analysis of rising state bond yields.

Explanation

The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is the apex body on security matters and is chaired by the Prime Minister. It considers and approves all major defence purchases and strategic issues.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the IAF has 29 squadrons against a sanctioned strength of 42. Statement 2 is correct; the MMRCA tender was withdrawn in June 2015. Statement 3 is correct; the MRFA deal insists on 60% domestic production value.

Explanation

The sanctioned strength of the IAF is 42 fighter squadrons, which is considered necessary for a two-front war scenario. The current strength is 29 squadrons, highlighting a significant deficit.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that expanding the Rafale fleet provides the fastest route to bridge the capability gap due to existing infrastructure, training, and maintenance ecosystems. Commonality reduces logistical burden and costs, enabling quicker operational deployment.

Explanation

The CBI is India's premier investigating agency, often entrusted with sensitive and high-profile cases by the courts or governments. In the Unnao case, the Supreme Court had transferred the investigation to the CBI to ensure an impartial probe.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The SC refused bail, it did not grant it. Statement 2 is correct: The Court noted he had served '9 years and 7 months'. Statement 3 is correct: On December 29, 2025, the SC stayed the Delhi HC's December 23, 2025 order suspending his rape sentence.

Explanation

Senior Advocate Siddhartha Dave, appearing for Sengar, explicitly stated before the Supreme Court bench that 'Nine years and seven months completed out of a term of 10 years.' This precise data point is crucial for prelims.

Explanation

The Supreme Court bench pointed out that Sengar 'is also undergoing life imprisonment in the rape case as well.' This concurrent sentence for a heinous crime was a significant factor weighing against suspending his sentence and granting bail in the connected custodial death case.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the 'Karnataka Education Department Services (Department of Public Instruction) (Recruitment) (Amendment) Rules, 2026'. In many states, the Department of Public Instruction handles school education and teacher recruitment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The total weightage of 0.90 is for the competitive examination alone (0.70) and TET (0.20) separately, not combined for both. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: weightage for a four-year degree is 0.10, and the gazette was issued on January 21, 2026.

Explanation

The article states: 'The draft proposes to give 0.70 weightage to the marks obtained in the competitive examination for candidates with a four-year teacher education degree, 0.20 to the marks obtained in the TET, and 0.10 weightage to the marks obtained in the four-year degree.'

Explanation

The core criticism from aspirants and the article's angle is that by giving minimal weightage (0.10) to B.Ed./D.Ed. courses, the policy devalues formal teacher training. This could result in recruiting candidates who are good at exams but may lack essential classroom teaching skills and child psychology understanding.

Explanation

The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal basis for conducting the decadal census in India. The news article explicitly states the notification was issued in exercise of powers under this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions collection of data on internet facilities and mobile phones. Statement 2 is incorrect; data on religion and mother tongue are collected during the Population Enumeration phase, not Houselisting. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the notification was issued by Financial Commissioner and State Nodal Officer for Census 2027, Dr. Sumita Misra. This is a specific data point for prelims.

Explanation

The inclusion of new parameters like digital connectivity and assets reflects the need to measure modern development indicators. This enriched data helps in designing and evaluating policies related to digital inclusion, poverty, and standard of living, making planning more evidence-based.

Explanation

START treaties are a series of bilateral agreements between the United States and the Soviet Union (later the Russian Federation). They form the cornerstone of post-Cold War nuclear arms control between the two largest nuclear weapon states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Trump approach BREAKS from the tradition of binding treaties, emphasizing unconstrained deterrence instead. Statement 3 is correct as it directly reflects the article's analysis on arms racing and pressure on allies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) had capped US and Russian arsenals at 1,550 deployed strategic warheads and 700 deployed delivery systems." The other numbers are close distractors.

Explanation

The core argument of the article is that the US under Trump is moving away from the classical arms control model (treaty-based limits) to a model emphasizing unilateral advantage and flexible force postures. This represents a fundamental shift in the approach to managing great-power nuclear relations.

Explanation

The FRBM Act, amended in 2018, provides the legal framework for setting debt and fiscal deficit targets for the Central and State Governments in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: RBI cut repo rate from 6.5% to 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: 10-year G-Sec yields rose from 6.66% to 6.73%. Statement 3 is correct: States' debt-GDP is 29.2%, above the 20% target.

Explanation

The article states net foreign capital inflows were only about $18 billion in 2024-25, a sharp drop from the earlier average of over $75 billion annually. $8.6 billion was for April-September 2025, and $3.1 billion was FPI outflow in 2026 so far.

Explanation

The 'Crowding Out Effect' occurs when increased public sector spending (financed by borrowing) raises interest rates, making it more expensive for the private sector to borrow and invest, thereby 'crowding out' private investment.

Explanation

The notification was issued by the DPIIT, which is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to industry, internal trade, and startups in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Deep tech startups have an extended age limit of 20 years and a turnover limit of ₹300 crore, not 10 years/₹200 crore. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the DPIIT notification.

Explanation

The notification extends the turnover limit for deep tech startups to ₹300 crore, compared to ₹200 crore for regular startups. This recognizes their longer path to commercial viability.

Explanation

The policy views deep tech as critical for securing India's economic future, achieving 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' (technological sovereignty), and fostering a transition from a labor-intensive to a knowledge-driven economy.

Explanation

PMNRF was established in January 1948 with the primary objective of assisting displaced persons from Pakistan after the Partition. Its scope was later expanded to cover victims of various natural calamities and accidents.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has noted that PM CARES, being a public charitable trust, is not subject to statutory audit by the CAG. It is audited by an independent auditor.

Explanation

Article 267 of the Constitution provides for the Contingency Fund of India. The corpus of this fund, as authorized by Parliament, presently stands at ₹30,000 crore. It is an imprest fund for urgent unforeseen expenditure.

Explanation

The PMO cited Lok Sabha Rules 41(2)(viii) and (xvii), arguing that these funds are not primarily the government's concern as their corpus is made entirely from voluntary public contributions and not from any allocation out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the commitment was by the Reserve Bank of India and Bank Negara Malaysia. Bank Negara Malaysia is the central bank of Malaysia, a key static GK fact for international relations and economy sections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MIDC was formalised. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was India's UPI (operated by NIPL) that was integrated with Malaysia's PayNet, not the other way around. This is a classic examiner trap swapping the systems. Statement 3 is correct as the SAWG was established.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "A million Indians visited Malaysia... in 2024." This is a precise data point often asked in Prelims. The close distractor '750,000' tests if the candidate read carefully.

Explanation

The article states the Su-30 Forum was established "since both nations operate the Russian-origin Sukhoi jets" showing a "pragmatic military synergy." The objective is leveraging common platforms for training, maintenance, and enhanced interoperability, a practical application of defence diplomacy. Other options are either not mentioned or are extreme interpretations.

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security, law and order, and negotiations with insurgent groups in states like Manipur and Nagaland. The article specifically mentions sources in the MHA discussing the deal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's explanation of Article 371A. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371C does NOT grant such broad legislative veto power; it focuses on committee-based oversight. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the deal is being modelled on the FNTA pact, which is under Article 371A.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the FNTA deal was signed 'with the Eastern Nagaland Peoples’ Organisation (ENPO)'. This tests precise recall of the entity involved in the analogous agreement.

Explanation

The article clarifies that the deal 'will fall short of the Kuki-Zo demand for a separate administration' but aims to meet demands for autonomy. The core objective is enhanced self-governance within the existing state framework, not secession or merger.

Explanation

The rehabilitation scheme for bonded labourers falls under the purview of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The Ministry of Home Affairs deals with law and order, while Social Justice and Empowerment focuses on welfare schemes for SC/STs, and Rural Development handles rural employment programs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The BLSA prescribes punishment up to three years. Statement 2 is correct: Data from the Ministry of Labour and NCRB indicates over 90% of victims are from SC/ST communities. Statement 3 is incorrect: The immediate cash assistance is Rs. 30,000, not Rs. 50,000.

Explanation

The expert, Dr. Tina Kuriakose Jacob, states that only around 3 lakh people have been released and rehabilitated from bonded labour in the nearly 50 years since the Act came into force, based on Government of India data from 1978 to 2025.

Explanation

The core legal ingredients of bonded labour involve a clear advance/debt and a compulsion to work under that obligation. In the gig economy, where workers use multiple apps and relationships are mediated digitally, proving such a traditional, direct relationship for legal purposes is challenging, creating a complexity for enforcement.

Explanation

Articles 233 and 234 of the Constitution deal with the appointment of district judges and other judicial officers. The High Court is consulted and plays a key role in the selection process, as seen in this news where the Kerala High Court completed the selection.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: She is set to be the first visually challenged woman judge in Kerala, not necessarily in all of India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which mentions the 2025 Supreme Court judgment by Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 24-year-old Ms. Nathan secured first rank in her LLB. This is a precise data point often tested in prelims.

Explanation

The SC judgment held that people with disabilities "should not face any discrimination" and that there should be "affirmative action" for an inclusive framework. This directly reinforces the principles embedded in the RPWD Act, 2016.

Explanation

The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating India's foreign trade policy and conducting bilateral/multilateral trade negotiations, including FTAs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: CBAM is a point of difference in the EU negotiations, but the article notes its 'absence in the US FTA negotiations', implying it was a topic but not necessarily a provision of the final EU FTA. The core point is the difference. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; a key success highlighted is that both deals shield imports of agri and dairy products to India.

Explanation

The article states: "$75 billion of Indian exports to the EU are poised for take-off". $33 billion is the subset within labor-intensive sectors, $118 billion is the US textile market, and $500 billion is the planned Indian imports from the US.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "This will diversify our capital goods imports from China." While other options might be incidental benefits, diversification from China is the stated primary objective in the context of the new trade deal.

Explanation

In the US system, an Executive Order is a directive issued by the President to manage federal operations. The article specifically mentions the 'U.S. President' issuing the separate Executive Order on February 6.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article text. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states 'there is no reciprocal commitment'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the detailed analysis of the Executive Order.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The share of Russian Urals oil in India’s total crude oil imports rose from below 2% in 2020-21 to over 35% in 2024-25.' This is a crucial data point highlighting India's energy dependence shift.

Explanation

The core critique is the inequality of the deal's premise. The article questions 'Why has the Indian government made commitments towards "reciprocal and balanced trade" with a much larger and richer economy?' noting the US GDP is seven times larger.

Explanation

The Kaladan project connects Kolkata port to Sittwe port in Myanmar and then via the Kaladan river and a road to Mizoram in India's northeast. Its primary objective is to provide an alternative connectivity route to the landlocked north-eastern states, reducing dependency on the Siliguri Corridor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. India has NOT officially recognized the election results. Statement 2 is correct, as reiterated by MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal. Statement 3 is correct; the meeting took place during the SCO summit in August 2025, where bilateral ties were reviewed.

Explanation

The junta claimed an overall voter turnout of around 55% (roughly 13.14 million of 24 million eligible voters). This is a sharp decline from the roughly 70% turnout recorded in the more credible 2015 and 2020 elections, indicating widespread rejection.

Explanation

The article specifically highlights the rapid expansion of cyber scam centres and cyber slavery networks in Myanmar's border conflict zones as an emerging non-traditional security challenge. Over 2,165 Indians have been rescued from these since 2022. This, along with narcotics trafficking, results from weakened border controls and fragmented authority in Myanmar.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Railway Board has directed the National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) to revise the DPRs. NHSRCL is the dedicated SPV for planning and implementing high-speed rail projects in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the projected investment is approximately Rs. 16 lakh crore, not Rs. 10 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct, as the Railway Board directed the formation of dedicated core teams.

Explanation

Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw stated that the seven high-speed corridors span nearly 4,000 kms. Memorizing exact figures like this is crucial for Prelims.

Explanation

The article states the move aims 'to estimate current costs and overall project completion expenses to ensure accurate assessment.' DPR revisions are standard practice to update cost estimates, especially after initial announcements, to reflect current market prices.