10 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states that support for setting up content creation labs will be extended through the Indian Institute of Creative Technologies (IICT), Mumbai. IICT will help design the infrastructure, curriculum frameworks, and training modules for the AVGC labs in schools and colleges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the government plans to set up labs in around 15,000 secondary schools and 500 colleges. Statement 2 is incorrect; the initiative aims to integrate AVGC skills into the education system, not replace core subjects. Statement 3 is correct: the article cites the rapid expansion of the AVGC sector projected to require nearly two million professionals by 2030.

Explanation

The article quotes an expert, Mr. Mustafa, stating that computer systems capable of handling visual effects software typically cost between ₹1.25 lakh and ₹2 lakh per unit. This highlights the significant infrastructure investment required for the AVGC labs initiative.

Explanation

The core objective, as analyzed in the article, is to address the skill gap and build a stronger talent pipeline for the AVGC sector, which is projected to generate nearly 2 million jobs by 2030. This aims to strengthen India's 'orange economy' and its international competitiveness in creative industries, not to replace other fields or focus on manufacturing.

Explanation

Article 341 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify, by public notification, the castes, races or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes in relation to a state or union territory. Article 342 is for Scheduled Tribes, Article 338 deals with the National Commission for SCs, and Article 366 contains definitions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the verdict was delivered by a 7-judge Constitution Bench, not a 5-judge bench. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2024 verdict overruled the 2004 E V Chinnaiah judgment. Statement 3 is correct as the majority judgment did endorse applying the creamy layer principle to SCs and STs for equitable distribution of benefits.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the seven-judge Constitution Bench presided by then CJI D Y Chandrachud delivered its 6:1 majority ruling on August 1, 2024. The other dates are significant constitutional days or dates of other judgments but are distractors in this context.

Explanation

The core legal reasoning, as mentioned in the article, is that 'empirical evidence indicates inequality even within Scheduled Castes' and sub-classification is 'necessary to achieve substantive equality'. The verdict does not deal with the 50% cap (option A), nor does it delegate the power under Article 341 (option B). It actually allows diversity in state policies, not uniformity (option D).

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to formally adopt and implement the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) dated January 2, 2026. The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security, law and order, and policing, which includes coordination on cybercrime matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CJI explicitly called it "absolute robbery, dacoity". Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court criticized banks and said courts have become their recovery agents, not the NCLT specifically. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court directed that rules be notified in three weeks, not six weeks.

Explanation

The Supreme Court noted that while one estimate suggested over Rs 25,000 crore, a specific figure sent to it talked of "54,000-plus crore" of hardened money taken away. This is the higher and more specific figure highlighted in the news.

Explanation

Mule Hunter is an AI tool developed by the RBI to identify accounts used as 'mules' for laundering money from cyber frauds like digital arrests. The Court discussion centered on expanding such AI tools to include velocity checks for real-time fraud prevention.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's ruling specifically addressed apprehensions about adverse action by the University Grants Commission (UGC), which is the statutory body established by the UGC Act, 1956, for coordinating and maintaining standards of university education in India. The NMC regulates medical education, but the UGC's approval was the procedural hurdle cited.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court ordered payment for the specified internship period. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court explicitly shielded colleges from any adverse UGC action for disbursing stipends pursuant to judicial directions. Statement 3 is correct as the bench consisted of Justices Aravind Kumar and Prasanna B Varale. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Indian Medical Graduates (IMGs) at JN Medical College of AMU were being paid a stipend of Rs 26,300 per month. The Foreign Medical Graduates (FMGs) were seeking parity with this exact amount, which the Supreme Court granted.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the principle of 'equal work for equal pay' and non-discrimination between Indian Medical Graduates and Foreign Medical Graduates who are both Indian citizens performing identical duties. This directly falls under Article 14's guarantee of equality. While other articles are relevant, the ruling's foundation is preventing arbitrary discrimination, making Article 14 the primary principle.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry responsible for the Information Technology Act, 2000, and its associated rules, including the Intermediary Guidelines. It issued the gazette notification for these amendments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions that routine editing and good-faith educational work are excluded from the definition. Statement 2 is incorrect because the takedown deadline has been reduced from 36 hours to 3 hours. Statement 3 is correct as the order mandates platforms to deploy automated tools to prevent illegal AI content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The new rules will come into effect from February 20 this year.' February 10 is the publication date of the news, and the other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The minister's quote in the article emphasizes that mandatory labelling ensures 'users get to know whether something is synthetic or real' and that 'once users know, they can take a call in a democracy.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle (SPV) specifically created for developing and implementing High-Speed Rail projects in India, like the Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor. The Railway Board provides policy direction, but NHSRCL is the executing agency for HSR projects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the line operates at 108% utilization. Statement 2 is incorrect: The EI systems are approved for routes "where Kavach is being rolled out," implying implementation is ongoing, not completed. Statement 3 is correct: The Rajpura bypass is explicitly mentioned to enhance capacity on the Ambala–Jalandhar section.

Explanation

The article clearly states the cost of electronic interlocking (EI) at 34 stations is Rs 421.41 crore. Rs 292.24 crore is the cost for 21 stations in Delhi Division, a subset. Rs 324.16 crore and Rs 411.96 crore are costs for other projects (Alappuzha–Ambalapuzha doubling and Rajpura bypass line respectively).

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bypass line will provide immediate benefits "by eliminating engine reversal at Palakkad Junction." This operational improvement reduces detention times significantly (40-44 minutes for passengers). While it eases congestion, its core design purpose is to solve the specific operational bottleneck of engine reversal.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324. It supervises, directs, and controls the entire process of preparing electoral rolls and conducting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Form 7 is for objections on specified grounds. Statement 2 is incorrect: In 2022, the EC amended Form 7 to allow any voter in the constituency to object, not just those from the same booth. Statement 3 is correct: Section 32 of the RPA, 1950 prescribes punishment for false declarations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the names of 6.5 crore electors were removed from the draft rolls of nine States and three Union Territories during the ongoing Special Intensive Revision. This is a crucial data point highlighting the scale of the issue.

Explanation

The core concern, as stated in the article, is that unchecked misuse of Form 7 for mass deletions could result in the disenfranchisement of lakhs of voters, especially from backward and marginalized communities, undermining the fairness of the electoral process.

Explanation

The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing India's foreign trade policy and negotiating bilateral and multilateral trade agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; India agreed to 'eliminate or reduce' tariffs on a wide range of US agricultural products, not 'eliminate all'. Statement 3 is correct as the deal includes working on economic security and supply chains.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India agreed to buy more goods from the United States, 'with purchases over $500 billion'. The other figures are plausible distractors given the scale of US-India trade.

Explanation

The article directly links the US decision to remove the 25% tariff to 'India's commitment to stop purchasing Russian oil'. This highlights the interconnection between trade policy and broader geopolitical energy security objectives.

Explanation

The EPA is the primary federal agency responsible for creating and enforcing regulations under the Clean Air Act, which includes the Endangerment Finding and its potential repeal. The Department of Energy's advisory group was involved but the regulatory authority lies with EPA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The repeal specifically targets vehicle standards and does not apply to stationary sources like power plants. Statement 2 is incorrect: API supported repeal for vehicles but wanted it kept for stationary sources to avoid mandatory methane rules. Statement 3 is correct as per the article dated January 30, 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the proposal 'got over a half a million public comments.' This high number indicates significant public engagement and controversy surrounding the policy change.

Explanation

The Endangerment Finding is the scientific trigger that obligates the EPA to regulate GHGs under the Clean Air Act. Its repeal dismantles this legal requirement, directly impacting rules for new vehicles first, as confirmed by administration officials in the article.

Explanation

The Ministry of Power is the nodal ministry for the power sector, including transmission. While MNRE handles renewable energy generation, the evacuation infrastructure (including ISTS) falls under the purview of the Ministry of Power and its central public sector undertaking, POWERGRID.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article mentions delays are due to land acquisition AND clearances (including forest, environmental, and GIB zones), not just RoW. Statement 2 is correct as explicitly stated. Statement 3 is correct, as highlighted by the MNRE Secretary regarding renewable energy curtailment.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "Till November, India’s total installed renewable capacity stood at 253.96 GW." 205.52 GW is the capacity in November 2024 (previous year). 44.51 GW is the capacity added in the current financial year till November, and 24.72 GW is the capacity added in the same period last year.

Explanation

The core implication is 'curtailment'—where renewable energy generated cannot be transmitted and is therefore wasted. The MNRE Secretary explicitly links this to the mismatch between project commissioning and transmission building. The other options are indirect or not the primary immediate consequence discussed.

Explanation

The Hong Kong Basic Law, enacted by China's National People's Congress, is the constitutional document for the Hong Kong SAR. It legally implements the 'One Country, Two Systems' framework agreed upon in the Sino-British Joint Declaration, which was an international treaty but not Hong Kong's domestic constitution.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are factually correct as per the news article. Statement 3 is incorrect and a common trap. The Hong Kong National Security Law allows for mainland Chinese authorities to exercise jurisdiction over certain cases and establish security agencies in Hong Kong, meaning oversight is not solely with the local judiciary.

Explanation

The article explicitly states Jimmy Lai was sentenced to 20 years in prison, describing it as the harshest sentence for a national security offence in Hong Kong so far. The other options are plausible distractors for different charges or lesser sentences.

Explanation

The core objective, as analyzed in the article, is part of Beijing's campaign to tighten control over Hong Kong, silence opposition, and prevent perceived foreign influence, under the umbrella of safeguarding national security. This aligns with President Xi Jinping's focus on internal unity and control, rather than economic or cultural openness in this context.

Explanation

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, while the Secretariat processes questions, the final decision on admissibility rests with the Speaker. This upholds the independence of the legislature from the executive.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PMNRF was set up in 1948 for Partition refugees. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NDF IS under the RTI Act, as stated in the article. Statement 3 is correct: PM CARES was created as a public charitable trust for emergencies like Covid-19. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The next hearing in the PM CARES case is on April 1.' This is a precise data point often tested in prelims. Memorizing specific dates related to ongoing judicial processes is crucial.

Explanation

The core issue is the executive (PMO) attempting to limit the oversight power of the legislature (Parliament). This directly implicates the separation of powers, a fundamental constitutional doctrine that ensures checks and balances between different branches of government.

Explanation

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is the apex body under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, responsible for administering direct tax laws in India, including framing rules under the Income-tax Act. The news explicitly states 'The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has floated the draft rules.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: cash deposit threshold is now Rs 10 lakh per financial year. Statement 2 is incorrect because the list has been expanded to include Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, and Hyderabad IN ADDITION to the existing four (Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai). Statement 3 is correct as the draft fixes the perquisite value for free meals at Rs 200 per meal.

Explanation

The draft rules propose raising the threshold for PAN quoting in immovable property transactions to Rs 20 lakh, which is nearly double the existing limit of Rs 10 lakh. This is a key data point for prelims. The other options are distractors: Rs 5 lakh is for motor vehicles, and Rs 10 lakh is the old limit.

Explanation

The core objective is 'ease of living' and reducing unnecessary compliance for common citizens and businesses. The old limits (like Rs 50,000 per day for cash deposit) were seen as outdated and causing harassment. The hike aims to de-clutter the system, allowing tax authorities to focus on high-value transactions while simplifying life for ordinary taxpayers.

Explanation

NSDC is a public-private partnership under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). While initially set up under the Ministry of Finance, its administrative control was transferred to MSDE. This is a key static GK point for polity and governance sections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: CAG audited three phases from 2015-22 covering Rs 14,450 crore. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions a sample survey revealed 36% of emails were undelivered. Statement 3 is also correct: it is learnt that an internal audit has been initiated. All facts are directly from the provided text.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CAG audit covered 'a combined target of training and certifying 1.32 crore candidates'. This is a precise data point often targeted in Prelims. The other options are plausible distractors based on common skilling mission targets.

Explanation

The news core revolves around alleged fund misappropriation, illegal appointments, and audit findings of fake beneficiaries and non-payments in a major government scheme (PMKVY). This directly points to failures in financial oversight, internal controls, and accountability mechanisms in the implementation of public-funded welfare schemes, a recurring theme in governance questions.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence for capital procurement approvals. It is chaired by the Defence Minister. The DPB is a lower-level body that evaluates proposals, while the CCS gives final political clearance on major defence deals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the procurement is under DAP 2020, not 2016, and DAP 2020 specifically waives offset obligations for Inter-Governmental Agreements. Statement 3 is correct, detailing the current fleet strength and acquisition history.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the DAC meeting is scheduled for February 12, 2026. January 16 is the date the Defence Procurement Board cleared it. February 2 is when the US-India trade deal was announced, and February 10 is the article's publication date.

Explanation

DAP 2020 removed the offset clause requirement for procurements made through Inter-Governmental Agreements (IGAs). This is a key feature that simplifies and speeds up such strategic deals, as highlighted in the article. The news states there is no technology transfer or co-production involved, and CCS approval is still required.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India, vesting it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Article 315 establishes the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), making it a common distractor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court asked the ECI to 'consider' the suggestions, not to 'implement' them immediately. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the petitioner sought a re-examination of the cap and a plan against erring candidates. Statement 3 is correct: the ECI's defense mentioned the use of independent expenditure observers from the All India Services.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court hearing took place on Tuesday, February 10, 2026. This is a direct factual recall question testing attention to key dates in current affairs.

Explanation

The core concern of the petition, as stated in the article, is to 'ensure democratic credibility' by addressing excessive election spending. The other options are either not mentioned (revenue, digital payments) or misrepresent the plea, which seeks ECI action, not a transfer of power.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for the Information Technology Act, 2000, and its associated rules. It is responsible for policy matters relating to the internet, information technology, and electronics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new timeline is 3 hours, not 36 hours. Statement 3 is correct as the rules require platforms to deploy automated tools to prevent illegal AI content.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the new rules will come into force from February 20, 2026. February 10, 2026, is the date of notification. The other dates are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The mandatory labelling with permanent metadata aims to make AI-generated content identifiable to users and platforms, thereby increasing transparency about its origin and nature. This helps in accountability and traceability, not surveillance or revenue generation.

Explanation

The report was published by NITI Aayog, the premier policy think tank of the Government of India. While MoEFCC deals with climate policy and MoRTH with transport, the strategic long-term roadmap falls under NITI Aayog's advisory mandate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Net Zero pathway requires about 25% higher investment ($4.3T vs $3.44T), not lower. Statement 3 is correct as the report suggests formalizing ZEV acceleration through 2035 for various vehicle segments.

Explanation

The report clearly states that implementing the Net Zero pathway requires about $4.3 trillion in cumulative investment till 2070. $3.44 trillion is the figure for the Current Policy pathway, making it a key distractor.

Explanation

The report emphasizes that the investment is strategic to prevent the economy from being locked into higher fuel imports, poorer air quality, and rising logistics costs as travel demand grows. While job creation is a benefit, the core rationale is mitigating these long-term macroeconomic risks.

Explanation

The study was released by NITI Aayog, the premier policy think tank of the Government of India. While other ministries are involved in energy policy, NITI Aayog is responsible for strategic long-term planning and vision documents like this one.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the study projects coal's share to decline sharply to 6-10% by 2070, not increase. Statement 3 is correct as the study explicitly states nuclear power's role in providing firm low-carbon electricity and supporting electrolyzers for green hydrogen.

Explanation

The study projects nuclear capacity to reach 295-320 GW by 2070 under the Net Zero Scenario (NZS). The range of 90-135 GW is for the Current Policy Scenario (CPS). The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The study explicitly flags that the rising share of variable renewable energy (VRE) like solar and wind increases intermittency risks for the grid. This is a key structural challenge requiring effective grid management, long-duration storage, and scaling of nuclear for balancing support. The other options, while relevant to energy security, are not the primary challenge highlighted in this specific report.

Explanation

The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal body for formulating and implementing India's foreign trade policy and conducting bilateral/multilateral trade negotiations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the tariff rollback is conditional and linked to India's steps, not permanent or unconditional. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which states relief is linked to 'significant steps' in energy and defence. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article emphasizes 'conditional partnership' and avoiding binary alliances, not an unconditional alliance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the additional US tariffs were imposed 'in response to continued purchases of discounted Russian crude'. This made India's energy choices a point of geopolitical friction.

Explanation

The article argues that autonomy is 'less about distance from power centres than about capability within them' and that economic strength, technological depth, and diversified partnerships generate real strategic choice, whereas isolation does not.

Explanation

The TrackChild portal is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). While the Supreme Court suggested creating another portal under the Home Ministry for better coordination, the existing and operational TrackChild portal falls under MWCD's mandate for child protection schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC explicitly asked the Centre to ascertain the existence of a nationwide or state-specific network. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions that around a dozen states have NOT furnished the required data. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench suggested that rescued children should be interviewed to ascertain responsibility.

Explanation

The article states that on November 18 of the previous year, the Supreme Court voiced concern over a news report claiming that a child goes missing in the country every eight minutes. This statistic highlights the alarming scale of the problem that prompted judicial intervention.

Explanation

The Supreme Court had earlier remarked that the rigorous legal adoption process in India is bound to be flouted, leading people to resort to illegal means to procure children. This insight connects the demand side of child trafficking to systemic hurdles in legal adoption, making option C the most direct and impactful concern highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet Secretariat, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, sent the first set of administrative scorecards. The Cabinet Secretariat is the apex body responsible for coordinating government business, not the PMO or other ministries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the maximum marks (20) are for 'File disposal', not 'Timely completion of projects'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 12 negative marks and 5 discretionary marks awarded by the Cabinet Secretary.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "file disposal carries the maximum marks of 20". This is a direct data point crucial for Prelims. The other options are close distractors based on other parameters mentioned.

Explanation

The core objective is performance assessment and enhancing efficiency through objective metrics. While options A and C might be indirect outcomes, they are not the primary goal. Option D refers to a separate reform initiative (Lateral Entry) and is not the purpose of the scorecards.

Explanation

Article 309 of the Indian Constitution explicitly empowers the appropriate legislature (Parliament for Union services) to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts. The recent amendment for MNS personnel was made under this article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect because the reservation is 10% in Group C and 20% in Group D, not 15% and 25%. Statement 3 is incorrect as the age relaxation is length of service plus three years, not five years.

Explanation

The amended rules specifically provide for a reservation of 20% in Group 'D' Central Government posts for ex-servicemen, which now includes Military Nursing Service veterans. The reservation for Group C posts is 10%.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated by the Defence Ministry, is to strengthen rehabilitation and second-career opportunities for a wider segment of former defence personnel by resolving the eligibility ambiguity for MNS veterans. While other options might be indirect effects, the primary policy focus is on veteran welfare and re-employment.

Explanation

The State Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The RTI Act, 2005, establishes Information Commissions, making option A a common distractor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The SC suggested this for states with LOW pendency, not high pendency. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as per the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions a chart showing State Information Commissions in Jharkhand and Himachal Pradesh have become 'defunct'. The other options include states not mentioned in the context of being defunct.

Explanation

The core argument of the petitioners, as highlighted in the article, is that vacancies render the SICs non-functional, which in turn deters people from filing appeals and effectively nullifies their right to information. While other options might be secondary effects, the primary constitutional concern is the erosion of the right to information.

Explanation

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion to all citizens. This article is central to debates on personal laws, as it protects religious practices while being subject to restrictions based on public order, morality, and health.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC is hearing an appeal against the Kerala HC's October 28, 2022 judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kerala HC actually ruled that khula IS 'directly available' from the Quran and is an absolute right for women. Statement 3 is correct: The bench comprises Justices Sanjay Kumar and K Vinod Chandran, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court will hear the matter next on April 22, 2026. February 2, 2026, is the date when the SC granted leave to appeal. The other dates are not mentioned.

Explanation

The core issue is the interpretation of Islamic law: whether khula grants women an unconditional right to initiate divorce, creating parity with men's talaq rights. The Kerala HC had affirmed this, calling it an 'absolute right' derived from the Quran. The SC's examination will thus have profound implications for gender justice within Muslim personal law.

Explanation

The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 formally defines the position and status of the Leader of Opposition. While the RTI Act, 2005 mentions the LoP as part of the selection committee, the LoP's own statutory basis is the 1977 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Section 12(3) of the RTI Act, 2005. Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee comprises the PM, LoP, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM, not the CJI. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Supreme Court, in the discussed news, refused to direct such disclosure.

Explanation

Section 13 of the RTI Act, 2005 states that the Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier. This is a static fact often asked in prelims.

Explanation

The Court's core reasoning, as reflected in statements like "We can't run a parallel trial," was based on judicial restraint. It indicated trust in the high-level committee and focused its scope on ensuring the process was followed (eligibility, applications) rather than scrutinizing the internal reasoning (dissent) behind the decision.

Explanation

PMKVY is the flagship skill development scheme of the Government of India, implemented under the aegis of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is the implementing agency under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as NSDC is the implementing body for PMKVY. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions that out of the 178 blacklisted entities, 19 were run by Sector Skill Councils (SSCs). Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: "The Government says that about 27.08 lakh candidates across 38 sectors have been trained... under the flagship Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) 4.0." This exact figure is a potential direct data-based question for Prelims.

Explanation

The core issue highlighted is not the policy's intent but its flawed execution. The news details problems like fraudulent records, empty centers, and procedural lapses, pointing to a gap between policy design and ground-level governance—a classic theme in public administration and governance questions for exams like UPSC Mains.