11 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, is the central legislation that recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, including the right to hold and live on the forest land under individual or common occupation for habitation or self-cultivation (granted as 'patta').

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court mandated a 15-day notice period, not 30 days. Statement 2 is correct: The judgment explicitly stated that forest land coming under panchayat areas cannot be an excuse for not evicting. Statement 3 is incorrect: The committee is to be constituted of both forest and revenue officials, not just forest officials.

Explanation

The Chief Minister specifically stated that a total of 1,25,326 bighas of forest land have been cleared of encroachments in the State so far. This is a precise data point from the news.

Explanation

The core implication of the judgment is that it removes legal hurdles (like stays) and provides a clear, time-bound process (via a committee and 15-day notice) for the Assam government to carry out eviction drives in reserved forest areas, thereby streamlining anti-encroachment efforts.

Explanation

The CBDT is the apex body under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, responsible for administering direct tax laws like the Income Tax Act. The news mentions a 2001 CBDT circular that reaffirmed the tax exemption for disability pension.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the exemption originated in 1922. Statement 2 is incorrect; while CBDT issued a circular in 2019 attempting to withdraw it, the Supreme Court stayed it in 2021, so it was not implemented. Statement 3 is correct as per the Finance Bill 2026 proposal detailed in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically states the total defence allocation for 2026-27 was around Rs 7.84 lakh crore. Option B (Rs 1.71 lakh crore) is the outlay for defence pensions, which is a part of the total allocation.

Explanation

Veterans argue that creating a distinction between disabled personnel 'invalided out' and those who 'retire on superannuation' is an arbitrary classification that treats equals unequally, thereby violating Article 14 (Equality before Law). Article 21 (Right to Life with dignity) is also cited, but the primary legal challenge is based on Article 14.

Explanation

The judgment is centered on the Right to Equality (Article 14), the expanded Right to Life including dignity (Article 21), and the Right to Education (Article 21A). The Court linked menstrual hygiene management to these specific articles.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court did not create a new right but interpreted existing rights (Articles 14, 21, 21A). Statement 2 is correct as the judgment explicitly uses substantive equality. Statement 3 is correct as it links the RTE Act provisions to fundamental rights.

Explanation

The judgment specifically constitutionalises the Right to Education Act, 2009. It interprets Sections 3 (free education) and 19 (school infrastructure norms) in light of fundamental rights, stating that education isn't free if girls lack menstrual hygiene facilities.

Explanation

The Court justified its detailed intervention (guidelines on infrastructure, curriculum, etc.) as a necessary 'structural remedy'. This was because of continued executive failure to effectively implement existing schemes, which was detrimental to the fundamental rights of girls.

Explanation

The Supreme Court has interpreted the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 to include the right to health, dignity, and privacy. The recent judgment expands this further to explicitly include menstrual health and hygiene as integral components of a dignified life.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: By recognizing it as part of Article 21, it becomes a fundamental right enforceable against the 'State' as defined in Article 12. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the judgment creates a constitutional imperative, it does not issue a specific mandate for private schools; it obligates the State to take measures. Statement 3 is correct: The article highlights the judgment's context of tackling school dropouts due to lack of clean toilets.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that thousands of girls drop out every year due to a lack of clean, safe toilets with access to running water, linking it directly to menstrual hygiene management. While other options are general educational challenges, the specific context of the judgment and the article focuses on sanitation infrastructure.

Explanation

Fundamental rights under Part III, especially those derived from Article 21, impose a positive duty on the State (as per Article 37) to take necessary legislative and administrative actions to make the right real and effective. This is the core implication, moving beyond mere policy to a justiciable entitlement. Other options misrepresent the scope and effect of the judgment.

Explanation

The CAG is the supreme audit institution of India, established under Article 148 of the Constitution. As mentioned in the news, the CAG audits the Centre's finances and determines the net proceeds (gross tax receipts minus cesses and surcharges), which form the divisible pool for tax devolution to states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 41% devolution is from the 'divisible pool' (gross tax receipts minus cesses & surcharges), not the gross tax revenue. Statement 2 is incorrect. Cesses and surcharges are constitutionally separate (Article 271) and are NOT part of the divisible pool shared with states. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's data.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'This entails an increase of ₹2.7 lakh crore over 2025-26 and is ₹3.78 lakh crore more than the actuals of 2024-25.' Option A is the increase over 2025-26, Option C is the total estimated transfer for 2026-27, and Option D is a distractor based on the devolution percentage.

Explanation

The Minister stated, 'We are also starting the new five-year cycle of the new Finance Commission and therefore the estimates are largely on the recommendations of the 16th Finance Commission.' This indicates the budget's forward-looking nature is tied to the fresh recommendations of the newly constituted 16th Finance Commission for the period 2026-31.

Explanation

The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Ministry of Science and Technology is responsible for promoting biotechnology in India. It oversaw the earlier DBT-National Biopharma Mission and is central to upstream life-science research, as highlighted by experts in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states DST's allocation was cut from ₹8,029.01 crore (BE) to ₹5,661.45 crore (RE) in 2024-25. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states India's GERD has hovered around 0.64-0.7% of GDP for years, which is well below 1%.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Finance Ministry's proposal to upgrade four astronomy facilities at ₹3,500 crore. ₹1,623 crore is the allocation for a set of autonomous institutes including the Indian Institute of Astrophysics. ₹3,000 crore is the amount disbursed so far from a previous ₹1 lakh crore fund promise. ₹20,000 crore is for the Research, Development and Innovation Fund.

Explanation

Experts like Dr. Shahisdhara cautioned that if administered primarily by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, the mission's focus could tilt towards immediate manufacturing and industrial goals (downstream), potentially neglecting the broader ecosystem of basic biological research (upstream) that generates fundamental knowledge and tools.

Explanation

The article states that the Tribal Affairs Ministry gave the reply in the Rajya Sabha, after consulting with the Social Justice Ministry. The nodal ministry for replying to Parliament on this specific query was the Tribal Affairs Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 was a colonial law. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Idate Commission documented over 260 DNT communities that are NOT in SC/ST/OBC lists. Statement 3 is correct: The Idate Commission report was submitted in December 2017.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Idate Commission's December 2017 report counted about 1,200 communities as DNTs. This is a precise data point often asked in prelims.

Explanation

As per the article, DNTs argue that their current classification erases their unique history. A separate census column is a strategic first step to gather concrete population data (which is currently estimated, not counted) and use that evidence to push for a distinct recognition in the future. The other options are potential long-term goals or misrepresentations of the immediate objective.

Explanation

The authority for the EPA to make an 'endangerment finding' stems from the Clean Air Act. The 2007 Supreme Court case Massachusetts v. EPA confirmed that greenhouse gases qualify as 'air pollutants' under this Act, compelling the EPA to determine if they endanger public health.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The endangerment finding was finalized in 2009. Statement 2 is correct: It was issued in response to the 2007 Supreme Court ruling in Massachusetts v. EPA. Statement 3 is incorrect: The finding concluded that the six greenhouse gases DO endanger public health and welfare by driving climate change.

Explanation

The White House Press Secretary stated that repealing the 2009 endangerment finding would 'save the American people $1.3 trillion in crushing regulation.' The other figures are plausible distractors given the scale of such estimates.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that repealing the endangerment finding 'would immediately be accompanied by revoking the requirement for federal greenhouse gas emissions standards for automobiles.' This is a direct, automatic regulatory consequence. Withdrawal from the Paris Agreement is a separate political process, and authority is not fully transferred to states, though they may enact their own rules.

Explanation

The news article explicitly mentions that the judgment was delivered by Justice Gaurang Kanth of the Calcutta High Court. The Supreme Court, while having laid down foundational principles, was not the court in this specific case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court explicitly stated pension is NOT a bounty but a right. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the application of the doctrine of promissory estoppel. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment highlighted that denial of pension is arbitrary and offends Articles 14 and 21.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the widow was seeking pensionary benefits related to the '22 years of service rendered by her late husband'. He was appointed in March 1994 and served until his death in July 2016.

Explanation

The court held that the state, having treated the employee as regular and derived benefit from his 22 years of service, cannot later resile on a technicality. The doctrines of promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation created an enforceable right to pension, making the 'non-sanctioned post' argument invalid.

Explanation

The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating, implementing, and monitoring India's foreign trade policy and negotiating bilateral and multilateral trade agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article explicitly states India has granted NO duty concessions on sensitive agri-products. Statement 2 is correct as TRQs are used for limited access. Statement 3 is correct as the Commerce Secretary stated the target is before March 2026.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that US agricultural exports to India were $1.6 billion in 2024. The other figures are distractors. Knowing precise trade data is crucial for Prelims questions on international economics.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated by the Commerce Secretary, is to protect Indian farmers, fishermen, and dairy producers whose livelihoods depend on these sectors. Agriculture in India is primarily a livelihood issue, unlike in developed nations where it is corporatized.

Explanation

Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Supreme Court and every High Court to designate an advocate with outstanding merit as a Senior Advocate. The Bar Council regulates the profession but does not confer this designation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the guidelines give effect to the May 2025 judgment ending the 100-point system. Statement 2 is incorrect; the minimum age is 45 years and it can be relaxed by the Full Court. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The guidelines specify eligibility requires at least 10 years of experience as an advocate or a combined standing of 10 years as an advocate and a District and Sessions Judge or as a judicial member of any tribunal.

Explanation

The core change is moving to a qualitative assessment built around 'ability, standing at the Bar or special knowledge or experience in law' to address criticisms of the previous point-based system being opaque and potentially biased. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The NIA is a central agency established under the NIA Act, 2008, and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which is responsible for internal security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Calcutta High Court left it open to the Central Government (not State) to investigate under the NIA Act. Statement 3 is correct as the MHA directive was issued on January 26, 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states that violence erupted in Beldanga on January 16, 2026, following the death of a migrant worker. January 20 is when the Calcutta HC issued directions, and January 26 is when the MHA directed the NIA.

Explanation

The Supreme Court emphasized that not every emotional outburst or protest causing economic disruption qualifies as a 'terrorist act' under UAPA. It stressed the necessity of examining intent and having prima facie material evidence before applying the stringent law.

Explanation

As noted by L.S. Shashidhara, the budgetary allocation under the new Biopharma SHAKTI scheme has been made to the Department of Pharmaceuticals. While DBT and ICMR are key R&D bodies in life sciences, the implementing department for this specific scheme is Pharmaceuticals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The DBT budget for 2026-27 is ₹3,446 crore, which is a 1.2x increase (higher than) the Revised Estimate of ₹2,830.45 crore for 2025-26. Statement 2 is correct as per C.P. Rajendran's analysis. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned by L.S. Shashidhara.

Explanation

Multiple scientists, including L.S. Shashidhara and Rajesh Gokhale, explicitly mention that Biopharma SHAKTI has an outlay of ₹10,000 crore over five years. ₹20,000 crore is the allocation under the RDI fund for this year, and ₹50,000 crore was the initial promise for ANRF over five years.

Explanation

C.P. Rajendran highlights this contradiction, noting that while ₹3,500 crore is estimated for new telescopes, the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) leading this work gets no hike. This reflects a systemic preference for 'visible infrastructure' over strengthening the core scientific institutions needed to utilize it.

Explanation

The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is directly responsible for India's nuclear power programme, research, and development. It formulates policies and oversees organisations like NPCIL and BARC. The Ministry of Power deals with conventional power, while MNRE focuses on renewable sources like solar and wind.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article; ANEEL fuel is for PHWRs. Statement 2 is incorrect; ANEEL blends thorium with High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium (HALEU), not natural uranium oxide. Natural uranium oxide continues to be used separately. Statement 3 is correct; NTPC and CCTE are exploring its development.

Explanation

The SHANTI Act, 2025 (Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India) is the correct legislation. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 established the legal framework but kept the sector under government control. The Nuclear Liability Act deals with civil liability. There is no 'Energy Security Act, 2025' mentioned.

Explanation

India has minimal uranium reserves but possesses the world's largest thorium reserves. Utilizing thorium for power generation enhances energy security by reducing reliance on imported nuclear fuel. While it may improve efficiency and reduce waste, its core strategic advantage is fuel independence. It does not directly enable coal plant shutdowns or waste export.

Explanation

The Speaker pro-tem is appointed by the President of India under Article 95 to preside over the first sitting of a newly constituted Lok Sabha until the new Speaker is elected. This ensures the office of the Speaker is never vacant.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (Article 93). Statement 2 is incorrect; the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker when that office is vacant (as seen when M.A. Ayyangar stepped in after G.V. Mavalankar's death). Statement 3 is correct as per the constitutional mandate in Article 93.

Explanation

The article states that the Lok Sabha hasn't had a Deputy Speaker since 2019. This covers the entire five-year term of the 17th Lok Sabha (2019-24) and continues into the current 18th Lok Sabha (from June 2024).

Explanation

The core issue is a constitutional and procedural dilemma. The Deputy Speaker is the authority to decide on such a motion against the Speaker. In their absence, there is no clear constitutional mechanism to process the motion, highlighting a flaw in the continuity provisions.

Explanation

The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Constitution, recommends the fiscal roadmap for the Centre and States, including deficit targets. The 16th Finance Commission's recommendations set the 3% fiscal deficit limit for states applicable till 2030-31.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: Health got 6% allocation, while Agriculture got 9%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The fiscal deficit limit is 3% (not 4%) of GSDP, as recommended by the 16th Finance Commission.

Explanation

Finance Minister Suresh Khanna stated that the capital expenditure in this budget is 19.5%. This is a key figure for infrastructure development. 12.4% is for Education, 9% for Agriculture, and 6% for Health.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the agri-export hub will be established to boost agricultural exports and enhance farmers' income. This aligns with the broader goal of doubling farmers' income and integrating them with global value chains. The project is World Bank-assisted.

Explanation

The Ministry of Civil Aviation is the nodal ministry for civil aviation policies and issues the initial No Objection Certificate (NOC) to proposed airlines. The DGCA, under this ministry, later grants the Air Operator Certificate (AOC) after technical evaluations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per DGCA data mentioned in the article (60.4%). Statement 2 is correct; the article states 625 routes and 85 airports were operationalised under UDAN by 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect; the global benchmark is 18-20 pilots per aircraft, not 10-12.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Air India group accounts for 27% to 28% of domestic passenger traffic. IndiGo commands 63-65%, making the combined duopoly share nearly 90%. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article cites the volatility of ATF prices, which are closely tied to the U.S. dollar and global market fluctuations, as a persistent structural challenge that contributed to past airline failures. While other factors like management and competition played a role, ATF cost volatility is a key macroeconomic vulnerability for airlines.

Explanation

The article states that legal advisers to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry suggested Indian negotiators should not accept the US proposal. This ministry handles trade negotiations and policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the White House fact sheet. Statement 2 is incorrect; the legal advisers noted the US proposal was 'unilaterally framed' and did not seek a reciprocal commitment. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the USTR report on non-tariff barriers.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 6% equalisation levy. The 10% option is a distractor, referring to the additional tariffs the US threatened to impose over digital services tax disputes with other partners like the EU.

Explanation

The core sovereignty issue highlighted is that the US sought a commitment only from India not to reintroduce equalisation levy-style taxes in the future, which is seen as curtailing India's sovereign right to decide on taxation matters.

Explanation

The Department of Space (DoS), headed by the ISRO Chairman, is the nodal agency for India's space program and the implementation of the Space Policy 2023. As per the article, Swarnashree Rajashekhar, Joint Secretary at the Department of Space, is the Indian co-chair of the sub-working group for space commerce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: TRUST (Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology) is indeed a continuation of the ICET from the Biden era. Statement 2 is incorrect: The changes to US MTCR export policy (announced in early 2025) are intended to open doors for more technology licensing and co-development, not restrict it. Statement 3 is correct: The Indian joint secretary specifically highlighted the need to streamline ITAR and EAR processes to reduce licensing delays.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a group of 14 US companies participated in the US-India space forum. This delegation was on a first-of-its-kind space team trade mission to India, as mentioned by Carey Arun from the US consulate.

Explanation

The core objective highlighted in the forum is addressing regulatory barriers like ITAR, EAR, and MTCR to enable Indian companies to access US components and technology. This integration is crucial for the growth of India's private space industry under the 2023 policy. The other options are either incorrect (A, C) or not mentioned in the context of the forum (D).

Explanation

IFSCA was established as a unified regulator for all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) by the IFSCA Act, 2019. This act consolidated regulatory powers within IFSCs that were earlier distributed among RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as IFSCA Chairperson explicitly stated this principle. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states cryptocurrencies have NOT been permitted in GIFT-IFSC due to AML and stability concerns. Statement 3 is correct as volatility and anonymity (posing AML risks) were highlighted as primary concerns.

Explanation

The article specifies that the inaugural session of the Indo-Swiss Blockchain Forum 2026 was held at Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU). The University of Zurich was a collaborator, not the venue. IIT Delhi and Gujarat University are not mentioned.

Explanation

The core argument is that any technology in finance must demonstrate accountability comparable to traditional institutions. The concerns about volatility, anonymity (risking AML/CFT), and the lack of a clear chain of responsibility in decentralized systems are directly linked to preserving financial integrity and stability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Stuart Russell is a professor of computer science at the University of California, Berkeley. This is a key static fact about a leading AI researcher.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of lab tests. Statement 2 is incorrect; the expert argues the objective should be to 'further human interests, nothing else'. Statement 3 is correct, highlighting the core regulatory dilemma where safety cannot be conclusively proven.

Explanation

The article mentions, 'I went to the Bletchley Park Summit, the first one that was in November 2023.' This is a specific date-centric fact relevant for prelims.

Explanation

Russell explicitly states, 'I think probably the most effective strategy is to activate public opinion.' This highlights a governance strategy focused on democratic pressure rather than purely top-down or economic measures.

Explanation

The Apprenticeship Embedded Degree Programme (AEDP) is a set of guidelines issued by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to allow structured integration of workplace training within degree programs. The UGC is the statutory body for coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of university education in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the proposal for five townships via a challenge route. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies that the townships should not be treated as just another infrastructure announcement but as a quality-and-relevance intervention. Statement 3 is correct as the article discusses using ABC and NCrF as reform instruments to enable mobility and collaboration within these townships.

Explanation

The article states, "The Economic Survey notes more than 1,100 universities and over 4.3 crore learners in higher education." The other options are plausible distractors based on older data or estimates, making precise recall crucial for prelims.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that India has achieved scale in higher education (access) and now must pivot to quality and relevance. The township model is presented as a quality intervention to connect education with the real economy, improve learning outcomes, and enhance employability, thereby supporting broader economic goals like manufacturing competitiveness.

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board (TNPCB) is the state-level statutory authority responsible for granting environmental clearances like the Consent to Operate (CTO) within Tamil Nadu. The CPCB is the central body, MoEFCC is the nodal ministry, and NGT is a specialized tribunal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposal aims to use 30% recycled copper input, not 100%. Statement 3 is correct; the article states Vedanta filed a writ petition earlier, and the court allowed it to submit applications to authorities like TNPCB.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bench directed the Additional Advocate General to get instructions 'by February 26' regarding the constitution of an expert committee. January 27 is the rejection date, February 11 is the hearing/publishing date.

Explanation

Vedanta's senior counsel argued the rejection was 'arbitrary' and made without advance notice or opportunity for hearing, violating principles of natural justice. While other grounds like Article 14 or jurisdictional issues may be implied, the article's text highlights the procedural fairness argument as the core challenge.

Explanation

The Ministry of Steel is responsible for policies and development of the steel sector in India. The Green Steel Taxonomy and the pilot projects for using green hydrogen in steelmaking (under the National Green Hydrogen Mission) fall squarely within its domain. While MNRE handles renewable energy and MoEFCC handles climate policy, the sector-specific implementation lies with the Ministry of Steel.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Five-star green-rated steel has emission intensity lower than 1.6 t-CO2e/tfs. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target is to reduce intensity from 2.65 to 2.20 (not 2.0) t-CO2e/tcs by 2029-30. Statement 3 is incorrect; India is the largest producer of coal-based DRI, not hydrogen-based DRI. Hydrogen-based DRI technology is still nascent and costly.

Explanation

The article states that scrap usage in steel making in India is 22%, which is lower than the global average of 33%. It further mentions that India aims to increase this scrap share to 50% by 2047 as part of its green steel initiative. The other options either swap the current global average with India's figure or present incorrect targets.

Explanation

While all options are related benefits, the article emphasizes the immediate economic necessity arising from trade pressures. The EU's CBAM, effective January 2026, will impose carbon costs on India's steel exports (which constitute two-thirds of its exports to Europe). This makes decarbonisation critical to maintain market access and competitiveness. Reducing import dependence (A) and attracting FDI (D) are secondary or enabling factors, while compliance (B) is a broader environmental obligation.

Explanation

The NGT is a specialized statutory body created by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The other acts are general environmental laws under which specific cases may be filed, but the tribunal itself derives its existence from the 2010 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the case was filed by Shri Kalyan Rai Ji Mandir Samiti about a pond in Jhalawar. Statement 2 is incorrect; the NGT explicitly stated that Article 21 includes the right to a healthy environment. Statement 3 is correct as the order warned that arbitrary state action violates the Public Trust Doctrine.

Explanation

The Wetlands Rules, 2017, explicitly prohibit activities like setting up permanent construction within 50 metres of the flood level of a wetland. This is a key regulatory measure for wetland conservation often asked in environment-related questions.

Explanation

The NGT's core argument was that the destruction of nature by the elite violates the Fundamental Duty of every citizen under Article 51A(g) to protect and improve the natural environment. While Article 21 (Right to Life) was also cited, the duty of citizens was a central theme in condemning the actions of the 'greedy elite class'.

Explanation

The judgment discussed in the news article was delivered by Justice J C Doshi of the Gujarat High Court. High Courts have original jurisdiction over such civil matters within their respective states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the plaintiff, a Muslim woman, claimed a share based on ancestral property, a Hindu law concept. Statement 2 is incorrect; the HC set aside the trial court's injunction, calling it a 'serious error'. Statement 3 is correct; the HC cited 'Nemo est heres viventis' to underline the individualistic nature of Muslim succession.

Explanation

The defendants argued that the plaintiff had 'remained silent for 37 years' after the family settlement dated April 25, 1983, only raising her claim when the property development began. This delay was cited as a factor of 'laches' weakening her case.

Explanation

The core distinction made by the court is that Hindu law has concepts like 'joint family property' and 'coparcenary' where members have an interest by birth. In contrast, Muslim law treats property ownership as individual, and inheritance rights are determined only upon death, with no presumption of joint family acquisitions.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the apex body for defence capital procurements. It is chaired by the Defence Minister and grants the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN), as mentioned in the article. The CCS gives final approval, but DAC is the primary procurement body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the IAF currently operates 36 Rafales (not 42) and has a current squadron strength of 29 against a sanctioned strength of 42 (the numbers are swapped). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 30% indigenous content for jets manufactured in India. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the IAF's fighter squadron strength 'stands at 29 at present, against the sanctioned squadron strength of 42'. Option D (36) refers to the number of existing Rafale aircraft, not squadron strength.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the new Rafales 'will bridge this capability gap till India’s indigenous fighter jet programmes... mature' and that the AMCA is 'expected to enter service only after 2035'. This highlights the stopgap or bridging role of this procurement.

Explanation

Article 51A(g) of the Constitution, part of the Fundamental Duties, explicitly states it is the duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests. Article 48A is a Directive Principle for the State, Article 21 deals with Right to Life, and Article 19(1)(g) deals with the right to practice any profession.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 3,62,082 hectares. Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment explicitly said the mandate does NOT authorize arbitrary action and insisted on due process. Statement 3 is correct as per the state government's affidavit mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically states the Assam Government's plan is to clear encroachments from 3,62,082 hectares of forest land. The other figures are plausible distractors for a data-based prelims question.

Explanation

The core significance is upholding the rule of law and due process. The committee is a procedural safeguard to verify if occupants have any legitimate claims, ensuring fairness and preventing arbitrary action, as emphasized by the Court. It does not aim to cause indefinite delay, transfer power completely, or mandate universal compensation.

Explanation

SBTi was established in 2015 as a collaboration between CDP, the United Nations Global Compact, World Resources Institute (WRI), and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). It is a key global standard-setter for corporate climate action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SBTi is indeed the global body that validates science-aligned corporate targets and is used as a reference. Statement 2 is incorrect: India has fewer than 500 companies registered, while Japan has around 2,000. Statement 3 is correct: The article highlights that for companies like Tata Motors or Mahindra, 70% or more of product value comes from suppliers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that globally, more than 10,000 companies now work with SBTi. These companies represent nearly 40% of global market capitalisation and about 30% of global greenhouse gas emissions.

Explanation

The core argument is that climate action is not charity but 'strategic conviction'. Companies that transform will be more competitive, while those that don't may struggle. This aligns with global investor expectations, export market demands (especially Europe), and the race toward low-carbon competitiveness.

Explanation

The Department of Defence (DoD) under the Ministry of Defence is the nodal department for defence policy, including the formulation of the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP). The Department of Military Affairs handles armed forces' operations, while other departments have specific roles in production and R&D.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the draft DAP-2026 aims to replace DAP-2020. Statement 2 is incorrect because DAP deals only with capital procurement under the capital head. Revenue expenditure for maintenance is covered by the separate Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025. Statement 3 is correct as boosting 'Buy Indian-IDDM' is a cornerstone objective of the draft.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "Once approved, it will replace the existing Defence Acquisition Procedure-2020." DPM 2025 is a complementary manual for revenue expenditure, not being replaced. DPP 2016 was superseded by DAP-2020.

Explanation

Spiral designing refers to a development model where a platform is acquired with a baseline capability and then progressively upgraded in cycles (spirals) with new technologies. This avoids obsolescence and aligns with the draft's goal of exploiting modern technology before bulk procurement, not outsourcing design or promoting imports.

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for policies related to information technology, internet, and intermediaries in India. It is responsible for administering the Information Technology Act, 2000, and its associated rules.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the notified amendments. Statement 2 is incorrect. Non-compliance risks the loss of 'safe harbour' immunity under Section 79 of the IT Act, but the rules do not mention 'automatic' financial penalties; the consequence is loss of legal protection. Statement 3 is correct, as the 10% label space requirement was dropped for a 'prominently visible' label.

Explanation

The amended rules specifically mandate that non-consensual intimate imagery must be taken down within 2 hours, reduced from the earlier 24-hour requirement. For other categories of unlawful content, the timeline is 3 hours.

Explanation

The 'safe harbour' provision under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is a critical legal shield that protects intermediaries from liability for user-generated content. Non-compliance with the due diligence requirements, including the new takedown timelines, can lead to the loss of this immunity, making them legally liable for the content hosted on their platforms.

Explanation

Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. Specifically, clauses (4) to (7) deal with laws for preventive detention, outlining safeguards such as informing the detainee of the grounds and providing an opportunity for representation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 'triple test' from Kamarunnissa v. Union of India (1991) specifically governs situations where the detenu is already in judicial custody. Statement 2 is incorrect: The test does not use the phrase 'compelling reason'; it focuses on the possibility of release on bail and the likelihood of indulging in prejudicial activities. Statement 3 is correct: A key element of the test is the authority's satisfaction regarding the 'real possibility' of the detenu being released on bail.

Explanation

As per the news article, the detention order dated September 16, 2025, was confirmed by the government for a period of six months. Preventive detention under laws like KAAPA typically has a maximum initial period, often six months, which can be extended subject to review.

Explanation

The Kerala HC held that the mere absence of a specific recital stating the detenu was 'likely to be released on bail' does not invalidate the detention order if the overall reasoning in the order reflects proper application of mind and subjective satisfaction by the detaining authority. This upholds the substance of the authority's decision over procedural formalities.

Explanation

Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) is a central scheme under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural) is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. This distinction is crucial for exam questions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the capital expenditure (Rs 53,978 cr) is more than twice the provision under the Congress rule. Statement 3 is correct as it is listed as one of the ten pillars of the budget.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the capital expenditure proposed is Rs 53,978 crore. Option A is the target for crop loans. Option B is a close distractor. Option D is close to the total budget figure (Rs 6,10,956 crore).

Explanation

The budget is framed as an action plan for 'Vision 2047', with a sharp focus on infrastructure (bijli, sadak, paani). The doubling of capital expenditure is directly linked to building roads, water supply, and energy infrastructure to realize this long-term vision, not short-term income boosts or deficit reduction.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, which regulates banks and NBFCs. The draft guidelines mentioned in the news are specifically for banks and regulated financial entities, which fall under the RBI's purview, not SEBI (capital markets) or IRDAI (insurance).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the draft mandates explicit customer consent. Statement 2 is incorrect because the guidelines state that customers must be compensated for any losses incurred, in addition to a refund. Statement 3 is correct as the draft explicitly bars lenders from deploying 'dark patterns' in UI/UX.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'The final directions will come into effect from July 1, 2026.' This is a precise data point often asked in prelims. Other dates are plausible distractors for financial year beginnings or quarter starts.

Explanation

The core objective of banning 'dark patterns' is consumer protection. 'Dark patterns' are defined as deceptive design patterns using UI/UX to mislead or trick users, often creating a false sense of urgency. The ban aims to ensure fair practices, not to standardize looks or reduce costs.

Explanation

The Supreme Court or any court hearing a case has the inherent power to refer parties to mediation and appoint a mediator to facilitate settlement, as exercised in this news. NALSA promotes legal aid but does not appoint mediators in specific Supreme Court cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the SC refused to grant an interim stay. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article does not mention referring it to a Constitution Bench; it was referred to mediation. Statement 3 is correct as retired Justice Kurian Joseph was appointed as mediator.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court issued notice on her plea on November 19, 2025. February 11, 2026, is the date of the reported hearing, not the notice issuance.

Explanation

The petitions contend that the practice of talaq-e-hasan is irrational and violates Articles 14 (equality), 15 (non-discrimination), and 21 (life). The defense would likely invoke Article 25 (freedom of religion). Thus, the core issue is balancing these competing constitutional principles.