12 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), through its National Statistical Office (NSO), is the nodal agency responsible for compiling and releasing macroeconomic data like the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The RBI uses this data for policy formulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The base year was updated to 2024 from 2012. Statement 2 is incorrect: The weight of food and beverages decreased sharply from 45.86% to 36.75%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The new basket contains 358 items, which is more than the 299 items in the old basket. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that headline retail inflation under the new CPI series stood at 2.75% in January 2026. 1.33% is the inflation for December 2025 under the old series. 2.13% is the food inflation for December under the new series. 4.00% is the RBI's medium-term target, not the reported figure.

Explanation

Engel's Law states that as incomes rise, the proportion of spending on food decreases. The reduction in food weight from 45.86% to 36.75% reflects this structural economic shift observed in the 2023-24 Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES), making the CPI a more accurate representation of contemporary consumption.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as India's central bank and primary regulator of banking and payment systems, has announced this compensation framework. SEBI regulates capital markets, IRDAI regulates insurance, and PFRDA regulates pension funds.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The compensation cap is Rs 25,000 or 85% of the fraud value, not Rs 50,000 or 90%. Statement 2 is correct as the scheme explicitly covers cases where OTPs were shared. Statement 3 is correct as the RBI Governor stated it is a 'one-time measure for lifetime'.

Explanation

The RBI will fund 70% of the compensation amount, with banks providing 15% and the victim bearing at least 15% loss. The 85% figure is the maximum compensation percentage (of fraud value), not RBI's share.

Explanation

The scheme targets small-value frauds because they constitute over two-thirds of all fraud cases (though less than 15% of total value), affecting a large number of users and eroding trust in digital payments. The RBI's goal is to maintain the integrity and public confidence in India's digital financial ecosystem.

Explanation

The MTP Act is a health legislation governing the conditions and procedures for terminating pregnancies. Its implementation, including framing rules and guidelines for medical practitioners, falls under the purview of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC allowed termination at 30 weeks. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court did the opposite, stating it "cannot compel" completion. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment considered mental trauma as a significant health factor. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021, increased the upper limit for termination from 20 to 24 weeks for specific categories, including survivors of rape, minors, and women with disabilities. Termination beyond 24 weeks is permitted only in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities, not as a standard limit.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the emphasis on the woman's reproductive autonomy. The Court prioritized the woman's unwillingness to continue the pregnancy over other factors like foetal viability, thereby centering the legal principle on her choice and right to bodily integrity.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for the Information Technology Act and its associated rules, including the recent amendments for AI content regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the rules. Statement 2 is incorrect; the takedown window for prohibited content is as little as 3 hours, not a uniform 24 hours. Statement 3 is correct; the government excluded routine edits from the definition.

Explanation

The article clearly states the rules were notified on February 10 and are effective from February 20, 2026. February 12 is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The article highlights that severe penalties and tight deadlines could lead platforms to practice 'automated over-removal' to avoid liability, which could act as prior restraint and potentially violate Article 19(1)(a) rights.

Explanation

As per the article, the Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP) was developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT). DoT is responsible for telecom security and infrastructure, which is critical for tracking mobile-linked financial fraud.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions UPI will celebrate its tenth anniversary in April 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The framework compensates up to ₹25,000 or 85% of the amount lost, not a full guarantee. Statement 3 is incorrect: The directive applies to all banks, payment aggregators, NBFCs, and cooperative banks, not just scheduled commercial banks.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that UPI transactions worth around ₹75 crore are processed daily. ₹100 crore is the projected near-future figure, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The integration with DIP enables access to the FRI for fraud risk assessment and the MNV platform for verifying mobile numbers linked to bank accounts. This is aimed at preempting and combating cyber-financial fraud, which is the core issue discussed.

Explanation

AgriStack is an initiative under the Digital Agriculture Mission (DAM) 2021-2025, which aims to leverage digital technologies to transform agriculture. While it aligns with Digital India, its specific parent framework is the DAM under the Ministry of Agriculture.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Farmer Registry, like all three registries, is created and maintained by the State Governments or Union Territories, not solely by the Centre. Statement 3 is correct as the target is March 2027.

Explanation

The government targets to cover all 30 crore farm plots in 604 districts by the Kharif season 2026. The 11 crore figure is the target for Farmer IDs. This is a classic data-point trap in Prelims.

Explanation

The core objective of AgriStack integration is to create a unified digital platform that enables targeted, transparent, and efficient delivery of benefits (like MSP procurement, fertilizer distribution, PM-KISAN, insurance) directly to farmers, thereby reducing paperwork, delays, and leakages. The other options are potential outcomes or unrelated shifts in policy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), headed by BJP MP P.P. Chaudhary, is reviewing the Bill. JPCs are ad-hoc committees formed for specific bills or issues, distinct from permanent Department-related Standing Committees.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Justice Lalit actually said the legislation 'will not withstand a legal challenge'. Statement 3 is correct; the article notes that all former CJIs have questioned the EC's unrestricted power. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Bill was 'introduced in the Lok Sabha on December 17, 2024'. February 12, 2026, is the date of the JPC meeting mentioned, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

Chaudhary explicitly stated that making separate rolls is a 'tedious task that usually falls on government teachers and thereby indirectly impacts students'. The other options, while potential benefits, were not cited as the primary rationale in the article.

Explanation

The Information Technology Act, 2000 and the rules framed under it, including the Intermediary Guidelines, fall under the administrative domain of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). MeitY is responsible for policy matters relating to information technology, electronics, and the internet.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The amendment mandates user warnings every three months, not six months. Statement 2 is correct as the rules explicitly exclude routine, good-faith editing that does not materially alter meaning from the SGI definition. Statement 3 is correct; the grievance redressal timeline has been halved to seven days.

Explanation

The 2026 amendment drastically reduces the takedown timeline for content like deepfakes when ordered by a court or law enforcement agency to 3 hours, from the earlier 36-hour window. The 2-hour limit is specifically for non-consensual nudity, making option B the correct answer.

Explanation

The requirement to embed permanent metadata or unique identifiers in SGI is aimed at improving content traceability back to its source. This acts as a deterrent against creating malicious deepfakes, impersonation, or fake political content, as the origin can be potentially identified, thereby safeguarding informational integrity.

Explanation

The National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) is India's flagship public health initiative to combat tuberculosis. It is implemented under the Directorate General of Health Services, which falls under the purview of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The study concluded that 6-month all-oral regimens (BPaL/BPaLM) are cost-effective. Statement 2 is incorrect: The BPaL regimen was found to be cost-saving, while BPaLM was highly cost-effective (not cost-saving). Statement 3 is correct: The study was indeed conducted by ICMR-NIRT.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for each additional QALY gained, the health system spends ₹379 less per patient with the BPaL regimen compared to the standard regimen. ₹37 is the additional cost per QALY for the BPaLM regimen, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The core implication of the study is its role in policy formulation. By providing robust economic data on cost-effectiveness and better outcomes, it supplies the evidence needed for the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) to adopt the shorter, all-oral regimens on a large scale, potentially transforming treatment standards.

Explanation

Due to the US's adherence to the 'One-China Policy', it does not maintain official diplomatic relations with Taiwan. Interactions are conducted through de facto embassies: the American Institute in Taiwan (AIT) and the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office (TECRO) in the US.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the US has a massive trade deficit (nearly $127 billion in 11 months of 2025), not a surplus, with Taiwan, primarily due to computer chip imports, not pharmaceutical exports. Statement 3 is correct as the deal focuses on semiconductor investments to reshore production.

Explanation

The article states the trade imbalance was nearly USD 127 billion during the first 11 months of 2025. $99bn and $165bn are distractors, and $250bn is the total Taiwanese investment commitment, not the deficit figure.

Explanation

The core strategic objective is to reduce dependency on Taiwanese chip manufacturing located in a geopolitically volatile region (the Taiwan Strait) and build domestic capacity. This is termed 'reshoring' or 'friend-shoring' for supply chain security. While other options might be incidental, the article heavily emphasizes semiconductor investment as the critical component.

Explanation

The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is the national authority for regulating nuclear and radiation safety in India. The SHANTI Act provides a legislative framework for the AERB, though it limits its independence. The Atomic Energy Commission is the policy-making body, while NPCIL is a public sector operator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SHANTI Act opens the nuclear sector to private players. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act indemnifies suppliers, effectively removing their liability, not increasing it. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Act omits Clause 46 of the CLNDA.

Explanation

The article states the total liability is capped at 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDR), which is about ₹3,900 crore. ₹100 crore and ₹3,000 crore are operator-specific caps for different plant sizes. ₹46 lakh crore is the estimated cost of the Fukushima disaster, used for comparison.

Explanation

The article argues that by indemnifying suppliers and capping operator liability, the Act protects these entities from the full financial consequences of an accident. This 'moral hazard' could encourage risk-taking and reduce the incentive to invest in the most robust safety measures, as seen in past global disasters.

Explanation

DFCCIL is the PSU under the Ministry of Railways specifically mandated to plan, develop, and maintain Dedicated Freight Corridors in India. It has already built the Eastern and Western DFCs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as the corridor also passes through Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, not just the four states mentioned. Statement 3 is correct as per the Railway Board's directive to adopt advanced tech standards.

Explanation

The article states that freight loading in FY25 was over 1,600 MT, which was an all-time high. The 1,700 MT figure is the projected loading for the current fiscal year (FY26), making it a key distractor.

Explanation

The Railway Board explicitly asked for provision of Gati Shakti terminals and logistics hubs to maximize non-fare revenue. While boosting freight efficiency is the core goal, the directive highlights the financial sustainability aspect through integrated commercial development, a key feature of PM Gati Shakti.

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency responsible for compiling and releasing macroeconomic data like CPI, WPI, and GDP in India. The RBI uses this data for its policy decisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the weightage of food and beverages has been REDUCED from 45.86% to 36.75%, not increased. Statement 2 is correct as lower food weightage reduces volatility from supply-side shocks. Statement 3 is correct as Engel's Law states that as incomes rise, the proportion spent on food decreases, which is reflected in the new basket.

Explanation

The article states that under the new CPI series, India's headline retail inflation rate stood at 2.75% in January 2026. 1.33% was the rate in December 2025 under the old series. 3.2% and 4% are RBI's forecast averages for different quarters.

Explanation

CEA Nageswaran stated that with lower food weightage making headline inflation less volatile, fiscal expenditures like Dearness Allowance (DA) fixation and inflation-indexed bonds, which are linked to CPI, could become more stable and predictable, aiding budget planning.

Explanation

The Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD) is the nodal ministry for higher education policy and reforms in India. The VBSA Bill is part of its initiatives under NEP 2020. The other ministries deal with specific, non-overarching aspects of education and skill development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill notably divorces grant-disbursal power from the VBSA Commission and hands it over to mechanisms devised by the Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is incorrect; the chairperson, D. Purandeswari, is a Lok Sabha MP (BJP).

Explanation

The article clearly states that the committee head, D. Purandeswari, sought and was granted time till 'the first day of the last week of the Monsoon Session'. The original expectation was the end of the Budget Session (Option A), which is now incorrect. Options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes Opposition MPs arguing the Bill represents 'executive overreach' and subjects higher education institutes to 'pervasive executive control, graded autonomy, intrusive compliance requirements...'. This is the core criticism highlighted. The other options, while potential concerns, are not the primary opposition point cited in this specific news report.

Explanation

The article states the FIR was registered under provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) as the primary substantive criminal code in India from July 1, 2024. The other acts are procedural or deal with specific subject matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the 2021 amendment extended the limit from 20 to 24 weeks for specific categories. Statement 2 is correct as it directly quotes the provision from the Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; termination beyond 24 weeks is tightly regulated and requires approval from a Medical Board and often the courts, even for rape survivors, as exemplified by this very news case which needed High Court permission for a 29-week pregnancy.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Medical Board at Bundelkhand Medical College found the gestational age to be approximately '29 weeks and 1 day'. This detail is crucial as it highlights the exceptional nature of the case, being well beyond the standard 24-week limit under the MTP Act.

Explanation

The court's ruling, citing the Supreme Court's judgment in Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration, firmly anchored the decision in Article 21. It reiterated that reproductive choice is a dimension of 'personal liberty,' embedded within the broader rights to privacy, dignity, and bodily integrity guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Explanation

The All India Services, including IAS, IPS, and IFS, fall under the administrative purview of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. This ministry handles cadre management, recruitment policies, and service conditions for these services.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The sanctioned strength for IPS is 5,099, which is more than 5,000. Statement 2 is correct: Madhya Pradesh has the highest IFS sanctioned strength at 296. Statement 3 is incorrect: The category-wise data covers CSE 2020 to CSE 2024, not 2019-2023.

Explanation

The Annexure B data specifies that 67 ST candidates were appointed as direct recruits to the IAS during the five examination cycles from CSE 2020 to CSE 2024. Option A (48) is for IFS, option C (71) is for IPS, and option D (95) is for SC candidates in IFS.

Explanation

Persistent high vacancies mean the existing officers have to handle additional charge, leading to overwork, stress, and potential delays in decision-making and implementation of schemes. This directly impacts the quality of governance and public service delivery at the state and district levels.

Explanation

Section 482 of the CrPC, 1973, which corresponds to Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, preserves the inherent powers of the High Court to make orders necessary to secure the ends of justice or prevent abuse of court process. This section was central to the Madhya Pradesh High Court's judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated rape is a heinous, non-compoundable crime against society. Statement 2 is incorrect as the judgment clarified that inherent powers under S.482 CrPC cannot be invoked to quash rape cases merely on compromise. Statement 3 is correct as the court warned against the 'subterfuge' of offering marriage for leniency.

Explanation

According to the article, the FIR was registered at Dabra police station in Gwalior district in 2021. This factual detail is often tested in prelims-style questions to check precise reading of current affairs.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the doctrine that heinous offences like rape are 'crimes against society' with far-reaching societal implications, affecting the dignity and bodily integrity of women. This makes them non-compoundable, and the state's duty to prosecute overrides any private settlement between parties.

Explanation

Muhammad Yunus, founder of Grameen Bank and Nobel Peace Prize laureate (2006), leads the interim government. This links current affairs to static GK on Nobel laureates and their contributions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The charter proposes a bicameral legislature with a 100-member Upper House. Statement 2 is incorrect: The charter was unveiled on the first anniversary of Hasina's 'toppling' or ouster, not her return. Statement 3 is incorrect: The timeline is 180 'working days', not calendar days. This tests precise reading of details.

Explanation

Bangladesh held three previous referendums in 1977, 1985, and 1991. The provision was abolished in 2011 and reinstated in 2024. This tests factual recall of numbers, a common Prelims question type.

Explanation

While the charter includes many reforms (bicameralism, term limits), a key objective mentioned is to bar the ruling party from unilaterally making constitutional changes, aiming to decentralize power. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

ISRO is the primary national agency responsible for India's space programme, including satellite launch and exploration missions like Gaganyaan. DRDO handles defence R&D, SAC is a centre under ISRO for satellite applications, and IN-SPACe is a regulatory body for private space activities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect and a classic trap; the crew escape system is adopted on the lines of Russia's Soyuz, not SpaceX's Crew Dragon. Statement 3 is correct as stated in the article's concluding paragraph.

Explanation

The article clearly states the mission is 'now scheduled for 2027'. Originally targeted for 2022, the timeline was revised. This precise date is a likely Prelims fact.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the programme is 'intended to be a permanent programme' and is 'intended to progress to the Bharatiya Antariksh Mission—an Indian space station—to a landing on the Moon'. This distinguishes it from a one-off mission and aligns with India's long-term space exploration goals.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Centre of Excellence in AI for Education has been set up at IIT Madras and is called the 'IIT Madras Bodhan AI Foundation'. This is the nodal body for developing the DPI and teacher training modules.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Minister's announcement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bharat EduAI Stack is a new architecture being initiated, not an existing platform; the existing content platforms are DIKSHA and SWAYAM. Statement 3 is correct as the Minister highlighted the Prime Minister's view on competency over certificates and linked AI to enhancing employability in 4-year UG courses.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the two-day Bharat Bodhan AI Conclave is 'being held as a pre-AI Impact Summit event.' The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the given news context.

Explanation

The article states the conclave will 'initiate work on the Bharat EduAI Stack, which is designed to provide an architecture for innovators and institutions to build AI-related education solutions.' It is a foundational digital infrastructure (DPI) to enable innovation, not a replacement for textbooks or a mandate for coding.

Explanation

Article 312 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to create one or more All-India Services (like IAS, IPS, IFoS) common to the Union and the States, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect. Article 310 deals with tenure of office, Article 311 with dismissal, and Article 323A with administrative tribunals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Cabinet Secretariat has begun using these scorecards. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article does not mention the All-India Services Act, 1951 in relation to the scorecards. The critique is based on constitutional philosophy, not a specific act. Statement 3 is correct and captures the article's central argument.

Explanation

The article states that out of about 100 secretaries serving in the Government of India, some 80 are from the IAS. The other options are close distractors. This factual data is crucial for prelims-style questions on the composition of the higher bureaucracy.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that by focusing only on quantifiable efficiency metrics (like file disposal), the scorecards ignore the essential duties of a permanent civil servant under Article 312: to think nationally, act impartially, provide frank policy advice, and preserve institutional memory. This is presented as a threat to the foundational principles of the bureaucracy in a parliamentary system.

Explanation

The study was released by NITI Aayog, the government's premier policy think tank. While the Ministry of Power and CEA are involved in power sector planning, the specific long-term scenario-based study mentioned in the article is attributed to NITI Aayog.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states that while renewables make up 50% of installed capacity, their share in actual generation is only about 22% (not 50%). Statement 3 is correct, directly quoting the projected nuclear capacity growth. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's renewable capacity reached 258 GW by December 2025, having more than tripled from 76.38 GW in March 2014. Option A is the 2014 figure. Option D (513 GW) is the total installed capacity from all sources, not just renewables.

Explanation

The article directly attributes the gap to structural challenges like intermittency of solar/wind, variability-driven curtailment, grid constraints, and limited system flexibility. While the other options (costs, subsidies, manufacturing) are relevant to the sector, they are not the core 'structural' reasons for the low generation share highlighted in the study.

Explanation

Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion. Article 26 grants rights to religious denominations to manage their own affairs. These are the primary constitutional provisions governing religious freedom and its reasonable restrictions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 'Essential Religious Practice' test is a judicial doctrine developed by the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect: Articles 25 and 26 explicitly state that religious freedoms are subject to restrictions based on public order, health, and morality. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sabarimala judgment explicitly stated that even essential religious practices can be scrutinized and invalidated if they violate constitutional morality.

Explanation

The Madras Hindu Religious Endowments Act was enacted in 1927. This was a key pre-independence legislation that established government supervision over temple administration and funds, setting a precedent for later state intervention in religious institutions.

Explanation

The landmark Sabarimala judgment consolidated the principle that the rights to worship under Articles 25 and 26 are subject to constitutional morality. The Court held that even practices deemed 'essential' to a religion are not immune from judicial scrutiny if they conflict with foundational constitutional values like equality, liberty, and dignity.

Explanation

Section 118 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which deals with presumption as to dowry death, replaces Section 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This is a direct static GK link testing knowledge of the new criminal laws replacing old acts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC termed the HC order a 'travesty of justice' and set it aside, criticizing the reliance solely on no criminal history. Statement 3 is correct as the SC explicitly mentioned this as a key factor. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Allahabad High Court order was dated October 10, 2025. July 7, 2025 is the date of the accused's arrest, February 9, 2026 is the SC order date, and March 1, 2025 is the marriage date. This tests precise data extraction from the news.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's core criticism was that the HC order was passed without considering crucial factors, most importantly the statutory presumption under Section 118 of the BSA (erstwhile Section 113-B Evidence Act). While custody period was considered, it was not the sole failing; the absence of criminal history was noted by the HC, and waiting for trial completion is not a mandatory precondition for bail.

Explanation

The 'best interest of the child' is a cardinal principle enshrined in Article 3 of the UNCRC, to which India is a signatory. This principle has been incorporated and reflected in various Indian laws like the Juvenile Justice Act and interpreted by courts, as seen in this POCSO judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court prioritized the child's interest. Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment does not make joint trials mandatory but permissible based on the facts to protect the child from repeated testimony. Statement 3 is correct, as the court allowed a joint trial for similar offences against the same child, even if not in a single transaction.

Explanation

The news article explicitly mentions that the judgment was delivered by Justices G K Ilanthiraiyan and R Poornima of the Madras High Court. The other options are names of Supreme Court judges, which are common distractors in polity questions.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is child-centric justice. The court explicitly asked, 'Why force a child to face offenders twice?' and held that separate trials would force the victim to relive the trauma by deposing repeatedly. While other options might be incidental benefits, the primary and stated rationale was protecting the child from re-traumatization.

Explanation

MoSPI is the nodal ministry for official statistics in India. It oversees the National Statistical Office (NSO), which compiles and releases key economic indices like the CPI, WPI, and IIP. The RBI uses the CPI data for policy but does not compile it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The base year was revised from 2012 to 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article specifies the HCES 2023-24 is used, not 2022-23. Statement 3 is correct: The new framework captures online prices for telecom, airfares, and certain services.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CPI 2024 series has been updated using the latest Household Consumption Expenditure Survey of 2023-24. This is the most recent survey data used to reflect current spending patterns accurately.

Explanation

The article highlights that the adoption of computer-assisted price collection in the new series has reduced manual errors and allowed real-time checks, improving data quality. While it incorporates online and administrative data, it does not rely exclusively on them or discontinue traditional methods.

Explanation

Following the ouster of Sheikh Hasina in 2024, Nobel Laureate Mohd. Yunus was appointed as the Chief Adviser to the interim government. He also chaired the National Consensus Commission (NCC).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Elections were for 300 seats and a referendum was held simultaneously. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Awami League's registration was suspended, it was banned under the Anti-Terrorism Act, and it boycotted the election. Statement 3 is correct: The 'National Charter of July 2025' was put to a 'Yes' or 'No' vote in the referendum.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that around 12.7 crore voters were going to cast their vote. This is a key data point for prelims-style questions.

Explanation

The core implication of the referendum, as per the article, is that a 'Yes' vote creates a constitutional obligation for the new parliament to implement the 84 reforms of the July Charter within a strict timeframe of 180 days, aiming to strengthen institutions.

Explanation

PM-DAKSH was a scheme for marginalized groups (SCs, OBCs, DNTs) implemented by corporations like NSFDC and NBCFDC, which operate under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Its merger with PMKVY in 2024-25 shifted it to the Ministry of Skill Development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. PM-DAKSH was a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the 70% placement mandate. Statement 3 is correct as the merger with PMKVY from 2024-25 is explicitly stated.

Explanation

The article clearly states that about 1.5 lakh candidates were trained between 2021 and 2024, of which 44% were provided job opportunities. 49.8% is the placement rate specifically for SCs under NSFDC, and 70% is the target, not the achievement.

Explanation

The core issue is the disconnect between training provided and employability/job absorption. The data underscores the challenge of translating skill development into tangible livelihood improvements for vulnerable sections, questioning the effectiveness of the scheme's implementation model. The other options misinterpret the data or draw unsupported conclusions.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the National Judicial Academy (NJA) in Bhopal to form a committee to frame new guidelines for training judges. The NJA is the apex body for judicial training in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC set aside the Allahabad HC's March 2025 verdict. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court criticized the handbook as 'too Harvard-oriented' and theoretical. Statement 3 is correct: The Court directed the NJA to frame practical training guidelines.

Explanation

The handbook was released in August 2023 under the tenure of former CJI D Y Chandrachud. This is a key factual detail for prelims-oriented questions.

Explanation

CJI Surya Kant described the handbook as 'too Harvard-oriented', implying it was overly theoretical and elite, lacking practical utility for judges dealing with the everyday realities of the Indian judicial system.

Explanation

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states, alter areas, boundaries, or names of existing states by law. While the President refers the bill to the concerned state legislature, the ultimate authority rests with Parliament.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SRC (1953) led to the linguistic reorganisation of states via the 1956 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2000 states were created for socio-economic and administrative reasons, not linguistic ones (they shared a common language with their parent states). Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the SRC was constituted in 1953 under Pandit Nehru. 1956 is the year the States Reorganisation Act was passed based on its recommendations. 1947 is Independence year and 1950 is when the Constitution came into force.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that states with very large populations (like UP, Maharashtra) become administratively inefficient, with policies failing to reach the grassroots. The cry for smaller states is portrayed as a demand for more responsive and effective governance, bringing the seat of power closer to the people.

Explanation

As per the article, the chairman of the Joint Committee of Parliament examining the Bills is P P Chaudhary. Arjun Ram Meghwal is the Law Minister who introduced the Bills. Jagdeep Dhankhar is the Vice President and Rajya Sabha Chairman. Droupadi Murmu is the President of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states that former CJI Gavai said the Bills do NOT violate the basic structure. Statement 2 is correct as the Bills were introduced on December 17, 2024. Statement 3 is correct as the constitutional amendment Bill proposes a one-time measure to align Assembly terms with the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

The article states that the committee chairman mentioned that all six former CJIs the panel has met (Gavai, U U Lalit, Ranjan Gogoi, J S Khehar, D Y Chandrachud, and Sanjeev Khanna) have said the Bills do not violate the Constitution. This is a precise data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The Constitution Amendment Bill proposes a one-time measure that will curtail the terms of all Assemblies elected after a particular Lok Sabha election. Their terms will end with that of the Lok Sabha, making the next election simultaneous. The other options are either unconstitutional (extending Lok Sabha term) or extreme measures not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission every five years by the President. Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 16th FC opined that it is neither permissible nor desirable to include cess and surcharge in the divisible pool. Statement 2 is correct as it added a new efficiency criterion. Statement 3 is correct as it retained the share at 41%.

Explanation

As per the article, for the year 2025-26, it is estimated that the divisible pool constitutes only around 81% of the gross tax revenue of the Centre after excluding cess and surcharge. The remaining ~19% is non-shareable.

Explanation

The FC cited three reasons: the States' share in total tax revenues, that Central Sector Schemes (CSS) spending is routed to States, and the Union's need for increased funds for defence and infrastructure. This balanced the demands of federalism with national priorities.

Explanation

As per the news article, a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) has been constituted to scrutinize the VBSA Bill. A JPC is an ad-hoc committee with members from both Houses, formed for a specific purpose.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The VBSA Bill aims for a unified regulator for higher education, not for all levels of education. Statement 2 is correct as per the article (introduced in Winter session). Statement 3 is correct as the Bill proposes separating accreditation, funding, and standard-setting functions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the JPC is a 31-member panel comprising MPs from both Houses. This is a factual data point crucial for Prelims.

Explanation

The article mentions that the government signaled its intent to send the bill to a joint panel for wider consultations following opposition concerns over federalism, institutional autonomy, and centralisation of powers. The JPC is expected to invite suggestions from various stakeholders.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body for defence procurement in India. It is chaired by the Defence Minister, as per the Defence Acquisition Procedure. The Prime Minister chairs the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), which gives final approval to such deals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 96 jets are to be manufactured in India, while 18 will be supplied in fly-away condition. Statement 3 is correct; the CCS, chaired by the Prime Minister, is the final approving authority for such major defence acquisitions.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Indian Air Force already operates 36 Rafale jets. The number 26 refers to the naval variant ordered by the Indian Navy last year. 114 is the number in the new proposal, and 176 would be the total fleet after this deal is completed.

Explanation

The structure addresses two needs: the 18 jets in fly-away condition meet the Indian Air Force's immediate operational gap, while manufacturing 96 jets in India promotes technology transfer and strengthens the domestic defence industrial base under the 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' (Self-Reliant India) policy.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by the Defence Minister, is the apex body responsible for granting AoN for capital procurement. The CCS gives final approval, but the initial green signal comes from the DAC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: 90 of the 114 Rafales are to be manufactured in India, not all imported. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The P-8I procurement is a fully global buy with no offsets, technology transfers, or other obligations.

Explanation

The Ministry of Defence statement specifically mentioned that the DAC accorded AoN for multiple proposals for an estimated Rs. 3.60 lakh crore. This is a key data point for prelims-style questions.

Explanation

The article states the IAF has 29 squadrons against a sanctioned strength of 42. The Rafale procurement is critical to fill this capability gap until indigenous programs like LCA Mk2 and AMCA mature. It is a stopgap measure, not a replacement for indigenous projects.