13 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), under the Ministry of Communications, is the nodal agency responsible for policy, licensing, and coordination matters related to telegraphs, telephones, and spectrum allocation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly held that these dues are NOT operational debts as they arise from a sovereign privilege. Statement 3 is correct, as the Court emphasized the exclusivity of the telecom legal regime.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court delivered this judgment on Friday, February 13, 2026. This is a precise data point often asked in prelims.

Explanation

The core implication is that since telecom operators do not own spectrum, it cannot form part of the asset pool available to creditors (like banks) for recovery under the IBC process. This protects the public resource from private claims.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the apex body responsible for regulating banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) in India, including their lending and recovery practices. SEBI regulates capital markets, IRDAI regulates insurance, and the Ministry of Finance is a policymaking body, not a direct regulator for banking conduct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the draft guidelines explicitly prohibit calls outside prescribed hours. Statement 2 is correct as the article mandates a dedicated grievance redressal mechanism. Statement 3 is incorrect because the draft guidelines state the effective date is July 1, 2026, not April 1, 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 'Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Responsible Business Conduct) Second Amendment Directions, 2026' will come into effect from July 1, 2026. This is a precise date that is a potential target for preliminary exam questions.

Explanation

The core objective of the guidelines is to curb harsh recovery methods and protect borrowers' rights, as indicated by the title 'Responsible Business Conduct'. While faster NPA recovery or cost reduction might be indirect effects, the primary focus is on ethical conduct and consumer protection, which is a key regulatory mandate of the RBI.

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency for the collection, compilation, and dissemination of official statistics in India, including the Consumer Price Index (CPI).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new series adopts the COICOP 2018 classification with 12 divisions, replacing the old six-group structure. Statement 3 is incorrect as the weight of food has decreased from 45.86% to 36.75%, in line with Engel's Law.

Explanation

The article states that as per the new CPI series, India's headline retail inflation rate stood at 2.75% in January. 1.33% was the rate in December 2025 under the old series, while 4% is the RBI's target and 6% is the upper bound of the tolerance band.

Explanation

The core objective of the revision is to update the measurement of inflation so that it accurately reflects current consumption patterns (based on the latest HCES) and economic realities, thereby providing reliable data for monetary policy and welfare targeting. The other options are factually incorrect.

Explanation

MoSPI is the nodal ministry for official statistics in India. Its arm, the National Statistical Office (NSO), is responsible for compiling and releasing macroeconomic data like GDP, CPI, and IIP. The RBI uses this data for policy but does not compile it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the new series uses 2024 as the base. Statement 2 is incorrect; the weight of food has actually decreased (from about 45.86% to ~39%), not increased. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the inclusion of headphones/earpods and exclusion of CDs/DVDs/cassettes.

Explanation

The article states: "gold/ diamond/ platinum jewellery together account for 0.62% of the new CPI". Option A (0.31%) is the weight for silver jewellery. Option C (1.08%) was the weight of only gold in the old series. Option D is a distractor.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the two series are not directly comparable ('apples and oranges') because the basket items (e.g., headphones vs. cassettes), their weights, data sources, and collection markets have all changed. A simple 'back-series' link is insufficient for accurate historical comparison, which is the core challenge.

Explanation

The Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) was introduced in 1969 based on the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group. The Narasimham Committees focused on banking sector reforms, while the Rangarajan Committee was related to statistics and poverty estimation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 60% CD Ratio target is specifically for rural and semi-urban branches taken together, not for all branches. Statement 2 is correct as per the draft guidelines. Statement 3 is correct as SLBC Convenor Banks coordinate state-level banking activities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI has invited comments/feedback on the draft circular by March 6, 2026. The other dates are plausible distractors but are not mentioned.

Explanation

The core objective of revising LBS, as stated in the news, is to streamline its operations and improve its effectiveness in ensuring credit reaches priority sectors (like agriculture, MSMEs) at the grassroots district level, thereby promoting financial inclusion. The other options, while relevant to banking, are not the stated primary objectives of this specific revision.

Explanation

Anjor Vision 2047 is the strategic roadmap of Chhattisgarh to increase its renewable energy share to 66% by 2047. It is implemented by the Chhattisgarh Renewable Energy Development Agency (CREDA).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) aims for solarisation of agricultural pumps. Statement 2 is incorrect: Saubhagya achieved near-universal household connectivity (~99.99%), not reliability of supply. The article highlights a persistent 'reliability deficit'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states women constitute only about 11% of India's clean energy workforce, compared to a 32% global average.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Chhattisgarh's proposed Women-Led DRE policy aims to create 50,000 green jobs by 2030, alongside establishing 5,000 women-led DRE solutions. This is a specific data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that treating women only as end-users risks replicating existing inequities. Women-led DRE is presented as a model to transform women into energy entrepreneurs, thereby addressing time poverty, health impacts, safety concerns, and economic disempowerment, making the transition 'just'. The other options are either incorrect or not the primary focus.

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare filed the writ appeal against the single judge's order. This ministry oversees medical education policies and counselling at the national level through bodies like the National Medical Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the core ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect; the HC noted that in the Kevin Joy case, the SC itself said its direction should not be cited as a precedent. Statement 3 is correct; the HC stressed that regulations with SC's imprimatur are binding.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the cut-off date for admissions in super-specialty courses had ended on August 31, 2025. This date is critical as the HC's refusal to intervene was based on it being 'fait accompli' (an accomplished fact).

Explanation

While acknowledging the wide powers of High Courts under Article 226, the judgment underscores that when regulations have the Supreme Court's approval, only the apex court can create exceptions. This reinforces judicial hierarchy and the finality of Supreme Court-mandated schedules.

Explanation

IRCTC is a subsidiary of the Indian Railways, which operates under the Ministry of Railways. While CERT-In (under MeitY) assists with cybersecurity, the operational control and policy for IRCTC's ticketing system lies with the Railway Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because security audits are carried out by CERT-In empanelled agencies, not NCIIPC empanelled ones. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as Aadhaar OTP verifies user uniqueness for Tatkal tickets.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that rigorous revalidation resulted in the deactivation of about 3.03 crore suspicious user IDs in 2025. The other figures are plausible distractors but not the exact reported number.

Explanation

As explained by the minister, Aadhaar authentication provides instantaneous verification of user uniqueness. This acts as a safeguard against account multiplication and automated misuse, thereby ensuring fair allocation of time-sensitive Tatkal tickets to genuine users.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Sanjay Vashisth of the Punjab and Haryana High Court. This High Court has jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Chandigarh and the states of Punjab and Haryana.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court explicitly ruled that there is NO absolute or indefeasible right to self-representation in criminal proceedings. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Court clarified that freedom of expression cannot be confused with a licence to make unfounded allegations against the judiciary. Statement 3 is correct. The Court directed the matter to be placed before the Chief Justice for considering proceedings under Section 2(c) of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

Explanation

The petitioner had initially filed a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, alleging dishonour of a cheque worth Rs 5 lakh. Section 138 makes the dishonour of a cheque due to insufficient funds a punishable offence.

Explanation

The Court held that it has a duty to impart justice. If a litigant's insistence on self-representation or their conduct risks mishandling the case, creating prejudice, or disrupting court decorum, the court can override that choice and appoint counsel. This ensures the fairness and legal integrity of the proceedings, which is a cornerstone of the right to a fair trial under Article 21.

Explanation

All matters related to higher education, including legislation to reform regulatory bodies like the University Grants Commission (UGC), are handled by the Union Ministry of Education. This ministry is responsible for the formulation and implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Bill proposes to merge UGC, AICTE, and NCTE into the new Higher Education Commission. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states it is a 31-member Joint Committee, comprising 21 Lok Sabha MPs and 10 Rajya Sabha MPs. This is a precise data point crucial for Prelims. The other options are distractors close to the actual number.

Explanation

The article directly quotes opposition MPs objecting on the grounds that the Bill 'could lead to excessive centralisation of higher education'. This is a key debate around the Bill, touching upon the federal structure as education is a concurrent subject. The other options are not mentioned as concerns in the provided text.

Explanation

The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) is a body appointed by the Supreme Court of India to assist it in matters related to the enforcement of its orders concerning forests and wildlife, especially in cases of non-compliance or for investigating specific issues as directed by the Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC refused to allow Haryana to submit the DPR to the CEC, insisting on a holistic review first. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court had, in its December 29, 2025 order, kept the November 2025 judgment (which accepted the 100-meter definition) in abeyance, pending review by an expert committee. Statement 3 is correct: The bench, led by CJI Surya Kant, explicitly stated that the Aravalli is a continuous range beyond state borders and requires a comprehensive view.

Explanation

The Haryana government's counsel informed the Supreme Court that they had revised the Detailed Project Report (DPR) for the safari project from the original 10,000 acres to over 3,300 acres. This specific numerical revision is a key factual detail from the article.

Explanation

The core of the Court's stance is the need for a macro-level, scientific understanding of the Aravalli ecosystem. The bench repeatedly stated it would not allow any project ("not a single inch") until an independent expert committee, to be formed by the Union government, assesses the range holistically. This reflects the application of the precautionary principle in environmental governance.

Explanation

The Chief Justice of India, as the head of the judiciary, is designated as the Master of the Roster. This is a well-established convention and administrative power, allowing the CJI to allocate cases to different benches and constitute those benches, ensuring smooth functioning of the Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; practice directions or glossaries issued by the Supreme Court derive authority from the Court's inherent powers and Article 145, not from a specific Act of Parliament. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the glossary was an attempt to eliminate gender stereotyping and victim blaming.

Explanation

The Mathura rape case judgment was delivered by the Supreme Court in 1979. This case is a landmark in Indian feminist legal history, leading to widespread protests and eventual amendments to the rape laws through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the glossary was part of a 'gender audit of language as a carrier of discrimination based on sex, prohibited by Article 15.' While international treaties (D) and fundamental duties (C) are relevant, the direct constitutional anchor provided in the text is Article 15.

Explanation

The National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), is the nodal agency for compiling and releasing macroeconomic data like CPI, GDP, and IIP. The RBI uses this data for policy formulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The new series uses HCES 2023-24. Statement 2 is incorrect: The weight of Food and Beverages has been decreased from 45.86% to 36.75%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: New items like online media services and rural housing have been added to the basket.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that according to the new series, inflation was at 2.75% in January (2026). This is below the RBI's target of 4%. The other options are common reference points: 4% is the target, and the others are plausible distractors.

Explanation

Food prices are highly volatile due to seasonal and monsoon factors. By reducing their weight (from 45.86% to 36.75%), the overall CPI becomes less sensitive to food price shocks, providing a more stable measure of underlying, core inflation for monetary policy purposes.

Explanation

The WHO is one of the specialized agencies of the United Nations system, established to coordinate international public health efforts. The WTO deals with trade, the World Bank with finance, and the OECD with economic policy among developed nations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the WHO's funding is a mix of assessed contributions (mandatory) and voluntary contributions; the crisis stems from the loss of major voluntary funding. Statement 3 is directly quoted from the article as a consequence of the funding constraints.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The first major effect of Washington’s exit was the whittling down of the WHO’s budget for 2026-27 by $4 billion.' The other figures are plausible distractors given the scale of the budget.

Explanation

The article's central thesis, as reflected in its title and conclusion, is that the current crisis demonstrates the need for a financial model that is resilient to 'political unpredictabilities' and less dependent on the volatile funding decisions of major donors like the US.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution and is responsible for publishing the RBI-Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) to track the adoption of digital payments. NPCI operates payment systems like UPI, but the index is compiled and released by the RBI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The RBI-DPI uses March 2018 as the base year (100). Statement 2 is incorrect: The September 2025 index value is 516.76, not 493.22 (which was for March 2025). Statement 3 is correct: The RBI started publishing the composite RBI-DPI from January 1, 2021.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the RBI-DPI for September 2025 surged to 516.76. Option A (493.22) is the value for March 2025, making it a close distractor. Options B and D are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the report.

Explanation

The RBI's statement in the article specifies that the increase was 'driven by significant growth in parameters viz. Payment Performance and Payment Enablers'. Payment Infrastructure is a separate component of the index but was not highlighted as the primary driver in this specific growth phase.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for the Information Technology Act, 2000, and its associated rules, including the IT Rules (Intermediary Guidelines) of 2021 and their subsequent amendments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the amendment reduces the timeline for government takedown orders to 3 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendment focuses on deception/authenticity, not consent, which is a key criticism. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifies that the amendment requires action within 'as little as two hours for certain high-priority harm complaints'. This is a critical data point for prelims-style questions on recent regulatory changes.

Explanation

The article argues that compressing timelines forces platforms towards automated moderation, which is error-prone and lacks the context-sensitive judgement required for complex cases like sexual-image abuse, potentially leading to wrongful takedowns.

Explanation

The CBI was established by a government resolution but derives its legal authority to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. This act empowers it to investigate specific classes of cases across India, subject to state consent.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court proposed the Chief Justices of Manipur and Gauhati High Courts, not Delhi High Court. Statement 3 is incorrect; the applications were filed by Advocate Vrinda Grover, not the Solicitor General. The Solicitor General appeared for the Centre and State.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 27 cases had been shifted to neighbouring Assam for trial. The number 11 refers to the cases transferred to the CBI, which is a separate figure. This is a classic data-based prelims question.

Explanation

The core issue highlighted was the 'shocking casualness' and failure to inform victims, exemplified by a victim who died without knowing the status of her case. This underscores the violation of victims' rights under the CrPC, which was the central argument for judicial intervention.

Explanation

The article clearly states the referendum was held "alongside the general election" for the 13th Parliament of Bangladesh. This linkage is crucial for understanding the political context of the vote.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Charter proposes a bicameral legislature, not a unicameral one. Statement 2 is correct: Muhammad Yunus was the Chief Adviser of the interim government formed in August 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Implementation Order is of 2025, not 2024.

Explanation

The official figure provided is 4,80,74,429 votes, which is approximately 4.80 crore. The other options are distractors: 2.25 crore is the 'No' votes, and 6.05/7.06 crore are not mentioned totals.

Explanation

Term limits are a classic democratic tool to prevent the emergence of authoritarian, long-term rule and ensure regular political change. This is especially relevant in Bangladesh's context, given the recent history. While international practices may inform it, the core objective is domestic democratic consolidation.

Explanation

The PFRDA, established by the PFRDA Act, 2013, is the dedicated regulator for the pension sector in India, including the National Pension System (NPS). RBI regulates banking, SEBI regulates securities markets, and IRDAI regulates insurance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that while systems are in place, money has 'not' been put into AIFs yet, with flows expected by March 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the MARS committee has been set up for discussion. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NPS will have an equity market exposure of 25% 'by fiscal 2027'. The other options are close distractors based on other timelines mentioned, like AIF investments by March 2026.

Explanation

Equity investments historically offer higher returns than debt instruments over long periods, which is crucial for building a substantial retirement corpus. While other options might be secondary effects, the core objective of increasing the equity cap is to enhance the wealth accumulation for NPS subscribers.

Explanation

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 gives the Supreme Court similar power, but the couple approached the High Court directly. Articles 136 and 142 relate to the Supreme Court's special leave and enforcement powers, respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated that the consent of family, community, or clan is NOT necessary once two adults agree to marry. Statement 2 is correct as per the judgment. Statement 3 is also correct; the article mentions the J&K HC judgment referencing a 2025 Punjab and Haryana HC order on protecting live-in couples.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The petitioners are major and got married in August 2024 as per Muslim Personal Law rites and customs." The other options are plausible distractors close to the judgment date (February 2026) or other mentioned dates.

Explanation

The judgment's central holding is that blocking personal choice strikes at the core of dignity, and choosing a partner is a constitutional right under Articles 19 and 21. It explicitly rejects the need for community consent (contradicting option A). It also references protection for live-in relationships (contradicting option C) and asserts the court's duty to protect liberty (contradicting option D).

Explanation

The Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS) is a key high-frequency indicator of economic sentiment published regularly by the Reserve Bank of India. While NSO handles other surveys like CPI, the CCS falls under RBI's purview for monetary policy insights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Urban net income response was +3.3% (positive). Statement 2 is correct: Rural CCI is positive due to optimism on economy and jobs. Statement 3 is incorrect: A significantly higher share of rural consumers, not urban, reported increased spending on non-essentials.

Explanation

The article states that 25.9% of rural consumers reported a decrease in income vs 22.6% reporting an increase, resulting in a net response of -3.3%. The +3.3% was the urban net income response. The other figures are the individual component percentages, not the net value.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an increase in non-essential spending "possibly indicates an aspiration for a better lifestyle." This is a key indicator of economic development and rising standards of living in rural India, beyond mere subsistence. Inflationary pressure is linked to essential spending, not non-essential.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in its order, directed that the issue be resolved through expert consultation and referred to the court-appointed Central Empowered Committee (CEC). The CEC is a specialized body for monitoring forest and environmental cases as per SC directives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the project was conceptualised on 10,000 acres before being scaled down. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court specifically refused to allow the submission of the DPR at this stage. Statement 3 is correct: The petition was filed by five retired Indian Forest Service officers and an NGO.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the government proposed a uniform, height-based definition where any landform at an elevation of 100 metres or more above the local relief would be considered part of the Aravalli range. This definition was criticized and subsequently stayed by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's core directive was that no activity affecting the Aravalli hills can proceed until there is a clear, expert-backed determination of what constitutes the 'Aravalli range'. The court emphasized the need for a holistic scientific report from an independent expert panel before any development permissions.

Explanation

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution specifically provides that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. This is a distinct right separate from the right to life under Article 21.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news: the court accepted WhatsApp intimation as substantial compliance. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court held that non-compliance renders the arrest illegal irrespective of the bailable or non-bailable nature of the offence. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly stated the constitutional mandate applies to all statutes including IPC and BNS.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Shameem was found in possession and transportation of 95.93 grams of MDMA. This precise figure is crucial as it likely falls under the 'commercial quantity' category under the NDPS Act, attracting stringent bail conditions under Section 37.

Explanation

The core significance of the judgment is that it adapts the procedural requirement of Article 22(1) and BNSS Section 47 to modern communication tools. It recognizes digital intimation as valid 'substantial compliance' when physical communication is not feasible, thereby providing flexibility without diluting the constitutional right itself.