Question 1

What topics are covered in the 29 July 2026 current affairs quiz?

Accepted Answer

The 29 July 2026 quiz covers Environment, Polity, Governance, Education with 25 MCQs sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express.

Question 2

How to use 29 July 2026 daily quiz for UPSC preparation?

Accepted Answer

Attempt the quiz after reading the daily current affairs. Focus on understanding the explanation for each question. Link each topic to your static GK notes for comprehensive preparation.

Question 3

How many MCQs should I practice daily for competitive exams?

Accepted Answer

Experts recommend 10-20 current affairs MCQs daily. This takes only 5-7 minutes but significantly improves retention through active recall, which is more effective than passive reading.

Question 4

Are these quiz questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?

Accepted Answer

Yes. All questions are derived from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered and ranked by AI for exam relevance across UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

Question 5

Which Act is the primary environmental legislation under which the 2006 notification on prior environmental clearance was issued?

Accepted Answer

Environmental Protection Act, 1986, The 2006 notification requiring prior environmental clearance was issued under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986. The Supreme Court in this case held that the 2021 OM was ultra vires the objectives of the EPA 1986.

Question 6

Which high-level committee, chaired by a former ISRO chief, proposed governance and infrastructure reforms for the National Testing Agency (NTA) to prevent question paper leaks?

Accepted Answer

Radhakrishnan Committee, The article mentions the Radhakrishnan Committee, chaired by former ISRO chief K. Radhakrishnan, which proposed encrypted digital transmission, biometric authentication, and a network of secure government testing centres to overhaul NTA and examination processes.

Question 7

Which ministry is primarily responsible for introducing the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026?

Accepted Answer

Ministry of Education, The Bill was introduced by the Union Government following the NEET UG 2026 paper leak and the resignation of the former Union Education Minister. The Ministry of Education handles policies related to public examinations.

Question 8

Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) schemes?

Accepted Answer

Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), The article mentions S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY), as the official explaining the scheme details. MeitY is the nodal ministry for all semiconductor-related initiatives, including ISM 1.0 and 2.0.

Question 9

Which Act empowers the central government to issue notifications for environmental protection as per the Supreme Court in this case?

Accepted Answer

Environment Protection Act, 1986, The Supreme Court repeatedly referred to Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 as the source of power for the Centre to issue notifications like the 2017 notification. The other acts are not mentioned in the article.

Question 10

What is the procedural motion used by the US Senate to limit debate and force a final vote on the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026?

Accepted Answer

Cloture, The article states that the Senate voted 86-12 to invoke the cloture motion to advance the bill. Cloture is a formal procedure to set a time limit on debate, requiring 60 votes. Filibuster is the opposite (extended debate), veto override is for presidential vetoes, and executive orders are from the President.

Question 11

Which ministry is the National Water Development Agency (NWDA) under?

Accepted Answer

Ministry of Jal Shakti, The article mentions that the NWDA functions under the control of the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti. This ministry was formed in 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation with the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

Question 12

Which ministry is primarily responsible for water resources and replied to the Parliament query regarding the Mekedatu project?

Accepted Answer

Ministry of Jal Shakti, The article mentions the 'Jal Shakti Ministry's Parliament reply on July 27'. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal ministry for water resources, river development, and Ganga rejuvenation. Other ministries are not involved in this specific reply.

Question 13

Which constitutional body conducted the audit of West Bengal's Swasthya Sathi scheme?

Accepted Answer

Comptroller and Auditor General of India, The CAG is the constitutional authority under Article 148 that audits government expenditure. In this news, the CAG audited the Swasthya Sathi scheme and tabled its report in the West Bengal Assembly.

Question 14

Which body constituted a committee that proposed a licensing regime for AI training using copyrighted works?

Accepted Answer

Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, The article mentions that a committee constituted by the DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) proposed a direction on copyright and AI training, favoring a licensing regime. This is a key nodal body to remember for exam questions on AI regulation in India.

Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on ex post facto environmental clearances:

1. The 2021 Office Memorandum was quashed retrospectively, invalidating all clearances granted under it.

2. The court upheld the Centre's power to provide amnesty schemes for deserving projects through a proper notification.

3. The 2017 one-time amnesty clearances remain valid unless individually challenged in court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 2 and 3, Statement 1 is incorrect because the OM was quashed prospectively, not retrospectively, to protect ongoing projects. Statement 2 is correct as the court allowed the Centre to issue proper amnesty notifications. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly stated that 2017 one-time amnesty clearances remain valid unless individually challenged.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG examination:

1. In June 2024, over 2.4 million candidates competed for roughly 120,000 undergraduate medical seats, yielding a candidate-to-seat ratio exceeding 20:1.

2. The Radhakrishnan Committee recommended a transition to a fully computer-based testing model with an Item Response Theory-backed question bank as its core recommendation.

3. The article proposes a phased simulator rollout in Year 1 with zero adaptive testing to allow candidates to adapt to the new delivery mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 3, Statement 1 is correct based on the reported data. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Radhakrishnan Committee proposed governance and infrastructure measures (encrypted transmission, biometric authentication, secure centres), but the IRT-backed question bank and two-tier architecture are additional proposals from the article writer. Statement 3 is correct as the article specifies a phased rollout with no adaptive testing in Year 1.

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. The Bill increases the maximum fine for organized crime networks from ₹1 crore to ₹10 crore.

2. The Bill provides for extending the investigation timeline beyond two months if reasons are recorded in writing.

3. The Bill mandates that trials must be completed within three months from the date of filing the charge sheet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 3, Statement 1 is correct: the penalty increased from ₹1 crore to ₹10 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: unlike the Lokpal Act or SC/ST Act, the Bill does NOT provide for extending the investigation timeline. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill requires trial completion within three months of filing the charge sheet.

Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) 2.0:

1. The Union Cabinet approved ISM 2.0 with an outlay of Rs 1.27 lakh crore for a duration of six years.

2. Under ISM 2.0, a uniform capital subsidy of 50% is provided for all types of semiconductor fabs and packaging plants.

3. The scheme expands support to include semiconductor equipment, materials, chemicals, R&D, and talent development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 3, Statement 1 is correct: the Cabinet approved ISM 2.0 with Rs 1.27 lakh crore for six years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the subsidy is no longer uniform – silicon fabs get 40%, other fabs 35%, advanced packaging 35%, conventional packaging 25%. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme explicitly includes equipment, materials, chemicals, R&D, and talent development, moving beyond just fabrication.

Question 19

Consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court struck down the 2021 office memorandum on retrospective environmental clearance.

2. The 2017 notification was also struck down by the Supreme Court in this judgment.

3. The ruling applies prospectively, leaving existing clearances unaffected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 3, Statement 1 is correct: the 2021 memorandum was struck down. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2017 notification was upheld as valid. Statement 3 is correct: the bench said the ruling will apply prospectively, leaving existing clearances unaffected. Hence option C is correct.

Question 20

On which date did the Supreme Court deliver the judgment quashing the 2021 Office Memorandum on ex post facto environmental clearances?

Accepted Answer

July 29, 2026, The article states that the judgment was delivered on Wednesday, July 29, 2026. The other options are distractors: May 2025 was an earlier Division Bench judgment, and November 2025 was when a larger Bench diluted that judgment.

Question 21

How many candidates competed for undergraduate medical seats in the NEET-UG examination held in June 2024, as per the article?

Accepted Answer

2.4 million, The article explicitly states 'over 2.4 million candidates competed for roughly 120,000 undergraduate medical seats in June 2024'. The other options are close distractors to test exact recall.

Question 22

According to the article, what was the total number of pending cases in Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) as of 2025?

Accepted Answer

2.45 lakh, The article states that pending cases in FTSCs swelled from 2.02 lakh in 2023 to 2.45 lakh in 2025, as per data tabled in Rajya Sabha on July 23, 2026.

Question 23

Under India Semiconductor Mission 2.0, what is the capital subsidy provided for silicon fabrication plants?

Accepted Answer

40%, The article clearly states that under ISM 2.0, silicon fabs will receive a subsidy of 40% of project cost, down from the uniform 50% under ISM 1.0. Other fabs get 35%, advanced packaging 35%, and conventional packaging 25%.

Question 24

Which Supreme Court bench delivered the judgment on the retrospective environmental clearance case?

Accepted Answer

CJI Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M Pancholi, The article explicitly mentions the bench as consisting of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M Pancholi. The other options are incorrect benches not mentioned in the article.

Question 25

What is the primary effect of the Supreme Court quashing the 2021 OM prospectively?

Accepted Answer

Ongoing projects that relied on the 2021 OM are protected from immediate disruption., The court quashed the OM prospectively 'in an apparent bid to not upset ongoing projects.' This means projects already underway using clearances under the 2021 OM are not automatically invalidated, though they may face individual challenges. The Centre can still grant amnesty via proper notification, and the SC retains Article 142 powers.

Question 26

What is the primary objective of the proposed two-tier on-demand testing architecture for NEET-UG, as described in the article?

Accepted Answer

To reduce the candidate pool for the final selection phase and distribute infrastructure load across the year, The article explains that the two-tier architecture allows candidates to take a preliminary screening exam on-demand throughout the year, which reduces the candidate pool for the final selection by over 80% and distributes infrastructure load across 12 months, eliminating single-day psychological stress and undercutting coaching industry leverage.

Question 27

What is the primary challenge highlighted in the article regarding the implementation of the Public Examinations Amendment Bill, 2026?

Accepted Answer

Massive backlog and varying disposal rates in Fast Track Special Courts, The article emphasizes that despite the Bill's provisions for time-bound investigations and speedy trials, the existing FTSCs have over 2.45 lakh pending cases, and average trial times vary drastically across states — from 257 days in Andhra Pradesh to 1,717 days in Delhi for POCSO cases. This backlog threatens the law's effectiveness.

Question 28

What is the primary strategic objective behind India Semiconductor Mission 2.0?

Accepted Answer

To build a comprehensive end-to-end semiconductor ecosystem in India, The article highlights that ISM 2.0 aims to insert India into the global chip supply chain and deepen domestic value addition. It expands from fabrication to equipment, materials, chemicals, design, R&D, and talent development, reflecting a shift to a comprehensive value-chain strategy for long-term competitiveness and strategic autonomy.

Question 29

What was the primary reason given by the Supreme Court for striking down the 2021 office memorandum?

Accepted Answer

It was a perpetual regime without intelligible differentia, violating Articles 14 and 21, The Court held that the 2021 memorandum envisaged a perpetual regime applicable to all permissible projects without laying down intelligible differentia, and thus failed the proportionality test and violated Articles 14 and 21. The Jan Vishwas Act was cited as reinforcing the Centre's power, not as a violation.

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