Question 1

What topics are covered in the 23 September 2026 current affairs quiz?

Accepted Answer

The 23 September 2026 quiz covers Polity, Governance, Agriculture, Social Issues with 25 MCQs sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express.

Question 2

How to use 23 September 2026 daily quiz for UPSC preparation?

Accepted Answer

Attempt the quiz after reading the daily current affairs. Focus on understanding the explanation for each question. Link each topic to your static GK notes for comprehensive preparation.

Question 3

How many MCQs should I practice daily for competitive exams?

Accepted Answer

Experts recommend 10-20 current affairs MCQs daily. This takes only 5-7 minutes but significantly improves retention through active recall, which is more effective than passive reading.

Question 4

Are these quiz questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?

Accepted Answer

Yes. All questions are derived from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered and ranked by AI for exam relevance across UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

Question 5

Which constitutional provision was invoked by the Supreme Court in the recent judgment regarding illegal arrest?

Accepted Answer

Article 22 (Article 22(1) specifically), The Supreme Court relied on Article 22(1) of the Constitution, which provides that no arrested person shall be kept in custody without being informed of the grounds of arrest and has the right to consult a lawyer. Article 21 deals with right to life and liberty, but the specific safeguard for arrest is Article 22.

Question 6

Which article of the Constitution of India provides protection against arrest and detention, including the right to be informed of grounds of arrest and production before a magistrate within 24 hours?

Accepted Answer

Article 22, Article 22(1) guarantees the right to be informed of grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer. Article 22(2) mandates production before a magistrate within 24 hours. Article 21 deals with right to life and personal liberty, not specifically arrest procedures.

Question 7

Which constitutional body is responsible for the preparation and revision of electoral rolls in India?

Accepted Answer

Election Commission of India, Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls, in the Election Commission of India. The EROs work under its supervision.

Question 8

Which ministry is responsible for the PM-KISAN scheme mentioned in the article?

Accepted Answer

Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, The PM-KISAN scheme is implemented by the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It provides ₹6,000 per year to eligible landholding farmer families, and the article notes that only 23% of its beneficiaries are women due to land record-based eligibility.

Question 9

According to the Indian Express investigation, how many times did Election Commissioners Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi formally object on record to ECI decisions over the last 10 months?

Accepted Answer

14 times, The article states that Sandhu and Joshi have formally objected, on record, at least 14 times over the last 10 months — four times on a single day. This is a key data point from the investigation into internal dissents within the Election Commission.

Question 10

Which Indian government body is primarily responsible for implementing the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) mentioned in the context of CBAM?

Accepted Answer

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (under Ministry of Power), The article states that the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, along with the commerce, steel, and environment ministries, should be filing responses to the EU's CBAM consultations. The CCTS is an energy efficiency and emissions intensity scheme, which falls under the Bureau of Energy Efficiency's mandate, operating under the Ministry of Power.

Question 11

Which constitutional article establishes the Election Commission of India?

Accepted Answer

Article 324, Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. The other articles deal with President's Rule (356), National Emergency (352), and special status for Jammu & Kashmir (370).

Question 12

Which article of the Constitution of India contemplates that the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be made by the President subject to any law made by Parliament?

Accepted Answer

Article 324(2), Article 324(2) specifically provides that the appointment of the CEC and ECs shall be made by the President subject to any law made by Parliament. This provision was the basis for the Supreme Court's direction in Anoop Baranwal case and the subsequent 2023 Act.

Question 13

Which Act of Parliament primarily governs the preparation and revision of electoral rolls for parliamentary and assembly constituencies?

Accepted Answer

Representation of the People Act, 1950, The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals with the allocation of seats, delimitation of constituencies, and preparation of electoral rolls. The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, framed under this Act, prescribe the detailed procedure. Option A (1951 Act) deals with the conduct of elections and disputes. Option D is about the Election Commission's service conditions.

Question 14

According to the article, which international mountain development centre supported the report 'A Resilient Himalaya'?

Accepted Answer

International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), Nepal, The article states that the report was compiled by Systemiq in partnership with Integrated Mountain Initiative, and supported by ICIMOD, Nepal and GB Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment, Uttarakhand. IPCC, UNEP and WMO are mentioned elsewhere in the article but are not cited as supporters of this report.

Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on Article 22(1):

1. The ruling applies only to offences under the BNS, not to special enactments.

2. The Court held that the release of a person arrested unconstitutionally should be treated as bail.

3. The Court directed that a police officer who violates the procedure must face a departmental inquiry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only 3, Statement 1 is incorrect – the Court said Article 22(1) applies across the spectrum, including special enactments. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Court said release after an unconstitutional arrest should NOT be treated as bail. Statement 3 is correct as per the judgment that an officer who violates the procedure must face departmental inquiry. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent judgment on Article 22 safeguards:

1. The Court held that any violation of Article 22(1) or 22(2) renders the arrest unconstitutional, not merely illegal.

2. The Court allowed investigating agencies to re-arrest an accused without any judicial approval if the earlier arrest was unconstitutional.

3. The Court directed that High Courts may award compensation under public law remedy for violation of Article 22(2).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 3, Statement 1 is correct as the SC held that violation makes arrest unconstitutional. Statement 2 is false because the SC specifically ruled that re-arrest requires judicial approval, not at the discretion of the same investigating officer. Statement 3 is correct as the SC held High Courts can award compensation under public law remedy for Article 22(2) violations.

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:

1. The ECI is a three-member body consisting of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

2. The 2023 Act requires the Commission to act 'as far as possible, unanimously', meaning all decisions must be unanimous.

3. The two Election Commissioners in the news, Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi, recorded objections that decisions were taken without their knowledge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 3, Statement 1 is correct: ECI is a three-member body (CEC + 2 ECs). Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2023 Act requires unanimity 'as far as possible', but where members differ, decisions are taken by majority. Statement 3 is correct per the news article.

Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Women Farmers' Empowerment Bill:

1. It grants women a 'Woman Farmer Certificate' independent of land ownership.

2. It is the first law in India to operationalise the activity-based definition of 'farmer' from the National Policy for Farmers (2007).

3. It excludes landless livestock rearers and pastoralists from its definition of a farmer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only 1 and 2, Statement 1 is correct: the Bill grants a Woman Farmer Certificate irrespective of land ownership. Statement 2 is correct: it is the first state legislation to give enforceable legal form to the 2007 National Policy's definition. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Bill explicitly recognises landless cultivators, landless livestock rearers, agricultural labourers, plantation labourers, and pastoralists.

Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Tarang Shakti-26:

1. The exercise will be held at Air Force Station Jodhpur and adjoining air bases from September 26 to October 12, 2026.

2. The United States will participate with its F-35 combat aircraft.

3. 32 countries will participate as active forces while 8 nations will send observers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2, Statement 1 is correct: dates and venue match the article. Statement 2 is correct: the US F-35 is listed as participating. Statement 3 is incorrect: 8 nations are participating as forces and 32 as observers (the article says 'eight forces... 32 countries will attend as observers'). Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 20

According to the Supreme Court judgment, within what timeframe must a magistrate grant independent satisfaction for the re-arrest of a person whose earlier arrest was held unconstitutional?

Accepted Answer

1 week, The judgment explicitly stated that any attempt to re-arrest such a person needs an endorsement by a superior officer and a magistrate's independent satisfaction within a week. This time limit ensures prompt judicial scrutiny and prevents indefinite detention without valid grounds.

Question 21

On which date did the Supreme Court bench of Justices Ujjal Bhuyan and Atul S Chandurkar deliver the judgment strengthening safeguards around arrest under Article 22?

Accepted Answer

September 21, 2026, The article states the bench held on Monday (September 21). The publication date is September 23, 2026. The judgment date is specifically September 21, 2026.

Question 22

According to the article, how many eligible persons in Goa were denied enrollment on the electoral roll despite the ERO's approval, due to a software block from the EC's central IT system?

Accepted Answer

97, The article specifically mentions that 97 people in Goa met all requirements, the ERO found them eligible, but the centrally controlled software did not allow the ERO's decisions to be recorded.

Question 23

According to the article, what percentage of PM-KISAN beneficiaries are women nationally?

Accepted Answer

23%, The article states that only 23% of women have been beneficiaries of PM-KISAN. 14% refers to the share of operational agricultural land holdings with women (Agri Census 2015-16). 41% is the share of unpaid female agricultural workers. 70% is the share of women beneficiaries in Meghalaya.

Question 24

Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?

Accepted Answer

Article 324, Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India. Article 315 deals with UPSC, Article 280 with Finance Commission, and Article 338 with National Commission for SCs. This is a standard static GK linkage from the ECI topic.

Question 25

What is the primary objective of the safeguards under Article 22(1) as reaffirmed by the Supreme Court?

Accepted Answer

To prevent arbitrary arrest and detention, The Court emphasized that the requirement to communicate grounds of arrest is a fundamental safeguard against arbitrary state action. It ensures that a person knows why they are being deprived of liberty and can challenge the legality of the arrest. This goes to the heart of procedural due process under the Constitution.

Question 26

What is the primary objective of the new procedure laid down by the Supreme Court for re-arrest of a person whose earlier arrest was found unconstitutional?

Accepted Answer

To ensure that the re-arrest is subject to judicial oversight and prevent arbitrary state action, The SC held that the power to re-arrest must not be left to the discretion of the same authority that violated Article 22. It required judicial imprimatur to rule out foul play and ensure accountability. This is not blanket immunity but a safeguard against repeated constitutional violations.

Question 27

What is the primary institutional concern raised by the two Election Commissioners about the centralization of the electoral roll IT system?

Accepted Answer

It undermines the statutory authority of the ERO and weakens the safeguard against roll rigging, The article states that the ECI's traditional defense against rigging was that no single person controls the list, as thousands of statutory EROs do. Centralized control allows a team in Delhi to stall, override, or cancel ground-level decisions, eroding this safeguard.

Question 28

What is the primary structural barrier that the Maharashtra Women Farmers' Empowerment Bill seeks to address?

Accepted Answer

Exclusion of women from agricultural schemes due to land-record-based identification, The article highlights that land records are primarily in men's names, and since scheme access (PM-KISAN, credit, subsidies) is tied to these records, women are systematically filtered out. The Bill creates an alternative identity (Woman Farmer Certificate) delinked from land ownership to directly address this structural bias.

Question 29

What is the primary objective of the new scheme announced by the Ministry of Mines to promote processing of lithium and nickel?

Accepted Answer

To reduce India's 100% import dependence for key critical minerals and strengthen the EV battery ecosystem, The article states that India is 100% import-dependent for critical minerals like lithium, nickel, cobalt, and that the scheme aims to promote domestic processing. This reduces supply chain vulnerability and supports battery manufacturing for electric vehicles. Export promotion or monopoly creation are not objectives mentioned.

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