23 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 22(1) guarantees the right to be informed of grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer. Article 22(2) mandates production before a magistrate within 24 hours. Article 21 deals with right to life and personal liberty, not specifically arrest procedures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC held that violation makes arrest unconstitutional. Statement 2 is false because the SC specifically ruled that re-arrest requires judicial approval, not at the discretion of the same investigating officer. Statement 3 is correct as the SC held High Courts can award compensation under public law remedy for Article 22(2) violations.

Explanation

The article states the bench held on Monday (September 21). The publication date is September 23, 2026. The judgment date is specifically September 21, 2026.

Explanation

The SC held that the power to re-arrest must not be left to the discretion of the same authority that violated Article 22. It required judicial imprimatur to rule out foul play and ensure accountability. This is not blanket immunity but a safeguard against repeated constitutional violations.

Explanation

The Supreme Court relied on Article 22(1) of the Constitution, which provides that no arrested person shall be kept in custody without being informed of the grounds of arrest and has the right to consult a lawyer. Article 21 deals with right to life and liberty, but the specific safeguard for arrest is Article 22.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect – the Court said Article 22(1) applies across the spectrum, including special enactments. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Court said release after an unconstitutional arrest should NOT be treated as bail. Statement 3 is correct as per the judgment that an officer who violates the procedure must face departmental inquiry. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly stated that any attempt to re-arrest such a person needs an endorsement by a superior officer and a magistrate's independent satisfaction within a week. This time limit ensures prompt judicial scrutiny and prevents indefinite detention without valid grounds.

Explanation

The Court emphasized that the requirement to communicate grounds of arrest is a fundamental safeguard against arbitrary state action. It ensures that a person knows why they are being deprived of liberty and can challenge the legality of the arrest. This goes to the heart of procedural due process under the Constitution.

Explanation

The High Court exercised its writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution, which empowers High Courts to issue orders and writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and other legal rights. The court held that this constitutional remedy cannot be denied even if the case falls outside the statuary MTP framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the court expressly allowed termination for the 11-year-old girl. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court explicitly ruled that the statutory limit is not absolute and constitutional protection under Article 226 can override it. Statement 3 is correct as per the court's direction to preserve foetal material for DNA profiling.

Explanation

The article states: 'the pregnancy had advanced to 24 weeks and 02 days by September 22, the date of the judgment.' The other options are close distractors; the correct figure is exactly 24 weeks and 2 days.

Explanation

The court cited the Supreme Court ruling in S vs Union of India (2026) to hold that constitutional courts must examine circumstances from the perspective of the pregnant woman's rights, not mechanically enforce statutory deadlines. This principle was applied to the minor's case, outweighing the expired statutory period.

Explanation

The PM-KISAN scheme is implemented by the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It provides ₹6,000 per year to eligible landholding farmer families, and the article notes that only 23% of its beneficiaries are women due to land record-based eligibility.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill grants a Woman Farmer Certificate irrespective of land ownership. Statement 2 is correct: it is the first state legislation to give enforceable legal form to the 2007 National Policy's definition. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Bill explicitly recognises landless cultivators, landless livestock rearers, agricultural labourers, plantation labourers, and pastoralists.

Explanation

The article states that only 23% of women have been beneficiaries of PM-KISAN. 14% refers to the share of operational agricultural land holdings with women (Agri Census 2015-16). 41% is the share of unpaid female agricultural workers. 70% is the share of women beneficiaries in Meghalaya.

Explanation

The article highlights that land records are primarily in men's names, and since scheme access (PM-KISAN, credit, subsidies) is tied to these records, women are systematically filtered out. The Bill creates an alternative identity (Woman Farmer Certificate) delinked from land ownership to directly address this structural bias.

Explanation

The article states that MoSPI released the 'Sources and Methods' document detailing the new GDP series changes. MoSPI is the nodal ministry for national accounts, while Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, Ministry of Corporate Affairs deals with company filings (MGT-7 forms), and MNRE handles renewable energy data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MGT-7 and MGT-7A forms list activities with at least 10% turnover share, and MoSPI uses this to split GVA. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new series sources financial savings data from SEBI, not RBI (old source). Statement 3 is correct: nominal gold savings more than doubled from Rs 64,504 crore (old) to Rs 1.65 lakh crore (new). Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the nominal value of household savings in gold and silver ornaments in 2022-23 more than doubled to Rs 1.65 lakh crore in the new series from Rs 64,504 crore in the old series. Rs 1.92 lakh crore is the real GVA of the electricity sub-sector in April-June 2026. The other options are distractors from other figures in the article.

Explanation

The article explains that MGT-7/MGT-7A forms require companies to list all business activities contributing at least 10% of turnover with their share. MoSPI uses this data to apportion the enterprise's GVA across sectors (e.g., manufacturing and services) instead of assigning the entire GVA to the major activity sector. This leads to more accurate sectoral GDP estimates.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. The other articles deal with President's Rule (356), National Emergency (352), and special status for Jammu & Kashmir (370).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Minister. Statement 2 is incorrect: Justice Datta said the inclusion fails the perception test. Statement 3 is correct: the division bench referred the case to the CJI to constitute a Constitution Bench. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The petitioners argued that the 2023 Act 'defeated' the Anoop Baranwal judgment, which had mandated a selection panel of PM, LoP, and CJI. The Manoj Narula case was cited by the Solicitor General on the sanctity of the PM's office, but it is not the judgment allegedly defeated. Kesavananda Bharati is the basic structure case, and S.R. Bommai deals with President's Rule.

Explanation

Justice Datta explicitly stated that the inclusion of a Minister fails the 'perception test' — the principle that justice not only be done but be seen to be done. The other doctrines are not directly invoked in this context. The Solicitor General argued on trust in the PM, but the judge emphasized the appearance of impartiality.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Chinese President Xi Jinping arrived in Washington for a state visit with US President Donald Trump. This is a static fact about a major international summit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the tariff truce expires on November 10, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: China controls 70% of mining and 85% of refining (the percentages are swapped). Statement 3 is correct: the White House ceremony featured 479 military personnel. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China controls up to 85% of global rare earth refining capacity. The 70% figure refers to mining, not refining. This is a common exam trap.

Explanation

The article mentions that Asian allies express growing concern that softening support for Taiwan and concessions on its diplomatic status could be leveraged by Washington to secure economic gains with Beijing. This reflects the strategic implications of the summit.

Explanation

Article 324(2) specifically provides that the appointment of the CEC and ECs shall be made by the President subject to any law made by Parliament. This provision was the basis for the Supreme Court's direction in Anoop Baranwal case and the subsequent 2023 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Leader of Opposition is in Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: the Anoop Baranwal bench specified the committee with LoP in Lok Sabha. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Anoop Baranwal directed that until Parliament enacts a law, appointments to the Election Commission shall be made by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India. The CJI was included to ensure independence from executive influence.

Explanation

The petitioners argued that by replacing the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister, the selection committee now has two representatives of the government (PM and Cabinet Minister) against one opposition member (LoP). This violates the independence of the Election Commission as the executive can dominate appointments. Justice Datta also noted that the LoP's role becomes 'ornamental' due to collective responsibility.

Explanation

The article states that the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, along with the commerce, steel, and environment ministries, should be filing responses to the EU's CBAM consultations. The CCTS is an energy efficiency and emissions intensity scheme, which falls under the Bureau of Energy Efficiency's mandate, operating under the Ministry of Power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CBAM reporting started Jan 1, 2026, and certificate purchases begin Feb 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: CBAM covers only six specific sectors (iron & steel, aluminium, cement, fertilisers, hydrogen, electricity), not all imports. Statement 3 is correct: Article 9 allows deduction for carbon prices paid domestically, provided the EU recognises the scheme.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'ICRIER estimates that the tax could cut India's steel exports to the EU by 24%.' The 13% figure refers to the actual fall in iron and steel shipments in the first four months of the new regime (Jan-Apr 2026), while 1% is the estimated global steel emissions reduction from CBAM.

Explanation

The article explains that India's CCTS does not charge per tonne of absolute emissions like the EU ETS. Instead, it sets an emissions-per-unit-of-output limit. A plant that stays within its limit pays nothing domestically. Under Article 9, only explicit carbon costs paid at home can be deducted. Therefore, compliant plants pay the full CBAM bill in Europe, while non-compliant plants that buy credits get a deduction—a perverse incentive.

Explanation

The article states that Sandhu and Joshi have formally objected, on record, at least 14 times over the last 10 months — four times on a single day. This is a key data point from the investigation into internal dissents within the Election Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: dates and venue match the article. Statement 2 is correct: the US F-35 is listed as participating. Statement 3 is incorrect: 8 nations are participating as forces and 32 as observers (the article says 'eight forces... 32 countries will attend as observers'). Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India. Article 315 deals with UPSC, Article 280 with Finance Commission, and Article 338 with National Commission for SCs. This is a standard static GK linkage from the ECI topic.

Explanation

The article states that India is 100% import-dependent for critical minerals like lithium, nickel, cobalt, and that the scheme aims to promote domestic processing. This reduces supply chain vulnerability and supports battery manufacturing for electric vehicles. Export promotion or monopoly creation are not objectives mentioned.

Explanation

Tarang Shakti is a multinational air exercise hosted by the Indian Air Force, as mentioned in the article. The IAF organizes it to enhance interoperability with foreign air forces.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the exercise is at Jodhpur from Sept 26 to Oct 12, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the F-35 first appeared at Aero India 2025 (display only) and its first tactical participation is in Tarang Shakti-26. Statement 3 is correct: invitations were sent to 65 friendly foreign countries.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that seven foreign air forces — from the US, France, Germany, Australia, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and the UAE — are participating in Tarang Shakti-26.

Explanation

The article highlights that the IAF is moving from predominantly bilateral engagements to complex multinational air operations involving multiple air forces simultaneously. This is the core strategic objective of Tarang Shakti-26.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the petition sought strict price control under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013. This order is issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, to regulate prices of essential medicines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bench used the exact phrase 'broad daylight dacoity'. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article states the MRP was 10 times the PTR (₹27,000 vs ₹2,700), not 15 times. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench comprised Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the MRP of an essential cancer drug was ₹27,000, while the price to retailer (PTR) was only ₹2,700 – a 10x markup. The other options are close distractors; ₹2,700 is the PTR, not the MRP.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the petition sought to prevent 'alleged unethical overpricing of essential medicines by pharma companies and retailers' and 'ensure strict price control under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013' to prevent violations of the price-fixing mechanism.

Explanation

The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals with the allocation of seats, delimitation of constituencies, and preparation of electoral rolls. The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, framed under this Act, prescribe the detailed procedure. Option A (1951 Act) deals with the conduct of elections and disputes. Option D is about the Election Commission's service conditions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the two ECs did write to the Cabinet Secretary on July 29, 2026, as reported. Statement 2 is correct – EROs are statutory authorities under the RP Act 1950. Statement 3 is correct – Joshi proposed an IIT audit to ensure legal compliance.

Explanation

According to the article, the order changing oversight was issued on July 28. On July 29, the two ECs wrote to the Cabinet Secretary. On July 30, they jointly set aside that order and restored the previous allocation. August 14 was when Sandhu recorded detailed concerns about ERONet access.

Explanation

The core grievance was that DG(IT) controlled who could add, delete, or modify names, thereby bypassing the ERO's statutory discretion. This centralisation violated the deliberate decentralised design of the electoral roll system. Options A and D are not mentioned; option C (budgetary approval) was not a central issue.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls, in the Election Commission of India. The EROs work under its supervision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ECI is a three-member body (CEC + 2 ECs). Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2023 Act requires unanimity 'as far as possible', but where members differ, decisions are taken by majority. Statement 3 is correct per the news article.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that 97 people in Goa met all requirements, the ERO found them eligible, but the centrally controlled software did not allow the ERO's decisions to be recorded.

Explanation

The article states that the ECI's traditional defense against rigging was that no single person controls the list, as thousands of statutory EROs do. Centralized control allows a team in Delhi to stall, override, or cancel ground-level decisions, eroding this safeguard.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Health Minister J. P. Nadda making statements about the scheme, indicating that the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) is the nodal ministry. This is also the standard static GK fact.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: ₹5 lakh annual cover for secondary and tertiary care. Statement 2 is correct: Ayushman Arogya Mandirs are the primary healthcare component of the broader Ayushman Bharat programme. Statement 3 is correct: PM Modi said more than 60 crore beneficiaries have access. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states that 'AB-PMJAY had funded 13.25 crore hospital admissions worth ₹2.03 lakh crore through more than 38,000 empanelled public and private hospitals as of August 31.' The other options are common distractors: 48.54 crore is the number of Ayushman cards, 500 crore is Ayushman Arogya Mandir visits, and 60 crore is the number of beneficiaries.

Explanation

PM Modi stated that the scheme 'enabled record savings on medical expenses, thus benefitting the poor and middle class.' Union Minister Nadda also emphasised protecting families from the burden of medical debt and financial hardship. This is the core objective of the programme.

Explanation

The article's sources mention the US Bureau of Industry and Security as the agency behind export-control rules. The other options are locations or bodies mentioned in the article but not associated with export-control rules in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Shanghai Gigafactory produces roughly 40% of Tesla's global output. Statement 2 is the examiner's trap — the 20-25% revenue loss from blocked A100/H100 sales applies to Nvidia, not Tesla. Statement 3 correctly reflects the article's point about rare-earth leverage.

Explanation

The article states that Tesla's Shanghai Gigafactory produces roughly 40% of Tesla's global output and is its largest single plant. The other options represent data connected to Apple's iPhone assembly (>90%) and Nvidia's revenue exposure (20-25%), making them close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly notes that China's dominant position in processing and exporting rare-earth materials has given Beijing significant leverage in negotiations. The other options are extreme and not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly credits the WMO's September update for the near-100 per cent persistence forecast and the warning that El Niño is expected to intensify to a very strong level. The other bodies mentioned perform different roles: NHC tracks hurricanes, IMD monitors India's monsoon, and Climate Impact Lab projects heat-related mortality.

Explanation

Statement 1 reproduces the NHC's observation of Polo's rapid intensification. Statement 2 is a trap: the article says El Niño increases wind shear over the Atlantic, not the Pacific, and Pacific conditions favour cyclones. Statement 3 is directly stated by the WMO. Therefore both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The Climate Impact Lab estimates 451,000 additional heat-related deaths globally for the El Niño period beginning June 2026 through February 2027. India's projected toll is 15,800; the Sahel's is 66,800; Indonesia's projected toll is 19,300.

Explanation

The article explains that El Niño can increase wind shear over the Atlantic, suppressing hurricane formation, while Pacific waters remain favourable for storms. The other options contradict the article: a positive IOD was developing, NHC continued tracking Polo, and land temperatures were projected above normal.

Explanation

Justice Datta defended the collegium system, which is the current method for appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts, evolved from the Second Judges Case. The NJAC was struck down in 2015.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Datta used the words 'disquieting', 'disingenuous', and 'evasive'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Justice Sharma said the submission was not a criticism but a parallel regarding separation of powers. Statement 3 is correct: the plea was against the 2023 law on CEC/EC appointment.

Explanation

The article states that Justice Dipankar Datta wrote the 70-page split verdict opinion. Justice S.C. Sharma was the other judge who disagreed. Solicitor General Mehta argued for the Centre, and the CJI is not mentioned as author.

Explanation

The Centre, through SG Tushar Mehta, drew a parallel: if the collegium (judges appointing judges) is allowed despite criticism, then the executive should also be free from 'outsider' participation in EC appointments. Justice Datta rejected this as disingenuous.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created under the Advocates Act, 1961. It regulates the legal profession and legal education in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the SC's oral observation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC said BCI has no authority to dictate nuances. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article about the petition's allegation.

Explanation

The petition submitted that 77% of the General Council members of IIULER Goa are nominated by the BCI or the BCI-PEARL Trust, highlighting the conflict of interest.

Explanation

The petition argues that the BCI cannot act as both regulator and owner/manager of law universities, as it compromises its ability to set standards and conduct impartial inspections.

Explanation

The news explicitly mentions a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant proposing the exemption. While CBSE and the Ministry of Education are involved in implementation, the proposal and court hearing are the focus of this news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court proposed the scheme be mandatory for Class 6 only from January 1, 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court explicitly said it did not make the suggestion on a point of legality, but after considering the comfort and convenience of students. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article regarding CBSE guidelines.

Explanation

The article states: 'the Supreme Court had proposed that the scheme should be mandatory for Class 6 only from January 1, 2027'. The other options are distractors: September 23 is the date of the hearing, September 28 is the next hearing date, and January 1, 2026 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The court stated: 'We did not make this suggestion on a point of legality, but after considering the comfort and convenience of Class 6 students.' The court also noted that springing a surprise on the current batch with only four months left in the year would be unfair. While teacher availability was mentioned as a query, it was not the primary reason for the proposal.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Jaishankar conveyed India's concerns regarding the 'Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act' (SRIA). CAATSA, DPA, and IEEPA are other US laws not mentioned in this news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting occurred during UNGA high-level week. Statement 2 is incorrect; the tariff authorized is up to 100%, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct as India's official stance is to protect economic interests and energy security.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SRIA authorizes tariffs of up to 100% on countries buying Russian oil and gas, including China and India. Other percentages are distractors.

Explanation

India's official reaction, as mentioned in the article, is that it will 'take all necessary steps to protect its economic interests and ensure energy security for the nation.' Options A, C, and D are not supported by the news.

Explanation

Article 324, as quoted in the article, states that the appointment of the CEC and other ECs shall be made by the President subject to any law made by Parliament. Section 7 is part of the 2023 Act, not the Anoop Baranwal judgment; the 2023 Act excludes the CJI; and Tushar Mehta represented the Centre, not the petitioners.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says the 2023 Act provides for selection by a three-member panel. Statement 2 is incorrect because Justice Dipankar Datta rejected the reference, while Justice S C Sharma said it deserved referral. Statement 3 is correct as the bench observed that a three-judge bench decision would be of little worth and only delay adjudication. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Centre was represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta while defending the law. Jaya Thakur is a petitioner, and Justices Dipankar Datta and S C Sharma formed the two-judge bench.

Explanation

The article says the court asked how a committee comprising the PM, LoP and a Cabinet Minister could be independent when it is decided by a 2:1 majority, and the Cabinet Minister is a PM pick. The CJI, who was part of the interim arrangement under Anoop Baranwal, is left out of the 2023 Act.

Explanation

The report was produced by the Climate Impact Lab (CIL), a research initiative of the University of Chicago's Energy Policy Institute. Rhodium Group contributed co-authors but is a separate consulting firm. EPIC is the parent institute, IPCC is a UN body unrelated to this specific report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report projects 15,800 heat deaths in India. Statement 2 is incorrect – the report highlights Southern India as more vulnerable because normal winter temperatures there already cause heat deaths, and added warmth pushes them higher. Statement 3 is correct – the global excess death estimate is 4,51,000. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The report specifically states that between December 2026 and February 2027, India is projected to see about 7,400 additional heat deaths. 15,800 is the total for the full six-month period (Sep 2026–Feb 2027). 4,51,000 is the global total, and 66,800 is the Sahel region estimate.

Explanation

The report states that the temperature spike from the Super El Niño will expose populations to conditions similar to those expected from climate change in 20 years. This gives nations a rare opportunity to act before deaths occur, hence the 'postcard from the future' analogy. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article mentions External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar leading the Indian delegation and the Ministry of External Affairs issuing a statement. The MEA is the nodal ministry for all foreign relations and UN engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Jaishankar chaired the meeting under that theme. Statement 2 is incorrect - the G4 discussed 'reformed multilateralism and a more representative UN Security Council', not the World Bank. Statement 3 is incorrect - Jaishankar said 'must not accept or legitimise chokepoints'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IMEC was 'mooted by New Delhi in 2023'. This corridor was announced during India's G20 presidency.

Explanation

The article states that the G4 foreign ministers 'discussed the imperative of reformed multilateralism and a more representative, responsive, and effective UN Security Council that reflects today's global realities'. Option B captures this objective accurately.

Explanation

The article states that Greenland is an autonomous, self-governing country within the Kingdom of Denmark, while Copenhagen retains responsibility for foreign policy, national defence, security and monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the pact entails US permanent basing, overflight, and defence of Greenland. Statement 2 is incorrect because the agreement does not transfer Greenland to US control. Statement 3 is incorrect because the agreement remains valid even if Greenland transitions to full independence.

Explanation

The article states that roughly 88% of Greenland's population is Inuit or of mixed Inuit-Danish heritage. The 81% figure refers to ice cover, while 57% is a distractor based on the population figure of less than 57,000.

Explanation

The article says the pact bans non-NATO nations from building bases or making sensitive investments without US approval and integrates US capabilities into the NATO framework to strengthen collective deterrence. It does not transfer territory, minerals, or remove Greenland from NATO mechanisms.

Explanation

The article states that the report was compiled by Systemiq in partnership with Integrated Mountain Initiative, and supported by ICIMOD, Nepal and GB Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment, Uttarakhand. IPCC, UNEP and WMO are mentioned elsewhere in the article but are not cited as supporters of this report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: black carbon is a component of PM2.5. Statement 2 is incorrect because black carbon is a particulate pollutant, not a greenhouse gas, and stays in the atmosphere for only days to weeks. Statement 3 is correct: the UNEP–WMO assessment says black carbon can heat the mid-atmosphere and cool the surface, increasing atmospheric stability and suppressing convection.

Explanation

The report states that industry, primarily brick kilns, contributes 32–42% of South Asian anthropogenic black carbon deposition across the region. The other ranges are close distractors not supported by the article.

Explanation

Black carbon deposited on snow lowers albedo, so the snow absorbs more solar radiation rather than reflecting it. This lengthens the melting season and creates a feedback loop where more heat absorption causes faster melting. Option D is a real effect on monsoon/precipitation but is not the mechanism of glacier melt.

Explanation

The Karnataka High Court, in its July 15 order, directed the state government to pay Rs 5 lakh compensation. The Supreme Court upheld this order and dismissed the state's appeal, so it was not the Supreme Court that originally awarded compensation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Supreme Court dismissed the state's appeal against the High Court order. Statement 2 is incorrect as the High Court directed payment of Rs 5 lakh compensation. Statement 3 is correct as the bench comprised Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta.

Explanation

The Karnataka High Court directed the state government to pay Rs 5 lakh in compensation. The other amounts are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The High Court held that a citizen's fundamental rights cannot be bartered away simply because of pressure from foreign embassies, and the Supreme Court upheld the ruling. Compensation was awarded for the illegal arrest. Options A, B and D contradict the court's findings.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the joint statement was by China's Supreme People's Court, Supreme People's Procuratorate and Ministry of Public Security. All three bodies were involved in issuing the guidelines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the guidelines were issued a day before the Trump-Xi summit. Statement 3 is correct: the guidelines divide substances into medicinal and non-pharmaceutical categories. Statement 2 is incorrect because the addition of two chemicals to the export control list was a separate action by China, not part of the guidelines themselves.

Explanation

The article specifically states China added two chemicals to its export control list, requiring permits for exports to the US, Mexico and Canada. This targets the main destinations for precursor chemicals used in North American fentanyl production.

Explanation

The article frames the guidelines as a response to Trump administration pressure to stem the flow of precursor chemicals to the US. Issuing them just before the summit indicates an intention to show commitment to bilateral cooperation on the fentanyl issue.

Explanation

The article states 'the 18th BRICS Summit held in New Delhi'. New Delhi is the capital of India and hosts major international summits. BRICS summits rotate among member states; India last hosted in 2016 (Goa). The 18th edition in 2026 was again in New Delhi.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as reported: trade reached $125 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect: 22.6% is the total trade growth, while Indian exports grew 41%. Statement 3 is correct: China's GDP was $10.42 trillion in H1 2026 with 4.7% YoY growth. Hence option C.

Explanation

The Chinese envoy specifically stated that bilateral trade reached $125 billion, a '22.6 per cent increase year-on-year'. Option B (41%) is the growth of Indian exports alone, not total trade. Option C (4.7%) is China's GDP growth. Option D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that China proposed an 'open-source and inclusive artificial intelligence initiative' and also reiterated a call for Global South countries to uphold multilateralism. The initiative is intended to foster cooperation, not domination or restriction. Therefore, option B best matches the stated objectives.

Explanation

The article mentions 'Noise Pollution Rules' and 'Environment (Protection) Act' as statutes under which penal action can be taken. The Noise Pollution Rules are framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The other Acts are not relevant to noise pollution regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the HC ordered a total ban on bursting firecrackers on public streets. Statement 2 is incorrect – the security deposit for individuals is Rs 50,000, not Rs 1 lakh (groups must deposit Rs 1 lakh). Statement 3 is correct – the court prohibited laser lights, high-intensity lumen lights, and beams. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The HC directed authorities to accept a minimum deposit of Rs 1 lakh for groups/associations and Rs 50,000 for individuals. The deposit will be forfeited upon any decibel level breach. Options A (Rs 50,000) is for individuals, C and D are not mentioned in the order.

Explanation

The court observed the 'cumulative effect on air quality' and 'danger of accidents' on roads where pedestrians and vehicles ply. It noted that firecrackers are used without indication of noise or toxicity levels. While green firecrackers were not mentioned, the ban was specifically to address health hazards and safety risks.

Explanation

The article explicitly spells out the full name of OECD as the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development. This is a standard static GK fact often asked in exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as OECD forecast was raised to 7.1%. Statement 2 is incorrect: S&P revised to 7.0%, not 7.2%. Statement 3 is correct: Moody's explicitly said 'demonstrated resilience to the global shock' drove the upward revision. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the OECD's June forecast for 2026-27 was 6.3%, which was later upgraded to 7.1% in the September 2026 interim report. The other options are close distractors from other agencies: S&P 7.0%, Fitch 6.9%, and the current upgraded figure 7.1%.

Explanation

The article repeatedly states that India's upgrade is driven by domestic demand and government policies, unlike other countries where AI investment helped. Option A refers to other economies, not India. Options C and D are not mentioned as causes for the upgrade.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran engaged with the United States through a Qatari mediator (Prime Minister Sheikh Mohammed bin Abdulrahman Al Thani) in New York.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the talks occurred on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect: the interim agreement unravelled within weeks (by July). Statement 3 is correct as per the Iranian foreign ministry spokesperson's statement.

Explanation

The article states that Brent crude was holding just below the $100-a-barrel threshold it had shot through earlier in the month, indicating a price level near but under $100.

Explanation

The article quotes Iranian spokesperson Esmail Baghaei saying Tehran conveyed conditions including an end to the war on all fronts and a halt to US acts of aggression. Option C is mentioned as a separate sticking point in the earlier interim agreement, not a condition in these talks.

Explanation

The report was published by the Climate Impact Lab, a research collaboration led by the University of Chicago. The article explicitly attributes the findings to the Climate Impact Lab.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 15,800 additional deaths in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 451,000 figure is for the first six months of the El Niño event, not just the Sept-Feb period (which is 239,000). Statement 3 is correct: the report calls the El Niño a 'postcard from our future'.

Explanation

The article states: 'Globally, the report projects 451,000 additional heat-related deaths during the first six months of the El Niño event'. Option A (239,000) is the number for the Sept-Feb period, not the full six months.

Explanation

The article directly quotes: 'This year's El Niño is also a 'postcard from our future', bringing temperatures climate change is projected to deliver 20 years in the future.' This highlights the need for adaptation.

Explanation

The IMEEC was officially unveiled on September 9, 2023, during the G20 Summit held in New Delhi under India's presidency. It is a multinational connectivity project linking South Asia, West Asia, and Europe.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (launched at G20 Summit, New Delhi on Sept 9, 2023). Statement 2 is incorrect because Trump said energy infrastructure should shift away from Iranian checkpoints, not towards them. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article states that Mr. Trump made these remarks on Tuesday, September 22, 2026, while addressing a multilateral meeting with the Gulf Cooperation Council on the margins of the high-level UN General Assembly session.

Explanation

Trump explicitly linked his support to Iran's attacks on commercial shipping, stating the need to shift energy infrastructure away from Iranian checkpoints. While countering BRI is an indirect effect, the stated reason in the article is countering Iranian influence in energy routes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched the pilot-cum-demonstration scheme for CTPV and canal bank projects in 2014. MNRE is the nodal ministry for all renewable energy matters in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CTPV uses elevated structures that allow unobstructed water flow. Statement 2 is correct: the article states that the biggest advantage of CTPV is that it requires virtually no additional land. Statement 3 is incorrect: India's first CTPV installation was in Mehsana, Gujarat in 2012, not Vadodara in 2014. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'An assessment in 2024 (co-authored by CSTEP) estimated India’s CTPV and canal bank potential at around 131 GW.' Option D (5,000 MW) is the target for PM Surya Sarovar Yojana (floating solar), not CTPV. Options A and B are distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 'with solar panels covering canal stretches, the amount of water lost to evaporation can be reduced.' It cites the example of a 1 MW CTPV over the Narmada Canal saving 9 million litres of water annually. While other options may be secondary, the primary environmental benefit highlighted is evaporation reduction.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Pani Bachao, Paisa Kamao' scheme under which farmers are entitled to cash for every unused kWh (for pumping) under a threshold. The other options are well-known government schemes but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the extraction rate is 152%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 'interventions reduced the number of over-exploited blocks by five' – so it decreased, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: the fraction grew by 2 percentage points between 2022 and 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'its groundwater extraction rate was 152%'. The other options are close distractors; 142% and 162% are plausible but incorrect. 172% is too high.

Explanation

The article says the scheme offers cash for every unused kWh for pumping under a threshold, which directly incentivizes conservation of electricity and indirectly reduces groundwater extraction. While reducing subsidy burden may be a side effect, the stated objective is conservation. Options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

As held in the news, sanction under Section 197 CrPC, or Section 218 BNSS, is necessary only when the alleged offence has a reasonable connection or nexus with the discharge of official duties by a public servant.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions ₹3.01 crore during the check period. Statement 2 is incorrect because sanction is required only when the offence has nexus with official duty. Statement 3 is correct: the court clarified that withdrawal of the SLP confirmed the High Court's earlier order.

Explanation

The DVAC case alleged that the accused were unable to satisfactorily account for ₹3.01 crore in their possession during the check period between April 15, 2006 and March 21, 2011.

Explanation

The court ruled that amassing wealth beyond known sources of income cannot be treated as having nexus with discharging official duty. Therefore, the protective sanction requirement under Section 197 CrPC / Section 218 BNSS does not apply. The other options are case facts but not the primary legal reason for dispensing with sanction.

Explanation

Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India has the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including the allotment of election symbols under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ECI order froze the symbol and name and allotted new symbols to both groups, preventing use of the original. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly says the ECI's acts suggest it is acting in tandem with BJP interests.

Explanation

The article states that in the April 2026 West Bengal Assembly polls, 41% of the electorate (more than 2.60 crore voters) voted for Mamata Banerjee's party.

Explanation

Opposition parties, including the Congress, have called the action 'party theft' and a case of democratic decline, arguing that freezing a party's name and symbol disenfranchises millions of voters who identify with that symbol for decades.