18 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The US Federal Reserve (Fed) sets the federal funds rate as its primary monetary policy tool. The article mentions the Fed raising this rate by 25 bps.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Fed raised rates by 25 bps to 3.75-4%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Trump opposed the hike, calling for lower rates. Statement 3 is correct: ECB also hiked by 25 bps. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'US consumer prices rose 0.4% on a seasonally adjusted basis (keeping the 12-month rate at 3.4%)'. 3.7% is the projected inflation for 2026, not the current rate.

Explanation

The article mentions the RBI MPC meeting in October and states 'adjustments to the policy rates are needed' considering global and domestic price pressures. Global rate hikes can lead to capital outflows and currency depreciation, influencing RBI's decisions.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that the Bank of Japan raised rates to a 31-year high of 1.25% on September 18, 2026. The Fed and ECB had also tightened recently, but the specific move was by the BoJ.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 25-bps hike to 1.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect; the decision was passed by a 7-2 majority, not unanimous. Statement 3 is correct because the Internal Affairs Ministry reported core inflation at 1.7% in August. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'The 25-basis-point hike to 1.25%'. The other options are common distractors; 50 bps and 75 bps are larger moves sometimes made by other central banks. The correct figure is 25 bps.

Explanation

The article repeatedly attributes Japan's inflation to 'a spike in oil prices caused by the West Asia crisis' and 'the cheap yen driving up the cost of imported goods'. Government support (gasoline subsidies) temporarily moderated inflation, but the underlying drivers remain weak yen and energy costs.

Explanation

As per the article, Moody's Ratings raised India's GDP growth forecast for fiscal 2026-27 to 7% from 6%. JCR upgraded India's rating to A-, while S&P and Fitch affirmed India's investment-grade rating.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Moody's raised forecast to 7% from 6%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Moody's projected inflation at 4.8%, not 2.4% (2.4% was the outturn for fiscal 2025-26). Statement 3 is correct: JCR upgraded India's rating to 'A-' after 35 years. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Moody's projected inflation at 4.8% for fiscal 2026-27, significantly higher than the 2.4% outturn in fiscal 2025-26. The other options are distractors: 2.4% is the previous year's actual, 6.0% and 7.0% are not mentioned.

Explanation

Moody's warned that elevated energy prices from the West Asia conflict and El Niño-related disruptions could increase food price pressures, pushing inflation beyond the 4.8% projection and weighing on private consumption and economic activity. The other options are buffers (diversified imports, forex reserves) or unrelated factors.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The ministry proposed the wage ceiling increase and issued the official gazette notification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ceiling raised from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000. Statement 2 is correct: last revision was in September 2014. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Union Cabinet approved on September 16, 2026, and the official gazette notification was published on September 17, 2026; there is no indication that implementation is retrospective to April 2026. In fact, legal experts suggested deferring to April 2027.

Explanation

The employer contributes 8.33% of wages to EPS. With the new ceiling of ₹25,000, 8.33% equals ₹2,082.5 per month. The earlier contribution was 8.33% of ₹15,000 = ₹1,250.

Explanation

The government stated that the revision reflects sustained wage growth and will bring over 51 lakh additional employees within the ambit of mandatory EPFO coverage, widening social security protection. Other options contradict the intent or are not objectives.

Explanation

Article 44, under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), states that the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India. Articles 25 and 29 are Fundamental Rights related to religion and culture, while Article 14 guarantees equality.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Uttarakhand has had a UCC in force since January 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Law Commission (2018) opined that UCC is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage, and recommended reforming discriminatory personal laws instead. Statement 3 is correct – Dr. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly proposed that the UCC could remain voluntary.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that Union Home Minister Amit Shah has indicated that UCC would be implemented in all 21 NDA-ruled states by 2029. The other years are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the first argument in favour of UCC is secularism, but the 'most vital argument' is gender justice – that a UCC would ensure equal rights for women in matters governed by personal laws. Options A and C are also arguments (A is the first argument) but the article specifically labels gender justice as most vital. Option D is an argument against UCC as tribal exemptions are seen as discriminatory.

Explanation

The bill is named after Senator Lindsey Graham of South Carolina, a longtime Russia hawk who died in July 2026. The act honors his staunch support for the legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions targets on energy and defense. Statement 2 is correct as the bill authorizes tariffs on Russia's biggest trading partners. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Senate passed the bill last month, and the House passed it on Wednesday (just before the president signed it). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill is called the 'Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026' to honor the late senator. The other options are variations that omit 'and Iran' or change the name.

Explanation

The article states the legislation aims to 'deprive Moscow of funds used to pay for its war with Ukraine' by targeting energy, defense, and the shadow fleet. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives in the news.

Explanation

Project Cheetah, the cheetah reintroduction program, is implemented under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced the latest cub births, confirming the ministry's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the cheetah was declared extinct in India in 1952. Statement 2 is incorrect: KGP12 is an Indian-born female cheetah, daughter of South African cheetah Gemini, not translocated from Botswana. Statement 3 is correct: three adult cheetahs are in Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary.

Explanation

The article states that the latest litter of four cubs has taken the total cheetah population in India to 56. Of these, 36 are India-born and 20 are from African nations. 53 cheetahs reside in Kuno National Park and 3 in Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary.

Explanation

Project Cheetah's core objective is to reintroduce cheetahs to India, where they went extinct in 1952, and establish a viable, self-sustaining wild population. The birth of India-born cubs like KGP12's litter demonstrates progress toward this goal. While tourism and protection are secondary benefits, the primary aim is population establishment.

Explanation

The resolution was a UN Security Council draft to extend the mandate of the panel of experts monitoring sanctions on Iran. The Security Council is the primary UN body responsible for international peace and security, and only its permanent members hold veto power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Russia and China vetoed the US proposal. Statement 2 is correct: the article says the vote was 11-2 with Somalia and Pakistan abstaining. Statement 3 is incorrect: the snapback was triggered on September 27, 2025, not 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Iran maintained a stockpile of 440.9 kilograms (972 pounds) of uranium enriched up to 60 per cent purity'. Option A is wrong because weapons-grade is 90%, not 60%. Option C incorrectly states the unit as pounds for purity level. Option D has the wrong enrichment level (20%). Only option B matches exactly.

Explanation

The article explains the US wanted the expert panel to continue monitoring sanctions implementation and shine light on prohibited cooperation. The US deputy ambassador warned that without the panel, the Council loses its principal source of impartial, evidence-based reporting on sanctions violations. Hence the primary objective is monitoring and enforcement.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the U.S. State Department notified Congress about the proposed sale. The State Department is responsible for foreign policy and international arms sales approvals, while the Department of Defense handles military operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a $24.3 billion sale of 48 F-35 jets. Statement 2 is correct: the article states Israel is the only country in the region to operate the jets. Statement 3 is incorrect: the sale only has State Department approval and still requires Congressional approval, not already approved.

Explanation

The article clearly states the sale is valued at $24.3 billion. Option B ($48 billion) is a distractor mixing the number of jets (48) with the value. Option C uses 'million' instead of 'billion', and Option D combines both numbers incorrectly.

Explanation

The article notes that Israel, the only regional F-35 operator, has voiced concern about the sale. This is rooted in the US policy of maintaining Israel's Qualitative Military Edge (QME) over regional adversaries. Allowing Saudi Arabia to acquire the same advanced jets could diminish this edge.

Explanation

The article states that the 18th BRICS Summit took place at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi in September 2026. BRICS is a grouping of major emerging economies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article notes that references to Ukraine were dropped for the first time since 2022. Statement 2 is correct: the declaration included strong criticism of Israel. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that no leaders from neighbouring countries attended; Bangladesh and Nepal were unable to attend due to separate issues.

Explanation

The interview explicitly states that the BRICS countries represent 25% of global trade. The other options are distractors; 40% is the share of global economy, not trade.

Explanation

Happymon Jacob argues that if a non-USD payment mechanism is adopted, China's yuan would likely become the dominant currency, which is against India's national interests. India therefore prefers a flexible approach.

Explanation

The Makkah Joint Defence Agreement was signed by Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and Turkey on August 7, 2026. The agreement states that an armed attack on any one of the three countries will be regarded as an attack on all three.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Houthis captured Mocha on September 10, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The US-Saudi pact was signed on November 18, 2025, not September 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect: Pakistan has not sent combat forces; it only sent a few fighter jets in April when Iran attacked US assets in Saudi Arabia.

Explanation

The article states that global oil price crossed $100 per barrel in September 2026, up from $70 in June 2026. Options A, B, and C are distractors; $70 was the June price.

Explanation

The article cites three reasons: (1) a 2025 understanding where the US stopped bombing in return for Houthis not attacking US vessels; (2) low munitions due to the Iran war; (3) domestic unpopularity of the Iran war and approaching midterm elections. Hence all are correct.

Explanation

Project Cheetah is a wildlife conservation initiative under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), implemented through the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and state forest departments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM Modi released 8 cheetahs from Namibia on Sept 17, 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 3 of the 8 Namibian cheetahs are alive as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: the next phase aims to expand habitats and establish a meta population.

Explanation

The article states that on February 18, 2023, 12 cheetahs were imported from South Africa. Of these, 8 are alive along with 10 cubs born in India, making a total of 18 South African origin cheetahs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the next phase involves expanding suitable habitat for cheetahs and establishing a comprehensive, long-term cheetah meta population in India. The expansion from Kuno to Gandhi Sagar is aligned with this goal.

Explanation

The article refers to a 'Kearney study' on Tamil Nadu's fiscal crossroads. Kearney is a global management consulting firm.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: own-tax-to-GSDP ratio is 5.45%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the study says the core challenge is inefficiency, not borrowing. Statement 3 is correct: the Madras HC struck down the across-the-board increase in January 2024.

Explanation

The study states that narrowing the efficiency gap can add more than ₹1.2 lakh crore of annual fiscal capacity without new taxes or additional borrowing. The other options are distractors: ₹78,324 crore is the revenue deficit, ₹10 lakh crore is the outstanding debt, and 5.45% is the own-tax-to-GSDP ratio.

Explanation

The study emphasizes that the core challenge is inefficient collection and spending, not borrowing. It recommends better GST compliance, guideline value revision, excise restructuring, mining rationalization, procurement competition, and PPP mobilization to add fiscal capacity without new taxes.

Explanation

iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) is a flagship scheme launched by the Ministry of Defence in April 2018 to foster innovation and support startups and MSMEs in the defence and aerospace sectors. The Ministry of Defence oversees all defence-related production, procurement, and R&D initiatives in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states defence production reached ₹1.78 lakh crore in FY 2025-26, an all-time high. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report projects the market to triple by 2030, not 2035. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions iDEX had awarded roughly 650 contracts worth about $344 million (₹3,000 crore+) by late 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Quess Corp report explicitly warns that without targeted skilling, 40-45% of specialised roles in radar engineering, avionics, quantum communications, and other critical areas could remain unfilled by 2030. This gap risks bottlenecking aircraft development, unmanned systems, naval projects, and secure communications networks.

Explanation

Founders like Pooja Yadav (Astraniti) and Kiran Vagga (TISA Aerospace) emphasise that the core problem is not a shortage of engineers, but a shortage of engineers who understand how to make a prototype survive battlefield conditions—covering ruggedisation, integration, testing, and field usability. Conventional engineering education leaves out this systems-level, deployment-focused thinking.

Explanation

Joint military exercises are conducted under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence, which coordinates with foreign counterparts through the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. The article repeatedly mentions the Ministry of Defence as the nodal body for these drills and defence production data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article confirms the 22nd edition and mentions the 3rd MDTF. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first tri-services edition was LAMITIYE 2026 (India-Seychelles), not IMBAX. Statement 3 is correct: LAMITIYE focused on sub-conventional operations in a semi-urban environment and was held at Seychelles Defence Academy.

Explanation

The article states that defence exports reached ₹38,424 crore in FY2025-26, a 62% increase over the previous year's ₹23,622 crore. Options A and C are distractors: ₹23,622 crore is the previous year's figure, and ₹1.78 lakh crore is the total production (not exports). ₹84,643 crore is the production figure for FY2020-21.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that exercises aim to 'improve the ability to conduct joint operations' (Yudh Abhyas) and 'enhance interoperability and synergy for UN mandate operations' (IMBAX). While testing weapons and demonstrating capability may be secondary, the core objective is operational cooperation and trust-building, as also seen in LAMITIYE focusing on sub-conventional operations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the F-35 Lightning II is built by Lockheed Martin. The other options are major US defense contractors but not the manufacturer of the F-35.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Saudi Arabia would be the first Arab nation to access the F-35. Statement 2 is incorrect: the law was enacted in 2008, not 2010. Statement 3 is correct: the F-35 flies at Mach 1.6 and covers over 1,200 nautical miles without refuelling as stated in the article.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the deal is worth $24.3 billion. Option A is close but slightly lower; option D is the value of another arms deal (bombs) mentioned alongside.

Explanation

The article explains that Israel has campaigned against the sale, citing a 2008 US law that guarantees Israel must maintain a military advantage over Arab states. While China concern is a separate US issue, Israel's primary objection is the QME law.

Explanation

The article states that the Houthis captured Mayun Island and the port of Mokha in the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, giving them control over this critical maritime chokepoint. The Strait of Hormuz is controlled by Iran, while Malacca is in Southeast Asia and Bosphorus links Europe and Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the movement began in 1992 as al-Shabab al-Mu'min for Zaidi culture. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says Houthis exhibit autonomous decision-making despite Iranian support; Iran provides training and weapons, not direct command. Statement 3 is correct: the article specifically mentions collection of zakat and control of TeleYemen and Yemen Mobile.

Explanation

The article cites Rana Friefer's analysis in Al Majalla stating the Houthi administration generates roughly $2.5 billion annually through parallel tax and collection mechanisms. The $2 billion figure mentioned separately is for illicit oil trade.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the capture of these ports strengthens Houthi position along critical maritime corridors, allowing them to threaten global shipping for geopolitical leverage. Options A and D are not mentioned; option C is geographically implausible.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the transition to CBT mode will be implemented in consultation with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which is the client Ministry for NEET-UG. This is a standard GK fact for medical entrance exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the government told the SC that the shift is still under 'active consideration', not ordered immediately. Statement 2 is correct: the task force may submit the report by September-end. Statement 3 is correct: the NTA's confidential operations have been relocated to a 55,000 sq ft government facility at Minto Road secured by CISF.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 2026 leaks left 'nearly 23 lakh students stranded'. This is a key data point for Prelims. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article quotes the court saying that at least half of NTA's workforce must be permanent to build strong institutional memory, ensuring that reforms continue even after officials are transferred. This is an application-based understanding of the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that disqualification was sought under paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule. The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment, deals with disqualification of members on grounds of defection.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court declared disqualification effective from April 23, 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the High Court set aside the Speaker's order, meaning it was not upheld. Statement 3 is correct: petitioners were BRS MLA Padi Kaushik Reddy and BJP MLA Alleti Maheshwar Reddy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the verdict was pronounced on Friday, September 18, 2026. March 11, 2026 is when the Speaker dismissed the petition; August 21, 2026 is when the High Court reserved orders; July 31, 2025 is when the Supreme Court directed the Speaker to adjudicate within three months.

Explanation

The High Court held that by contesting as Congress candidate while being a BRS MLA, Nagender voluntarily gave up BRS membership under paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule. This is broader than formal resignation. Option A is partially correct but the principle is 'voluntarily giving up membership' not just 'must resign'. Option B is incorrect as courts can review Speaker's orders. Option D is false as defection includes voluntarily giving up membership, not just voting against whip.

Explanation

The article states that Qdenga received marketing authorisation from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) in July 2026. CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for pharmaceuticals in India under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Qdenga (TAK-003) is a live-attenuated tetravalent dengue vaccine built on a DENV-2 backbone. Statement 2 is incorrect: Dr. Reddy's is the exclusive partner for promotion and distribution in the private market, not the public market. Takeda retains rights for the public market. Statement 3 is correct: the vaccine is administered as a two-dose regimen given three months apart.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Qdenga received marketing authorisation from CDSCO for individuals aged 4-60 years. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that Qdenga is India's first approved dengue vaccine and that dengue cases have increased 11-fold over the past two decades. The vaccine provides a preventive option, not a cure. Mosquito control programmes remain essential. The vaccine is preventive, not therapeutic for chronic cases.

Explanation

MDL is a defence PSU under the Ministry of Defence, primarily involved in building warships and submarines for the Indian Navy. The other options are related but not correct: Ministry of Ports handles shipping, Heavy Industries handles general PSUs, and Commerce handles trade.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the cluster comes under the Shipbuilding Development Scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect: the total cluster cost is ₹29,254 crore for the yard and ₹9,513 crore for the port, while MDL's investment is only ₹15,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: the yard will build tankers, bulk carriers, container ships, and LNG carriers. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the yard can turn out 1.2 million gross tonnes of merchant vessels a year. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article quotes Chief Minister Naidu placing the project in the national target of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which aims to make India one of the top five shipbuilding nations by 2047. Options A and C are related but not the stated objective, while D is too narrow.

Explanation

The article mentions the Nandan Nilekani-led high-powered panel. K Radhakrishnan chaired an earlier committee, not the current one. Abhishek Singh is NTA DG; Tushar Mehta is Solicitor General.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: panel to submit first interim report by end of September. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC wants a permanent structure with dedicated staff, not temporary. Statement 3 is correct: NTA is exploring AI and analytics for security. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the bench of Justices P S Narasimha and Alok Aradhe. The other options are incorrect bench compositions not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The SC stressed the need for permanent staff and dedicated verticals with minimal deputation to institutionalise the NEET process. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as primary objectives in the article.

Explanation

Indian Railways, under the Ministry of Railways, is the nodal body for all Vande Bharat train projects, including the sleeper variant. The contract was awarded by Indian Railways to the BHEL-Titagarh consortium.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the JV agreement was signed on Sept 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the contract covers 80 trainsets, not 100. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions upgradation of government manufacturing units and trainset depots. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the contract is worth Rs 24,000 crore. The other options are distractors: Rs 18,509 crore is a different railway project amount, while Rs 30,000 and 35,000 crore are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights that the maintenance contract reinforces lifecycle-based support for advanced passenger rail systems, ensuring continued operational readiness. While cost reduction and speed are benefits, the core objective is long-term operational reliability.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It administers EPF, EPS, and EDLI schemes. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy and banking, not social security schemes for organised workers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ceiling rose from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 after 12 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: higher contributions may reduce take-home pay, not increase it. Statement 3 is correct: employer EPS contribution is 8.33% of wages (up to ceiling). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the annual government outgo will increase to about ₹11,339 crore against the existing ₹10,250 crore, an additional cost of ₹1,089 crore. Option A is the previous outgo; options C and D are distractors not mentioned.

Explanation

The AITUC General Secretary stated that the ceiling frozen at ₹15,000 for 12 years was out of sync with wages, and ₹25,000 is still too low. They demand ₹30,000 to include deserving sections. Option A is not mentioned; option C is incorrect as government outgo increases; option D is opposite – it affects those earning up to ₹25,000.

Explanation

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), headed by the Drugs Controller General of India, is the national regulatory authority that granted marketing authorisation to Qdenga in July 2026. WHO only provides prequalification, not marketing approval in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Qdenga uses a weakened DENV-2 backbone with structural proteins from DENV-1, 3, and 4. Statement 2 is incorrect: the vaccine does NOT require pre-vaccination screening. Statement 3 is correct: efficacy against hospitalisation was 84.1% at 4.5 years.

Explanation

The article states the two doses are given three months apart. Each dose is 0.5 mL administered subcutaneously. This is a key factual detail for exams.

Explanation

Without pre-screening, healthcare workers can administer the vaccine without requiring prior blood tests to determine past infection. This is crucial in resource-limited settings where laboratory facilities are scarce, thereby expanding reach and reducing the burden on the healthcare system.