17 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the U.S. House of Representatives passed the legislation with a 262-159 vote. The Senate had previously passed its own version (86-11) but the final bill is the House version sent to the President.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill targets top five importers. Statement 2 is incorrect: the amendment by Steny Hoyer to name specific countries did not pass. Statement 3 is correct: the President can waive sanctions in national interest.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the House voted 262-159 in favour of the Bill. The 86-11 figure refers to the Senate vote on August 7, which is a different vote.

Explanation

The article quotes Meeks saying the President already has powers to sanction Russia but is not using them, and that granting more tariff power would be abused and cost American families $3,000 each.

Explanation

Entry 50 of the State List specifically deals with 'Taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development.' This is the key provision referenced in the MMDR Amendment debate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2024 SC judgment in Mineral Area Development Authority vs SAIL held that royalty is NOT a tax, and recognized states' power to tax mineral rights. Statement 3 is correct as states like Odisha rely on mining revenue and oppose the centralizing amendment.

Explanation

The article specifically names Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Karnataka as states with enormous mineral reserves that bear the social and infrastructural costs of mining. These states are directly impacted by Section 9D of the MMDR Amendment.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that states like Odisha rely on mining receipts for a large portion of non-tax revenue. Section 9D restricts their ability to levy future taxes on mineral rights and land, curtailing their fiscal choices and ability to fund infrastructure and rehabilitation costs associated with mining.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the jobs data is from 'RBI KLEMS-based data'. KLEMS stands for Capital (K), Labour (L), Energy (E), Materials (M), and Services (S) – a framework used to measure productivity and employment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Real GDP grew 7.8% in Q1 FY26, exceeding RBI's 7% forecast. Statement 2 is incorrect: The mining sector contracted by 2.4%, not grew. Statement 3 is correct: Women's LFPR reached 41.7% in 2023-24. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that real GVA grew by 8.2% to ₹73.82 lakh crore. 7.8% is the real GDP growth, 9.2% is manufacturing growth, and 10% is services growth. These are common distractors.

Explanation

The article acknowledges that 17.19 crore jobs were added, but emphasises that the 'next employment revolution must improve job quality through productivity, wages, formalisation, social security and skilling'. It also notes women's LFPR increased to 41.7%, not declined. The concern is about quality, not quantity.

Explanation

Anil Kakodkar is the former Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), the apex policy body for India's nuclear programme. He also served as Secretary of DAE and Director of BARC, but the article specifically mentions his position as former AEC Chairman.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Homi Bhabha conceived the three-stage programme in the 1950s. Statement 2 is incorrect: PHWRs are part of the first stage, not the second stage (FBRs are the second stage). Statement 3 is correct: The third stage uses thorium-based reactors like TMSRs.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the '100 gigawatt electric (GWe) nuclear mission (to be implemented between now and 2047)'. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Kakodkar states that using HALEU-thorium fuel in PHWRs 'without any significant design change' opens an earlier parallel path to thorium irradiation at scale. While it reduces uranium imports (option A is too absolute), it does not directly power FBRs (option C) or reduce heavy water needs (option D).

Explanation

NPCI operates the UPI platform and sets the Merchant Discount Rate. While RBI regulates payment systems, the specific MDR policy for UPI is announced by NPCI. The Ministry of Finance advised banks on the implementation, but the nodal body is NPCI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the MDR applies only to person-to-merchant (P2M) transactions, not person-to-person. Statement 3 is correct: a flat Rs 5 fee is charged from merchants for specified critical services. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in 2025-26, there were more than 24,000 crore UPI transactions. The other options are plausible distractors but only 24,000 crore matches the given data.

Explanation

The article quotes the Standing Committee on Finance noting that 'the absence of MDR makes the UPI ecosystem financially unsustainable'. The reintroduction aims to ensure a sustainable revenue flow for banks and payment service providers to invest in the system. Revenue generation is not the primary goal, nor is discouraging digital payments or fraud reduction.

Explanation

The article states that the program was initiated by agro-tech firm Grow Indigo 'with technical guidance from the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)'. ICAR is the apex body for agricultural research and education in India, under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions ~2,500 farmers (1,400-odd from Punjab, rest from Haryana). Statement 2 is incorrect: payments are based on verified carbon credits, not acreage. Statement 3 is correct: ICAR Director General Dr. M L Jat confirmed the use of satellite and remote-sensing systems, including geo-fencing, for monitoring.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the total amounting to around Rs 2.50 crore'. The other options are close distractors. The payout covered over 50,000 carbon credits, with individual farmers receiving between ₹3,000 and ₹15,000.

Explanation

The program puts an 'economic value to farming practices that reduce emissions and conserve soil and water'. Unlike penalizing stubble burning, this program rewards verified emission reductions through practices like direct seeded rice, zero tillage, and better residue management. It is not a blanket income support nor a machinery subsidy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that PM Modi addressed the inauguration of SEMICON India 2026 at Yashobhoomi in New Delhi. This is a factual detail that can be asked in prelims.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi inaugurated the event and made the pitch. Statement 2 is incorrect: the outlay for ISM 2.0 is $13.5 billion, not $8 billion ($8 billion was the first phase). Statement 3 is correct as Applied Materials announced $5 billion investment under Vision 2035. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes PM Modi saying, 'So far, 12 chip-making projects have been approved, and the next phase will see the numbers increase further.' This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India is seeking to 'strengthen electronics manufacturing and reduce dependence on global supply chains.' While other options may be secondary benefits, the core objective mentioned is reducing supply chain vulnerability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PMLA empowers the ED to conduct searches and seizures, provisionally attach properties, and arrest accused persons. The ED invoked PMLA in IBC cases where alleged conduct involves proceeds of crime.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ED instructed zonal offices to examine cases with large haircuts. Statement 2 is correct: ED arrested Arvind Kumar for helping constitute a manipulated CoC. Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 29A bars certain persons, including defaulting promoters, from submitting resolution plans.

Explanation

The article states that public-sector banks received Rs.40 crore against admitted claims of Rs.708 crore, resulting in a 94% haircut. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article explains that an IBC irregularity by itself does not automatically constitute money laundering. The ED must establish the connection between the underlying offence, the proceeds of crime, and the alleged laundering activity under PMLA.

Explanation

The article says the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee is scheduled to meet October 5–7 and is expected to announce a repo rate decision. The MPC is the body that sets the policy repo rate in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the FOMC raised the target range by 25 bps to 3.75–4% with all 12 members voting in favour. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RBI is expected to hike the repo rate by 25 bps to 5.5%, not keep it unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's outlook on the Bank of Japan.

Explanation

The article states that CPI rose 4.82% in August, marking the third straight month it had come in above the RBI's 4% target. The other values are projections or threshold warnings mentioned for subsequent months.

Explanation

The article highlights that all measures of inflation rose in August and SBI's Chief Economic Adviser warned that the process of generalisation of price pressures has started. Therefore, the RBI is expected to hike rates to rein in domestic inflation rather than merely track the Fed or Bank of Japan.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the legislation is officially titled the 'Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026'. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill grants up to 100% tariff authority. Statement 2 is incorrect because Democratic leadership opposed the bill, though 58 Democrats broke rank to support it—it was not unanimous. Statement 3 is correct as the bill provides for penalizing Russian leadership, state officials, and banking institutions. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the House passed the bill with 262-159 votes in its favour. The 86-11 vote was from the Senate. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes House Speaker Mike Johnson saying the bill applies 'maximum pressure on the Russian war machine' by cutting off energy revenue streams. Other supporters stated it will force Putin to the negotiating table to bring peace to Ukraine. Options A, C, and D are not stated as primary objectives in the article.

Explanation

The article states the US House of Representatives passed the bill by 262-159. The Senate had already passed it earlier. The President's signature is required for it to become law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the bill authorises the President to impose tariffs up to 100%, it does not automatically impose them. Statement 2 is correct as the bill targets Russian leadership, energy sector, and shadow fleet. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article: exemption for countries importing less than 15% of Russian natural gas exports that have taken substantial steps to cut purchases.

Explanation

The article specifies the House vote as 262-159, with 203 Republicans, 58 Democrats and one Independent in favour, and 152 Democrats and 7 Republicans against. The Senate vote was 86-11, which is a different number.

Explanation

The MEA stated that India had 'very clearly articulated' the potential implications for the bilateral relationship and the international energy market. India also said it will take necessary measures to protect its trade and economic interests.

Explanation

The article states that the report was supported by the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), Nepal, and GB Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment, Uttarakhand. ICIMOD is a regional intergovernmental organization focused on sustainable mountain development in the Hindu Kush Himalaya.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the report describes the 21.5% figure as a measure of economic activity dependent on Himalayan water, not as a direct estimate of climate damages or 'at risk' from glacier melt. Statement 2 is correct: the article states that brick kilns contribute 32-42% of South Asian anthropogenic deposition. Statement 3 is correct: converting to zigzag technology cuts black carbon by roughly 70% and fuel use by 20-30%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The report estimates that Rs 64.8 lakh crore, or 21.5% of India’s FY24 GDP, is dependent on the Himalayas.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states: 'The report proposes a targeted fund to modernise brickmaking, upgrade viable kilns, retire the worst-performing ones and reduce demand for fired bricks.' This directly targets black carbon emissions from brick kilns, a major local source of pollution affecting glacier melt.

Explanation

The article states that 12 semiconductor projects were approved under the first phase of the India Semiconductor Mission. This is a government initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and IT.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi inaugurated SEMICON India 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because Semicon 2.0 outlay is ₹1.27 lakh crore, not ₹2.5 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as Micron's Sanand facility has begun shipping DRAM and NAND products globally.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's semiconductor demand is projected to reach $110 billion by FY30. The other options are distractors: $200 billion is the FY35 projection, $150 billion is the import value over FY17-FY25, and $240 billion is a potential annual import figure by 2035.

Explanation

The article says Semicon 2.0 'widens the focus beyond large chip factories to areas such as semiconductor equipment, materials, design, research and development, supply chains and skilled manpower.' This is the core objective, while import reduction and investment attraction are expected outcomes.

Explanation

The Semiconductor Mission is under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which handles promotion of electronics manufacturing and semiconductor ecosystem in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Outlay is ₹1.27 lakh crore. Statement 2 is false: Semicon 2.0 offers differentiated capex support (e.g., 40% for silicon fabs, 35% for compound fabs), not uniform 50%. Statement 3 is correct: OCI-owned companies are eligible with conditions as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that large silicon wafer fabs will be eligible for 40% capex support under Semicon 2.0. The 50% figure was part of the first phase, while 35% is for compound semiconductor fabs and 30% for equipment R&D facilities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Semicon 2.0 seeks to build more Indian-owned IP and fabless companies that design and sell chips while outsourcing fabrication, addressing a key gap in India's semiconductor ambitions.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the NPCI announced the revised MDR framework for UPI. NPCI is an umbrella organisation for retail payment systems in India, established by RBI and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — MDR of 0.4% (max Rs 300) applies to UPI transactions above Rs 2,000. Statement 2 is incorrect — RuPay debit cards are kept MDR-free for all transactions (both below and above Rs 2,000). Statement 3 is correct — the incentive scheme will be disbanded after October 15.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the MDR fee of 0.4% on UPI transactions above Rs 2,000 has an upper limit of Rs 300. Other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that existing subsidy-based model limits innovation. MDR provides a revenue stream for banks and smaller players, enabling them to compete with giants like PhonePe and Google Pay. The government also rejected external pressure claims.

Explanation

S&DT is a set of WTO provisions that give developing countries special rights, such as longer transition periods and preferential access. The article stresses that India insists S&DT should be central to plurilateral rule-making.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's submission to the WTO General Council proposed a common understanding on safeguards. Statement 2 is incorrect: India continues to block IFD until systemic guardrails are agreed. Statement 3 is correct: the BRICS declaration indeed recognised the need for pathways for plurilateral initiatives. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Nearly 129 members have supported IFD'. The other options are distractors; 120 is close but incorrect, 134 and 144 are above the actual figure.

Explanation

The article states that India believes IFD 'risks eroding foundational principles and functional limits of the WTO' and that plurilateral pacts would 'act against developing nations' interests'. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Chinese President Xi Jinping visited Egypt on September 1-2, 2026, and set out a four-point formula for a new regional security architecture. This is explicitly mentioned in the article as a shift in Beijing's engagement with West Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the first point calls for reducing interference by external forces. Statement 2 is incorrect: the second point prioritizes a two-state solution, not a one-state solution. Statement 3 is correct: the third point stresses that lasting stability relies fundamentally on development. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement on August 7, 2026 between Pakistan, Saudi Arabia and Türkiye.' The other options are distractors: September 1-2 is Xi's Egypt visit, and other dates are not mentioned.

Explanation

The first point of Xi's formula explicitly calls for reducing 'interference by external forces' and supporting regional countries to strengthen dialogue on peace and security. The article clarifies that China opposes bloc politics and aims for regional autonomy, not a rival bloc or military bases. The UN framework is retained, not replaced.

Explanation

Article 21 of the Constitution states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. It has been interpreted broadly to include the right to choose a spouse and to privacy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly observed that such choices form part of Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court stated that choices cannot be curtailed merely because they are contrary to family wishes. Statement 3 is correct as the UP Act was registered against the woman and her father. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Allahabad High Court on Wednesday, September 16, 2026, set the man at liberty. The other dates are close distractors but only September 16 is mentioned in the report.

Explanation

The Act prohibits conversions through misrepresentation, force, undue influence, coercion, or allurement. In this case, the court found the conversion was voluntary and not forced, so the Act was misapplied against the woman. The objective is to prevent unlawful (forced) conversions, not voluntary ones protected under Article 25.

Explanation

The article states that the current conservation efforts are due to the Pygmy Hog Conservation Programme from 1995. This programme manages the captive breeding and release of pygmy hogs in Assam.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article calls it the sole surviving species of genus Porcula and the world's smallest wild suid. Statement 2 is correct: the Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust estimated ~250 individuals in early 2025, with the last natural population in Panbari grasslands. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 32-fold increase occurred over the last three decades, not two decades.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the plan to increase the wild pygmy hog population to 300 by 2040. The current wild population is about 250, so the target is a modest increase of 50 individuals over 15 years.

Explanation

The article states that the pygmy hog depends on dense grasslands to feed, conceal itself, and reproduce, so distress among these animals is an indicator of floodplain suffering degradation. Protecting it also protects other threatened grassland species, making it an umbrella species.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous organization established in 2017 under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It conducts entrance examinations for higher education institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bulk translation is done by an air-gapped AI platform. Statement 2 is incorrect: the role of human translators has changed to 'translation reviewers' who verify AI output, not do primary translation. Statement 3 is correct: reviewers will see items one at a time in a randomised order to prevent paper reconstruction.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NTA conducts exams like NEET, JEE Mains, CUET, and UGC-NET in 13 languages. This is a key factual data point for prelims.

Explanation

The new process is a direct response to the NEET UG paper leak, where a translator was involved in the leak. By having AI do the bulk work and showing reviewers only individual items in random order, the NTA aims to minimize the risk of a full paper being compromised by any single individual.

Explanation

The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 is the foundational legal framework for space activities. Article IV specifically prohibits nuclear weapons and weapons of mass destruction in orbit. The other options are related space treaties but are not the primary focus of this debate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: US Air Force Secretary confirmed space control weapons on Sept 14, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article IV only prohibits nuclear weapons and WMDs, not all weapons. Statement 3 is correct: the missing 'such' in the English text narrows the ban. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'On September 14, U.S. Air Force Secretary Troy Meink confirmed that the U.S. Space Force has “space control weapons” in orbit.' The other options are distractors; September 17, 2026 is the publication date, not the confirmation date.

Explanation

The article argues that India, through the emerging BRICS Space Council, can proactively define what constitutes legitimate defensive counter-space measures (e.g., self-defense) versus destabilizing escalation. This allows India to protect its growing space assets without being seen as aggressive. Options A, B, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Education is entry 25 in the Concurrent List (List III), allowing both Parliament and state legislatures to make laws. This is the basis of the dispute between Centre and Tamil Nadu over Navodaya schools.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Navodaya follows a three-language formula (Hindi, English, regional language). Statement 2 is correct: TN's Tamil Learning Act, 2006 provides for two languages (Tamil and English). Statement 3 is correct: The SC on Sept 17, 2026 gave three months to comply with the December 2025 order to identify land. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Senior Advocate Jaideep Gupta submitted that TN has a ₹45,000 crore outlay for education of about 1.24 million students. The Centre's outlay for the whole country is ₹78,000 crore. ₹5,000 crore is the amount owed to TN under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Tamil Nadu's Tamil Learning Act, 2006 mandates a two-language policy (Tamil and English). The Navodaya scheme's three-language formula (including Hindi) is seen as a 'backdoor' to impose Hindi. The state argues language choice is a fundamental right and the central policy cannot override its law on a Concurrent List subject.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Tamil Nadu Private Schools (Regulation) Act, 2018 and its accompanying Rules of 2023 as the key legal framework for private schoolteachers in Tamil Nadu. The other options are either from other states (Kerala Act) or not specifically applicable to service conditions (Minimum Wages Act, RTE Act).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Karnataka has a broader framework protecting unaided school teachers, though CBSE/ICSE schools are exempted (but courts have allowed tribunal access). Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kerala Education Act, 1958 primarily covers aided schools, not all private schools. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states that no notification exists for teaching staff under the Minimum Wages Act in Kerala.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'India has 3,41,689 private unaided recognised schools' based on UDISE+ 2025-26 data. Option B (41 lakh) is the number of teachers employed, not schools. Options C and D are incorrect units or approximations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Tamil Nadu Private Schools (Regulation) Act, 2018 and its Rules provide protections exclusively for aided schools. For unaided schools like the one where teacher Ram works, no equivalent protection exists. Option D is a trap: CBSE exemption is a feature of Karnataka's framework, not Tamil Nadu's.

Explanation

SEBI is the statutory regulator for India's securities markets, empowered to investigate and penalize fraudulent and unfair trade practices, including price manipulation. RBI regulates banking and monetary policy, not stock market trading. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the order specifically mentions repetitive cross-segment price manipulation. Statement 2 is incorrect — the entities incurred losses in futures but made higher profits in options, not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct as SEBI barred all seven noticees from the capital market until payment. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

SEBI stated the cumulative wrongful gains amounted to approximately ₹28.12 crore over about 9 months. ₹22.06 crore and ₹6.05 crore are amounts to be impounded from Prrsaar and Chaubara individually, not the total. ₹28.00 crore is a close distractor but the exact figure is ₹28.12 crore.

Explanation

SEBI clarified that the pattern was manipulative because the option positions were directionally opposite to the futures trades and disproportionately large. Hedging involves opposite positions of similar size to reduce risk, while arbitrage exploits price differences without directional bets. This pattern was designed to distort futures prices to benefit options profits.

Explanation

The article states that the US Supreme Court struck down the president's lack of authority under the 1977 International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) to impose broad import duties. This removed the basis for reciprocal tariffs earlier used in negotiations with India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: House passed 262-159. Statement 2 is incorrect: the tariff allowed is up to 100%, not 150%. Statement 3 is correct: the MEA said the issue was discussed at high levels. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India's total oil imports in August stood at 4.62 million bpd'. 2.08 million bpd is the Russian oil share, 5.04 million bpd was July's figure. 4.00 is a distractor.

Explanation

The article states the bill gives Trump 'the powers to slap duties of up to 100% on foreign nations that purchase Russian oil and natural gas'. Options A and C relate to other parts but are not the primary objective; D is not mentioned in the bill's context.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) in India has said that it remains committed to the nation's energy security.' The MEA handles India's diplomatic responses to international sanctions and trade measures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill grants power to impose 'tariffs of up to 100%'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions sanctions on vessels used for 'discounted Russian oil below market caps', not above. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'the first major pro-Ukraine measure passed... in over two years'.

Explanation

The article states: 'India was the second-largest purchaser of Russian fossil fuels in June 2026, importing a total of EUR 5.5 bn of Russian hydrocarbons.' EUR 4.5 Bn is only the crude oil component, EUR 7.3 Bn is China's spend, and EUR 6.5 Bn is not mentioned.

Explanation

The MEA's statement explicitly says India is 'firmly committed to ensuring energy security for its 1.4 billion people' through diversified sourcing and market dynamics. This reflects energy security as a core national interest, not a geopolitical provocation. The other options are speculative and not supported by the article.

Explanation

The National Board of Examinations (NBE) is the autonomous body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that conducts the NEET-SS exam. The NMC is the overarching regulator for medical education, while MCI was its predecessor. AIIMS conducts its own separate entrance for super-speciality courses.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Centre agreed to reduce the qualifying percentile to 30%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 40 vacant in-service seats were returned to Tamil Nadu, not Karnataka. Statement 3 is correct: the Centre argued against upgradation to avoid further vacancies mid-session.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that '1,857 super speciality seats were presently lying vacant pursuant to the completion of the second round of NEET-SS counselling.' The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall of this data point.

Explanation

The Centre's note explicitly stated the decision was taken 'in order to ensure that the available super speciality seats do not remain vacant and that the available training capacity is optimally utilised.' While the return of seats to TN is a related outcome, the core objective is to fill the 1,857 vacant seats nationally.

Explanation

According to the article, Russia provided more than 51% of India's oil imports in July 2026, an all-time high. This is a direct factual extraction from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Russia provided over 51% of India's oil imports. Statement 2 is incorrect: India paid an average of $658.6 per tonne for Russian oil, not $669 (that was the average for total imports). Statement 3 is correct: the US House passed a bill threatening 100% tariffs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states India's Russian oil import bill stood at $7.3 billion in July 2026, more than double the $3.6 billion spent in July 2025. The other options are distractors; $3.6 billion was the previous year's figure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill aims to 'strangle Russia's oil exports in a bid to cut off financing for the country's war with Ukraine'. While other options may be secondary effects, the primary objective is to reduce Russia's revenue from oil sales.

Explanation

The article states that 'The India-EU FTA is currently with the European Commission to sign'. The European Commission negotiates and signs trade agreements on behalf of the EU. The European Parliament then gives its approval.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India got a concession to front-load steel concessions applicable from July 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the total potential quota is 28 lakh tonnes, not 30 lakh tonnes. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions that Indian steelmakers will have to pay CBAM even if exports are within the quota.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'India exported an average of 30 lakh tonnes of steel products that fall under the quota regime over the years 2022-24'. Options 16.5 and 19 are quota amounts before and after negotiation, while 28 is the total potential quota.

Explanation

The article states that the EU implemented the amended quota system 'in a bid to reduce overall steel imports'. Such safeguard measures are typically aimed at protecting domestic steel producers from import surges. CBAM is a separate mechanism for carbon costs.

Explanation

The article states the fact-finding mission on Iran was created in 2022 by the Human Rights Council, the UN's top human rights body. The Security Council and General Assembly have different mandates; the ICJ is a judicial body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the mission found 'reasonable grounds' for US war crimes. Statement 2 is false: the article explicitly says the Trump administration has yet to accept blame and has not released the Pentagon investigation. Statement 3 is correct: the mission also alleged crimes against humanity committed by the Iranian government.

Explanation

The article states Iranian state media reported 168 people were killed in the school strike, most of them children. The total of 178 includes 22 killed in a separate strike on a sports complex in Lamerd. The options 22 and 178 are distractors for the two other numbers mentioned.

Explanation

The mission was created by the Human Rights Council to investigate human rights violations. Its recent findings focus on war crimes by the US and crimes against humanity by Iran. It is not a mediation or nuclear monitoring body; humanitarian aid facilitation is not its primary mandate as per the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was formed after the signing of the Treaty of Amritsar of 1846 between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh. The other treaties are not related to the formation of the princely state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MEA rejected the commission on September 16, 2026 (as per the article: "Wednesday (September 16)"). Statement 2 is incorrect – the 1963 agreement was between China and Pakistan, not India. Statement 3 is correct because the article mentions Nehru's criticism in Parliament on March 5, 1963. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes MoS V Muraleedharan's statement in Lok Sabha in 2022: "Pakistan illegally ceded 5,180 sq km of Indian territory in Shaksgam Valley...". The 38,000 sq km refers to Indian territory under Chinese occupation in Ladakh (Aksai Chin region), not the Shaksgam Valley.

Explanation

The MEA spokesperson explicitly stated: "Pakistan has no locus standi to enter into arrangements concerning Indian territory under its illegal and forcible occupation." The other options, while plausible in general, are not specifically mentioned as the primary reason in the article. The article also cites the 1963 agreement and repeated protests.

Explanation

The news article clearly states that the Punjab and Haryana High Court, presided over by Justice Harkesh Manuja, passed the order. The Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board is the employer, not the court. The Supreme Court was not involved. Hence option A is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Baljit Singh joined on January 1, 2000 as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: the trial court in 2017 and the first appellate court in 2025 both rejected the claim for regularisation from 2003, limiting it to 2014. Statement 3 is incorrect: the High Court rejected the finding that the 2003 policy had ceased to exist, holding instead that it was revived by the 2014 notification. Hence option C (Both 1 and 2) is correct.

Explanation

The High Court directed regularisation from October 1, 2003, which is the date of the government's regularisation policy. Option A is the date of joining, option C is the date of the subsequent 2014 policy (granted by lower courts), and option D is the date of the news article. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The court explicitly invoked Article 14, stating that equality before law requires similarly situated persons must be treated alike. Denying regularisation to the employee while granting it to juniors constituted hostile discrimination and arbitrary state action. While Article 32 provides remedies, the substantive right used here was equality. Hence option A is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the court recorded an opinion by IIT Bombay regarding the imminent collapse risk of the Central Dome. The other IITs are common distractors in such questions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated that judicial infrastructure is NOT a matter of executive discretion or government favour. Statement 2 is correct — the court cited Article 21 (protection of life and liberty). Statement 3 is correct — the bench ruled that financial constraints cannot justify inadequate facilities.

Explanation

The article clearly states the estimated cost is Rs 117.65 crore, with Rs 27.41 crore and Rs 30.24 crore sanctioned for the first two phases and Rs 60 crore for phase-3 under process. The other options are close numerical distractors.

Explanation

The ruling strengthens the principle of judicial independence by asserting that the judiciary cannot be treated as an ordinary government department. It clarifies that providing infrastructure is a constitutional duty flowing from the obligation to ensure access to justice, not an act of executive generosity. This has implications for the separation of powers doctrine.

Explanation

The article states that NITI Aayog developed the index in collaboration with WRI India. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, replacing the Planning Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Transport Electrification Progress has 50% weightage. Statement 2 is incorrect: Delhi topped EV Research and Innovation Status with a score of 94, not Karnataka. Statement 3 is correct: Delhi topped the overall composite score with 84 points. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that EV penetration reached 8.25% in 2025-26, up from 0.5% in 2018. Option A is the 2018 figure, and B and D are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states that IEMI 'assesses the policy framework and implementation outcomes for e-mobility at the state-level'. It is a comparative analysis, not a mandatory regulation or fund allocation mechanism.

Explanation

The article mentions 'Health Ministry' which is Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Drug regulation in India is under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act administered by this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the draft notification explicitly says it will not apply to wholesalers. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct because Schedule H includes common BP medications and regular antibiotics.

Explanation

The article states 'CCTV recordings will have to be preserved for three months' which equals 90 days. Option A (30 days) is the comment period for stakeholders, not the recording retention.

Explanation

The draft notification aims at addressing concerns over 'unauthorised access to and sale of Schedule H, H1 and X drugs' and creating a verifiable record. Other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's rupee trade with its BRICS partners is limited to only the UAE and Russia. Other BRICS members like Brazil, China, and South Africa are not engaged in rupee trade with India as per the report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India supports local currency trade but has been vocal in opposing a BRICS currency. Statement 2 is correct: India has been using the UAE Dirham to pay for Russian oil. Statement 3 is correct: A depreciating rupee ensures that every dollar paid results in a higher amount of rupees, benefiting exports. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions US President Donald Trump's threat of 100% tariffs on countries adopting a BRICS currency. This is a key data point for prelims. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that India has been vocal in opposing a BRICS currency largely because of China's likely dominance. While US tariff threats are a deterrent, the primary reason cited in the article is China's potential control. Other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.