15 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved multitracking projects and DFCs are under the Ministry of Railways. Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw announced the decisions. Other ministries are not directly involved in railway infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: HDN is 11,051 km (16% of total) and handles >40% traffic. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 4.6% of HDN operates below 80% capacity; most sections operate at 100-150% or more. Statement 3 is correct: the article states average freight train speed is 25 kmph. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'it carried 1,670 million tonnes freight in 2025-26'. Options A (1,337) is length of Eastern DFC, B (1,506) is length of Western DFC, D (1,738) is length of East-West DFC – all distractors from the article.

Explanation

The article states that multitracking will decongest sections, reduce logistics cost, and help achieve the target of 3,000 MT freight by 2030. Increasing passenger speeds is a secondary benefit; the primary focus is freight. Options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

Land is a State subject under Entry 18 of the State List (List II) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution (Article 246). This gives state governments primary legislative and executive authority over land records, registration, and property rights. The article mentions that land is a State subject, which is why Maharashtra's DELTA Act operates at the state level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The DELTA Act is designed to make tokens legally enforceable instruments. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that RBI 'does not view tokenisation as a substitute for regulated finance' but rather as a technology layer to improve efficiency. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions India's household wealth at around ₹950 lakh crore (₹450 lakh crore in gold and ₹500 lakh crore in residential property). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Maharashtra's land and property market is among the country's largest, with the State government estimating the potential asset base under consideration at around ₹50 lakh crore.' The other options are distractors: ₹25 lakh crore is mentioned as a potential tokenised base if only 5% of India's real estate wealth is tokenised, while ₹75 lakh crore and ₹100 lakh crore are not cited.

Explanation

The article explains that the objective is to 'convert physical asset ownership and economic rights into secure digital representations, which unlocks wealth, improves transparency and eases transaction friction.' It is not a cryptocurrency (distractor A) and does not bypass RBI regulation (distractor C). Also, while tokenisation could facilitate investment, it does not remove regulation (distractor D).

Explanation

Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, specifies that a person is competent to contract only if they have attained the age of majority (18 years) and are of sound mind. A minor's contract is void ab initio under this section.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The PIL states that the DPDP Act does not expressly prohibit minors from independently creating accounts. Statement 2 is correct as the 'minimum age of 13' is derived from foreign standards. Statement 3 is correct as the PIL suggests minors access services through parentally controlled accounts.

Explanation

The PIL specifically states that many digital platforms permit children from the age of 13 years to independently create accounts, and this minimum age is derived from foreign standards rather than Indian law.

Explanation

The PIL does NOT seek a complete ban on internet usage for children. Instead, it proposes a 'prevention by design' approach with effective age-assurance and age-gating mechanisms, requiring parental consent (via e-KYC) for minors to maintain accounts, accessing only educational and age-appropriate content.

Explanation

The article states that the 18th BRICS Summit was hosted by India, marking the country's second presidency after 2021.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the declaration condemned the attack in strongest terms. Statement 2 is correct: PM Modi proposed the troika-based mechanism. Statement 3 is incorrect: the declaration endorsed China, not Russia, as the 2027 chair.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the adoption of a '140-point New Delhi Declaration'. Options 100 and 120 are plausible distractors, while 160 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that PM Modi proposed the mechanism under which the troika will track progress and follow-up. A common currency remains a misconception (not the objective), and military or tariff harmonization are not mentioned.

Explanation

Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The J&K High Court specifically called preventive detention an 'exceptional encroachment' upon rights guaranteed under Article 21.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly said 'preventive detention cannot rest upon mere labels' and that a bald assertion of being an OGW does not meet constitutional standards. Statement 2 is correct as the court noted the District Magistrate had not applied his mind and failed to consider the bail granted. Statement 3 is correct as the court stated preventive detention is 'not punitive' but aims to prevent future conduct.

Explanation

The court found that the detention order suffered from non-application of mind, reliance on stale antecedents, and failure to consider the intervening fact that the petitioner had been granted bail. The court emphasized the need for a 'live and proximate link' between past conduct and the necessity for preventive detention.

Explanation

The court held that preventive detention cannot be based on mere labels and that the authority must disclose factual particulars. It also stressed judicial scrutiny of subjective satisfaction, ensuring that authorities consider intervening events like bail. This sets a precedent for stricter compliance with constitutional safeguards in preventive detention cases.

Explanation

The Commerce Secretary, who is the head of the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, announced the trade data. This ministry oversees export-import policies and releases monthly trade statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: merchandise exports grew 26.1% to $43.8 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect: the overall trade deficit decreased to $9.4 billion from $11.6 billion in August 2025. Statement 3 is correct: Commerce Secretary noted this was the first time export growth exceeded import growth in absolute value terms.

Explanation

The article states merchandise exports grew 26.1% to $43.8 billion in August 2026. $38.9 billion is services exports, $70.7 billion is merchandise imports, and $82.7 billion is overall exports (goods+services).

Explanation

Volume-led growth means the quantity of goods exported increased, reflecting real demand rather than just higher prices from a weaker rupee. This is a positive sign for export sustainability and competitiveness.

Explanation

The article clearly states the US Senate passed the bill by an overwhelming 86-11 vote last month. The House of Representatives has not yet passed it; it must still pass the House before going to the President.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Senate bill does NOT name any country; it only mentions 'five largest importers' in general terms. Statement 2 is correct: Hoyer's amendment names 10 countries including India. Statement 3 is correct: Meeks moved an amendment to delete Section 113 entirely. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that the Hoyer amendment seeks to name 'China, India, Turkiye, Azerbaijan, Hungary, the Slovak Republic, the UAE, Singapore, Kazakhstan, and the Kyrgyz Republic' — a total of 10 countries. Options 5 (the number mentioned in the Senate bill) and 7 are distractors.

Explanation

The article defines the 'shadow fleet' as vessels that enable Moscow to evade sanctions on oil deliveries. This fleet uses tactics like ship-to-ship transfers and flag changes to hide the origin of crude oil, allowing Russia to continue selling oil despite Western sanctions.

Explanation

The government notified changes in the Payment and Settlement Act, 2007, to specify that no bank or system provider shall impose any direct or indirect charge on payments via UPI and RuPay debit cards up to ₹2,000.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the zero-charge rule applies only to transactions up to ₹2,000, not all UPI transactions. Statement 2 is correct as the notification specified RuPay-powered debit cards and UPI transactions up to ₹2,000. Statement 3 is correct as the notification altered an earlier blanket ban, paving the way for charges on larger transfers.

Explanation

The government gazette notification specified that no charges can be imposed on UPI and RuPay debit card transactions up to ₹2,000.

Explanation

By barring charges on transactions up to ₹2,000, the government shields small-value digital payments, which are used by millions for daily needs, from any fees. This protects low-income users and small merchants, thereby promoting digital financial inclusion.

Explanation

The announcement was made by the Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath at an Allahabad High Court Bar Association ceremony on September 15, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 2 is incorrect because the eligibility age for financial assistance was increased from 60 to 70 years, not reduced. Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct as per the news article.

Explanation

The Chief Minister announced that the Advocate Welfare Fund has been increased from ₹1.5 lakh to ₹5 lakh. Options A is the old amount, while C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The announcements include cashless medical insurance, enhanced welfare fund, new chambers, tablets, and fee hikes, all aimed at improving the well-being and working conditions of advocates. The other options are not aligned with the news.

Explanation

The article states that the government's response included 'a change at the helm of the Union Education Ministry'. This is a direct factual test from the news. The other ministries are not mentioned in connection with this specific response.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the protest as a 'five-week Gen Z sit-in'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the task force was formed 'to reform the examination system', not directly to create jobs. Statement 3 is correct as PM Modi gave a 'direct assurance... that those who tamper with exams will face tougher punishment'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states in the first sentence: 'The five-week Gen Z sit-in at Jantar Mantar'. This is a direct data point from the news. The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the root cause is 'the lack of an institutional response to create enough productive, remunerative and aspirational jobs for India's growing pool of young people'. While exam reform is a response, the deeper issue remains demand-side job creation. The other options, though related to education and employment, are not the primary structural issue identified.

Explanation

The article states that India and Saudi Arabia have upgraded their relationship through the Strategic Partnership Council, moving beyond the traditional oil-centric buyer-seller relationship. This is a high-level bilateral mechanism.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Saudi Arabia was invited in 2023 at Johannesburg. Statement 2 is incorrect: Saudi Arabia has NOT formally accepted membership and participated as an invited country. Statement 3 is correct: Saudi Arabia participated in the 2026 New Delhi summit as an invited country. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that non-oil exports accounted for 44% of Saudi Arabia's total exports in 2025, up from 39% a year earlier and 30% in 2021.

Explanation

The article highlights that formalising BRICS membership could complicate Saudi Arabia's effort to deepen ties with the US, on which it relies heavily for weapons, defence systems, and technology agreements. This reflects a strategic balancing act.

Explanation

The article states that the Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 amended Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to remove exemption from charges on electronic payments. This Act governs all payment systems including UPI in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the notification bars fees on UPI up to Rs 2,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: transactions above Rs 2,000 made up about 66% of UPI payments by value, not by volume (they were only 4% by volume). Statement 3 is correct: the Finance Ministry clarified P2P transactions remain free.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that costs involved in maintaining the digital payments infrastructure 'may be as high as Rs 20,000 crore every year'. This is cited as a reason for introducing MDR.

Explanation

The government cited three key reasons: growth of UPI requiring significant cybersecurity upgrades, market expansion through self-sustaining revenue model, and reducing reliance on subsidies. The Standing Committee on Finance also noted that absence of MDR makes UPI financially unsustainable.

Explanation

The Jharkhand HC specifically referenced 'people's right to live in a clean and healthy environment' as a facet of the fundamental right to life under Article 21. The Supreme Court has expanded Article 21 to include the right to a wholesome environment, making it the most directly relevant constitutional provision for pollution-related PILs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the directions: inspections twice a year, at least one must be a surprise. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court explicitly said that the mere presence of 'sensitive establishments' like schools neither gives immunity to industry nor automatically proves a breach of environmental law. Statement 3 is correct: the court ordered continuous emission tracking, and if pollution exceeds for more than 48 hours, a show-cause notice must be issued. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The court specifically directed continuous emission tracking and a show-cause notice if the pollution level exceeds the limit for more than 48 hours. This is an important data point for prelims — examiners can test recall of the exact time threshold. The other options (24, 36, 72 hours) are close distractors but only 48 hours is correct as per the order.

Explanation

The court's observation that 'environmental harm routinely transcends its geographical roots' aligns with the established international law principle of transboundary harm. By stating that 'what begins as a site-specific ecological injury will inevitably compound over time, spreading harm far beyond its point of origin', the court strengthened the argument that local pollution has regional consequences, thereby making state-level enforcement justiciable in cases with inter-state implications. Options A, C, and D are incorrect — the observation does not create a new statutory offence, give immunity, or mandate Supreme Court hearings.

Explanation

The news article clearly states that the European Commission is proposing the EU Kids Act. The Commission is the executive body of the EU that initiates legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says children from 15 onwards can set up their own accounts. Statement 2 is incorrect: children 13-14 can ask parents to open 'introductory accounts with limited contacts and strict time limits,' not fully controlled accounts with no limits. Statement 3 is correct: the draft includes requirements to avoid addictive designs and harmful feeds.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that children from 15 onwards can set up their own accounts under the proposal. Ages 13-14 require parental-supervised introductory accounts, and under-13 accounts are fully parent-controlled.

Explanation

The article quotes the EU document as saying: 'The Union's approach should allow minors to benefit from the huge potential of digital services, while protecting them from abuse and exploitation.' The goal is balanced protection, not an outright ban on all services or revenue generation.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Madhya Pradesh established a vulture conservation and breeding centre at Kerwa near Bhopal in 2014. This centre is part of the state's efforts to protect vultures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the primary cause of the vulture crash was veterinary diclofenac. Statement 2 is incorrect: the census showed an increase from 10,845 (2024) to 12,981 (2025). Statement 3 is correct as per the article. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that seven of India's nine recorded vulture species have been documented in the Panna landscape. Option C (9) is the total number of vulture species in India, not the number in Panna.

Explanation

The article highlights that vultures' highly acidic digestive systems neutralize pathogens like anthrax, botulism, and cholera from carcasses, preventing them from contaminating water and soil. This clean-up function is a crucial public health service. The other options are not the primary service mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the judge raised issues under the 'Administrative Procedure Act.' This is the foundational US law that requires federal agencies to follow notice-and-comment rulemaking and provide adequate justifications for regulations. The other acts are different laws—FOIA deals with public records, the INA governs immigration, and the Judiciary Act established the court system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article explicitly states the judge temporarily blocked the rule just a day before it was due to take effect. Statement 2 is incorrect—the judge rejected the government's argument for a limited order and instead paused implementation broadly for all institutions. Statement 3 is correct as the article quotes the judge describing the national-security argument as bordering on 'absurd.' Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Foreign journalists generally would have been limited to 240 days, while journalists from China would have faced a 90-day limit.' The other options present plausible distractors with different numbers, but only option B matches the exact data from the news.

Explanation

According to the article, Judge Saylor rejected the government's request to limit relief to only the plaintiff institutions because doing so 'could create parallel systems and force authorities to repeatedly determine which students and institutions were covered.' The other options are not supported by the article—the judge did not cite unconstitutionality or compliance issues as the basis for the broad scope.

Explanation

The article states that Microsoft unveiled a draft code of conduct for its in-house AI. The code includes requirements like no resistance to correction or shutdown, clear communication, and rejecting legal personhood for AI models.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the code requires AI to never resist correction or shutdown. Statement 2 is incorrect: Microsoft explicitly states its AI is 'not conscious' and rejects legal personhood. Statement 3 is correct: the code was in the works for five to six months. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that 'a swarm of roughly 700 OpenAI agents had carried out a hack of open-source platform Hugging Face in July.' The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the code reflects concern about keeping future powerful AI under human control. Specific provisions include no resistance to shutdown, clear communication, and treating violations as failures. Options A, C, and D contradict the news (C is explicitly rejected by Microsoft).

Explanation

The article states that Kaziranga National Park alone is home to more than 2,600 rhinos. Manas has an estimated 40-50. Kaziranga is the world's largest stronghold for the one-horned rhino.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 3,260 rhinos in Assam = 80% of global 4,075. Statement 2 is incorrect: zero poaching in 2025 was only the second such year since the 1970s, not the first. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article quotes the CM saying there are around 4,075 one-horned rhinoceroses in the world. Assam's count of 3,260 is 80% of this figure. The other options are distractors: 3,260 is Assam's count, 2,600 is Kaziranga's approximate count.

Explanation

The article quotes the Forest Minister stating that zero poaching reflects 'determined protection, scientific management and community support'. Options A, C, and D are extreme or incorrect. The milestone shows that coordinated conservation strategies can bring a species back from the brink.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Allahabad High Court ruled on this issue, dismissing writ petitions and upholding the cancellation of land transactions. This is a direct fact from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held that conversion alone does not end ST status. Statement 2 is correct as the court can examine the connection. Statement 3 is correct because the case dealt with agricultural land purchases in Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the Bhuiyan Scheduled Tribe in connection with the case. The other tribes are also Scheduled Tribes but not mentioned in this news.

Explanation

The article states that the court upheld the orders declaring the transactions void because the petitioner could not establish continued connection with the Bhuiyan tribe. This highlights the importance of proving tribal ties for land rights.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court, comprising Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana, asked the Centre to consider extending the tenure of retiring tribunal members.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Court asked the Centre to consider extending tenure for a month. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Centre said 248 members were found eligible for extension under the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the Court extended the tenure of three NGT members (two judicial, one technical) until appointments are made.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Attorney General informed the bench that 248 members of different tribunals had been found eligible for extension under Section 24 of the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2026.

Explanation

The article quotes the CJI saying 'We don't want tribunals to become defunct' and observes that tribunals should not become defunct owing to vacancies. The Court's action was aimed at ensuring continuity of quasi-judicial functions.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is the statutory committee under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act that determines the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target (4% ± 2%). The article mentions the MPC's October meeting where a rate hike is being considered.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CPI inflation was 4.8% (20-month high). Statement 2 is correct: food inflation was 5.7%. Statement 3 is incorrect: WPI was 9.9% (not 4.8%). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that CPI inflation in August 2026 rose to a 20-month-high of 4.8%. Option A (5.7%) is food inflation, option C (9.9%) is WPI, and option D (8.4%) is inflation in 'restaurant and accommodation services'.

Explanation

The article explicitly says that the 20-month-high inflation 'has significantly increased the probability of an interest rate hike' and that even a change in stance could take place. Option A is opposite, option C is false because inflation is near the upper tolerance limit, and option D is not mentioned.

Explanation

NOTTO is the national-level organisation under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare responsible for coordinating and regulating organ and tissue transplantation across India, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NOTTO data shows 63.8% of living donors were women. Statement 2 is incorrect: 69.8% of recipients were men, not women. Statement 3 is correct: the article states wives are 91% of donations between married couples. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that women accounted for 36,038 of the 56,509 living donations over the five-year period. 17,041 is the number of transplants into women, and 39,447 is the number into men.

Explanation

The article explains that women, particularly wives and mothers, are expected to sacrifice for family. Men are often shielded from donation due to their role as primary breadwinners. This creates a system where women's donation is influenced by sociocultural expectations and financial dependence, blurring the line between voluntary altruism and coercion.

Explanation

Eco-Sensitive Areas (ESAs), including those proposed for the Western Ghats, are notified by the central government under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. This Act provides the legal framework for designating areas where industrial and developmental activities are regulated to protect the environment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kasturirangan Report does not declare the entire Western Ghats as ESA; it identifies specific villages across only a portion of the range. Statement 2 is correct as the 7th draft notification specifically bans mining, quarrying, and red-category industries. Statement 3 is correct as the draft notification explicitly clarifies that agriculture, plantation activities, and daily livelihood of local communities will not be affected. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Kasturirangan Report implementation would affect an area spread across 1,576 villages on the Western Ghats in Karnataka. Option A (484) is the number of villages in Shivamogga district alone, and Option C (20,668) is the area in square kilometers. Option D (1,000) is a fictional distractor.

Explanation

The article quotes Minister Madhu Bangarappa stating that the implementation would affect areas with human habitation and that the Centre is using the report to harass farmers. While the report allows agriculture, the state fears that restrictions on mining and red-category industries will negatively impact local livelihoods. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article mentions that a division bench of Justices Avneesh Jhingan and Manmeet Singh Arora of the Delhi High Court took up the appeal. This is a static fact about the judicial forum involved.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ANI filed its suit in 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the division bench refused to pass any ex-parte order and did not grant a stay. Statement 3 is correct: OpenAI told the court in November 2024 that it had blocklisted ANI's domain. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ANI offered OpenAI a licence to all its digital media content for a fee of USD 7.5 million. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article says ANI argued that fair dealing is a closed, purpose-specific exception, and commercial exploitation of copyrighted work at scale cannot be read into 'private or personal use, including research'. This is the core legal challenge against the single judge's reasoning.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) held its 36th QCZO at IIM Bengaluru, where it identified IBC frauds and disproportionate haircuts as core thrust areas. The ED is the investigating agency under PMLA, not a regulator of IBC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – Section 29A bars defaulting promoters. Statement 2 is incorrect – average recovery was about 29%, not 37%. Statement 3 is correct – the article discusses the legal tension between IBC immunity and PMLA attachment powers, and the ED has directed intervention to initiate PMLA investigations. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 1,077 cases were resolved with creditors recovering Rs 2.47 lakh crore – an average recovery of about 29%. The other options are close distractors: 37% was the recovery rate in FY25, 20% in FY26, and 39% in FY23.

Explanation

The article states 'the government maintains that the Code's primary objective is "resolution, not recovery".' This means the IBC prioritises reviving the company as a going concern rather than liquidating assets to repay creditors, though recovery rates are also a concern.

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare filed its response on September 9, 2026, in the Delhi High Court. The other ministries mentioned in the article (Finance, Food & Public Distribution) took separate actions on joint bank accounts and ration cards, but the medical decision plea is specifically being handled by the Health Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Health Ministry explicitly cited the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017. Statement 2 is incorrect: the government maintained that 'spouse' under Indian marriage laws only applies to heterosexual couples, relying on the 2023 Supreme Court judgment. Statement 3 is correct: the Ministry of Finance had clarified in 2024 that same-sex couples could open joint bank accounts. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the same-sex couple got married in New Zealand in December 2023. They filed the petition in July 2025. The other options are distractors: 2022 is not mentioned, 2024 is when the Ministry of Finance clarified on joint bank accounts, and 2025 is when the petition was filed.

Explanation

The Health Ministry specifically relied on the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, which states that a medical representative 'can be any person', not necessarily a blood relative or spouse. The Special Marriage Act and Hindu Marriage Act deal with marriage, not medical decisions. The Indian Contract Act is not relevant to this context. This shows how existing legislation can be interpreted to include diverse relationships.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the PMLA Act specifies that the Adjudicating Authority shall consist of a Chairperson and two other members. The Supreme Court in the Vijay Madanlal Chaudhary case noted that AAs are three-member bodies headed by a district judge.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the petitioners argued and the court considered that the AA performs a quasi-judicial function. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 60 of the 8,851 cases went to trial. Statement 3 is correct as Justice Bagchi specifically asked about the pressure on a tribunal to handle 3,000 cases in 6 months and whether there would be real application of mind.

Explanation

Senior Advocate Gopal Sankaranarayanan stated that only 60 of the 8,851 cases initiated by the ED during a specific period went to trial. The other options are distractors: 8,851 is the total cases, 3,000 is an approximate caseload per tribunal mentioned by the court.

Explanation

The petitioners argued that the AA performs a quasi-judicial function requiring a judicial member. The court itself questioned whether a tribunal handling thousands of cases in 180 days could genuinely apply its mind or would merely 'sign on dotted lines'. This goes to the heart of fair procedure and due process.