22 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Health Ministry advisory was issued to States and Union Territories that have adopted the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010. The Act provides for registration, standards, and penalties for non-compliance, including cancellation of registration under Sections 32 and 40.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the advisory restricts stem cell therapy for autism to approved clinical trials only, not routine treatment. Statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court judgment was on January 30, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the Ministry's approved list covers 18 adult and 14 paediatric indications.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry's current approved list covers 18 adult and 14 paediatric indications. The correct number for paediatric indications is 14, making option A correct. Options 18 and 20 are distractors; 12 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The advisory reiterates that stem cell therapy for ASD can only be used as part of duly approved clinical trials, not as routine or commercial treatment. It does not ban all stem cell research (option A is false) nor promote it as a cure (option C). Option D contradicts the advisory's enforcement intent.

Explanation

The news directly quotes Mines Secretary Keshav Chandra announcing the scheme at the FIMI AGM. The Ministry of Mines is the nodal body for mineral policy, exploration, and processing in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh are focusing on rare earths. Statement 2 is incorrect: Odisha is for nickel, not lithium. Statement 3 is correct: Maharashtra is set to focus on lithium. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China controls 90% of global critical mineral processing. This underscores India's strategic vulnerability and the need for domestic processing capacity.

Explanation

The article highlights India's 100% import dependence on critical minerals. The 'complete ecosystem' approach for each mineral (beneficiation, processing) aims to reduce this vulnerability and promote self-reliance, especially for EV batteries.

Explanation

NTA is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education, established in 2017 to conduct entrance examinations for higher education. The article mentions the resignation of Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan, confirming the ministry's oversight.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says CISF deployed 39 personnel. Statement 2 is incorrect – the HLCE was chaired by K Radhakrishnan, while Nandan Nilekani chairs the High-Powered Task Force (HPTF). Statement 3 is correct – the new office is at Government of India Press building, Minto Road.

Explanation

The article states 'creating five senior positions at the joint secretary level'. Option A (2) refers to joint directors posted under Central Staffing Scheme. Option C (14) is the total number of officers posted in August 2026. Option D (39) is the number of CISF personnel.

Explanation

The article mentions the HPTF is examining 'possible migration of NEET-UG from pen-and-paper to computer-based testing, including its impact on rural, women and low-connectivity candidates'. Options A and C are part of other reforms but not the primary objective of HPTF. Option D is under HLCE recommendations.

Explanation

The Indian Air Force operates under the Ministry of Defence. All military exercises, including Tarang Shakti, are conducted under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the exercise is scheduled from Sep 26 to Oct 12 at Jodhpur. Statement 2 is incorrect: out of 40 countries, only 8 forces are participating with air assets; the remaining 32 are observers. Statement 3 is correct: the first edition was in Aug-Sep 2024 with 11 countries. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that 32 countries will attend the event as observers. The total participating countries are 40, out of which 8 are deploying air assets and 32 are observers.

Explanation

Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit stated that Tarang Shakti represents a shift from primarily bilateral exercises to planning and operating with multiple air forces simultaneously. The exercise aims to improve interoperability, test tactics, and strengthen partnerships, not to demonstrate dominance or focus on a single adversary.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by a division bench of the Patna High Court (Justices Bibek Chaudhuri and Chandra Shekhar Jha). The Supreme Court had ordered the suo motu case, but the directions were issued by the Patna High Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court recommended hearing before remission withdrawal. Statement 2 is incorrect: the deadlines vary – 15 days for Probation Officer, 30 days for Superintendent of Police, 15 days for Presiding Officer. Statement 3 is correct: the court suggested a dedicated portal/website for life convict details.

Explanation

The court referred to the prescribed period of 14 years of actual imprisonment (or 20 years including remission) for life convicts. The 14-year figure is the key data point for prelims. The other options are distractors – 10 years is for some other offences, 20 years includes remission, 25 years is not mentioned.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that its directions address 'residual concerns regarding transparency, timelines and grievance redressal'. The recommendations include fixed timelines, hearing opportunities, and a portal – all aimed at transparency and accessibility. Option A is a possible outcome but not the stated objective. Option C is incorrect as the Board remains empowered. Option D is opposite.

Explanation

The article states that the Centre (Government of India) notified the amendment to the EIA notification 2006. The EIA notification is under the purview of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). While the Ministry of Ports requested the change, the amendment was issued by MoEFCC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says validity doubled to minimum 20 years. Statement 2 is correct: first extension subject to examination of environmental safeguards. Statement 3 is incorrect: the second extension is granted in 'deserving cases where the project has not been operationalised within the first extension', not automatically and not for operationalised projects.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the previous validity was 10 years with a provision to extend by one year. The amendment doubled it to a minimum of 20 years. Option A (5 years) is not mentioned; option C (15 years) was the initial recommendation of the expert committee; option D (20 years) is the new validity.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Expert Advisory Committee found the existing validity 'insufficient' considering the 'long gestation and phased development' characteristic of port and harbour projects. This was the key rationale. While CRZ clearance alignment was also requested, the primary reason stated is the nature of port project development.

Explanation

NHAI is a statutory body under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, established by the NHAI Act, 1988. It is responsible for development and maintenance of national highways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: lane norms are based on PCU thresholds. Statement 2 is incorrect: full overhead gantries are placed 5 km and 2 km ahead of an exit; cantilever gantries are placed 1 km and 500 m before the exit. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions 'multi-lane free flow (MLFF)' as the barrier-less tolling system.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India targets 50,000 km of high-speed corridors by 2036-37 under Vision 2047. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the RCC boundary wall is constructed 'in order to prevent encroachment and unauthorized access on high-speed corridors'. The other options are not mentioned in the context of the boundary wall.

Explanation

The article states that NHSRCL is the implementing agency for the MAHSR corridor. NHSRCL is a special purpose vehicle formed jointly by the central government and the governments of Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says movable crossings (swing-nose) are used, not fixed crossings. Statement 2 is correct: two point machines are used, one for switch rails and one for the crossing. Statement 3 is correct: the signalling system requires confirmation of locking before route clearance.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions that the corridor is designed for speeds up to 320 km/h. This is the key data point for the high-speed rail system.

Explanation

The article explains that fixed crossings create a gap that causes impact, vibration, and wear at high speeds. Movable crossings provide a continuous rail surface, reducing these effects and enabling safe operation at 320 km/h.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the European Space Agency (ESA) as the partner of ISRO. NASA is US, Roscosmos is Russia, CNSA is China. The agreement was signed between ISRO and ESA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the summit was in Paris on Sept 9-10, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the cooperation also includes space weather and human exploration. Statement 3 is correct: partnership began in 1978 for Earth observation and remote sensing. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that the two space agencies collaborated closely after the Cooperative Agreement inked in January 2002. 1978 is the start of initial collaboration, 2026 is the renewal year, and 2032 is the end date of the renewed agreement.

Explanation

The article highlights that the renewal expands collaboration in space weather and human/robotic exploration, directly benefiting India's Gaganyaan (human spaceflight) and Chandrayaan (lunar) missions. It is not limited to communication satellites or launch cost reduction, and competition with China is not mentioned.

Explanation

According to the article, Google and Meta have for years made such reports to the US-based National Center for Missing & Exploited Children, which then relays reports to law enforcement in the country involved. NCMEC runs the CyberTipline.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says Google agreed to report directly. Statement 2 is incorrect because Meta's announcement was 'last week', not a month before. Statement 3 is correct: the CyberTipline received more than 21.3 million reports in 2025.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The CyberTipline, run by that same nonprofit, received more than 21.3 million reports from around the world of suspected child sexual exploitation in 2025.' The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

Indian officials argued that routing reports through NCMEC costs precious time in cases where a child may be in active danger, since reports pass through that intermediary before reaching domestic police. Direct reporting aims to speed up the process.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ADRDE in Agra, a laboratory under DRDO, is the developing agency for the Gaganyaan parachute system. VSSC is involved in launch vehicles, TBRL in ballistic testing, and HSFC in human spaceflight coordination.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: drogue chutes are used for initial stabilization and velocity reduction. Statement 2 is incorrect: the main chutes are deployed by mortar-ejected pilot chutes. Statement 3 is correct: reefing is a technique to open the canopy gradually. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Gaganyaan crew module would have a high velocity of about 170 m/s (faster than a Formula 1 car) when in the lower atmosphere before parachute deployment. The other options are distractors: 340 m/s is close to the speed of sound, 100 m/s and 250 m/s are incorrect.

Explanation

The article explains that if the full-sized main parachute is directly deployed at 170 m/s, it would generate very high opening shock levels leading to shredding of the canopy or subjecting the crew to unacceptably high deceleration. Multi-stage release reduces deceleration and dynamic pressure to acceptable levels.

Explanation

The article mentions that contracts were largely executed by agents or subordinate staff of JJM/Jal Shakti Department, indicating that the Jal Shakti Department is the implementing agency for JJM in J&K. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the report said construction does not conform to prescribed engineering standards. Statement 2 is correct: the Committee called for the matter to be referred to an investigating agency. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Committee stated the decision to shift from GI to HDPE pipes cannot be justified and found no credible record. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that JJM aims to provide a regular supply of 55 litres per capita per day of drinking water to every rural household. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that legislators alleged large-scale irregularities in implementation of JJM and demanded a thorough probe, leading to the House Committee report which found gross negligence, below-standard civil works, and false claims. The other options are not mentioned or are contrary to the news.

Explanation

The Visegrad Group (V4) is a cultural and political alliance of these four Central European countries. The other options include non-members like Romania, Austria, or Slovenia, which are not part of V4.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting was held on the sidelines of UNGA 81. Statement 2 is correct as they agreed to an annual business forum and annual foreign ministers' meetings. Statement 3 is incorrect because the discussions also covered major global crises including the Ukraine conflict and developments in the Gulf.

Explanation

The article states that the meeting was held on Monday, September 21, 2026, on the sidelines of the 81st session of the UN General Assembly. The other dates are close distractors; September 22 is the publication date of the article.

Explanation

The meeting agreed to step up political, economic, and defence cooperation, including annual foreign ministers' meetings, a business forum, and technology/innovation partnerships. It is not solely economic, not a military alliance, and does not replace bilateral ties – it complements them.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Allahabad High Court (Bench of Justice Shekhar B. Saraf and Justice Abdhesh Kumar Chaudhary) delivered the judgment. The Lucknow Bench is part of the Allahabad High Court, but the court itself is Allahabad High Court. Option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly rejected the argument that administrative delay automatically discharges the bond. Statement 2 is correct – the court directed fresh counselling and adjustment of 89 days. Statement 3 is correct – the court held that the bond protects patients' right to life under Article 21. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the court directed that the 89 days Dr. Sen Gupta had worked as a senior resident after completing her PDCC be adjusted against her two-year bond. The other options are close distractors but 89 is the exact figure mentioned.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that the bond was intended to ensure the availability of doctors in government hospitals and to protect patients' right to life. Option A is not the primary objective; cost recovery is secondary. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority under Article 324 that supervises all electoral processes, including the preparation and revision of electoral rolls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 1,22,000 out of 38 lakh appeals disposed (3.2%). Statement 2 is incorrect: the high inclusion rate (93%) actually indicates that most deletions were WRONGFUL, not justified. Statement 3 is correct: The Hindu's analysis found that in 24 of Delhi's 70 constituencies, draft roll has fewer electors than those who voted in Feb 2025 election.

Explanation

The article states: 'In Delhi, this 'mapping' has put 13.79 lakh electors under notice with a further 19.33 lakh flagged for 'logical discrepancies' on undefined grounds.' So 19.33 lakh is the correct number for those flagged for logical discrepancies.

Explanation

The article criticises the ECI's method of 'delete first and verify later', citing that 93% of decided appeals restored voters, indicating wrongful deletions. This disenfranchisement violates universal adult franchise and undermines electoral integrity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ICAI issued SSA 5000. SEBI introduced BRSR, RBI handles banking regulation, and ISSB is an international body. ICAI is the statutory body for accounting and auditing standards in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SSA 5000 is effective from April 1, 2027 and replaces SSAE 3000 and SAE 3410. Statement 2 is incorrect: the standard mandates independent assurance, not self-verification. Statement 3 is correct: the standard requires examining reporting boundaries and assessing data quality to prevent greenwashing.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions SSA 5000 is effective from April 1, 2027. September 22, 2026 is the publication date of the news article. The other options are incorrect dates.

Explanation

The article states SSA 5000 aims to bring 'audit-like discipline' to sustainability reporting by requiring independent assurance practitioners to verify ESG disclosures, examine evidence, and assess internal controls. It does not replace financial audit standards nor mandate only positive reporting.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) is the Indian agency that extended its cooperation agreement with ESA. NSIL is a commercial arm, Antrix is a marketing arm, and PRL is a research institute under ISRO, but the agreement is between the space agencies themselves.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the cooperative agreement came into effect in January 2002. Statement 2 is incorrect because the renewed agreement also includes human and robotic exploration and space weather, not just Earth observation and satellite navigation. Statement 3 is correct: the signing took place on the sidelines of the International Space Summit (Sept 9-10) in Paris. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the agreement was extended for a further five years, until January 8, 2032. The other options are distractors: Jan 8, 2027 (if mistakenly thought 5 years from 2022), Sept 9, 2031 (related to summit dates), and Dec 5, 2029 (related to the PSLV-C59 launch).

Explanation

The article mentions ESA expressed interest in co-operating with ISRO in human space flight, lunar and Venus missions. The inclusion of human and robotic exploration in the agreement opens avenues for technical support, crew training, and joint missions, directly supporting India's Gaganyaan program and future planetary exploration. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article states that the primary raw material for phosphorus is rock phosphate, which must be reacted with sulphuric acid to become water-soluble and usable as fertiliser.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article says Brent is below the March 2022 peak of $139.1 and July 2008 peak of $147.5. Statement 2 is correct as output (284.9 mt) exceeded consumption (243.2 mt). Statement 3 is correct: sulphur is removed to produce clean fuels.

Explanation

The article states that US diesel prices are at a record $6.5-plus a gallon, up 76.2% year-on-year. The 55% figure refers to Brent crude, not diesel.

Explanation

Sulphur is essential to produce sulphuric acid, which is used to convert rock phosphate into phosphatic fertilisers. A sulphur shortage directly threatens fertiliser availability, which can impact crop yields and food security.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 1951 Greenland Defence Agreement as the original pact that provided US military rights in Greenland. The other options are unrelated treaties.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the deal gives Washington a veto over third-party military activity. Statement 2 is false: Greenland remains a semiautonomous territory of Denmark. Statement 3 is correct: Canadian PM Mark Carney announced Canada would seek EU associate membership.

Explanation

The article states 'only nine months ago, Denmark and other NATO allies deployed troops to Greenland.' The other options are plausible but incorrect timeframes.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the deal ends the immediate crisis but sets a dangerous precedent where an ally can issue threats and extract concessions, eroding trust. Options A, B, and D are incorrect based on the article: Greenland remains semiautonomous, NATO trust is lost, not gained, and independence is not mentioned.