21 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article specifically mentions ICBC as the world's biggest bank by asset size (over $8 trillion) and the one with a branch in Mumbai that suspended $185 million in loans during the Doklam standoff. The other three are also major Chinese state-owned banks but are not the subject of this investigation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the branch suspended 11 deals worth $185 million. Statement 2 is incorrect: the branch met only 57.7% of its profit target. Statement 3 is correct: Party members were organized to maintain communication with the embassy and consulate. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The pause impacted operating revenue by approximately $6.36 million, the bank's own internal report states.' $185 million is the total value of loans suspended, not the revenue impact. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article reveals that ICBC's Mumbai branch, as a state-owned entity, proactively reduced loan exposure and coordinated with the Chinese embassy during the standoff. This shows China's ability to weaponize its banks for geopolitical leverage, threatening India's economic sovereignty and security. Option A is false; C and D are unsupported by the article.

Explanation

Article 22(1) specifically provides that no arrested person shall be detained without being informed of the reasons for arrest and shall have the right to consult and be defended by a lawyer. Article 22(2) deals with production before magistrate within 24 hours, while Article 21 covers right to life and personal liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the judgment mandates police to apply before the Magistrate for re-arrest. Statement 2 is correct: the application must be supported by a senior police officer. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated that the rights under Article 22 would apply across statutes, not limited to specific laws.

Explanation

The article states the judgment was pronounced on Monday, September 21, 2026. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly states that these measures would ensure that the decision to re-arrest was not made on the sole discretion of the police officer who attempted the first arrest. The other options are not mentioned or are contrary to the judgment's objective.

Explanation

The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). This is a standard static fact. While the Ministry of External Affairs handles international relations, the MHA regulates foreign contributions under the FCRA to ensure national security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'foreign contributions and all assets created from them would vest in a government-appointed designated authority'. Statement 2 is also correct: 'The organisation can recover the assets if registration is restored within the prescribed period'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bill also provides for 'revision and an appeal to the District Judge'. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'Already, the FCRA registrations of 22,496 NGOs have been cancelled since 2015, leaving about 14,466 active registered associations eligible to receive foreign contributions'. The other options swap the numbers, a classic exam trap.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that NGOs, especially Christian organizations, worry the legislation may not be religion-neutral and that the real sufferers would be the beneficiaries of their schools, hospitals, and care homes. Option A is opposite of their concern, C is too extreme, D is incorrect as vesting happens only after cancellation and non-restoration.

Explanation

The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) is a preferential tariff system providing for a formal waiver of the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle. It enables developing countries to export goods to developed countries at reduced or zero tariffs, as was the case between India and the US before 2017.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Act authorizes up to 100% tariffs on the top five buyers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the exemption is for 'America's European allies' on the pretext of reducing consumption, not all European allies. Statement 3 is correct as the five countries listed are China, India, Slovakia, Hungary, and Azerbaijan.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Act authorizes the US President to impose tariffs of up to 100 per cent on goods from the five largest purchasers of Russian oil and gas. The other percentages are distractors.

Explanation

The article argues that India's strategy should be one of 'de-risking' from both the US and China, not decoupling from either. This involves diversifying dependencies in defence, energy, trade, and manpower to reduce vulnerabilities while maintaining essential economic links.

Explanation

A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is a treaty between two or more countries that aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs, quotas, and other trade barriers to promote trade in goods and services. The India-New Zealand FTA is a bilateral example of this concept.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Ratification occurred on September 21, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The FTA comes into force on October 20, not September 16. Statement 3 is correct: New Zealand's Parliament passed the implementing legislation on September 16. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that New Zealand's Parliament passed the implementing legislation on September 16, 2026. The other options are distractors: Sept 21 is the ratification date, Oct 20 is the implementation date, and Sept 20 is not mentioned.

Explanation

In the article, Minister Todd McClay said the FTA will 'level the playing field and unlock access for Kiwi businesses in one of the fastest growing markets in the world'. This reflects the core objective of market access and competitiveness. The other options are not mentioned or contradict the agreement's purpose.

Explanation

Section 65A of the Copyright Act, 1957 deals with Technological Protection Measures (TPMs) and provides exceptions under which digital locks can be circumvented for lawful purposes. Section 52 deals with 'fair dealing' exceptions, while Section 65B addresses Rights Management Information.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the draft provisions affirm commitments to WCT and TRIPS. Statement 2 is incorrect because the WCT is omitted from the National Treatment clause. Statement 3 is incorrect because the three-step test is borrowed from EU copyright statutes and is narrow, not broad, and not from Indian law.

Explanation

Article 10.11(a) of the draft FTA grants rightsholders an exclusive, unqualified right over all 'temporary or permanent' reproductions. This threatens the safe harbour protections for ISPs under Sections 52(1)(b) and (c) of the Copyright Act and Rule 75 of the Copyright Rules, 2013.

Explanation

Under a strict anti-circumvention regime, students and researchers who bypass encryption or digital locks to perform lawful acts like reverse-engineering software for interoperability or finding security flaws could become legal offenders. This directly threatens the exceptions currently provided under Section 65A and Section 52 of the Copyright Act.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Atmanirbhar Bharat mission, launched in 2020, aimed to bolster domestic manufacturing and reduce dependence on global supply chains, with China as the implicit target. Make in India is an older initiative (2014), while PLI and PMP are specific schemes under that broader vision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article says exports to China remained broadly stagnant between 2021 and 2025, not rising sharply. Statement 2 is correct: nearly 70% of imports from China are intermediate goods. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that the top five import categories became more concentrated (not diversified), rising from $19 billion to $34.6 billion and representing close to one-fourth of total imports from China.

Explanation

The article states that bilateral trade touched $167.6 billion in 2025. The other options are distractors: $87.5 billion was the import value from China in 2021, $149.5 billion is the import value from China in 2025, and $34.6 billion is the value of the top five import categories in 2025.

Explanation

The article explicitly argues that financial incentives under PLI or PMP alone cannot resolve structural challenges, and recommends shifting focus to building domestic technological capability, innovation, supplier networks, and component ecosystems. It specifically warns against blanket import restrictions and instead advocates calibrated tariffs on parts and components to nurture upstream domestic manufacturing.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CBI's chargesheets showed how the NEET-UG 2024 phase was compromised. The CBI is India's premier investigating agency for serious crimes and is often tasked with high-profile paper leak cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the principal doubled as city coordinator and vice-principal, allowing an unauthorized individual to open trunks. Statement 2 is correct: UP cancelled the exam and held a staggered re-test. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says AI's role should be to validate questions and flag anomalies, not issue final verdicts.

Explanation

The article states 'roughly 48 lakh candidates competing for over 60,000 posts' for the UP Police Constable exam. This is a key data point for prelims questions.

Explanation

The article mentions the Act adds 'legal teeth, up to ten years' imprisonment and crore-rupee fines for errant providers, and a four-year ban from conducting exams.' It is a punitive measure, not a technology mandate or a logistical change.

Explanation

The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is the independent regulatory body under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, responsible for implementing the DPCO and fixing/revising prices of scheduled drugs and medical devices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because medical devices are currently regulated under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), which is a pharma-centric framework, not a separate one. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: AiMeD proposed a trade markup cap at the GST trigger point, and the pilot covers six categories including pacemakers, heart valves, and syringes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NPPA capped stent prices in 2017, reducing costs by 70 to 85 per cent without any supply shortages. The other options are close distractors but only option C matches the exact range mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights that the proposed mechanism aims to shield patients from irrational markups (10-30x inflation) while ensuring parity between domestic and overseas manufacturers and maintaining supply viability through calibrated margins. It does not aim to increase revenue, promote imports, or eliminate all profits.

Explanation

The article states: 'Consumer price inflation rose to 4.82% in August, from 4.45% in July'. Option A is July's figure, C is repo rate, D is food inflation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explains real rate uses expected inflation. Statement 2 is incorrect because deposit growth is partly due to FCNR(B) scheme, not domestic savings. Statement 3 is correct per article.

Explanation

The article states: 'RBI holding the repo rate at 5.25%'. Other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article argues that with real rates near zero, the RBI's restrictive stance is weak, allowing inflation to persist. A positive real rate is needed to cool demand. The other options are incorrect as zero real rates may stimulate borrowing, not discourage it, and do not cause deflation.

Explanation

Article 44, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, states: 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' Article 35 was the draft article number during the Constituent Assembly debate, but the final Constitution uses Article 44.

Explanation

All statements are directly from the article. Mohammad Ismail Khan indeed argued against interference. B Pocker said British rule did not interfere. Ambedkar proposed that the Code could be voluntary at the initial stage. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Constituent Assembly debated the UCC on November 23, 1948, when it took up draft Article 35. November 26, 1949 is the day the Constitution was adopted, and January 26, 1950 is the date of its commencement.

Explanation

Ambedkar said Parliament 'may feel the ground' by making adherence voluntary, so that in the initial stage the Code applies only to those who declare they are prepared to be bound by it. This reflects a pragmatic approach to reduce resistance and let people adapt over time, not to limit the scope or bypass amendments.

Explanation

The article states that the Act has been 'passed by the U.S. Congress', making it a legislative action. The President signs it into law, but the legislative power rests with Congress. The UNSC is an international body and not involved in U.S. domestic lawmaking.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the law provides authority for tariffs 'up to 100%'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states this Act carries a 'higher order of legal permanence' and requires written justification for waivers, unlike the previous Executive Order. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the U.S. accounts for 'about 20% of its total goods exports'.

Explanation

The article specifically states, 'Russia accounted for more than 51% of India’s oil imports as of July 2026'. The other options represent incorrect figures that are not mentioned in the article and serve as distractors.

Explanation

The article states that while exporters previously shared the cost of the 50% tariff with American customers, sharing a 100% tariff will be 'impossible' for India's predominantly MSME exporters, making their goods 'simply become too uncompetitive'. The other options are extreme or irrelevant conclusions not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IRDAI laid down a roadmap with design principles for the Public Insurance Registry. The RBI regulates banking, SEBI regulates the securities market, and NABARD focuses on rural development, not insurance regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions PIR creates an interoperable system. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article specifies a federated architecture with source-system primacy to avoid centralization. Statement 3 is correct as the article states design principles are from India's G20 Task Force on DPI.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'PIR promises a consolidated view of every policy across life, health, motor and property.' This is a direct factual recall from the text.

Explanation

The article states the PIR 'has the potential to spark a similar revolution in insurance, giving an opportunity to tackle the information gap via a common and trusted layer of information across the ecosystem.' The other options are not objectives mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article is authored by Suvajit Banerjee, Sovini Mondal, and Sanjib Pohit, who are fellows/researchers at the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER), New Delhi. NCAER is India's oldest and largest independent economic research institute.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions China's tight export controls on rare-earth magnets and materials in April 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Annual Survey of Industries estimates the domestic permanent magnet market at around ₹750 crore, not ₹1,500 crore. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that NdFeB magnets are at the heart of EV motors and semiconductor fabrication facilities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India’s Annual Survey of Industries estimates the domestic permanent magnet market at around ₹750 crore.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article argues that the real policy challenge is not whether India possesses rare-earth resources or can reduce imports from China, but understanding what happens in between – the entire value chain from mining to finished magnets. It proposes an Integrated Techno-Economic Mapping (ITEM) framework to bridge this gap.

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu Private Universities Act, 2019, enacted by the EPS government, is the parent legislation regulating private universities in the state. The 2026 amendment seeks to modify its provisions. Other options refer to central laws or different state acts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the amendment prescribes 12 acres for GCC area. Statement 2 is correct: endowment fund reduced to ₹25 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: CPI and PMK opposed the Bill, and DMK members were evicted earlier, so it was not unanimous.

Explanation

As per clause (a) of Section 4 of the 2019 Act, not less than 100 acres of contiguous land was required. The 2026 amendment reduced it to 12-25 acres depending on location.

Explanation

Opposition parties (CPI, PMK), student bodies, and academics fear that lowering entry barriers will attract profit-driven entities, leading to fee hikes and widening socio-economic gaps. The SSN College of Engineering case (sixfold fee increase after merging with Shiv Nadar University) is cited as an example.

Explanation

According to the article, the Karnataka High Court on August 30, 2024 dismissed the family's plea for a fresh investigation. The Supreme Court later set aside this order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the crime took place in Dakshina Kannada district. Statement 2 is incorrect: the trial court acquitted Santhosh Rao on June 16, 2023. Statement 3 is correct as per the Supreme Court's direction that no officer from earlier investigation teams shall be part of the SIT.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the trial court acquitted Santhosh Rao on June 16, 2023. The other dates refer to the crime (2012), the HC judgment (2024), and the SC order publication (2026).

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly stated that the manner in which the investigation was conducted 'shocks the very conscience of the court' and that it was a case of lax and improper investigation leading to injustice. This was the core reasoning for ordering a fresh probe.

Explanation

The GDPR is the EU's comprehensive data protection law that governs the processing of personal data, including location data. The DPC fined Google under this regulation for failing to obtain proper consent and retaining data longer than necessary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the fine was €403 million. Statement 2 is incorrect: the inquiry began in 2020, not 2022. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states it was the fourth largest fine by the DPC, not the largest.

Explanation

The DPC fined Google €403 million, which was equivalent to $463 million at the time of the announcement. The other options are close distractors with swapped numbers or incorrect conversions.

Explanation

The DPC Deputy Commissioner stated that due to Google's failures, individuals could have been unaware that their location was being used to influence them with ads or infer interests, leading to loss of control over personal data. The retention of data longer than necessary aggravated this issue.

Explanation

The article states that the Long March 12 rocket is operated by the state-owned China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation (CASC). CASIC operates the Kuaizhou rockets, while LandSpace and Orienspace are commercial firms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the launches were within 45 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says 'none of the rockets attempted to land their first stages'. Statement 3 is correct: Qianfan and SatNet satellites were deployed. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Qianfan 'is expected to have around 15,000 active satellites eventually'. SatNet is planned for 13,000 satellites. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article describes both Qianfan and SatNet as 'broadband megaconstellations' and 'low Earth orbit broadband' networks. While Earth observation satellites were also carried on some missions, the constellations themselves are primarily for broadband internet.

Explanation

The article states that the Union Finance Ministry has advised banks to ensure that merchants do not pass the MDR charge on to customers. Hence, the Ministry of Finance is the nodal body for this advisory.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the flat Rs 5 MDR applies to railway ticket payments above Rs 2,000 via UPI. Statement 2 is incorrect because the charge is on the merchant side and not passed to passengers. Statement 3 is correct: the effective date is October 15, 2026. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for railway ticket payments above Rs 2,000, the applicable charge is a flat Rs 5 per transaction, instead of 0.4% of the ticket value. Option A (0.4%) applies to regular merchants, not railways. Options C and D are incorrect.

Explanation

The article highlights that the flat Rs 5 MDR is a concession compared to the general 0.4% MDR, reducing processing costs for railways. Additionally, the Finance Ministry advised that this charge should not be passed to passengers, ensuring no fare increase. Thus, the objective is cost reduction for merchants without burdening consumers.

Explanation

The article quotes Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, indicating the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry for trade negotiations in India. The Department of Commerce under it handles such pacts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: the article lists pharmaceuticals, iron and steel, seafood, cotton garments, electronic goods and chemicals. Statement 3 is incorrect because the $30.4 billion figure is for 2025, not 2024. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Two-way trade reached $30.4 billion in 2025'. $70 billion is the target for 2030, while the other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights the target to double trade to $70 billion by 2030 as the objective. While negotiating fast-track and concluding by end 2026 are timelines, the core economic goal is the trade value target. Option A is too narrow, B not mentioned, D is a process target not the primary objective.

Explanation

The article states ‘Beijing confirmed on Monday’ and quotes Chinese Foreign Ministry Spokesman Guo Jiakun. So, it was China’s Foreign Ministry that confirmed the visit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: A US official confirmed Trump will welcome Xi at Joint Base Andrews on September 23. Statement 2 is incorrect: No permanent trade agreement has been secured; they have only maintained a tariff truce. Statement 3 is correct: The article identifies He Lifeng as China’s top negotiator for trade, meeting Treasury Secretary Bessent. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article says Xi will be in the US from Wednesday (September 23) to Friday (September 25). The visit begins on September 23. The other options are distractors: Sept 21 is the publication date, Sept 25 is the end date, Sept 20 is when Trump spoke on Air Force One.

Explanation

The article states the visit is ‘expected to be a bid to ease tensions over trade, technology and broader strategic issues’. No permanent trade deal or permanent resolution on Taiwan is expected. The AI channel is a smaller initiative, not the primary objective. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the Karnataka FSDA conducted the raids and cancelled the licences. CDSCO is the central authority, while DCGI is its head. State FSDA is the state-level regulator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: drugs worth ₹5 crore were seized. Statement 2 is incorrect: Pfizer's depot was suspended for non-cooperation with the SIT, not for direct manufacturing. Statement 3 is correct: an SIT was formed to probe the wider racket.

Explanation

The article states that 5,640 vials of counterfeit Cefiavigent 2.5 injection were seized, valued at over ₹3.38 crore, making it the single largest component of the haul.

Explanation

The FSDA explicitly noted that the counterfeit drugs 'lack active medicinal ingredients and may contain harmful substances, posing a serious threat to public health.' This is the core danger, not just expiry or pricing.

Explanation

Article 320 of the Indian Constitution defines the functions of Public Service Commissions, including conducting examinations for appointments to civil services. Article 315 deals with establishment of PSCs, Article 323 covers reports of PSCs, and Article 324 deals with the Election Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: KPSC is a constitutional body under Article 315(2). Statement 2 is incorrect: there is NO legal requirement for minimum qualifications to become a PSC member — this was a key finding in the investigation. Statement 3 is correct: Sahukar was listed as 'official' member despite never holding government office, later reclassified as 'non-official'.

Explanation

The article states that Bannur Infrastructures' revenue rose from about ₹25 crore (2021-22) to ₹65 crore (2022-23) — a 160% increase. Shakuntala was appointed as KPSC member on March 16, 2023. The ₹45 crore option is a distractor; ₹85 crore is not mentioned.

Explanation

The investigation explicitly highlights that 'there is no legal requirement for any minimum qualification to become a PSC member' — this allowed politically connected individuals like Sahukar and Shakuntala to enter the Commission without merit. While other issues like leaked papers exist, the fundamental systemic weakness is the lack of qualification criteria for PSC members.

Explanation

The article states that a three-judge Supreme Court Bench headed by then CJI S A Bobde overturned the NCLAT verdict in March 2021 and upheld the affirmative voting rights of the Tata Trusts’ nominee directors. NCLAT is the appellate tribunal whose order was reversed.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says Tata Trusts collectively own about 66% of Tata Sons. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court overturned the NCLAT order, not upheld it. Statement 3 is correct because the SC upheld the affirmative voting rights of the Trust nominees.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Tata Trusts collectively own about 66% of Tata Sons. The 18.37% figure refers to the Mistry family and Shapoorji Pallonji Group stake, making it a likely distractor.

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that a minority shareholder does not automatically have a statutory right to proportional representation on the board of a private company. It also ruled that Articles of Association are binding and cannot be rewritten through tribunal proceedings.

Explanation

The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF) since 2006. UNDP publishes the Gender Inequality Index and Gender Development Index, while UN Women collaborates on the Women's Empowerment Index. This is a common static GK question in UPSC Prelims (as seen in 2017).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WEF released the 20th edition covering 145 economies. Statement 2 is incorrect: India retained its 131st rank, not improved to 120th. Statement 3 is correct: Educational Attainment (96.9%) and Health and Survival (96.2%) are closest to parity. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

India's gender parity in 2026 is 64.5%. 69.2% is the global average, 61.7% is the Economic Participation dimension score, and 22.1% is the Political Empowerment dimension score. These are common distractors.

Explanation

Political Empowerment has the lowest parity at 22.1%, indicating the widest gender gap. Economic Participation is at 61.7%, while Educational Attainment (96.9%) and Health and Survival (96.2%) are near parity. This highlights that women's political representation remains a critical area for improvement globally.

Explanation

As per the article, IFL commenced after permission from the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB). AERB is India's independent nuclear safety regulator, whereas NPCIL is the operator, BARC is a research centre, and DAE is the administrative department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: RAPP-8 is the fourth of 16 planned 700 MWe PHWRs. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states KAPS 3&4 started commercial operation in 2023-24, not 2024-25. Statement 3 is correct: geotechnical work for RAPP-9&10 began on the same day as IFL. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that RAPP-8 is a 700‑megawatt-electric (MWe) PHWR. Options 500, 1000, and 1400 MWe are common distractor capacities for other reactor designs (e.g., 1000 MWe for some LWRs).

Explanation

The article states that the 'standardisation of the 700 MWe PHWR design... supports its continued deployment in fleet mode.' Fleet‑mode building of identical units lowers per‑unit costs, speeds up licensing, and simplifies maintenance. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The MEA is the nodal ministry for India's foreign policy and representation at international organizations, including the UN. The External Affairs Minister (EAM) leads the delegation, as seen in this news with EAM S. Jaishankar attending the P4M meeting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the joint editorial was by leaders of EU, Brazil, Kenya, and Canada. Statement 2 is incorrect because the editorial explicitly states P4M will NOT create another exclusive bloc or international bureaucracy; it is a flexible framework. Statement 3 is correct as confirmed by officials that EAM Jaishankar will attend.

Explanation

The article states that 2025 saw the highest recorded number of state-based armed conflicts since 1946, in 35 countries. It also mentions the highest recorded military spending of nearly $3 trillion in the same year.

Explanation

The joint editorial states P4M will support reform of the UN to make it more representative and effective, and will push for collective action on issues like AI, climate change, health security, and digital transformation. It explicitly avoids becoming a bloc or bureaucracy.