24 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

RDSS is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Power to improve distribution infrastructure and operational efficiency. The Power Secretary is an official of this ministry, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the mandate by mid-2028. Statement 2 is incorrect because Agarwal said no separate incentive is needed due to assured market. Statement 3 is correct as the move addresses cybersecurity issues.

Explanation

The article states that 5.73 crore smart meters were installed under RDSS, and overall 7.24 crore have been installed across all schemes. 20.33 crore is the sanctioned number under RDSS, not installed.

Explanation

The article clearly states the mandate is to address cybersecurity risks associated with smart meters. While cost reduction is a secondary benefit, the primary goal is security.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is the nodal agency for India's international trade negotiations, including FTAs. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic aspects, but the lead on trade deals is with Commerce. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the FTA aims to boost Indian pharma exports. Statement 2 is incorrect because India has kept the dairy sector sensitive and has not granted immediate zero-duty access to all dairy products; tariff reductions are likely phased. Statement 3 is correct as the deal aligns with India's Act East and Indo-Pacific strategies. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The news article explicitly mentions dairy, pharmaceuticals, and services as key sectors. Automobiles, textiles, and electronics are not highlighted in the provided article content. Dairy is a sensitive sector for India, and its inclusion makes it a key data point for the exam.

Explanation

The article frames the FTA within the context of India's broader Indo-Pacific strategy and supply chain resilience. While trade deficit reduction is a general goal, the specific strategic angle is about deepening ties with a like-minded partner. Securing cheap dairy imports is not the primary objective, and the FTA does not replace the WTO framework.

Explanation

Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in an Election Commission. The other options relate to President's rule (356), Finance Commission (280), and National Emergency (352).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act replaced CJI with a Cabinet minister. Statement 2 is incorrect: Anoop Baranwal was decided by a Constitution Bench (5 judges). Statement 3 is correct: Justice Datta believed the settled principle from Anoop Baranwal could be applied by the present bench. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The 2023 Act provides a three-member selection committee: Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet minister nominated by the PM, and the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha. The earlier interim mechanism also had three members (PM, LoP, CJI).

Explanation

Justice Datta observed that a minister bound by collective responsibility 'cannot be expected to defy his own nominator', thus the presence of the LoP becomes 'largely ornamental'. He emphasized the perception test: the EC must appear independent.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre has offered a new constitutional arrangement under Article 371, creating a sui-generis model with legislative, executive, and financial powers for Ladakh. Article 370 pertains to the former special status of Jammu and Kashmir, while 371A and 371J are specific to Nagaland and Karnataka respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a new arrangement under Article 371. Statement 2 is incorrect: the reservation is 95% (not 100%). Statement 3 is correct: the Zojila tunnel is described as the world’s longest high-altitude single-tube tunnel at 13 km. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states 'Nearly 5,000 youngsters have been given government employment' as part of the Centre's efforts to address job demands. The other options are plausible but incorrect.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'In response to demands for more decentralised governance, five new districts have been created, each slated to get an elected Hill Development Council.' This is about administrative and political devolution, not constituencies, tourism, or direct job creation.

Explanation

Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ERO (usually the Sub-Divisional Magistrate) is the statutory authority to prepare and revise the roll, hear claims and objections, and decide on inclusion or deletion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the two ECs objected 14 times between November and August. Statement 2 is false: the SC ordered a hearing and display of reasons for discrepancy, not automatic removal. Statement 3 is correct: the CEO sent 8 emails and the roll was published on Feb 21 without the 97 voters.

Explanation

The article states that out of 649 electors who came forward with documents, EROs found 97 eligible, but the rollback was not enabled on ECINet, so they were excluded from the final roll published on February 21, 2026.

Explanation

The Commissioners argued that ECINet's permission-based architecture strips EROs of the authority granted by Section 21/21A of RPA 1950, effectively centralising roll management in the ECI's IT division, which has no legal basis.

Explanation

The Sagarmala programme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, aimed at port modernisation and coastal infrastructure development. The article mentions the programme in the context of blue bond issuance, but the nodal ministry remains Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because blue bonds are not identical to green bonds; they have additional disclosure requirements and lack a universally accepted taxonomy. Statement 2 is correct: the article states that issuers need frameworks explaining where money will be invested and impact measurement mechanisms. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Seychelles issued the world's first sovereign blue bond in 2018 with World Bank support.

Explanation

The article states that 'cumulative blue bond issuance crossed $15 billion by mid-2025, up from about $222 million in 2018.' Options A and C are earlier data points: $222 million was the 2018 figure, and $553 million refers to Belize's debt restructuring. $1 billion is a distractor not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the bond has a strategic purpose of correcting asset-liability mismatch as its loans for infrastructure projects span around 12 years, while it has shorter existing borrowing tenure.' Other options are not the primary reason: SEBI compliance is a regulatory framework, not the motivation; attracting only domestic investors is not mentioned; and the bond is only 0.17% of the total pipeline, not for the entire project cost.

Explanation

The article states that a US Department of State release detailed the discussion on sanctions and energy security. The Secretary of State, Marco Rubio, led the meeting, making the State Department the relevant body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the law gives Trump authority to impose up to 100% tariffs. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions a temporary waiver, not a permanent one. Statement 3 is correct: US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent said the US expects India to ramp up purchases of US oil.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Lindsey O. Graham Act gives the President authority to impose up to 100% tariffs on countries that continue to buy oil and gas from Russia. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

India imports a significant amount of Russian crude to meet its energy demands for 1.4 billion people, while also maintaining a policy of strategic autonomy. The article highlights that India continues to balance these aspects. Option C best captures this rationale; the other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The New Delhi Declaration explicitly states that NIMHANS (National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences) in Bengaluru will serve as the coordinating centre for a network of training hubs and Centres of Excellence for mental health among BRICS nations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India presided over the 18th BRICS Summit in 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the declaration explicitly steered clear of a common currency and focused on local currency trade settlement. Statement 3 is correct: the declaration is 45 pages containing 140 paragraphs.

Explanation

The theme was explicitly stated in the article: 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation, and Sustainability'. Option B was the theme of the 16th BRICS Summit (Kazan, 2024). Options C and D are fabricated.

Explanation

The declaration states the Task Force aims to explore practical solutions for efficient cross-border payments and enhance interoperability of payment systems, not to create a common currency or replace SWIFT. The goal is incremental improvement in transactions using local currencies.

Explanation

The European Commission is the executive branch of the EU and is responsible for negotiating international trade agreements on behalf of all member states. The European Council sets political direction, while the European Parliament gives final approval.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the signing is scheduled for December 16, 2026 in Brussels. Statement 2 is incorrect because the deal has 'majority approval' in Europe and will not need to be individually ratified in each EU country. Statement 3 is correct as PM Modi will travel to Canada, the US (G20), and Belgium for separate FTAs.

Explanation

Negotiations on the India-EU FTA restarted in June 2022 and were concluded in January 2026. The signing is scheduled for December 2026, and the roll-out is expected in early 2027.

Explanation

The 'majority approval' in the European Council means the FTA can be adopted without individual ratification by each of the 27 EU member states' parliaments. This significantly speeds up the process. The deal still needs European Parliament approval (1-2 months) before roll-out.

Explanation

India's foreign policy and participation in multilateral groupings like BRICS are handled by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The article mentions India's diplomatic repositioning and hosting of the summit, which falls under MEA's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the summit was in New Delhi on Sept 12-13, 2026. Statement 2 is correct: it was the first BRICS annual summit since the US-Israel war on Iran (Feb 28, 2026). Statement 3 is incorrect: the Delhi Declaration was a consensus document supported by all 11 members, including UAE and Iran, despite their undeclared conflict.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The 18th BRICS summit, held in New Delhi on September 12-13, 2026'. Options B, C, D are distractors based on incorrect dates or locations (Bishkek is the location of the SCO summit mentioned separately).

Explanation

The article argues that BRICS allows India to pursue a multi-aligned foreign policy (strategic autonomy) without championing an anti-US agenda. It states: 'BRICS enables India to pursue that path without having to champion an anti-U.S. agenda or undermine its cooperation with Washington.' Options A, B, and D are not supported by the text.

Explanation

Article 142 gives the Supreme Court the power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any case or matter. In this news, the Centre invoked Article 142 to seek prospective effect of the OBC creamy-layer verdict. Article 131 deals with original jurisdiction, Article 141 with law declared by SC, and Article 143 with advisory jurisdiction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the Centre sought two years. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article mentions 'since 2012', not 2010. Statement 3 is correct – the bench comprised Justices P.S. Narasimha and R. Mahadevan. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'March 11, 2026 judgement' as the date of the Supreme Court verdict on OBC creamy-layer criteria. September 24, 2026 is the date of the news article. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The government argued that retrospective application would cause 'complete administrative chaos' by unsettling OBC-NCL status, seniority, service conditions, and career progression. It would also affect admissions to educational institutions. This is the primary reason for seeking prospective effect.

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that SEBI announced changes to its settlement proceedings framework during a board meeting in Mumbai. The other options are other financial regulators not involved in securities market regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says 'wrongful gains...will not be considered while determining the base amount' and 'will be disgorged separately'. Statement 2 is incorrect: SEBI will issue a settlement notice before a show-cause notice, giving 60 days to apply; the application is not after show-cause. Statement 3 is incorrect: The regulations come into force 30 days after notification, not immediately. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'five listed Adani Group companies settled adjudication proceedings initiated by SEBI for Rs 1.5 crore'. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the exact figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new regulations remove 'the existing double counting of such amounts' where wrongful gains were included both in the base amount and disgorgement. The other options are either separate measures (common advertising code, CAS) or not a problem addressed (discretion still remains with WTMs).

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change introduced the GHG emission intensity targets and subsequently amended the notification for refineries and textiles. The ministry is the nodal body for environmental regulations and carbon market schemes like CCTS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the amendment revised baselines for IOC refineries at Digboi, Gujarat, Guwahati, Haldia, Mathura, Panipat, and Paradeep. Statement 2 is incorrect: only the 2025-26 targets were removed; 2026-27 targets were retained. Statement 3 is correct: the notification defines targets in tCO2e to measure all GHGs based on warming potential.

Explanation

According to the article, the amendment covers 21 petroleum refineries of Reliance, IOC, BPCL, HPCL, CPCL, MRPL, Nayara Energy, and Numaligarh. Option A (7) is the number of IOC refineries whose baselines were revised. Option C (173) is the number of textile units covered. Option D (27) is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that CCTS 'creates a framework that incentivises emission reduction through a market-based mechanism' where industries earning carbon credits can sell them to those falling short. Option A is partially true but the primary objective is incentive, not penalty. Options C and D are not stated in the article.

Explanation

The article states that Alcatel Submarine Networks of France, SubCom of the US, and NEC of Japan dominate the manufacturing market and have built approximately 90% of total cable length deployed presently. The other options are not mentioned in the article as cable manufacturers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is directly supported by the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the network is primarily private industry-led, owned by consortiums and hyperscalers, not governments. Statement 3 is also a direct fact from the article, so the correct combination is 1 and 3.

Explanation

The article says the three firms have built approximately 90% of total cable length deployed presently. 99% is the share of internet traffic carried by subsea cables, not the manufacturing share.

Explanation

The article says disruption can cause complete connectivity loss, halt government services, break transaction links, and leak sensitive communications, making subsea cables strategic assets comparable to national energy grids. Option A is false because they are private-led; C and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

22 USC §1928f, enacted in 2023, specifically requires the president to obtain either two-thirds Senate approval or an Act of Congress before withdrawing the US from NATO. Article 5 is the collective defence clause, Article 13 is the withdrawal notice provision, and the War Powers Resolution relates to military action, not treaty withdrawal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the pact maintains Danish sovereignty and Greenland's right to self-determination — it does NOT transfer ownership. Statement 2 is correct as the agreement allows US defence areas at Narsarsuaq and Mestersvig. Statement 3 is correct as Denmark calls the pact 'deeply rooted in the NATO Alliance.'

Explanation

Reuters reported that the US has about 80,000 troops in Europe and that one option under consideration was withdrawing as many as 25,000, although no decision had been made.

Explanation

Pituffik Space Base's location makes Greenland critical for surveillance, missile warning, space-related activity, and North Atlantic defence. The pact expands this role with two new defence areas. While Greenland has critical minerals, the pact does not transfer sovereignty. The Suez Canal and Baltic Sea are not relevant to this Arctic-focused agreement.

Explanation

The anti-defection law is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules deal with tribal areas, while the Ninth Schedule covers land reforms and laws protected from judicial review.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Nagender defected from BRS, not BJP. Statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court upheld the High Court and rejected the 'ghar wapsi' argument. Statement 3 is correct: he contested the 2024 Lok Sabha polls from Secunderabad as a Congress candidate while still an MLA.

Explanation

The article states that on September 18, the high court set aside the Speaker's decision. The Supreme Court delivered its judgment on September 24, 2026 (the Thursday when the article was published). The other dates are unrelated: March 2024 is when Nagender defected, and December 2023 is the month of the previous assembly election.

Explanation

The judgment rejected the 'ghar wapsi' argument and confirmed judicial review over the Speaker's decisions. Option A is false because the court rejected that argument. Option B is false because judicial review is allowed (Kihoto Hollohan case). Option D is false as the MLA must resign or face disqualification before contesting from another party.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions FSSAI as the apex food regulator. FCI deals with food grain storage and distribution, APEDA focuses on agricultural exports, and BIS sets product standards, but only FSSAI is the food safety regulator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is directly from the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that products already licensed must discontinue using the term 'Paneer' in nomenclature, labelling, or marketing. Statement 3 is also directly stated. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the draft notification asks people to submit their suggestions within 60 days. The other options are plausible but incorrect as they are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the amendment is proposed 'so as to prevent misleading of consumer's regarding the nature and composition of the product.' The other options are not supported by the article; the aim is consumer protection, not cost increase or promotion of vegetable oils.

Explanation

The article states that the project falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) zone. NFR is headquartered in Guwahati and oversees railway operations in the Northeastern states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the lower deck has two railway lines. Statement 2 is incorrect: the upper deck has a three-lane road (not four lanes). Statement 3 is correct: the project includes 7.20 km doubling between Agthori and Kamakhya. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the 1.3-km-long Double-Decker Rail-Cum-Road Bridge over the River Brahmaputra.' The other options are distractors; 0.8 km is too short, 1.8 km and 2.0 km are longer than actual.

Explanation

The article states the project aims to strengthen connectivity across the Brahmaputra, increasing capacity for both passenger and freight traffic. While tourism and pollution may be indirect benefits, the core objective is multimodal connectivity as explicitly mentioned.

Explanation

As per the article, the FFC funds are disbursed to ULBs on recommendations made by MoEFCC. The Department of Expenditure (DOE) allots the funds, but the recommendation body is MoEFCC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BMC utilised ₹573.88 Cr out of ₹620.11 Cr (92.54%). Statement 2 is false: Fleet declined from 3,546 to 2,532 (a decrease, not increase). Statement 3 is correct: BEST officials confirmed around half of the 2,100 buses are yet to be delivered.

Explanation

The article states that of the ₹620.11 Cr received, ₹493.37 Cr (79.56%) was allocated to BEST. The 92.54% figure is the overall utilisation rate, not the bus allocation.

Explanation

Dr Beig argued that instead of such a large proportion on e-buses (which is a transport ministry function), funds should have been used to identify local hotspots and devise localised mitigation strategies, as per the article.

Explanation

DGTR is the nodal agency for anti-dumping, countervailing, and safeguard investigations. DGFT deals with trade policy, DRI with customs enforcement, and SEBI with securities markets.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the anti-dumping duty is imposed by the Ministry of Finance through a gazette notification, not by the Ministry of Commerce directly.

Explanation

The article states that after remand proceedings, DGTR completed these procedures to issue a fresh set of final findings on August 3, 2026. February 12, 2025 is the date of the initial findings.

Explanation

The article highlights that the domestic industry faces a severe crisis due to low-priced imports, and the duty aims to safeguard the survival of PSUs and protect jobs by creating a level playing field for domestic producers.

Explanation

The Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR) is a laboratory under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), as clearly stated in the article. ISRO, BARC, and CSIR are other scientific organisations but not linked to CAIR.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Division Bench upheld the acquisition. Statement 2 is incorrect because the single judge quashed the acquisition on the ground that landowners were not properly heard, not on national security. Statement 3 is correct as the preliminary notification was issued in 1987.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the acquisition is about 1.27 acres of additional land in Bennegahalli for DRDO. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Division Bench emphasised that quashing acquisition for a procedural lapse was not commensurate with the national defence importance of the project. The court harmonised the rights of landowners with the larger constitutional obligation to protect the nation.

Explanation

The article states the Arunachal Pradesh State Cabinet adopted the resolution approving the Empowerment High-Level Committee for SUMP survey.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (11,000 MW estimated). Statement 2 is incorrect because the Union government declared SUMP a national project in 2008, not a state project. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions China's 60,000 MW project on the Yarlung Tsangpo. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China is constructing a 60,000 MW project on the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet. 11,000 MW is the capacity of India's SUMP.

Explanation

The article states the Centre and State governments defended SUMP as needed to counter the 60,000 MW project China is constructing on the Yarlung Tsangpo. While employment and water security are benefits, the primary strategic reason is geopolitical counterbalance.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026 was notified by the DPIIT on June 25, 2026. DPIIT is a department under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, often the nodal body for QCOs and industrial policy. BIS enforces standards but does not issue the order; MSME ministry is not directly involved in this notification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions QCO coverage expanded from 88 products in 2019 to 765 by end-December 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the order is only for eligible firms facing certification difficulties and is subject to prescribed criteria and committee approval—it is not open to all firms. Statement 3 is correct: the study shows larger firms experience a 9.6% increase in production alongside a 37% decline in GVA. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that for smaller firms, input QCOs are associated with a steep 47.6% decline in profitability. The other options are distractors: 9.6% is the output increase for large firms, 37% is the GVA decline for large firms, and 'no effect' applies to production/GVA results for small firms (not profitability).

Explanation

The article states the order 'seeks to ease regulatory bottlenecks by allowing eligible firms facing difficulties in obtaining BIS Scheme-I certification to source products temporarily from BIS Scheme-II-licensed suppliers in specified sectors.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned—the goal is facilitation, not expansion, replacement, or stricter enforcement.

Explanation

The article mentions the Lindsey O Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act (SRIA). CAATSA is a different sanctions act, Magnitsky Act targets human rights violators, and IEEPA is a general emergency powers act. SRIA specifically targets countries buying Russian energy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting took place during UN High-Level Week. Statement 2 is correct as the article explicitly says 'Rubio will be travelling to India next month.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the US State Department spokesperson said the legislation is still going through the legislative process and not yet finalised.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SRIA empowers the US 'to levy tariffs up to 100 per cent on Moscow's energy buyers.' Distractors like 50% and 75% are common in other sanctions contexts, but SRIA specifically allows 100%.

Explanation

The article quotes India as saying it 'remains firmly committed to ensuring energy security for its 1.4 billion people' and warned of implications for the bilateral relationship. Energy security is the primary driver, not trade surplus or military sales.

Explanation

Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls. The other options are not responsible for this function.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Indian Express investigation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly argues that a constitutional right cannot become subordinate to software architecture. Statement 3 is correct; the reported change to Form 6 introduces such questions. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the ERO found 97 voters eligible, but the software did not permit the decision to be properly recorded, leaving them out of the final roll. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article cites the Goa example where the ERO legally determined eligibility but the software prevented recording, making the issue constitutional rather than merely technological. The other options, while possibly true, are not the primary concern highlighted.