25 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Taiwan Relations Act (1979) established the framework for unofficial ties after the US switched diplomatic recognition to China. It authorises arms sales to Taiwan for self-defence. The Six Assurances are a separate classified memo, not a law. The Taiwan Security Enhancement Act (2000) is a later act that strengthens defence cooperation but TRA remains the primary law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The three Joint Communiqués did lead to US recognition of China and derecognition of Taiwan. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Six Assurances stated the US had NOT agreed to an end date on arms sales and would not negotiate with China over them. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly says Biden dispensed with strategic ambiguity and said the US would intervene militarily.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'a potential $14-billion US arms package for Taiwan attracted attention' and later refers to it as 'the largest ever'. The previous package approved by Trump last year was $10 billion. The $5 billion and $20 billion figures are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article notes that TSMC is the world's number one chip maker and that 'chip supply chains would be significantly constrained' if a conflict occurred. This economic vulnerability has increased US pressure on Taiwan to outsource manufacturing to the US (e.g., Arizona investments) and has led to discussions on supply chain resiliency. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article refers to a senior official at the Mines Ministry, indicating that the ministry oversees the Act. The Ministry of Mines is the nodal ministry for mineral policy and regulation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the amendment overrides the financial aspects of the 2024 SC ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Act restricts state levies, not increases them. Statement 3 is correct: the law extinguishes unpaid or unrecovered dues arising from such levies before it came into force. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Jharkhand CM Soren claimed the Mineral Bearing Land Cess was expected to generate approximately Rs 11,000 crore annually. The other options are from other parts of the article: Rs 12,000 crore is Odisha's estimated annual loss, Rs 2 lakh crore is total arrears extinguished, and Rs 1.36 lakh crore is all states' mineral receipts in 2024-25.

Explanation

The article quotes a government official saying the amendments were needed because excessive state-level levies could raise the cost of key minerals, feeding into inflation and infrastructure costs. The law aims to provide cost containment and investment certainty, not boost state revenue or privatize mining.

Explanation

As per the news, the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) last month issued the draft rules and regulations of the SHANTI Act. The Ministry of Power hosted the meeting but does not release nuclear sector regulations. NPCIL is an operating company under DAE.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SHANTI Act allows private participation and foreign tech as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect: Jaitapur plant is stalled and EPRs are not yet deployed; localisation is still being discussed. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the target of 100 GWe by 2047.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India seeks to scale up its domestic civil nuclear capacity to 100 gigawatt-electric (GWe) by 2047. Options A, C, and D are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article indicates that indigenous PHWRs alone may not be sufficient to meet the ambitious capacity target, so foreign technologies like EPR are being considered for deployment at a later stage. The goal is to accelerate capacity addition, not to replace all plants or reduce costs immediately.

Explanation

Article 200 of the Constitution deals with the Governor's powers regarding Bills passed by the state legislature. It allows the Governor to either give assent, withhold assent, or reserve the Bill for the President's consideration. This is the exact provision used in the West Bengal anti-Goonda Bill case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill was passed on June 29, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the Union government flagged overlap with the PITNDPS Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 201 empowers the President to return a Bill (that is not a Money Bill) to the legislature with a message for reconsideration, not just withhold assent.

Explanation

The Bill explicitly allows authorities to detain a person for up to 12 months without trial and also bar them from entering a specified area for the same period. This is a key detail mentioned in the article.

Explanation

When a state law overlaps with a central law on a subject in the Concurrent List or on matters of preventive detention, the doctrine of repugnancy under Article 254 applies. The Union government specifically noted that the Bill's inclusion of NDPS offences could create an overlapping mechanism, thereby raising repugnancy issues. This is a core federalism concept for UPSC Mains.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Finance finished reviewing the model BIT and sent it to the Cabinet Secretariat. Therefore, the nodal ministry is the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the UAE 2024 BIT mandated 3 years local remedy. Statement 2 is correct: the Budget 2025-26 announced the review. Statement 3 is correct: the senior official said 20-25 BITs were signed on the basis of the 2016 model. Hence, all three are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows in the first six months of 2026 have been $12 billion.' The other options are data from other years mentioned in the article: $3.1 billion (2025), $2.9 billion (2024), $35 billion (2022).

Explanation

The article quotes the Budget 2025-26 announcement that the review aims to 'make it more investor-friendly and attract sustained foreign investment.' While tax sovereignty is a red line, the core objective is attracting investment. Options A and D are partial or incorrect based on the article.

Explanation

Article 324(2) states that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be appointed by the President subject to any law made by Parliament. This provision was quoted by B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly and is the basis of the 2023 Act challenged in this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Datta explicitly distinguished between the binding principle (independence from exclusive executive control) and the advisory prescription (CJI inclusion). Statement 2 is correct: Justice Sharma noted that the question of whether Parliament was justified in not including a neutral selector is an important question arising for the first time. Statement 3 is incorrect: Justice Sharma did not conclude that the Act fails the test; he only said it needs independent examination.

Explanation

The Anoop Baranwal judgment was delivered in 2023 (referred to as Anoop Baranwal (2023) in the article). It prescribed the PM, LoP and CJI as an interim committee until Parliament enacted a law. The 2023 Act was passed subsequently.

Explanation

The article quotes Justice Datta distilling the Anoop Baranwal principle: 'the appointment process must be free of exclusive executive control'. He held that this principle is binding, while the specific machinery (including CJI) was 'a deliberate signalling advice, and not a mandate'. Options A and D refer to advisory elements, not the core principle.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is the nodal ministry for negotiating bilateral and multilateral trade agreements. Piyush Goyal, the Commerce and Industry Minister, is quoted in the article confirming the status of the India-US BTA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the India-Canada CEPA is likely to be finalised and signed in December. Statement 2 is incorrect: the India-EU FTA is to be signed in Brussels, not Miami. Statement 3 is correct: Piyush Goyal said the India-US trade pact was 'done and dusted'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the G20 leaders' summit in Miami is scheduled for December 14-15, 2026. The other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The simultaneous pursuit of trade deals with the US, Canada, and the EU is a strategic move to reduce trade reliance on China and strengthen ties with major Western economies. The Quad summit on the sidelines further underscores the geopolitical dimension. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article's context.

Explanation

The NCAHP was established under the NCAHP Act, 2021 and operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The other ministries are not related to healthcare regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the regulations were notified on August 31, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: registration is mandatory; non-registration attracts penalty up to 2 years jail. Statement 3 is correct: the regulations allow professionals to register in one state and practice in another. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the regulations cover allied and healthcare professionals spanning 57 vocations across 10 broad disciplines. Options 47, 67, and 77 are close distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that the regulations aim to facilitate identification and verification of registered professionals and support greater transparency in delivery of services. While centralization of data is a byproduct, the core objective is transparency and ensuring only qualified professionals practice.

Explanation

The article mentions that the DPIIT provided the data and also launched the e-B4 VISA module. DPIIT is the nodal department for industrial policy and PLI schemes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (disbursement of ₹36,754 crore). Statement 2 is incorrect: the approved outlay is ₹1.91 lakh crore, not ₹2.58 lakh crore (that is actual investment). Statement 3 is correct (14.57 lakh jobs). Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that exports of ₹15.53 lakh crore have been recorded. Option B (₹23.79 lakh crore) is production/sales, option C is disbursement, option D is investment. This is a direct factual recall for Prelims.

Explanation

The article explains that the module allows Indian companies to generate digitally signed sponsorship letters for foreign professionals, reducing paperwork and processing delays. This is part of business visa reforms for ease of doing business.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India registers political parties under Section 29A of the RPA, 1951. The CAG audits government accounts, not party registration. The IT Department handles tax matters, and the Ministry of Law is not directly involved in party registration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because electoral bonds were restricted to parties that secured at least 1% of votes in the latest Lok Sabha or Assembly elections, which RUPPs typically do not meet. Statement 2 is correct: ECI delisted 334 RUPPs out of 2,854. Statement 3 is correct: as per T.N. Seshan's guidelines, parties must contest elections within five years or face automatic delisting.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that over the last decade, the exchequer 'lost' ₹11,813 crore in taxes due to exemptions for political donations. The other figures are from the same article but refer to election funds (₹18,742 crore), donations raised during election (₹7,416 crore), and election expenditure (₹3,861 crore).

Explanation

The author argues that political parties submit accounts mechanically without scrutiny, and the ECI lacks mandate or wherewithal to question them. A CAG audit would bring independent oversight and transparency. Increasing tax revenue or deregistration are not the primary objectives mentioned; enforcement of MCC is a separate power under Order 16A.

Explanation

The article states that Denmark is a founding member of NATO, and the deal ensures Greenland stays in NATO even if it becomes independent. The agreement is framed within the NATO alliance, not the UN or EU.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the 1951 agreement 'provides Washington the broad rights to build military bases'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the restriction applies only to 'hostile power (non-NATO countries)', not all foreign countries. Statement 3 is correct: the deal explicitly says even if Greenland becomes independent, it will respect the deal.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Greenland, which has a population of around 50,000'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions US concerns about 'growing activities of China and Russia in the Arctic, including alleged espionage' and that the US 'wants to consolidate its position'. Option A is incorrect because Trump retreated from the acquisition demand. Options C and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

Article 22 of the Constitution provides safeguards against arrest and detention, including the right to be informed of grounds and to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. However, it carves out an exception for persons detained under preventive detention laws like the PSA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held the allegations were only a law and order problem, not public order. Statement 2 is incorrect: In Ram Manohar Lohia, public order is the middle circle, not larger than law and order (law and order is the largest). Statement 3 is correct: PSA allows up to two years for security of state grounds.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that under the PSA, a person can be detained for up to a year on grounds of public order and up to two years on grounds of security of the state. Therefore, 1 year is the correct maximum for public order.

Explanation

The High Court held that the four FIRs arose from personal disputes affecting individuals, not the community at large. Applying the Supreme Court's concentric circles test, these were merely law and order issues, insufficient to invoke the extraordinary power of preventive detention under the PSA.

Explanation

The article directly quotes President Xi Jinping warning against the 'Thucydides Trap', a term coined by scholar Graham Allison to describe the risk of conflict when a rising power challenges an established one. The other options are different IR concepts not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Xi explicitly warned against the Thucydides Trap. Statement 2 is incorrect: there was no agreement to permanently end the trade war; only a truce extension. Statement 3 is correct: the tariff truce expiry was pushed from November to February, as per the article. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that despite the trade war, Chinese imports into the US have continued to rise, putting China on course for a second consecutive year of a $1 trillion trade surplus with America. The other options are incorrect.

Explanation

The article states that Xi called for dialogue and cooperation to prevent competition from escalating into confrontation. He used the Thucydides Trap to highlight the danger of conflict between a rising power (China) and an established power (US). Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, India's opponent in the June 2027 election is Tajikistan, which has never served on the Security Council. This is a factual detail from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 lists the correct members as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article does not state that P4M's primary aim is UNSC expansion; instead, it mentions joint proposals on climate finance and protection against economic coercion. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states that the declaration recognises economic interdependence being used to exert pressure on trade, supply chains, and development finance.

Explanation

The article states: 'A founding UN member in 1945, India has contributed more than 275,000 personnel to UN peacekeeping.' The other options are plausible distractors, but the exact figure given is 275,000.

Explanation

The article mentions that the P4M declaration recognises that economic interdependence is being used to exert pressure, disrupting trade, supply chains, and development finance. The group aims to address such coercion and build wider support for joint proposals on climate finance and protection against economic coercion. Option A and C are not stated as primary purposes; Option D is only one of the areas of cooperation, not the overall purpose.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NHPC is the project proponent for the Subansiri Upper Hydroelectric Project. NHPC is a central public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Power, responsible for hydroelectric power generation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the EAC recommended environmental clearance subject to forest clearance. Statement 2 is incorrect: compensatory afforestation is proposed in Madhya Pradesh, not Arunachal Pradesh, because equivalent non-forest land was unavailable in Arunachal. Statement 3 is correct: the SC in August 2009 directed that upstream proposals be considered independently on merits.

Explanation

The article clearly states the capacity as 1,605 MW. The other options are distractors: 2,000 MW is the capacity of Subansiri Lower, 2,220 MW is Oju project, and 2,880 MW is Dibang project, all mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'power generation and flood moderation are the two stated objectives of the project'. The other options introduce elements not mentioned in the article (irrigation, water supply).

Explanation

The Ministry of Science and Technology is the nodal ministry that oversees the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Department of Biotechnology (DBT), and Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), which are central to India's R&D ecosystem.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article notes surged spending and patents but a yawning lab-to-market gap. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article argues India must move from being an 'assembly hub' to a 'foundational innovator', implying it is not one yet. Statement 3 is correct: brain drain and institutionalised pseudoscience are explicitly mentioned as systemic barriers.

Explanation

The e-book explicitly mentions 'the rigorous road to Viksit Bharat by 2047', linking the target to the 100th year of India's independence. 2030 relates to SDGs, 2050 is a general climate target, and 2027 is not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

A 'foundational innovator' creates core technologies and breakthroughs, reducing reliance on licensing or assembling foreign designs. This shift addresses the 'lab-to-market' gap and builds genuine global scientific influence, beyond just being a manufacturing hub.

Explanation

The article states that the Allahabad High Court, in a judgment dated September 2, 2026, quashed the NSA detention order passed by the Noida District Magistrate. The Supreme Court later revised its interim stay but preserved the High Court's decision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the revised order only stayed certain strictures and the ₹5 lakh costs, not the entire HC judgment. Statement 2 is correct as the HC observed violation of Article 21. Statement 3 is correct as the bench was headed by Justice Satish Chandra Sharma.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court's revised order restricted the stay to 'award of costs of ₹5 lakh' against Ms. Roopam. This is a specific factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The article states that the appeals were filed against a High Court judgment based on a habeas corpus petition. Habeas corpus is the appropriate remedy for challenging illegal detention, as it requires the detaining authority to produce the person before the court and justify the detention.

Explanation

As per the article, the Kasturirangan Committee in 2013 recommended an ESA of 13,108 sq km covering 123 villages. This was later reduced by the Oommen V. Oommen committee study. The Gadgil Committee (2011) was a different committee on Western Ghats with broader recommendations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the state wants ESA limited to forest areas. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says the seventh draft did not accept this change. Statement 3 is correct: the Environment Minister said the government intends to get a resolution passed in the Assembly. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that Kerala has sought to limit the ESA to forest areas covering 8,590.69 sq km. The other options are distractors: 9,993.7 sq km is the current draft area, 13,108 sq km was the original Kasturirangan recommendation, and 9,107 sq km is the forest portion within the current draft.

Explanation

The article quotes the Environment Minister saying that additional regulations on populated areas could 'adversely affect the State's development, agriculture and the everyday life of the people'. The state's stand is to limit ESA to forests only to prevent such impacts. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The National Green Hydrogen Mission is under the administrative purview of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), which is responsible for renewable energy policies and programs in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Mission Director stated the target of 400-500 by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states cost parity is expected in 2-3 years, meaning hydrogen buses are currently more expensive to operate. Statement 3 is correct as Abhay Bakre is indeed the Mission Director.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that twenty highways have been identified to conduct trials for hydrogen fuelling stations, as stated by Mission Director Abhay Bakre.

Explanation

The Mission Director explicitly stated that heavy-duty vehicles are the 'first sector where the cost can be bridged very fast' due to their centralized fleet operations, higher fuel consumption, and the potential for quicker infrastructure deployment.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the data came from FADA (Federation of Automobile Dealers Associations). FADA publishes monthly vehicle registration data based on RTO records.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 83.5% of registrations were petrol/diesel. Statement 2 is incorrect: EV share was 10.6%, not 15%. Statement 3 is correct: three-wheelers accounted for 4% of vehicles, but 60.5% of them were EVs. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that of 9.8 lakh three-wheelers registered till August 2026, 60.5% were EVs. This is a key data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The article highlights that in the car category, growth under alternative fuels is more pronounced in CNG and LPG vehicles than EVs. This indicates that barriers like higher upfront cost and range anxiety hinder car EV adoption, while CNG/LPG offer a cheaper transition.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz is the narrow waterway between Iran and Oman that accounted for a fifth of global oil flows before the war. Iran's proposal includes reopening it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Araghchi said the Strait would be open on the end of the seventh day. Statement 2 is incorrect: the June MoU granted a 60-day ceasefire extension, not 30 days. Statement 3 is correct: a White House official said 'The United States is in a very strong position with control of the Strait of Hormuz.' Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that the plan requires the US to 'release the country's frozen assets (estimated to be at least $12 billion)'. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes analyst Ali Vaez saying the proposal is 'smart' because it ends an unpopular war and brings down energy prices in the run-up to the midterms. It also restores a deal favorable to Iran. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

ICAI is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, to regulate the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India. It conducts the CA exams and sets the curriculum.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CRET has been constituted to review the CA education framework. Statement 2 is incorrect: AURA 2.0 is for students who have completed AURA 1.0, not for members. AICA is the programme for members. Statement 3 is correct: the international curriculum will have common subjects except for local taxation and law papers.

Explanation

The article states that ICAI has conducted over 850 batches of AICA Level 1, training over 45,000 members. AICA Level 2 has trained over 1,500 members.

Explanation

The article states that ICAI is developing an international version of its CA curriculum to expand the Indian qualification's global footprint. The curriculum will be adapted for local tax and law, but the core remains the same.

Explanation

As per the article, KAVACH is India's own Automatic Train Protection system developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. RDSO is the research arm of Indian Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says Version 4.0 was commissioned on September 23. Statement 2 is correct: the improvements list includes 'Improved identification of signal aspects in larger yards'. Statement 3 is correct: the article states KAVACH Version 3.2 was deployed across 1,465 route kilometres on the South Central Railway.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that KAVACH complies with SIL-4 safety standards, which is the highest level of safety integrity globally. SIL-5 does not exist in standard railway safety classification.

Explanation

KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system designed to prevent collisions by automatically activating brakes when a loco pilot skips a red signal or overspeeds. It also detects trains on the same tracks and alerts the pilot, thereby enhancing safety.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Home Affairs issued the Gazette notifications and extended the 'disturbed area' declaration. MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security matters in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Gazette notifications. Statement 2 is incorrect because Manipur excludes areas under 13 police stations in five districts. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these nine Nagaland districts.

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs extended the disturbed area declaration across Manipur excluding areas under 13 police stations in Imphal West, Imphal East, Thoubal, Bishnupur and Kakching districts. This is a key prelims fact.

Explanation

Section 3 empowers the Central Government to declare an area disturbed, and AFSPA gives special powers to the Armed Forces. The notification states it will remain for six months from October 1, 2026 unless withdrawn earlier. It does not impose martial law or President's Rule.

Explanation

The article states that a three-member OBC Commission led by former High Court judge Janak Raj Kotwal submitted its report to the government in February 2025. The other options are bodies mentioned in the news but not the one that submitted the report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Panchayats and BDCs ended on January 9, 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: DDC term ended on February 24, 2026, not 2024. Statement 3 is correct: municipal elections are stalled because electoral rolls from assembly constituencies have not been updated after the delimitation process (SIR). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The term of the erstwhile Panchayats and Block Development Councils (BDCs) in J&K concluded on January 9, 2024.' The other options are dates for other events: municipalities ended Oct-Nov 2023, DDCs ended Feb 24, 2026, and the OBC report was submitted in Feb 2025.

Explanation

The article explains that municipal elections use electoral rolls of legislative assembly constituencies, which have not been updated after the delimitation (SIR) process. While OBC reservation is a hurdle for panchayat polls, the separate issue for municipalities is the lack of updated rolls.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the exercise was held at the Air Force Station in Jodhpur. Jodhpur is a key IAF base in Rajasthan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ACSA is an umbrella agreement for logistical support. Statement 2 is correct: UNICORN (Nora-50) is co-developed by BEL and Japanese companies. Statement 3 is incorrect: The exercise includes joint mission planning, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the exercise was held between September 9 and 22. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that interoperability is crucial for joint operations to secure critical waterways in the Indian Ocean, especially given China's assertiveness. The other options are not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article states that the government (Finance Ministry) has budgeted ₹2,000 crore for the ongoing financial year under its incentive scheme for RuPay Debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions. The Finance Ministry handles fiscal allocations for such incentive schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms MDR will go live on October 15. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says 'There is no proposal to waive MDR for them' (petroleum dealers). Statement 3 is correct: Finance Ministry will speak to IBA to ensure MDR is not passed to customers.

Explanation

The article states: 'The government has budgeted ₹2,000 crore for the ongoing financial year under its incentive scheme for the promotion of RuPay Debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions.' Other options are plausible distractor amounts.

Explanation

The incentive scheme is specifically for 'low-value BHIM-UPI transactions' and RuPay Debit Cards, which are tools for financial inclusion. The article does not mention revenue generation or compensation for MDR; the subsidy is to keep UPI affordable and encourage usage among smaller merchants and low-income users.

Explanation

The article states that Afghan Taliban fighters attempted to enter Pakistani territory in Balochistan's Gulistan sector, leading to the clash. Balochistan is a key province bordering Afghanistan and Iran.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Pakistan conducted airstrikes on 10 locations on September 24. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Taliban claimed 4 civilians were killed, not 28 (28 militants were killed on September 21). Statement 3 is correct: Pakistan shot down 8 drones, four near Torkham and four near Kohat.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Pakistan on Wednesday (September 23, 2026) said its forces had shot down eight drones — four near the Torkham border and four near Kohat in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province.'

Explanation

The article states that Pakistan's airstrikes on September 21 'targeted camps and hideouts of militants belonging to the banned Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP)', and the campaign 'Ghazab lil Haq' was launched in February for this purpose. The other options are secondary or incorrect.

Explanation

The article mentions the 81st session of the UN General Assembly, where Nepal PM made the proposal. The UNGA is the primary deliberative body of the UN where all member states have equal representation. It is distinct from the Security Council which deals with peace and security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the mechanism is to be led by Nepal, India, and China (all three), not just India and China. Statement 2 is correct as per Shah's speech: 'let us strengthen joint early-warning systems... coordinate assistance across borders.' Statement 3 is correct: the floods were triggered by an ice-rock avalanche near the Nepal-Tibet border on August 26, 2026, a classic GLOF event.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The death toll from the devastating flood has reached 1,452'. The other options are close distractors; 1,042 and 1,752 are similar numbers but not mentioned. 2,052 is too high. Always verify exact figures for prelims.

Explanation

The article quotes PM Shah: 'Let us monitor dangerous glacial lakes. Let us strengthen joint early-warning systems. And when disaster strikes, let us coordinate assistance across borders.' This clearly indicates the primary objective is disaster risk reduction through trilateral cooperation, not border resolution, trade, or currency.

Explanation

FSSAI is the nodal agency under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, responsible for regulating food safety and standards in India. The draft amendment to the Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales Regulations was published by FSSAI on September 24, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because FSSAI has only proposed a draft amendment; it is not yet a ban, and the ban is specifically on using the term 'paneer', not on all dairy analogues. Statement 2 is correct as analogue paneer replaces milk constituents with non-milk ingredients like vegetable fats. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: Maharashtra tested 308 samples, of which 109 were non-conforming and 30 unsafe.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Maharashtra tested 308 paneer and dairy-analogue samples between April 2025 and March 2026. Out of these, 109 did not conform to prescribed standards, and 30 were declared unsafe. 308 is the total sample size tested.

Explanation

The article states that the regulatory concern arises when analogue products are represented to consumers as conventional paneer. The draft amendment aims to restrict the manufacture and sale of analogue products called 'paneer' to prevent consumer deception, especially at restaurants where ingredient declarations are not visible.

Explanation

Make in India is overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. PLI schemes are also administered by the same ministry for most sectors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Make in India was launched in September 2014. Statement 2 is correct: PLI schemes have attracted ₹2.4 lakh crore cumulative investment. Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the old IIP series, manufacturing outpaced overall growth only in 5 of 12 years; under new series it outpaced in all 3 available years but gap is shrinking. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that non-petroleum goods exports grew 53% to $388.3 billion in 2025-26 from $253.5 billion in the launch year (2014-15). Option A is the base year value, options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that while bank credit to industry, especially MSMEs, has grown strongly, experts point out that in the absence of sustained rapid growth in output, the loans are being taken to provide working capital rather than for fresh investments. This indicates that capacity utilisation remains below the threshold for new investment.

Explanation

ESAs are notified by the MoEFCC under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. The article mentions that the draft notification is issued by the Centre, which refers to MoEFCC. Other ministries are not involved in environmental notifications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 7th draft notification covers 9,993.7 sq km and 131 villages. Statement 2 is incorrect: the comprehensive zonation based on ecological sensitivity was proposed by the Gadgil panel, not the Kasturirangan committee (which reviewed and watered down the Gadgil recommendations). Statement 3 is correct: the state government demands ESAs limited to 8,590.69 sq km, excluding human habitations and agricultural lands.

Explanation

The article states: 'Of this, 9,107 sq km is forest and 886.7 sq km is non-forest area.' Option A is the total ESA area, option C is the state's demand, and option D is the non-forest area. The question specifically asks for forest area.

Explanation

The article quotes Alex Ozhukayil: 'The inclusion of a holding in the ESA will take the villages out of the jurisdiction of the State Revenue department and place them with the Central regime, and residents will then be forced to seek Central clearance for almost every activity. Eventually, the residents will have to vacate the region.' Options A and D are incorrect because the notification prohibits mining/quarrying but allows repair of houses, and does not ban all agriculture. Option C is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the U.K., another P5 country, has now joined France in accepting the principle. The U.S., China and Russia are mentioned as other P5 members, but the article does not state that they have joined this initiative.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the French-Mexican initiative was first launched in 2015. Statement 2 is incorrect: it does not propose abolition; it proposes voluntary restraint in cases of genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes. Statement 3 is correct: France and Mexico announced that 128 states support the declaration.

Explanation

The article states that France and Mexico announced this week that 128 states now support the declaration, with 21 joining in the last four months. Therefore 128 is the exact figure; the other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The 2022 Liechtenstein initiative keeps the veto intact but mandates that within 10 working days of a veto, the UNGA is convened so the permanent member must explain and defend its action; it does not annul the veto or strip voting rights.