26 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the 2024 Act replaced the British-era The Assam Moslem Marriages and Divorces Registration Act, 1935. The other options are different laws: Special Marriage Act is a secular civil marriage law, the Shariat Application Act governs personal law, and there is no such 1950 Assam Act mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Act applies to marriages solemnised before or after its commencement. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 26 states the Act is in addition to, and not in derogation of, prevailing Muslim personal laws. Statement 3 is correct as per Section 3 conditions (bride 18, groom 21). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Section 18 states that anyone who makes or signs a false marriage certificate can face imprisonment up to two years, or a fine up to ₹10,000, or both. Options 1 year, 3 years, and 6 months are distractors; 1 year is the penalty for knowingly registering an invalid marriage (Section 19), not for false certificates.

Explanation

According to the government, the Act was introduced for compulsory registration of Muslim marriages and divorces in Assam, and to protect the rights of married Muslims in connected matters. While the rules did remove Qazis from registration (leading to petitions), that was not the stated objective. The Act explicitly excludes marriages under the Special Marriage Act, and revenue generation is not mentioned as a primary objective.

Explanation

IRDAI is the statutory regulator for the insurance sector in India, established under the IRDA Act, 1999. It issued the consultation paper titled ‘Recalibrating Economics of Insurance Distribution’ proposing the reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the reforms aim to reduce EoM limits, not increase them (to 12.5% for life and 20% for general insurers). Statement 3 is correct as online aggregators depend heavily on upfront commissions and saw steep stock declines (e.g., PB Fintech fell 36%).

Explanation

The article states the proposed EoM reduction target for life insurers is 12.5% of gross direct premium income, and for general insurers it is 20%, to be achieved over five years with interim limits for 2028-29.

Explanation

The IRDAI paper explicitly states that heavy dependence on commission-led distribution has clogged competition signals, and the reforms aim to shift focus to suitability, price, and quality for consumers. Increasing profitability or reducing distributors are not stated objectives.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in its order, constituted the judicial commission led by former SC judge Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia. The commission was formed by the court, not the state government or any other authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC ordered sealing of 16,726 structures in Zone-A. Statement 2 is incorrect: out of 44 sealed properties, 20 were demolished, not 24. Statement 3 is correct: the commission will probe the inaction of MDA over five years. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that out of 16,726 structures, 874 were residential-cum-non-residential. The other options are: 2,945 (non-residential), 12,907 (residential), and 16,726 (total). Thus 874 is correct.

Explanation

The court specifically mentioned that the commission will investigate why the MDA remained inactive for over five years and whether illegal colonies were formed in collusion with its officials. The other options are not the commission's stated purpose.

Explanation

Article 324 provides for an Election Commission for the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Article 326 deals with adult suffrage, Article 329 bars courts from interfering in electoral matters, and Article 352 deals with national emergency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says the summit was 'heavy on symbolism but light on substance' and 'without any big breakthrough'. Statement 2 is correct: 'both leaders identified artificial intelligence as an area for cooperation'. Statement 3 is correct: US Trade Representative Jamieson Greer said details would be released on Monday.

Explanation

The article states: 'India targets 50,000 km of high-speed corridors by 2036-37 under Vision 2047.' The total length built by December 2025 was 3,052 km. The other options are plausible distractors but only 50,000 km is mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Before the current disruption, around 40% of India's crude oil imports, 60% of LNG imports and nearly 90% of LPG imports regularly came from West Asia through the waterway.' Option A is incorrect as there are alternative routes (though longer). Option C is false. Option D is incorrect as the strait is bordered by Iran and Oman, not controlled by India.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls, in the Election Commission of India. The other options do not have this constitutional mandate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Officers’ foreign trips will need Commission approval.' Statement 2 is incorrect because objections were recorded at least 14 times over 10 months before the decisions were announced on Sep 26. Statement 3 is correct: 'ECINet will be reviewed by a committee...including an independent expert from an IIT or IIIT.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'Two of its members had recorded objections at least 14 times to decisions touching the core of the Commission’s mandate.' The other numbers (9, 10, 20) are deliberate distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that one of the Commissioners' concerns was that new IT modules were built without the Commission's knowledge. The decision to route them through a committee before Commission consideration directly addresses this, ensuring collective oversight and preventing unauthorised system changes.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution establishes the Election Commission and vests it with superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Article 356 deals with President's Rule, Article 280 with Finance Commission, and Article 352 with National Emergency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Article 324 is the basis of the EC. Statement 2 is correct as Section 18 of the 2023 Act provides for majority decision. Statement 3 is incorrect because the EC has three members (CEC + two ECs), not four.

Explanation

The investigation revealed that the two Election Commissioners placed their objections on record at least 14 times in 10 months. This is a key factual detail for prelims.

Explanation

Dissent notes serve as a record of differing opinions, promoting transparency and accountability. They allow members to express disagreement without obstructing the majority decision, thus maintaining institutional integrity.

Explanation

The article states that officials of the Power Ministry are discussing the plan to mandate coal blending. While the Ministry of Coal is involved in coal production, the directive targets power plants, which fall under the Ministry of Power. Hence, option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions blending up to 5% imported coal. Statement 2 is also correct as it states the previous directives ran from December 2021 to March 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect because the plan aims to ease supply crunch, not boost exports. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that spot power prices averaged ₹7.71 per unit in September, the highest monthly level since 2022. The other options are close distractors with rearranged digits. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the plan aims to ease the supply crunch and save domestic coal for use next summer. While reducing imports is a long-term goal, the immediate objective is to address the shortage. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the central bank's monetary policy committee is slated to meet in a few weeks. The RBI is India's central bank, and its MPC sets policy rates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ADB raised its forecast to 7% from 6.6%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the OECD expects momentum to weaken before a gradual recovery in 2027. Statement 3 is correct: S&P expects inflation at 5.1% and a 25 bps rate hike.

Explanation

The article states: 'the OECD has raised its projection from 6.3 per cent to 7.1 per cent.' 6.3% was the earlier forecast, 7.0% is the ADB/S&P/Moody's figure, and 7.2% is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly says: 'The farm sector has emerged as a key area of risk.' The ADB warns that worse-than-expected El Niño could reduce agricultural output and raise food inflation.

Explanation

The article refers to Nitin Gadkari as the Union Road Transport and Highways Minister. This ministry is responsible for national highways, road safety, and bus body standards. Knowing the ministry is crucial for linking policies to the correct nodal body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MPSRTC was wound up in 2005 with liabilities of Rs 756 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new network uses a PPP model with private operators under government contracts. Statement 3 is correct: the launch included 120 intercity and 231 intracity buses. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Indore received the largest allocation with 145 buses. Bhopal got 106, Jabalpur 67, and Rewa 18. This data is important for Prelims as it tests precise numerical recall.

Explanation

While revenue generation and electric vehicle promotion are part of the plan, the core objective is to revive organized public bus transport with safety features (CCTV, panic buttons), technology (ITS), and a PPP model. Gadkari's emphasis on safety and the inclusion of grievance redressal highlight the service objective.

Explanation

The article states that the Union Government announced the duty cut through a press release issued by the Consumer Affairs Department. The Ministry of Finance issued the Gazette Notification, but the announcement itself came from Consumer Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the index was the highest since June 2022, not 2021. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions concerns over El Niño impacting production prospects in Southeast Asia.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the FAO Vegetable Oil Price Index averaged 196.9 points in August 2026, up 0.6% from July. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states the decision will help moderate domestic edible oil prices, provide relief to consumers, and mitigate inflationary pressures. While farmers fear it is a prelude to a US trade deal, that is not the stated primary objective.

Explanation

The article states that leaders agreed to use the term 'Super Intelligence (SI)' rather than AI, as per the White House fact sheet. This is a direct factual extract from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the SI Dialogue. Statement 2 is incorrect because the next exchange is set for 'by November', not December. Statement 3 is correct as the White House said 'bilateral communication channel' for incidents. Hence option C.

Explanation

The White House fact sheet explicitly states 'The next exchange is set to occur by November'. The other options are incorrect as they deviate from this specific deadline.

Explanation

The article states the channel is for 'AI incidents' and the SI Dialogue is 'to exchange views on risks and benefits'. This aligns with managing risks and sharing information, not R&D or standard-setting. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The news explicitly mentions that on September 18, 2026, Trump signed into law the 'Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026', which allows 100% tariffs on top buyers of Russian energy, primarily China and India. The Busan Agreement is the US-China trade truce, not a US law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the trade truce was extended by 2 months until Jan 10, 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: AI safety was jettisoned from the agenda, and no agreement was reached. Statement 3 is correct: Xi was more proactive and said both sides 'should maintain human control of AI'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The US has paused the sale of a record $14-billion dollar arms sale to Taiwan amid Chinese pressure.' The other options are close distractors but only $14 billion is correct as per the news.

Explanation

Multiple analysts (Feigenbaum, Srivastava) highlight that the US-China understanding gives Beijing tariff protection while India remains exposed to 100% tariffs. The tariff threat aims to force India to cut Russian oil purchases and sign an unequal trade agreement. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

Article 124 of the Constitution of India establishes the Supreme Court of India. Article 131 deals with original jurisdiction, Article 136 with special leave petition, and Article 143 with advisory jurisdiction. The article mentions the Supreme Court's birth on January 28, 1950, which is linked to Article 124.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the Supreme Court was born on January 28, 1950, two days after the Constitution came into force (January 26, 1950). Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly says reforms must begin at the foundation, i.e., the magisterial level, not the High Court level. Statement 3 is correct: The article criticises ACRs for focusing on 'units' (case disposals) rather than quality. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The birth of the Indian Supreme Court on January 28, 1950, two days after the Constitution came into force.' January 26, 1950 is the date the Constitution came into force (Republic Day), not the Supreme Court's establishment. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article calls magistracy the 'front office' of the institution, stating that 'litigants carry an impression about the institution based on their experiences at this level.' Therefore, improving the quality of services at the magisterial level is foundational for broader judicial reform. Options A and C are factually incorrect, and D is partially true but not the primary reason.

Explanation

The article states the project falls under the administrative jurisdiction of Raipur Division of South East Central Railway (SECR) zone. SECR is headquartered in Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh. The other options are different zones that do not cover this region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 17.5-km single-line electrified broad-gauge section. Statement 2 is correct because CRS inspected track, bridges, and safety arrangements. Statement 3 is incorrect: the CRS operates under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, not Railways, so the project involves coordination with another ministry.

Explanation

The article specifies that the 17.5-km Taroki-Rowghat section is part of the 95-km-long Dallirajhara-Rowghat new railway line project. Option A (17.5 km) is the length of only the completed section, not the entire project.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the line will facilitate transportation of iron ore to the Bhilai Steel Plant, supporting the steel industry. While agricultural transport and tourism are secondary benefits, the core industrial rationale is iron ore logistics for steel production.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that both Bangladesh and the US have IAEA safeguards agreements and Additional Protocols in force. This is a key static fact linked to nuclear governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: MoU signed in New York on September 25, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; signatories were Rehan Asad (Adviser for Science and Technology to Bangladesh PM) and Jacob Helberg (US Under Secretary of State). Statement 3 is correct: both countries are parties to the NPT. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the MoU was signed on Friday, September 25, 2026, in New York. This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the MoU is for 'strategic civil nuclear cooperation' and 'to deepen cooperation on the peaceful use of nuclear energy'. The other options contradict the non-proliferation context and the article's content.

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) issues periodic 'disturbed area' notifications to extend AFSPA for Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh. For Assam, the state government issues the notification. This is a key fact for prelims questions on AFSPA administration.

Explanation

All statements are correct. AFSPA was enacted in 1958 initially for the Naga Hills uprising. Section 3 empowers both Centre and State governments to declare an area 'disturbed'. Jammu and Kashmir has its own separate act - the J&K Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1990.

Explanation

The article states that in Manipur, the entire state has been declared a 'disturbed area' under AFSPA, barring the jurisdictions of 13 police stations in five valley districts: Imphal, Lamphel, City, Singjamei, Patsoi, Wangoi, Porompat, Heingang, Irilbung, Thoubal, Bishnupur, Nambol and Kakching.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that before the 2023 violence, AFSPA was being progressively withdrawn from valley areas. However, the ethnic conflict that began on May 3, 2023 led to a reversal, with MHA reimposing AFSPA in six police stations in November 2024 and maintaining it in most of the state thereafter.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India, including the preparation and revision of electoral rolls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the new Form 6 declaration is applicable only during the SIR exercise, with the earlier format applicable otherwise. Statements 2 and 3 are factually correct based on the news report.

Explanation

The Maharashtra government declared drought in 265 of the state's 358 talukas based on the Agriculture Commissioner's report, with Yavatmal being the worst-hit district with 16 talukas affected.

Explanation

SIR is a focused exercise aimed at ensuring an accurate and error-free electoral roll through intensive verification, additions, deletions, and corrections of entries.

Explanation

The article states that Parliament passed the AP Reorganisation (Amendment) Act in April 2026, giving statutory recognition to Amaravati as the only capital of the state. The 2014 Act originally governed the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the then Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy proposed the three capitals in December 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: the full Bench was led by Chief Justice Lisa Gill, not Ninala Jayasurya. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the Supreme Court's likely hearing on November 29 of the appeals.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court's likely hearing of the appeals is on November 29, 2026. November 20, 2026 is when the High Court will examine pending matters. September 25, 2026 was the date of the current hearing.

Explanation

The High Court observed that the grant of legal sanctity to Amaravati as the sole capital through an amendment to the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 rendered the writ petitions infructuous. This parliamentary action superseded the earlier three-capitals proposal.

Explanation

The RPwD Act, 2016 replaced the earlier PwD Act, 1995. It defines benchmark disability as at least 40% disability and provides for reservation and other rights. The article explicitly references the RPwD Act as the governing law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: the court held that medical boards cannot reduce disability percentage. Statement 2 is true: the court emphasized UDID card primacy. Statement 3 is true: the court directed that candidates be allowed in remaining counselling rounds with their UDID disability percentages.

Explanation

The article states that the medical boards held candidates ineligible because their re-assessed disability fell below the 40% threshold. The RPwD Act defines benchmark disability as at least 40% disability.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that the role of the Medical Assessment Board is only to consider the functional competency of a candidate and not to interfere with the percentage given in the UDID card. This distinction is critical for understanding the limits of board authority.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'LNG-powered (Liquefied Natural Gas) train'. LNG is natural gas cooled to liquid form for transport and storage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the train is dual-fuel and does not depend completely on LNG. Statement 2 is correct: the engine can switch between LNG and diesel. Statement 3 is correct: each DPC has an LNG tank of around 2,200 litres capacity.

Explanation

The article states: 'Indian Railways estimates savings of around Rs 11.9 lakh per year from one DPC.' For an 8-coach rake, the saving is Rs 23.9 lakh. Option A is the rake saving, not per DPC.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasises that the initiative aims to reduce diesel consumption, cut emissions (CO₂, NOx, PM), and promote cleaner, more environment-friendly rail transportation. Other options are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The article states that in 2003, India’s Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) adopted the ‘No-First Use’ strategic posture for the nation’s official nuclear doctrine. The CCS is a key decision-making body on national security and is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Explanation

Statement 1 correctly reflects Singh's remark. Statement 2 is wrong because the 2017 Joint Doctrine integrated surgical strikes, while the 2018 Land Warfare Doctrine shifted the Army to a proactive approach using Integrated Battle Groups. Statement 3 is correct as Singh cited the surgical strikes, Balakot 2019 and Operation Sindoor 2025.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that a March 2023 government statement said there were 28 incidents involving the recovery of drones involved in arms and narcotics smuggling in the three years till February 2023. This exact figure is a potential Prelims data point.

Explanation

Singh's citation of surgical strikes, Balakot and Operation Sindoor, and his warning that a terror attack from Pakistani soil would be treated as an 'act of war', show that responses need not be limited to the immediate attack. There is no mention of abandoning No-First Use or using nuclear weapons for conventional attacks.

Explanation

Section 11 of the Electricity Act, 2003 allows the government to direct any generating company to operate and maintain any generating station in accordance with its directions during extraordinary circumstances. Article 43 deals with universal supply obligations, Section 62 with tariff determination, and Section 86 with State Electricity Regulatory Commissions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the directive applies to captive plants of 50 MW and above. Statement 2 is correct: generators must offer surplus power through exchanges. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states the plant had been running under this provision since March and was slated to end this month, but not that it was invoked 'for the first time' in March; it was extended to December 31 now. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article states that on September 10, the country’s peak power demand touched 269 gigawatts (GW), the highest-ever peak demand recorded for the month. 270 GW was the yearly peak recorded in May. 265 GW and 275 GW are distractors not mentioned.

Explanation

The government explicitly stated the move aimed at 'maximising electricity availability' by utilising the entire capacity of all sources including captive plants. While offering surplus power to exchanges is a mechanism, the core objective is to meet surging demand. Cost reduction and phasing out coal are not the stated purposes. Incentive is not the primary objective; it's a directive under emergency.

Explanation

As per the article, the Election Commission of India is responsible for the allotment of symbols under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. This is a core function of the ECI under Article 324.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the order is called the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. Statement 2 is correct: the order allows a party to propose three new symbols of their choice. Statement 3 is incorrect: the order applies to all political parties, including unrecognised registered parties, as it provides for both reserved and free symbols.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'A party may, if it so desires, also propose three new symbols of their choice, with the names and clear design and drawings of symbol, in the order of preference, for allotment to its candidates.' Hence the correct number is three.

Explanation

Para 15 deals with the situation when there are rival sections or groups of a recognised political party each claiming to be that party. The EC, after hearing, decides which faction is the recognised party, and the decision is binding. This was applied in the TMC split case discussed in the article.

Explanation

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is a maritime law enforcement agency under the Ministry of Defence. It is responsible for search and rescue, maritime law enforcement, and marine environment protection in India's maritime zones.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ICGS 'Shaunak' sailed from Chennai to Perth. Statement 2 is incorrect: the six 'Sea Riders' included 2 from India, 2 from Japan, 1 from Australia, and 1 from the US. Statement 3 is correct as the mission directly links to the QUAD Foreign Ministers' Joint Statement of May 26, 2026.

Explanation

According to the article, the six officers comprised two from India, two from Japan, one from Australia, and one from the United States. Japan contributed two officers, not one or three.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the mission is 'aimed at enhancing maritime interoperability and professional exchanges' and 'strengthen coordination' among the four QUAD countries. Combat exercises or permanent bases are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Section 198A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. This section was introduced by the 2019 amendment to penalize non-compliance with road design standards. Other options are not relevant to this provision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the rules apply to new roads and existing roads that are upgraded or widened, not all existing roads. Statement 2 is correct as the draft says facilities will not be omitted unless reasons are recorded and approved. Statement 3 is correct as it prioritizes school and hospital zones.

Explanation

The article states: 'Continuous footpaths will be provided on both sides of urban arterial and sub-arterial roads'. Other options are not mentioned in the draft rules.

Explanation

The rules mandate pedestrian paths and hold agencies accountable for faulty designs causing harm, clearly aiming to protect pedestrians and reduce deaths. Other options contradict the spirit of the rules.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet Committee on Security's decision on January 4, 2003 operationalised India's nuclear posture. The CCS is the apex body for nuclear policy decisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – India's NFU posture is a core principle. Statement 2 is incorrect because massive retaliation is for a nuclear attack, but the doctrine also includes a provision for retaliation after a major biological or chemical attack. Statement 3 is correct – the article notes that Kargil showed nuclear deterrence did not prevent conventional conflict.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'January 4, 2003 decision' by the CCS that operationalised the doctrine. 1998 is the year of Pokhran-II tests, 1999 of Kargil, and 2026 is the publication year.

Explanation

The article argues for reviewing capabilities (survivability, command-and-control, cyber resilience, second-strike) rather than revising declaratory policy. The goal is to ensure credible deterrence in a new strategic context.

Explanation

Nitin Gadkari is the Union Minister for Road Transportation and Highways. The announcement was made during a bus service launch in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: E20 fuel has been used since 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article states no vehicle has faced problems. Statement 3 is correct: flex-fuel engines can run on 100% ethanol as per Gadkari's announcement.

Explanation

Gadkari stated that the country will no longer need to import petrol and diesel worth ₹22 lakh crore. The other options are distractors: ₹45,000 crore is the amount transferred to farmers.

Explanation

Gadkari emphasized that flex-fuel engines would eliminate the need for petrol/diesel imports worth ₹22 lakh crore and reduce pollution in the transport sector, which contributes 40% to air pollution.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Karnataka Assembly unanimously repudiated the Kasturirangan Report's recommendations. The Gadgil Report is another earlier report on the same subject but was not the one rejected by Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is false; the article says the trigger is 20%, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct; the article mentions the Centre's 2024 decision to allow state-wise notification. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kasturirangan Report recommends placing a revenue village in an ESA if at least 20% of its area is sensitive. The other percentages are distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions two grievances: the accuracy of the 2012 satellite data, and the concern that the 20% rule could bring farmland and human settlements into ESAs, affecting livelihoods. While vested interests including mining are alleged, the primary stated concerns are data accuracy and livelihood fears. Hence both A and B are correct.

Explanation

The article states that Bangladesh's Foreign Minister Khalilur Rahman was elected as President of the 81st UNGA session. He will oversee the selection of the next UNSG.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Guterres' final session is mentioned. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says highest since 1946 (Second World War), not Cold War. Statement 3 is correct: India co-sponsored P4M.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'one study recorded more than 65 conflicts across 35 countries in 2025, the highest since 1946'. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article describes P4M as an initiative 'to build a Partnership for Multilateralism (P4M) beyond superpower hegemony'. It was co-sponsored by India and led by the EU and other countries.

Explanation

As per the article, the MHA (Ministry of Home Affairs) extended the AFSPA after reviewing the law and order situation. The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and disturbed area declarations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the notification says extension for six months from October 1. Statement 2 is incorrect: the exclusion is for 13 police stations, not 13 districts. Statement 3 is correct: Nagaland has nine districts under AFSPA. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists nine districts in Nagaland: Dimapur, Niuland, Chumoukedima, Mon, Kiphire, Noklak, Phek, Peren, and Meluri. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states: 'This follows a review of the law and order situation there.' The MHA conducts periodic reviews before extending or withdrawing the disturbed area declaration. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that Ajit Lal was appointed as Adviser (North East) in the Ministry of Home Affairs and later accepted as interlocutor for the Naga peace talks. The Home Ministry handles internal security and negotiations with insurgent groups.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Framework Agreement was signed on August 3, 2015. Statement 2 is incorrect: Ajit Lal was appointed as Adviser (North East) in February 2026, but he was accepted as interlocutor later, not appointed in February. Statement 3 is correct: the NSCN-IM EPW statement described the flag and constitution as 'non-negotiable'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions 'On August 3, 2015, a Framework Agreement was signed between the government and the NSCN (I-M) in the presence of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.' The other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the NSCN-IM had long demanded political representation in negotiations. The Centre's decision to include a Union Minister is aimed at expediting the political process and creating momentum for a settlement. It is not about increasing numbers or reducing MHA's role, and the Eastern Flank is a hardline faction opposing talks.