1 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 26 specifically grants every religious denomination the rights to manage religious affairs, and own and administer property. Article 25 deals with individual freedom of religion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the 2018 verdict was by a five-judge bench. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court held it was NOT an Essential Religious Practice. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article states the 2018 ruling was by a majority of 4:1, with Justice Indu Malhotra delivering the sole dissenting opinion.

Explanation

The three conditions clarified in the S P Mittal case are: 1) A common faith, 2) Common organisation, and 3) A distinct name. A common religious text is not a mandatory condition.

Explanation

The GST Council is the constitutional body established under Article 279A to make recommendations on GST rates, exemptions, threshold limits, and special provisions for certain states. The Finance Commission deals with fiscal devolution, CBDT with direct taxes, and NITI Aayog is a policy think tank.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as gross GST collection was ₹2.43 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the net GST mop-up increased by 7.3% to about ₹2.11 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as the previous record was in April 2025 (over ₹2.23 lakh crore).

Explanation

The article clearly states that after adjusting refunds, the net GST mop-up was up 7.3% to about ₹2.11 lakh crore. ₹2.43 lakh crore is the gross figure, ₹2.23 lakh crore was the previous year's gross record, and ₹2.05 lakh crore is a distractor.

Explanation

GST is a consumption-based tax. Rising collections signal higher consumer spending (demand) and better compliance, meaning more businesses are entering the formal economy and paying taxes. While it may affect the tax mix, the primary indicator is economic activity and formalization, not necessarily a decrease in direct taxes or an increase in deficit.

Explanation

The Gaganyaan mission is India's human spaceflight program being executed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), as clearly mentioned in the article. DoS is the governing department, but ISRO is the implementing agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: IADT-02 involved dropping a simulated Crew Module from about 3 km. Statement 2 is incorrect; the assembly begun in December 2025 is for the first uncrewed flight (G1), not the crewed flight. Statement 3 is correct as the astronauts underwent studies in Leh at 3,500 metres.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the simulated Crew Module used in the IADT-02 test weighed about 5.7 tonnes, which is equivalent to the mass of the Crew Module for the first uncrewed Gaganyaan mission (G1).

Explanation

As indicated by the test description—dropping a simulated module to test its descent—the primary purpose of IADT is to validate the parachute deceleration system, which is critical for the safe return of the Crew Module to Earth. This is a standard pre-requisite for human spaceflight missions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court exercised its extraordinary powers under Article 142 to issue the directions. Article 142 grants the court the power to pass any order necessary for doing 'complete justice'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly stated Article 21 is a 'positive mandate upon the State to ensure a safe environment'. Statement 3 is correct as per the directive for ambulance deployment.

Explanation

The article clearly states that National Highways account for nearly 30% of all road fatalities. The other options are close distractors. This data point highlights the disproportionate risk on NHs.

Explanation

The core implication, as stated in the order, is that Article 21 is not just a negative right but a 'positive mandate upon the State'. This makes ensuring safe roads a constitutional duty, allowing citizens to seek judicial enforcement.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) in the context of the conviction for cruelty. Section 302 is for murder, 304B for dowry death, and 376 for rape.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the appeal by Narendra Singh was allowed and his conviction under Section 498A was set aside. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court clarified that a conviction CAN be based solely on a dying declaration, but it must be scrutinized. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions this as a key principle reiterated by the bench.

Explanation

The article states the woman sustained injuries on April 15, 2001, her first dying declaration was recorded on April 16, the second on April 17, and she 'succumbed on April 22, 2001'.

Explanation

The article details that the Court found the two dying declarations inconsistent on whether the death was homicidal or suicidal, creating doubt. It also noted a lack of independent evidence, afterthought allegations, and hostile witnesses, weakening the prosecution's case.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'World Gold Council's Central Bank Gold Reserves Survey 2025' as the source for this data point. The WGC is a known authority on global gold markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article title states '3rd year in a row' and data shows over 100 MT in FY24, FY25, and FY26. Statement 2 is correct: Domestic share rose from 38% (Mar 2023) to 77% (Apr 2026). Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly names the National Bank of Poland as the biggest buyer in Q1 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'In total, the RBI brought 168.06 MT of gold to India in 2025-26'. Option D (104.23 MT) is the amount brought in the second half alone, a common distractor.

Explanation

The article directly links the trend to the aftermath of Russia's 2022 invasion of Ukraine, stating it 'sparked a shift by central banks around the world towards holding more non-dollar denominated foreign currency assets' and domestic storage.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the UAE has withdrawn from the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), which it joined in 1967. The other organizations are not mentioned in the context of this withdrawal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the UAE was OPEC's fourth-largest producer (3.12 mbd) in 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect; the primary reasons were production constraints and geopolitical differences with Saudi Arabia, not climate targets. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article notes 'Brent crude prices barely budged on the announcement' due to the larger Strait of Hormuz crisis.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'OPEC’s share of global crude dropped to 36.7% in 2025.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article concludes that for countries like India, 'the immediate threat is not the cartel’s unravelling but the “double blockade” in the Strait of Hormuz and the fragile Iran-U.S. ceasefire.' This directly addresses the primary risk to supply and price stability.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body established under the Delimitation Commission Act to redraw the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies. The article mentions the reservation is to be implemented 'following the delimitation exercise'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the resolution seeks implementation 'immediately following the delimitation exercise'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 131st Amendment Bill was 'defeated in the Lok Sabha'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the resolution was passed by the Chhattisgarh Assembly on 'Thursday (April 30, 2026)'. May 01, 2026, is the publication date.

Explanation

The article mentions the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, which failed to meet the 'two-thirds majority mark' in the Lok Sabha. This implies that implementing such a reservation requires a constitutional amendment, which needs a special majority in Parliament.

Explanation

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the principal agency responsible for weather forecasting and operates under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India, as is standard static knowledge.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: El Niño typically leads to reduced monsoon rainfall in India, not strengthens it. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which states the IOD will counteract ENSO's effect. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clarifies Super ENSO will set in after India's monsoon season ends and will not impact it much.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'India reuses only 3 per cent of its treated used water'. The 40% figure is for Singapore, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article's central thesis is that recurring warnings like a below-normal monsoon highlight that water stress is a critical threat. It argues water management must be seen as an 'existential necessity', emphasizing conservation and a circular economy over reactive measures or simplistic solutions like taxation alone.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry responsible for India's foreign policy, diplomatic relations, and coordinating all high-level visits abroad by the Prime Minister and other dignitaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as safeguarding energy flows and critical tech cooperation are top agenda items. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the summit was cancelled due to the 'Pahalgam terror attack', not the 'Pulwama terror attack'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Prime Minister is set to visit the four nations from May 15 to 20, next month (relative to the article's publication date of May 01, 2026).

Explanation

The article directly links the focus on energy security to the objective of 'mitigating trade disruptions from the West Asia crisis'. Engaging with European partners helps diversify energy supply chains and reduce vulnerability to volatility in the West Asian region.

Explanation

The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was developed and is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which is an initiative of the RBI and Indian Banks' Association (IBA). RBI is the regulator, but the operational entity is NPCI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 24,162 crore transactions. Statement 2 is correct: ₹314 lakh crore. Statement 3 is incorrect; the government's focus was on 'innovation, security, and inclusion', not just volume.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that UPI transactions were worth ₹314 lakh crore in FY26. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the government reiterating its commitment 'with a focus on innovation, security, and inclusion'. The other options are not mentioned as the primary focus in the provided content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Morgan Stanley, a leading global investment firm, had dubbed the Indian rupee one of the fragile five currencies in emerging markets in 2013.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article ('a fall of 12% in just the past 12 months'). Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states Brazil and South Africa saw their currencies appreciate (by 12% and 10% respectively). Statement 3 is incorrect; the cause was the rollback or tapering of QE, not its initiation.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Indian rupee hit an all-time low of 95.33 to a dollar earlier on Thursday (April 30).' 90.00 was the rate at the start of 2026, and less than 85 was the rate a year ago, making them plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states these economies 'already ran a current account deficit... They could run such a current account deficit only because they had a capital account surplus.' When QE rollback reversed investment flows (capital account), their currency demand crashed. This is the core vulnerability described.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate is an economic intelligence and law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, which is part of the Union Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for investigating economic crimes like money laundering and foreign exchange violations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the article, a complete acquittal of all accused in the predicate offence typically results in the collapse of the ED's PMLA case, highlighting the dependency. Statement 2 is correct, as the article explains that the offence of money laundering is tied to the existence of 'proceeds of crime', which in turn depends on a predicate offence. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states that the ED can file revision petitions to challenge a court's refusal to take cognisance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the Delhi High Court found these findings “prima facie erroneous”, with a CBI challenge scheduled for hearing on May 4, 2026.' February 27, 2026, is the date the trial court discharged the accused. May 1, 2026, is the publication date of the article.

Explanation

The core theme of the article is the strategy outlined to help the ED overcome the legal hurdle where PMLA cases collapse if the predicate offence fails. The guidance involves using procedural remedies like fresh probes and legal challenges, explicitly aimed at 'preserving money laundering prosecutions despite setbacks in underlying offences'.

Explanation

The article mentions Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw flagged off the train. The Indian Railways, which operates Vande Bharat Express, falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Chenab Bridge is the world's highest rail arch bridge, not the longest. Statement 3 is incorrect; the train operates six days a week (except Tuesdays).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the rail line passes through India's longest tunnel, measuring 12.77 km, connecting Khari with Sumber. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article states the railway line provides people of Kashmir a means to transport goods like apples, dry fruits, and handicrafts to other parts of the country in the shortest possible time and at a significantly lower cost. This is its primary stated economic impact.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the ship was delivered at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDSL) in Mumbai. MDSL is a key Defence PSU under the Ministry of Defence, responsible for building major warships.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the indigenous content is precisely 75%, not just 'over 50%'. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the frigate 'Mahendragiri' has an indigenous content of 75%. This is a key data point highlighting the success of indigenisation efforts in defence manufacturing.

Explanation

While stealth (option D) is a feature, the core strategic implication of indigenisation is achieving self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat). Reducing foreign dependency ensures supply chain security during conflicts, fosters domestic industry, and strengthens strategic autonomy, which is the primary goal of such policies.

Explanation

The news article states that Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal made the announcement. Therefore, the nodal ministry is the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which handles India's trade policies and agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The India-UAE free trade agreement... came into force in May 2022.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the trade crossed $100 billion, not $150 billion. Statement 3 is correct as the article states CEPA 'acts as a gateway to Africa, other GCC and West Asian countries, CIS... countries.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The India-UAE free trade agreement... has helped the bilateral trade to cross $100 billion.' The other options are close distractors around this key data point.

Explanation

The article's core analytical point is that the CEPA 'acts as a gateway to Africa, other GCC and West Asian countries, CIS (Commonwealth of Independent States) countries and some European countries.' This strategic gateway function for third-country market access is the highlighted benefit beyond simple bilateral trade increase.

Explanation

The article quotes Harshvardhan Patil, president of the National Federation of Cooperative Sugar Factories Ltd (NFCSF), making this statement. NFCSF is an apex body of cooperative sugar factories in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the SES data in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trend is reversed: jowar area DECLINED from 62 lakh hectare (1960-61) to 17 lakh hectare (2024-25). Statement 3 is correct as the article states pulses area dipped to 18.85 lakh hectare in 2025-26.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Solapur, among the worst drought-prone regions, leads with the highest number of sugar mills – 48. This highlights the paradox of water-intensive cultivation in water-scarce areas.

Explanation

Multiple sources in the article, including farmer leader Raju Shetti, cite the guaranteed FRP and the assured income from sugarcane as the key reason. The lack of a similarly assured and legally enforced MSP for other crops makes diversification financially risky for farmers.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, under the leadership of Minister Piyush Goyal as mentioned in the article, is the nodal ministry for formulating India's trade policy and negotiating FTAs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the $20 billion FDI commitment over 15 years. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states India succeeded in 'shielding its highly sensitive agricultural and dairy sectors'. Statement 3 is correct as the article frames this bilateral FTA as part of India's strategy following its withdrawal from the multilateral RCEP.

Explanation

The article clearly states the treaty is 'Anchored by a binding $20 billion FDI commitment over the next 15 years.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article's core thesis is that such bilateral pacts 'function as strategic shock absorbers' providing 'insulation against the volatility of great power competition'. The other options contradict the article: it moves away from short-term export gains (Option A), rejects dependency on a single hegemon (Option C), and abandons the traditional liberal consensus (Option D).

Explanation

The article explicitly states the petition was filed seeking permission under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971. The POCSO Act deals with sexual offences against children, the JJ Act with child care, and the IPC is the general criminal code.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms termination was allowed for a 22-week pregnancy. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court emphasized the right to live with dignity, not specifically privacy, under Article 21. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed doctors to preserve foetal tissue samples for DNA analysis.

Explanation

The article mentions that the legal framework permits termination up to 24 weeks in cases involving minors and survivors of sexual assault, referencing the MTP Act as amended in 2021. The standard limit is 20 weeks, but it is extended for specific categories.

Explanation

The court's observation, as stated in the article, was that compelling the minor to continue the pregnancy would amount to denying her the right to live with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. It linked reproductive choice to personal liberty, a facet of Article 21.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Nicobarese community wrote to the National Commission of Scheduled Tribes on multiple occasions. This commission is a constitutional body established to safeguard the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the government release states the estimated number of trees is 18.65 lakh, but the maximum to be felled is 7.11 lakh. Statement 3 is incorrect; the government claims 'no relocation' of these tribes is proposed.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the maximum number expected to be felled is 7.11 lakh within 49.86 sq km of forest." The figure of 18.65 lakh is the estimated total number of trees in the project area, not the number to be cut.

Explanation

The government fact-sheet explicitly aims to leverage the island's strategic location "to strengthen India's national security, maritime and defence presence in the Indo-Pacific." While other options might be incidental, this is the core strategic rationale presented.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Andhra Pradesh Forest Department, in collaboration with the Eastern Ghats Wildlife Society, initiated the conservation status survey of the Peacock Tarantula in the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as hippos are native to Africa, not South America. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which mentions their number is around 200 and they have no natural predators in Colombia. Statement 3 is correct as the article states they are an invasive species threatening local species including the West Indian manatee.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Peacock Tarantula species is currently 'critically endangered', fighting against habitat loss and illegal pet trade. This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The article states that the Peacock Tarantula plays a vital role in its ecosystem 'as a predator that helps maintain the balance of insect populations.' The other options, while possible general ecological functions, are not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is the autonomous agency established under the NHAI Act, 1988, responsible for the development and management of National Highways. While MoRTH is the parent ministry, NHAI is the implementing agency, as mentioned in the article for operationalising the MLFF system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as MLFF removes boom barriers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Choryasi system was developed by ICICI Bank under an operating expenditure (OpEx) model, not SBI under CapEx. Statement 3 is correct as the 'One Vehicle, One FASTag' policy was a key preparatory step mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "According to the Economic Survey 2025-26, the MLFF is projected to be implemented across all four-lane and above national highways and expressways by March 2029." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article directly lists the expected benefits: "The new system is expected to reduce travel time, decongest highways (especially near toll plazas), improve fuel efficiency and lower vehicular emissions." While revenue enforcement is improved, it is not cited as the primary benefit. The system works with FASTag, not replaces it, and manpower is expected to reduce.

Explanation

The Expenditure Secretary is a senior civil servant heading the Department of Expenditure within the Ministry of Finance. This department is responsible for overseeing the government's expenditure framework and budget management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states the government is focused on preserving capital expenditure at the budgeted level of ₹12.2 lakh crore, not reducing it. Statement 2 is correct as per the article (60% import, 90% via Strait of Hormuz). Statement 3 is correct as the Secretary stated R&D spending is 'somewhere around just 0.6% of GDP'.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the budgeted level of capital expenditure as Rs 12.2 lakh crore, which the Secretary stated the government would like to preserve and ensure continues. The other figures are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The Secretary emphasized that capex is a 'priority item' and highlighted its focus on infrastructure sectors like highways, railways, and ports. This indicates the strategic intent to use productive capital spending as a driver for long-term economic growth, even during periods of fiscal constraint.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws like FEMA and PMLA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Attachments from 2014-24 were ₹1,19,386.25 crore. Statement 2 is correct: ED sent 353 pending requests and received 246 requests. Statement 3 is correct: UAE (69) was the top destination for sent requests.

Explanation

The report states that in 2025-26, the ED attached properties worth ₹81,422.63 crore. ₹30,036.41 crore was for 2024-25, and ₹1,19,386.25 crore was the cumulative total for the decade 2014-24.

Explanation

As per the article, MLARs/LRs are formal requests sent to foreign jurisdictions to seek evidence, trace money trails, and pursue extradition-related assistance in cases involving fugitive economic offenders.

Explanation

As per the article, Chief Justice of India (CJI) Surya Kant made the declaration. The CJI is the head of the Indian judiciary. The President is the head of state, the Law Minister is an executive member, and the Attorney General is the government's chief legal advisor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as CJI Surya Kant declared Sikkim as the first paperless state judiciary. Statement 2 is correct as he made the declaration at the inaugural session of the two-day National Conclave on Technology and Judicial Education. Statement 3 is incorrect because the e-Courts Project, as mentioned, moves away from the 'era of the paper trail' to a 'digital ecosystem'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Chief Justice of India Surya Kant declared Sikkim to be the first paperless state judiciary in the nation. The other options are Himalayan states but were not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The CJI stated that integrating technology 'dismantles geographical constraints' arising from 'difficult terrain, financial barriers, or sheer distance'. The other options are not mentioned as objectives; the focus is on enhancing access to justice for litigants.