Question 1

What are the important current affairs questions for 29 April 2026?

Accepted Answer

This page contains 100 current affairs questions from 29 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

Question 2

How to use 29 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?

Accepted Answer

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

Question 3

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?

Accepted Answer

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Question 4

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?

Accepted Answer

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

Question 5

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?

Accepted Answer

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

Question 6

The Supreme Court judgment on free legal aid traces its constitutional roots to which Article, introduced by a specific amendment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article states the Supreme Court traced the roots of legal aid to Article 39A, which was introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. This Article is a Directive Principle directing the state to provide free legal aid.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on free legal aid:

1. The right to free legal aid attaches only from the commencement of the trial in a criminal case.

2. The Court made the timelines prescribed in the 2025 Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) binding, particularly for civil legal aid cases.

3. The judgment directs the creation of a unified digital platform by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) for coordination among legal services bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court held the right attaches from the moment the accused is first produced before a Magistrate. Statement 2 is incorrect: The SOP timelines are binding particularly in criminal legal aid cases, not civil. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the Court directed NIC to create a unified digital platform.

Question 8

According to the Supreme Court's binding timelines under the 2025 SOP, within how many days must an appeal be filed after receipt of records?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explicitly states one of the binding timelines is 'filing of appeals within 15 days of receipt of records.' The other options are close distractors related to other timelines mentioned, like obtaining consent within 7 days.

Question 9

What was the primary systemic issue that the Supreme Court's judgment and the 2025 SOP aimed to address?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article's core problem is systemic delays that leave prisoners without timely access to appeals, making the right to appeal meaningless. The SOP with binding timelines is the solution. While other options touch on related issues, the primary focus is on procedural delays.

Question 10

The constitutional questions being examined by the 9-judge Supreme Court bench primarily involve the interplay between which two articles?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. As stated in the article, one of the key questions the court is examining is the interplay between Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution. Article 25 deals with freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion, while Article 26 deals with the freedom to manage religious affairs.

Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by the Supreme Court bench in the Sabarimala reference case:

1. The Court stated that matters of religion cannot be a subject of debate before a secular authority as they are a matter of conscience.

2. The Court asserted that it should actively use the essential religious practices test to reform all religious customs.

3. The Court observed that Article 26(b) recognises and protects the diversity of religious denominations in the nation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes the bench saying religion "cannot be a subject matter of debate before a secular authority because it is a matter of conscience." Statement 2 is incorrect; the bench expressed caution about the test, with Justice Sundaresh saying courts must be 'circumspect'. Statement 3 is correct as the article begins by stating the Court said "Article 26(b) recognises and protects the diversity of the nation."

Question 12

How many judges constitute the Supreme Court bench hearing the constitutional questions in the Sabarimala reference case?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article clearly states that a nine-judge Supreme Court bench, presided by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, is hearing the case. The names of all nine justices are listed in the third paragraph.

Question 13

What was a primary concern expressed by the Supreme Court bench regarding the potential consequences of a broad interpretation of individual rights under Article 25(1) in religious matters?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. Justice Nagarathna explicitly stated, "It would be annihilation of religion which we don’t want to be a part of." Justice Sundaresh also warned that agreeing with certain contentions would be "disastrous to the concept of religion itself, and it will be militating against the very right given under Article 25(1)."

Question 14

Which constitutional amendment introduced the Fundamental Right to Education for children aged 6-14 years?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option A. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, making the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 a Fundamental Right. This paved the way for the RTE Act, 2009.

Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding Section 12(1)(c) of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009:

1. It mandates all private schools, including minority institutions, to reserve 25% seats for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).

2. The government is required to reimburse the school for the cost of education of these children.

3. The provision was recently reaffirmed by a Supreme Court judgment in January 2026 as a tool for social integration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is incorrect because private unaided minority institutions are exempt from the 25% reservation mandate under the RTE Act. Statement 2 is correct as per the Act's provision for government reimbursement. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which discusses the Supreme Court's January 2026 judgment reaffirming the provision's purpose.

Question 16

What is the percentage of seats reserved for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and disadvantaged groups in private unaided schools under the RTE Act's Section 12(1)(c)?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option D. Section 12(1)(c) of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, mandates that all private unaided schools (except minority institutions) must reserve at least 25% of their seats at the entry level for children belonging to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and disadvantaged groups.

Question 17

According to the Supreme Court's observation cited in the article, what is the primary constitutional objective of the RTE Act's Section 12(1)(c)?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article quotes the Court's observation that the provision is "a deliberate constitutional strategy to operationalise equality of status by creating shared learning spaces for all children." While other options may be indirect outcomes, the core objective highlighted is social integration and equality.

Question 18

Which committee of the Reserve Bank of India is responsible for deciding the benchmark policy interest rate?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body constituted under the RBI Act, 1934, with the primary responsibility of determining the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target. The article mentions the MPC's meeting and its assessment of the supply shock.

Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact of the West Asia crisis as discussed in the article:

1. It is transmitting into the Indian economy primarily as a demand-side shock.

2. It has led to disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz, a critical global energy chokepoint.

3. The RBI's standard monetary policy tools are highly effective in addressing such supply-side inflation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states the problem is a supply-side shock, not a demand-side one. Statement 2 is correct as the Strait of Hormuz disruption is highlighted as the key transmission channel. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article's core argument is that RBI's demand-management tools are ineffective against supply-side crises.

Question 20

According to the article, what was the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee's approach in response to the supply shock in April 2025?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article mentions that the RBI has acknowledged the supply shock and has apparently adopted a 'wait and watch' approach, keeping the repo rate unchanged. This reflects the policy dilemma where neither hiking nor cutting rates offers a clean solution.

Question 21

What is the primary reason, as argued in the article, that makes the RBI's interest rate tools less effective in the current economic scenario?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article's central thesis is that the current inflation stems from supply-side factors (war, energy disruption). The RBI's interest rate tools are designed to manage demand. Raising rates cannot increase the supply of oil or fix supply chains, making them an ineffective primary tool for this type of crisis.

Question 22

Under which Ministry does the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) function?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option A. AIIMS is an autonomous group of public medical colleges and hospitals under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. This is a standard static GK fact relevant to governance.

Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order in the case:

1. The Court allowed the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) for a 15-year-old girl.

2. The Court held that the right to make decisions concerning one's body is part of Article 19 of the Constitution.

3. The Delhi High Court had initially rejected the request for MTP on April 21, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is correct as the SC allowed MTP. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court linked the right to Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), not Article 19. Statement 3 is correct as per the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Question 24

What was the gestation period of the minor's pregnancy as mentioned in the news article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court's order was to medically terminate a 15-year-old girl's seven-month-old pregnancy. This is a key factual data point from the case.

Question 25

What was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Supreme Court for upholding the minor's right to terminate her pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The Supreme Court held that "the right to make decisions concerning one's body particularly in matters of reproduction is an integral facet of personal liberty and privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution." This directly links reproductive autonomy to Article 21.

Question 26

The Sabarimala case hearing concerns the interpretation of which part of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The case primarily involves Articles 25 and 26, which are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution dealing with Fundamental Rights. These articles guarantee freedom of religion and the rights of religious denominations.

Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala case:

1. A nine-judge Constitution bench is currently hearing the case.

2. The bench is examining whether the rights under Article 26 are subject only to public order, morality, and health.

3. The 2018 Supreme Court judgment was delivered by a 5-judge bench with a 4:1 majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option D. Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a nine-judge Constitution bench. Statement 2 is correct as one of the seven questions for consideration is whether rights under Article 26 are subject to other provisions of Part III. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the 2018 judgment was by a five-judge bench with a 4:1 majority.

Question 28

On which date did the five-judge Supreme Court bench deliver its 2018 judgment in the Sabarimala case?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explicitly states that on September 28, 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court delivered the judgment. The other dates are close distractors.

Question 29

What is a key constitutional principle emphasized by Justice Nagarathna during the Sabarimala hearing, as per the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. Justice Nagarathna underscored that 'diversity is our strength' and that Article 26(b) recognizes this diversity. This principle forms a core part of the constitutional debate on protecting denominational rights while maintaining national unity.

Question 30

Which international organization launched the global strategy for the elimination of cervical cancer in 2020?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explicitly states that the World Health Organization (WHO) announced the initiative in 2018 and formally launched the global strategy on November 17, 2020. This is a core function of WHO in setting global public health agendas.

Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding cervical cancer:

1. It is the most common cancer among women in India.

2. Persistent infection with high-risk strains of the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is its primary cause.

3. The global strategy for its elimination was endorsed by 194 countries including India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states cervical cancer is the 'second most common' cancer among women in India, not the most common. Statement 2 is correct as per the Nobel-winning discovery of Harald zur Hausen mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes the WHO strategy was endorsed by 194 countries, India among them.

Question 32

According to the article, approximately how many new cases of cervical cancer are reported in India every year?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article provides a specific data point: 'approximately one lakh new cases every year'. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the figure mentioned in the source text.

Question 33

What is the primary significance of Harald zur Hausen's Nobel Prize-winning discovery mentioned in the context of cervical cancer elimination?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article states that zur Hausen's discovery 'that persistent infection with high-risk strains of the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is the cause of cervical cancer' is what paved the way for the development of prophylactic vaccines. This foundational scientific understanding is crucial for prevention strategies.

Question 34

Which organization provides the official definition and monitors heatwave conditions in India?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. As per the article, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) defines the specific conditions for declaring a heatwave in India, such as temperatures being at least 5°C above normal for two consecutive days. IMD is the nodal agency for weather forecasting and warnings.

Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding heatwaves in India:

1. According to IMD, a severe heatwave is declared when the maximum temperature is at least 7°C above the normal temperature.

2. The core heatwave zone in India includes the southern peninsular states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

3. The Sixteenth Finance Commission has recommended including heatwaves as a notified disaster under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is correct as per IMD's definition mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the southern peninsula has largely remained unaffected by heatwaves; the core zone is in northwestern/central India, Bihar, and Jharkhand. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article regarding the 16th Finance Commission's recommendation.

Question 36

As per the India Meteorological Department's definition cited in the article, what is the temperature anomaly required for a place to be declared under a heatwave condition?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article clearly states: 'If the maximum temperature of a place gets at least 5℃ higher than normal, and this condition is reached at least two days in succession, the place is said to be experiencing a heatwave.' A severe heatwave is declared at 7°C above normal.

Question 37

What is the primary significance of the Sixteenth Finance Commission's recommendation to classify heatwaves as a 'notified disaster'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explains that classifying heatwaves as a notified disaster under the Disaster Management Act would 'enable the state governments to use the money in their State Disaster Response Funds to provide relief and assistance to people affected by heatwaves.' This is the core financial and administrative implication of the recommendation.

Question 38

Which constitutional body delivered the judgment emphasizing enforcement of existing laws against hate speech?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The news article explicitly states that the Supreme Court, through a Bench of Justices, delivered this judgment. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body in India.

Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on hate speech:

1. The Court stated that hate crimes persist due to the absence of specific laws.

2. The Court directed that police must register an FIR immediately on receiving a complaint about hate speech.

3. The Court ruled that prior sanction is mandatory for a Magistrate to take cognisance of a hate speech complaint.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court said hate crimes continue due to poor enforcement of existing laws, not due to absence of laws. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Court ruled that prior sanction is NOT necessary for a Magistrate.

Question 40

On which date did the Supreme Court Bench, as mentioned in the article, hear the matter related to hate speech?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article clearly states 'The Supreme Court on Wednesday (April 29, 2026) said...'. The other dates are close distractors.

Question 41

What is the primary implication of the Supreme Court's ruling that prior sanction is not needed for a Magistrate to take cognisance of a hate speech complaint?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The ruling removes a procedural hurdle (prior sanction), allowing a Magistrate to act directly on a complaint. This is aimed at expediting the legal process, which aligns with the Court's focus on improving enforcement. The article does not mention transferring legislative power, mandating a new law, or changing the burden of proof.

Question 42

The 'Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bill' is primarily concerned with the rights of which communities in higher education?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explicitly states that the Bill aims to safeguard the right to education and dignity of students and staff 'belonging to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes (SC/ST).'

Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bill, 2026:

1. It guarantees equal access to education only in public universities run by the state government.

2. The Bill covers non-teaching staff belonging to SC/ST communities in higher educational institutions.

3. It received approval from the Karnataka Legislative Assembly in April 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the Bill covers 'all higher educational institutions... including public, private, charitable institutions and deemed universities,' not just public ones. Statement 2 is correct as the Bill safeguards the dignity of 'non-teaching staff.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says it received 'cabinet nod,' not Legislative Assembly approval.

Question 44

As per the news, in which month and year did the Karnataka cabinet approve the Rohith Vemula Bill?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article clearly states: 'The Karnataka Rohith Vemula... Bill, 2026, received cabinet nod in April...' The published date of the article is also April 29, 2026, confirming the timeline.

Question 45

What is the primary objective of the Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bill, 2026, as mentioned in the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article's subheading and body state the Bill aims 'to prevent exclusion and injustice while safeguarding the right to education, and the dignity' of SC/ST students and staff. This is its core anti-discrimination objective.

Question 46

Which Indian institution is responsible for declaring heatwaves and setting the temperature criteria mentioned in the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explicitly states that according to the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), a heatwave is declared based on specific temperature criteria. IMD is the nodal agency for weather forecasting and warnings in India.

Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding concepts from the article:

1. GPS spoofing involves blocking GPS signals entirely, making receivers unable to determine location.

2. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India has 6 members, with the RBI Governor having a casting vote in case of a tie.

3. According to IMD, a severe heatwave for plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is 45°C or more.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. Statement 1 is incorrect. GPS spoofing deceives receivers with false data, while jamming blocks signals. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's explainer on MPC composition and voting rules. Statement 3 is incorrect. A severe heatwave for plains is declared at ≥47°C, not 45°C (which is the threshold for a heatwave).

Question 48

As per the April 2026 Monetary Policy Committee decision mentioned in the article, what is the current policy repo rate?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article clearly states: "The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) on April 8 kept the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25%." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Question 49

What is the primary objective of India's monetary policy framework as described in the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article defines monetary policy as tools used by the RBI "to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth." This twin objective is the core mandate. The other options relate to fiscal policy or specific regulatory functions, not the primary goal of monetary policy.

Question 50

The Ganga Expressway news mentions development under a 'double-engine government'. In the Indian federal context, what does this term typically refer to?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option A. The term 'double-engine government' is a political phrase used to describe a situation where the same political party or coalition is in power at both the central (Union) government and a particular state government, implying synchronized development efforts.

Question 51

Consider the following statements regarding the Ganga Expressway:

1. It is a 594 km long, six-lane expressway with a design speed of 120 kmph.

2. It passes through 12 districts of Uttar Pradesh, including Hardoi and Unnao.

3. The entire project has been constructed and funded solely by the Adani Group.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is correct as per article details. Statement 2 is correct as Hardoi and Unnao are listed among the 12 districts. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states it was built under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, and while the Adani Group built three of four sections, it was not solely funded or constructed by them.

Question 52

What is the total project cost of the Ganga Expressway as mentioned in the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article explicitly states the project cost as 'Rs 36,230 crore'. The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the provided content.

Question 53

What is a standout safety and strategic feature of the Ganga Expressway mentioned in the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article highlights a '3.2-km airstrip near Shahjahanpur that can facilitate emergency landings by Air Force aircraft' as a standout feature. The other options, while potentially beneficial, are not mentioned in the provided content.

Question 54

Which district-level institution is mentioned as being involved in the AI-based assessment pilot in Jodhpur?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option A. The article explicitly mentions DIET Jodhpur as one of the institutions involved in the AI-based assessment pilot project. NCERT, UGC, and CBSE are national-level bodies not mentioned in the context of this specific district-led initiative.

Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding the AI-based assessment pilot in Jodhpur:

1. It is the first time in India that AI is being used to analyze subjective responses of students.

2. The first phase of the pilot was successfully implemented in 54 government Hindi-medium schools.

3. The project aligns with the National Education Policy 2020's emphasis on competency-based assessment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the first time AI has been employed to analyse subjective responses. Statement 2 is incorrect; the first phase was in 54 government English-medium schools, not Hindi-medium. Statement 3 is correct as officials stated the project is in line with NEP 2020.

Question 56

According to the article, what was the approximate number of students assessed in the second phase of Jodhpur's AI assessment pilot?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article clearly states that in the second phase, answer sheets of over 70,000 students of Classes 6–9 were graded. 3,000 students were part of the first phase. 25,000 and 1,00,000 are not mentioned in the article.

Question 57

What is a primary objective of the school report cards generated by the AI system in the Jodhpur pilot, as highlighted in the article?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article emphasizes that the school report cards, portrayed as a ladder, are shared with parents to help them see overall learning levels and how their school compares with others nearby, enabling informed decisions about enrollment. The other options are not mentioned as objectives.

Question 58

The Supreme Court judgment emphasized the need for police to follow due procedure as per which major legislation?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court noted the police failed to follow due procedure 'as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973' to put the criminal investigation in motion. The CrPC governs the procedure for investigation and trial of offences.

Question 59

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment acquitting 12 convicts in an Assam murder case:

1. The Court accepted that the death was homicidal but emphasized that conviction requires reliable evidence.

2. A key factor for acquittal was the delay in registering the FIR, which was lodged on the same night as the incident.

3. The seized weapons in the case were sent for forensic analysis, but the results were inconclusive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option A. Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FIR was lodged on July 10, 2008, two days after the incident on July 8, constituting a delay. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly states the weapons seized were 'neither sent for forensic analysis'.

Question 60

In which year did the brutal murder incident, which led to the Supreme Court acquittal of 12 convicts, take place?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article states the case stemmed from a brutal attack on July 8, 2008, in Assam's Goalpara district. The FIR was registered in July 2008, and the trial and appeals spanned many years, culminating in the Supreme Court judgment in 2026.

Question 61

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for acquitting the 12 convicts in the Assam murder case?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The Supreme Court's primary reason for acquittal was the fatal flaws in the prosecution's case, including a 'scripted enquiry', delayed FIR, failure to follow CrPC procedures, unreliable eyewitnesses, and lack of forensic analysis. The Court accepted the death was homicidal but found the evidence unreliable due to these lapses.

Question 62

Which city police force launched India's first multilingual AI system in the Namma 112 emergency service?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. The article explicitly states that the Bengaluru City Police launched this first-of-its-kind initiative in India.

Question 63

Consider the following statements regarding the multilingual AI system 'VANKI' launched for emergency services:

1. It was launched by the Bengaluru City Police for the Namma 112 helpline.

2. The system currently supports over 5 Indian languages but no international languages.

3. The acronym VANKI stands for Multilingual Voice AI for Nationwide Key Interventions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option C. Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the system supports over 10 languages, including international ones like Spanish, French, and Arabic. Statement 3 is correct as the article defines VANKI as 'Multilingual Voice AI for Nationwide Key Interventions'.

Question 64

As per the news, how many languages does the newly launched VANKI AI system for emergency services currently support?

Accepted Answer

Correct Answer: Option B. The article clearly mentions that the system 'currently supports more than 10 languages', listing examples like Bengali, Gujarati, Spanish, and French.

29 April 2026, Questions & Answers

29 April 2026, Questions with Answers

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