24 April 2026, Questions & Answers
120 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
120 questions · 0 topics covered · 24 min revision
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This page contains 120 current affairs questions with answers from 24 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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120 QsWhich ministry initiated the discussions between India and Anthropic regarding the AI model Mythos, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the discussion with Anthropic's senior leadership was initiated by the Ministry of External Affairs. The Ministry of Finance later chaired a meeting on the financial sector risks.
Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's AI model Mythos:
1. It is described as the most powerful model Anthropic has ever built and can autonomously identify serious software vulnerabilities.
2. Anthropic is providing the US government access to Mythos to study it and prepare defensive measures.
3. Project Glasswing is an initiative by Anthropic to assist companies in using Mythos to enhance their cyber-defenses before its wide release.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says Mythos is 'the most powerful model' with 'unprecedented ability' to find vulnerabilities. Statement 2 is correct as Anthropic is coordinating with the US government on 'providing access to Mythos'. Statement 3 is correct as Project Glasswing 'aims to assist companies that hope to use Mythos to step up cyber-defenses before it is widely released'.
According to the article, which of the following sectors were specifically highlighted as critical infrastructure needing safeguarding from the risks posed by Mythos?
- A.Banking and Energy
- B.Energy and Telecom
- C.Banking, Energy, and Telecom✓ Correct Answer
- D.Banking, Energy, Telecom, and Defense
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions 'critical infrastructure — banking, energy, telecom —' as the sectors Anthropic is talking to governments about safeguarding. Defense is not listed among the explicitly mentioned critical infrastructure sectors in this context.
What is the primary reason cited by Anthropic for withholding the wide commercial release of its AI model Mythos?
- A.Due to insufficient computing power and infrastructure.
- B.Because the model has not yet passed all necessary safety certifications.
- C.Due to its unprecedented ability to autonomously identify and exploit software vulnerabilities, posing cybersecurity threats.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Because the model's capabilities are limited and not yet commercially viable.
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Explanation
The article states that the company is 'deliberately keeping the technology away from the public for now — the reason being the model’s unprecedented ability to autonomously identify serious vulnerabilities... posing significant cyber security threats.' This is the direct reason for withholding release.
The article discusses the impact of women's reservation in Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which Constitutional Amendment is primarily responsible for this?
- A.The 42nd Amendment Act
- B.The 73rd Amendment Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.The 74th Amendment Act
- D.The 86th Amendment Act
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Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and mandated reservation for women. The article explicitly mentions the '73rd Constitutional Amendment' as deepening democratic governance through women's participation in Panchayats.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made in the article:
1. Women's reservation in Panchayati Raj has led to a restructuring of power relations, extending governance decisions into household matters.
2. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam aims for token representation of women in higher legislatures without addressing caste intersections.
3. The article posits that women's reservation in legislatures is the single biggest political and moral reform since the framing of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states that authority from Panchayat roles becomes 'constitutive of power — extending from governance into the household'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifically says the Act seeks to move 'beyond token representation' by enabling Dalit women's agency. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly calls it 'the single biggest reform to political and moral democracy since the framing of the Constitution itself'.
As per the article, what is the minimum constitutionally mandated reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions under the 73rd Amendment?
- A.One-fourth of seats
- B.One-third of seats✓ Correct Answer
- C.One-half of seats
- D.Two-thirds of seats
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Explanation
While the exact percentage is not repeated in this article, it is a fundamental static fact linked to the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, which is the core subject of the news. The Amendment mandates reservation of 'not less than one-third' of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
According to the article, what is described as the primary potential outcome of extending women's reservation to Parliament and State Legislatures?
- A.A rapid increase in the number of welfare schemes for women
- B.The institutionalization of women's presence in power as a norm✓ Correct Answer
- C.The immediate elimination of all corporate glass ceilings
- D.The guarantee of winning elections for national parties
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Explanation
The article argues that reservation in higher legislatures holds the potential to ensure 'that women in power are not an exception but a norm'. While it mentions trickle-down effects on corporate ceilings and party reforms, the primary structural outcome highlighted is this institutionalization of presence.
The analysis in the news article is attributed to the chief economist of which organization?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Reserve Bank of India
- C.CareEdge Ratings✓ Correct Answer
- D.International Monetary Fund
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Explanation
The article's byline clearly states 'The writer is chief economist, CareEdge Ratings'. This is a direct factual recall from the source, testing attention to detail.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact of the West Asia crisis as per the article:
1. It is projected to reduce India's GDP growth to around 6.7% in 2026-27.
2. The crisis is expected to narrow India's Current Account Deficit to around 1% of GDP.
3. A major transmission channel of the shock is India's dependence on West Asia for over 50% of its oil imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's projection. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CAD is projected to widen to 2.1%, not narrow. Statement 3 is correct as the article states India imports 51% of its oil from West Asia. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the projected average CPI inflation for India in the current year (2026-27) following the West Asia crisis?
- A.4.3%
- B.4.6%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.0%
- D.2.0%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'CPI inflation is likely to average 4.6 per cent this year as against our pre-conflict projection of 4.3 per cent.' The other options are the pre-conflict projection (4.3%), a higher distractor (5.0%), and the pre-crisis benign inflation rate (2.0%).
What is identified as a critical long-term imperative for India highlighted by the West Asia crisis in the article?
- A.Increasing excise duties on fuel to boost revenue
- B.Reducing services exports to balance the Current Account
- C.Strengthening energy security and building resilience to global supply disruptions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Focusing solely on attracting Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPI)
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Explanation
The article's concluding section emphasizes that the crisis 'has highlighted the urgent need for India to strengthen its energy security' and 'build broader resilience to all kinds of global supply disruptions.' The other options are either short-term measures or contrary to the analysis provided.
Which institution releases the official data on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.National Statistical Office (NSO)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and is responsible for compiling and releasing data related to the country's Balance of Payments, which includes Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows and outflows. The article explicitly states the data was released by the RBI.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent FDI data:
1. Net FDI into India turned positive in February 2026 after six consecutive months of being negative.
2. The gross FDI inflow in February 2026 grew by over 60% compared to the previous month.
3. The net FDI figure of $4.6 billion in February 2026 was the highest in nearly three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states gross FDI grew 61.6%, but it does not specify this is compared to the 'previous month'. It is a general growth figure. Statement 3 is correct as a '45-month high' equates to nearly four years, which is approximately 'nearly three years'—a close approximation often used in exams. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the RBI data cited in the article, what was the approximate value of gross FDI inflows into India in February 2026?
- A.Nearly $4.6 billion
- B.Nearly $7 billion
- C.Nearly $9 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly $11 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Gross FDI in February 2026... grew 61.6% to a seven-month high of nearly $9 billion." Option A ($4.6B) is the net FDI figure, making it a direct distractor. The other options are plausible but incorrect values.
What is the primary significance of a positive and rising Net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) figure for the Indian economy?
- A.It directly reduces the fiscal deficit of the government.
- B.It strengthens the Balance of Payments by providing stable, non-debt creating capital.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It leads to an immediate increase in the repo rate by the RBI.
- D.It mandates a corresponding increase in government subsidies for exporters.
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Explanation
FDI is a key component of the Capital Account in the Balance of Payments (BoP). Positive net FDI inflows represent a stable source of external financing that does not create repayment liability (unlike external debt), thereby bolstering BoP stability and supporting the domestic currency. It does not directly impact fiscal deficit (A), repo rate (C), or subsidies (D).
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which decides the policy repo rate, is constituted under which Act?
- A.The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- B.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
- D.The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, as amended in 2016. Its primary objective is to determine the policy interest rate to achieve the inflation target.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent statements by the RBI Governor:
1. India's foreign exchange reserves are approximately US$ 700 billion.
2. The RBI has projected India's GDP growth for FY27 to be higher than that of FY26.
3. The Governor identified the current inflationary risks primarily as a demand shock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; GDP growth is projected to decline to 6.9% in FY27 from 7.6% in FY26. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Governor explicitly stated that the risks represent a 'supply shock', not a demand shock.
As per the recent MPC statement, what is the projected average headline retail inflation for the current fiscal year (FY27)?
- A.4.2%
- B.4.6%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.0%
- D.5.25%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the central bank projected headline retail inflation to average 4.6% in the current fiscal (FY27). The repo rate is 5.25%, which is a close distractor.
According to the RBI Governor, what is the primary challenge for central banks if geopolitical conflicts remain unresolved for a long duration?
- A.Managing fiscal deficit targets
- B.Reining in inflation expectations while minimizing growth sacrifice✓ Correct Answer
- C.Attracting foreign direct investment inflows
- D.Stabilizing the domestic currency exchange rate
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Explanation
The Governor stated that prolonged conflict 'can make the task of central banks arduous in their endeavour to rein in inflation expectations while minimising growth sacrifice.' This directly captures the core monetary policy dilemma in the face of persistent supply-side shocks.
Under which Ministry does the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), mentioned in the Supreme Court's discussion, function?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Women & Child Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body that functions as the nodal agency for adoption under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. This linkage is crucial for Polity and Governance sections.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The Court allowed the termination of pregnancy stating that the possibility of adoption cannot override a woman's reproductive choice.
2. The judgment was delivered by a bench comprising the Chief Justice of India and Justice Ujjal Bhuyan.
3. The Court held that the right to make decisions concerning one's body is not a part of the fundamental rights under the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the bench comprised Justices B V Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan, not the CJI. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court explicitly held that reproductive autonomy is an integral part of personal liberty and privacy under Article 21.
What was the age of the petitioner and the duration of her pregnancy, as per the Supreme Court case detailed in the article?
- A.16-year-old, 6-month pregnancy
- B.15-year-old, 7-month pregnancy✓ Correct Answer
- C.17-year-old, 8-month pregnancy
- D.14-year-old, 5-month pregnancy
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the petitioner was a 15-year-old girl seeking termination of her 7-month pregnancy. These specific data points are often tested in Prelims to check factual reading of important judgments.
What was the core constitutional principle invoked by the Supreme Court to prioritize the minor's choice for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?
- A.Right to Equality under Article 14
- B.Right to Freedom of Religion under Article 25
- C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Cultural and Educational Rights under Article 29
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Explanation
The Supreme Court held that "the right to make decisions concerning one's body, particularly in matters of reproduction, is an integral facet of personal liberty and privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution." This application of Article 21 to reproductive autonomy is a key takeaway for Mains answers.
The internal reservation for Scheduled Castes approved by the Karnataka Cabinet falls under the broader constitutional provision for affirmative action. Which part of the Indian Constitution primarily empowers the state to make such provisions for SCs and STs?
- A.Part III - Fundamental Rights
- B.Part IV - Directive Principles of State Policy
- C.Part XVI - Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes✓ Correct Answer
- D.Part XX - Amendment of the Constitution
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Explanation
Part XVI (Articles 330 to 342) of the Constitution contains special provisions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo-Indians, including reservations in legislatures and services. Articles 15(4) and 16(4) in Part III enable reservations, but the specific structural provisions for SCs/STs are in Part XVI.
Consider the following statements regarding the internal reservation for SCs approved by the Karnataka Cabinet:
1. It allocates 5.25% reservation each to the SC 'left' and SC 'right' categories within the existing 17% quota for SCs.
2. The decision was taken to address the demands of the most backward groups among SCs, who felt the blanket quota was being availed by more dominant sections.
3. The originally proposed internal quota system of 6:6:5 within a 17% reservation umbrella has been implemented by the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the allocation is within the existing 15% quota, not 17%. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which states the move is a result of demands from the most backward groups (SC 'left'). Statement 3 is incorrect because the 6:6:5 ratio within 17% has been stayed by the courts and is not implemented; the Cabinet approved a temporary 5.25:5.25:4.5 ratio under 15%.
According to the news, what is the reservation percentage approved by the Karnataka Cabinet for the 'other' SC communities under the temporary internal quota system?
- A.4.0%
- B.4.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.0%
- D.5.25%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Cabinet decided on "4.5% reservation for other communities" within the SC category. The quotas for SC 'left' and SC 'right' are 5.25% each, making the total 15%.
What was the primary immediate governance objective behind the Karnataka Cabinet's approval of the temporary internal reservation for SCs?
- A.To increase the total reservation for SCs from 15% to 17%
- B.To pave the way for recruitment of government staff, which had been stalled✓ Correct Answer
- C.To implement the High Court's directive on sub-categorization
- D.To consolidate political support ahead of state elections
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Explanation
The article directly states that the decision "will pave the way for recruitment of government staff, which had been stalled for over a year." While other options might be related outcomes or contexts, the stated primary administrative objective was to unblock the stalled recruitment process.
Which ministry's spokesperson clarified India's position on the BRICS consensus regarding the West Asia conflict?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article mentions the Ministry of External Affairs' official spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal explaining the difficulty in forging a BRICS consensus. The MEA handles India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements.
Consider the following statements regarding the BRICS meeting discussed in the article:
1. India issued a Chair's Summary after the BRICS Deputy Foreign Ministers' meeting in New Delhi.
2. The Chair's Summary is a document agreed to by all members of the grouping.
3. The next meeting of BRICS Deputy Foreign Ministers will be held under China's Chairship in 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as India, the 2026 chair, issued a Chair's Summary. Statement 2 is incorrect; a Chair's Summary is issued by the host and is not agreed to by all members, unlike a joint statement. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that they agreed to meet again under China's Chairship in 2027.
According to the article, on which date did the BRICS Deputy Foreign Ministers and Special Envoys on MENA meet in New Delhi?
- A.13 March 2026
- B.24 April 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.12 March 2026
- D.14 May 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the BRICS Deputy Foreign Ministers and Special Envoys on the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) met on 24 April 2026 in New Delhi. 13 March and 12 March are dates related to earlier diplomatic contacts, and 14 May is the scheduled Foreign Ministers' meeting.
What was the primary reason cited for the inability to forge a consensus on a BRICS position regarding the West Asia conflict?
- A.Lack of interest from all member countries in the issue.
- B.India's reluctance to take a clear stance as the chair.
- C.Direct involvement of some BRICS member countries in the ongoing conflict.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The conflict being outside the geographical scope of BRICS concerns.
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Explanation
The MEA spokesperson stated that some BRICS members are directly involved in the current situation in West Asia, which impacted forging a consensus. This refers to members like Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE being parties to or affected by the conflict.
Which Union Minister chaired the high-level meeting in India to assess the cybersecurity risks posed by the AI model 'Mythos'?
- A.Minister of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Minister of Home Affairs
- C.Minister of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- D.Minister of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman chaired the high-level meeting on April 23, 2026, to assess risks to India's financial sector from the Mythos model. The Finance Ministry oversees the banking sector, which is directly threatened.
Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's AI model 'Mythos Preview':
1. It was evaluated by the UK AI Security Institute (AISI), which found it solved 73% of expert-level cybersecurity challenges.
2. Internal tests showed its predecessor, Opus 4.6, had a higher success rate in developing autonomous exploits compared to Mythos.
3. The model demonstrated 'agentic' behaviour, meaning it could execute long, multi-stage attack chains autonomously.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the UK AISI evaluation mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Opus 4.6 had a 'near-0% success rate', while Mythos was in a 'different league altogether' with much higher success. Statement 3 is correct as the article highlights Mythos's growing 'agentic' behaviour for multi-stage attacks.
According to the UK AI Security Institute's evaluation mentioned in the article, what percentage of expert-level cybersecurity challenges was the Mythos Preview model able to solve in benchmark settings?
- A.58%
- B.65%
- C.73%✓ Correct Answer
- D.81%
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Explanation
The article specifically states that one of the UK AISI's headline findings was that the Mythos model 'was able to solve 73% of expert-level cybersecurity challenges in benchmark settings'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary concern that has prompted global regulators, including in India, to respond to the capabilities of Anthropic's 'Mythos' AI model?
- A.Its potential to replace human jobs in the software development industry.
- B.Its ability to generate highly realistic but misleading textual content.
- C.Its dual-use capability to both exploit and fix cybersecurity vulnerabilities at an advanced level.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Its high computational cost and environmental impact from energy consumption.
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Explanation
The core concern driving the regulatory response is the model's standout capability in cybersecurity tasks—being incredibly effective at both finding/fixing vulnerabilities and exploiting them. This dual-use nature poses a significant national security risk, as highlighted by the high-level meetings in India and the US. While other options might be related to AI risks, they are not the primary focus of this specific news.
Which statutory authority is responsible for the planning and development of the Mumbai Metropolitan Region (MMR) as mentioned in the article?
- A.Mumbai Municipal Corporation
- B.Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Maharashtra Urban Development Department
- D.National Capital Region Planning Board
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Explanation
The article explicitly discusses the role and plans of the Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA), the statutory planning authority for the MMR established under the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA):
1. MMRDA has secured a line of ₹4.07 lakh crore in loans from government agencies like the Power Finance Corporation.
2. The total area of Third Mumbai is 104 sq km, all of which is available for development at an FSI of 2.
3. MMRDA does not have direct control over subcontractors working on its projects, but it imposes heavy penalties on contractors for safety violations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions MMRDA secured a ₹4.07 lakh crore loan line from agencies including Power Finance Corporation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the total area of Third Mumbai is 323.44 sq km, with only 104 sq km available for development. Statement 3 is correct as the article states MMRDA lacks direct control over subcontractors but fines contractors heavily, citing a ₹1 crore fine example.
According to the article, what is the total area designated for the 'Third Mumbai' project?
- A.104 sq km
- B.323.44 sq km✓ Correct Answer
- C.83,000 acres
- D.165 hectares
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the total area of Third Mumbai is 323.44 sq km. The 104 sq km is the portion available for development, 83,000 acres is MMRDA's land bank, and 165 hectares is the total area of BKC.
What is the primary objective behind developing the entire Mumbai Metropolitan Region (MMR) and its metro network, as outlined by the MMRDA chief?
- A.To increase government revenue through toll collection on infrastructure projects.
- B.To attract foreign investment exclusively for semiconductor and data centre industries.
- C.To improve quality of life by enabling people to live farther from the main city with seamless connectivity.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To rapidly convert all available land into a concrete jungle to maximize urban density.
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Explanation
The article clearly states the vision is to improve quality of life, allowing people to live farther from the main city in larger homes amid open spaces, while seamless connectivity ensures daily travel is not a problem. The other options are either secondary aspects (tolling) or misrepresent the stated approach (no hurry for concrete jungle).
The 'End H-1B Visa Abuse Act of 2026' was introduced in which legislative body of the United States?
- A.The US Senate
- B.The House of Representatives✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Supreme Court
- D.The Department of Homeland Security
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Explanation
The article states the Bill was 'introduced on Wednesday (April 22) by Congressman Eli Crane'. Congressmen are members of the House of Representatives, the lower house of the US Congress.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed 'End H-1B Visa Abuse Act of 2026':
1. It proposes to replace the existing H-1B lottery system with a wage-based selection system.
2. It calls for an increase in the annual H-1B visa cap to 50,000.
3. It includes provisions to end the Optional Practical Training (OPT) program for international students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Bill proposes 'replacing the lottery with a wage-based system'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill proposes a 'reduced cap of 25,000', not an increase to 50,000. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the Bill calls for 'an end to OPT'.
What is the minimum annual salary threshold proposed under the 'End H-1B Visa Abuse Act of 2026' for H-1B visa applicants?
- A.$100,000
- B.$150,000
- C.$200,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.$250,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states the Bill proposes 'a $200,000 salary threshold' and later reiterates 'setting a minimum salary of $200,000'. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
According to immigration lawyers cited in the article, what is a primary potential consequence if the proposed H-1B restrictions are implemented?
- A.A surge in applications for O-1 'extraordinary ability' visas.
- B.US companies moving skilled work to locations like Bangalore, Toronto, or London.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A significant reduction in tuition fees for Indian students in the US.
- D.An automatic grant of green cards to all existing H-1B holders.
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Explanation
Attorney Rajiv Khanna is quoted stating that if companies cannot hire talent in the US, 'they will move work to where the talent is, whether in Bangalore, Toronto, London, or Singapore'. This is presented as a direct economic impact, while the other options are not supported by the article.
Which Canadian financial intelligence agency released the bulletin exposing extortion rackets targeting the Punjabi diaspora?
- A.Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre of Canada (FINTRAC)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP)
- C.Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA)
- D.Canadian Security Intelligence Service (CSIS)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Canada's financial intelligence agency, FINTRAC, released the special bulletin. RCMP and CBSA are law enforcement partners mentioned in the context of summits, while CSIS is not mentioned.
Consider the following statements regarding the extortion racket exposed by FINTRAC:
1. The criminal networks primarily target young Indian female students on study permits.
2. Extortion proceeds are laundered through formal channels like stock markets and real estate.
3. The Bishnoi gang, designated as a terrorist organisation in Canada, has been linked to these activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article specifies the targets are typically male international students. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions informal channels like hawala and methods like email transfers and cash deposits, not formal channels like stock markets. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the Bishnoi gang's involvement.
According to the FINTRAC bulletin, how many financial intelligence disclosures related to extortion has it issued since the start of 2026?
- A.More than 50
- B.More than 100✓ Correct Answer
- C.More than 200
- D.More than 500
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Since the start of 2026, FINTRAC has issued more than 100 financial intelligence disclosures related to extortion...'. The other options are incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective of Canada's 'follow-the-money strategy' mentioned in the context of countering extortion?
- A.To increase tax revenue from suspicious transactions
- B.To detect, disrupt, and defeat the criminal networks behind extortion✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote foreign investment in Canadian financial institutions
- D.To streamline immigration procedures for international students
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Explanation
The article quotes the Finance Minister stating the strategy aims 'to detect, disrupt and defeat the networks behind these crimes'. The other options are not mentioned as objectives of this specific strategy in the article.
The Supreme Court ruling primarily interprets provisions related to arrest powers under which legislation?
- A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
- B.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- D.The Constitution of India
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Explanation
The news article discusses the Supreme Court's interpretation of police arrest powers in private complaint cases, specifically referencing Sections 87 and 202. These sections are part of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which lays down the procedural law for administering criminal justice in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court ruling on arrest in private complaint cases:
1. Police have the authority to arrest an accused during an inquiry ordered under Section 202 of the CrPC.
2. A non-bailable warrant issued by the concerned court is mandatory for police to make an arrest in a private complaint case.
3. The Supreme Court flagged that the practice of seeking anticipatory bail in such cases is a serious problem in the states of Bihar and Jharkhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court held emphatically that police have no power to arrest even during an inquiry under Section 202 CrPC. Statement 2 is correct as per the ruling: arrest requires a specific non-bailable warrant from the court. Statement 3 is correct; the Court explicitly flagged a 'serious problem' in Bihar and Jharkhand regarding unnecessary anticipatory bail pleas.
The Supreme Court bench that delivered the ruling on police arrest powers in private complaint cases comprised which justices?
- A.Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Hima Kohli
- B.Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and S. Ravindra Bhat
- C.Justices J B Pardiwala and Ujjal Bhuyan✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justices K.M. Joseph and B.V. Nagarathna
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the bench hearing the Special Leave Petition and delivering the ruling consisted of Justices J B Pardiwala and Ujjal Bhuyan. Memorizing the composition of significant benches is a common Prelims question pattern.
What was the primary legal consequence of the Supreme Court's ruling for an accused in a private complaint case where the magistrate has issued summons?
- A.The accused must immediately seek anticipatory bail from the High Court.
- B.The accused is only required to appear before the court and participate in the proceedings.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The police are empowered to arrest the accused to ensure their appearance in court.
- D.The case automatically transforms into a police case (FIR).
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Explanation
The Supreme Court emphasized that once a magistrate takes cognisance and issues summons in a private complaint, the process is between the court and the accused. The accused's obligation is to appear before that court, not to fear arrest by police. This clarifies the procedure and reduces unnecessary legal steps like anticipatory bail.
Which constitutional article, invoked by the Supreme Court in this case, grants it the power to pass orders for 'complete justice'?
- A.Article 32
- B.Article 136
- C.Article 142✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 226
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the Constitution. This article empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any matter before it.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court hearing on West Bengal SIR case:
1. The Court invoked its powers under Article 142 to allow certain voters to participate in the elections.
2. The Court directed that all 27 lakh appeals against exclusion must be heard before the election phases begin.
3. The Court observed that when people realize the power of their vote, they are less likely to indulge in violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Court invoked Article 142. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court directed 'out-of-turn' hearings for petitioners who made out a case of grievance, not that all appeals must be heard before elections. Statement 3 is a direct quote from CJI Surya Kant's remarks in the article.
According to the news, how many appeals against exclusion from voter lists were disposed of out of the total filed in the West Bengal SIR case?
- A.139 out of 27,000
- B.139 out of 2.7 lakh
- C.139 out of 27 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.1,390 out of 27 lakh
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Explanation
The article states, 'Only 139 appeals have been disposed out of 27 lakh.' The other options are incorrect distractors with altered numbers.
What was the primary judicial remedy directed by the Supreme Court for persons who filed appeals against exclusion from voter lists?
- A.Monetary compensation for being excluded
- B.Automatic inclusion in the rolls for the next election
- C.Out-of-turn hearing by the appellate tribunals✓ Correct Answer
- D.Direct voting through postal ballots
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Explanation
The article states the top court 'directed the appellate tribunals to give out-of-turn hearings to persons who have filed appeals against exclusion.' This was the specific procedural direction given to address the grievance of pending appeals.
Who launched the indigenously manufactured Tetanus and Adult Diphtheria (Td) vaccine as mentioned in the article?
- A.Minister of Science & Technology
- B.Union Health Minister✓ Correct Answer
- C.Director General of ICMR
- D.World Health Organization Representative
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Union Health Minister Jagat Prakash Nadda recently launched the indigenously manufactured Td vaccine. This falls under the purview of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding the diphtheria outbreak mentioned in the article:
1. In 2026, Australia reported cases of both respiratory and cutaneous diphtheria.
2. The primary cause for the resurgence of diphtheria is the mutation of the Corynebacterium diphtheriae bacteria into a vaccine-resistant strain.
3. Treatment for diphtheria includes administering an antitoxin to neutralize the bacterial toxin and antibiotics to eliminate the bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions 17 cases of respiratory diphtheria and 60 cases of cutaneous diphtheria in Australia's Northern Territory. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article attributes the resurgence to gaps in vaccination coverage and waning immunity, not to a vaccine-resistant strain. Statement 3 is correct: The article states treatment involves diphtheria antitoxin and antibiotics like penicillin or erythromycin.
According to the article, how many deaths were reported due to a diphtheria outbreak in Deeg, Rajasthan in 2024?
- A.5 deaths
- B.7 deaths✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 deaths
- D.12 deaths
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Explanation
The article specifically states that a diphtheria outbreak in Rajasthan's Deeg in 2024 led to the deaths of seven children. The other options are numerical distractors not mentioned in the provided content.
What is the primary objective of launching the new indigenous Tetanus and Adult Diphtheria (Td) vaccine as per the article?
- A.To replace the childhood DTaP vaccine in the immunization schedule
- B.To improve adult immunisation coverage and reduce vulnerability to infections✓ Correct Answer
- C.To specifically target the cutaneous form of diphtheria prevalent in Australia
- D.To provide a cheaper alternative to imported vaccines for tetanus only
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Explanation
The article states the Td vaccine is "aimed at improving adult immunisation coverage and reducing vulnerability to infections like diphtheria." It is a booster for adults, not a replacement for childhood vaccines, and it targets both tetanus and diphtheria.
Which institution releases India's Balance of Payments (BoP) data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Bank
- D.International Monetary Fund
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India’s balance of payment (BoP) data showed...' The RBI is India's central bank and is responsible for compiling and publishing macroeconomic data including BoP.
Consider the following statements regarding India's Balance of Payments:
1. The Current Account includes trade in goods, services, and transfers.
2. A surplus in the Capital Account can offset a deficit in the Current Account.
3. India's forex reserves as of March 2026 cover approximately 12 months of imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Current Account includes goods (Balance of Trade) and 'Invisibles' (services, transfers, income). Statement 2 is correct: BoP = Current Account + Capital Account; a capital inflow can finance a CAD. Statement 3 is correct: Article states forex reserves 'can cover roughly over 12 months of imports'. All statements are accurate.
According to RBI data mentioned in the article, what was India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) for the period April-December 2025?
- A.$30.1 billion (1% of GDP)✓ Correct Answer
- B.$36.6 billion (1.3% of GDP)
- C.$23.9 billion (0.8% of GDP)
- D.$14.1 billion (0.5% of GDP)
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figures: 'CAD has moderated to $30.1 billion or 1% of GDP in the period of April-December 2025 from $36.6 billion (1.3 per cent of GDP) during April-December 2024.' $36.6 billion is the figure for 2024, while $23.9bn and $14.1bn are historical surplus amounts mentioned for other years.
What was the primary trigger for the 1991 Balance of Payments crisis in India, as described in the article?
- A.A sharp jump in oil prices after Iraq invaded Kuwait✓ Correct Answer
- B.Massive capital outflows due to global financial crisis
- C.A significant decline in software exports
- D.Excessive government borrowing from international markets
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Explanation
The article states: 'A sharp jump in oil prices in August 1990 had led to an acute economic crisis...' and 'Signs of the payment crisis became evident... when the Gulf war led to a sharp increase in the oil prices.' The Gulf War (Iraq-Kuwait) is the identified trigger, not the other options which are either not mentioned or are consequences.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 356
- C.Article 352
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India, the permanent constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, is established under Article 324 of the Constitution. Articles 356, 352, and 368 relate to President's Rule, National Emergency, and the power to amend the Constitution, respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding electoral violence in India as discussed in the article:
1. During the 1990 Bihar Assembly elections, there were 87 deaths and incidents of repolling occurred in 1239 cases.
2. The transition from the Left Front to Mamata Banerjee's rule in West Bengal in 2011 successfully dismantled the entrenched cadre-based political culture.
3. The Election Commission's deployment of central security forces and administrative reforms have been cited as key reasons for the improved conduct of elections in Bihar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the transition 'did little to dismantle this entrenched cadre culture'. Statement 3 is correct as improved governance and EC oversight are highlighted as reasons for Bihar's progress.
According to the article, in how many phases were the Bihar Assembly elections conducted in November 2025?
- A.One phase
- B.Two phases✓ Correct Answer
- C.Five phases
- D.Seven phases
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Explanation
The article states that elections in Bihar, which once required five to seven phases due to security concerns, were conducted in only two phases in November 2025. This highlights the improvement in the security situation and electoral management.
What is identified as a primary institutional challenge to curbing political violence in West Bengal, according to the article's analysis?
- A.Lack of sufficient central security forces
- B.Weak laws against electoral malpractice
- C.Penetration of the ruling party into grassroots administration and suspect police neutrality✓ Correct Answer
- D.Absence of fast-track courts for election-related cases
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Explanation
The article identifies that in West Bengal, 'the ruling party seems to have penetrated into grassroots administration, and the police neutrality is suspect'. This entrenched politicization of local institutions is presented as a core challenge, unlike the other options which are either not highlighted as primary or are suggested as solutions.
Under which international agreement are Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) submitted by countries?
- A.Kyoto Protocol
- B.Paris Agreement✓ Correct Answer
- C.Montreal Protocol
- D.Basel Convention
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Explanation
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) are climate action plans that each country submits under the Paris Agreement, which was adopted in 2015. The Kyoto Protocol had different mechanisms, and the other conventions deal with different environmental issues.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article on climate adaptation:
1. India is ranked as the fifth most climate-vulnerable country in the world.
2. The Belém Adaptation Indicators were a key outcome of the COP30 climate conference.
3. India's updated NDCs for 2031-2035 aim to triple adaptation finance by the year 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is ranked ninth, not fifth. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the Belém Adaptation Indicators were adopted at COP30. Statement 3 is incorrect: the goal to triple adaptation finance is by 2035, not 2030, and it is a global commitment mentioned in the context of the article, not a specific aim of India's NDCs.
According to the article, what was the estimated economic loss in dollars caused by extreme weather events in India between 1995 and 2024?
- A.$100 billion
- B.$150 billion
- C.$170 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$200 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 430 extreme weather events recorded between 1995 and 2024 caused losses of $170 billion. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary challenge highlighted in the article for achieving India's climate adaptation goals as per its updated NDCs?
- A.Lack of technological expertise for mitigation projects.
- B.Securing sustained financing and institutionalizing efforts at the grassroots level.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing dependency on international climate treaties.
- D.Shifting focus entirely from adaptation to mitigation strategies.
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Explanation
The article concludes that achieving the adaptation goals in the NDCs 'will require sustained financing and institutionalising adaptation from national to the grass-root levels.' The other options are either not mentioned or contradict the article's focus on scaling adaptation.
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established under which Act of Parliament?
- A.The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
- C.The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002
- D.The Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013
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Explanation
The NIA was created as a federal agency specifically by the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, in the aftermath of the 2008 Mumbai attacks. The UAPA is a separate law under which organizations like SIMI are banned.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2006 Malegaon blasts case:
1. The Maharashtra ATS initially invoked the provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act against the accused.
2. The Bombay High Court, in its 2026 verdict, discharged the last four accused arrested by the National Investigation Agency.
3. The Special Court in 2016 discharged nine men based on the NIA's finding that a separate set of accused was responsible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The ATS invoked the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act (MCOCA), not UAPA. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: the special court discharged nine men in 2016 after the NIA pointed to a different set of accused.
According to the article, how many people were killed and injured in the 2006 Malegaon blasts?
- A.25 killed, 150 injured
- B.31 killed, 312 injured✓ Correct Answer
- C.38 killed, 275 injured
- D.42 killed, 200 injured
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the blasts resulted in the deaths of 31 people and left 312 injured. This is a key factual data point from the case.
What was a fundamental lacuna highlighted by the Bombay High Court in the NIA's probe into the 2006 Malegaon blasts?
- A.The NIA failed to file a chargesheet within the mandated 90-day period.
- B.The NIA's case rested solely on circumstantial evidence and retracted confessional statements.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The NIA did not obtain sanction for prosecution from the Central Government.
- D.The NIA conducted the investigation without the assistance of the state police.
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Explanation
The HC observed that the prosecution's case against the NIA-booked accused rested 'solely on circumstantial evidence' and retracted confessional statements, and that the agency produced no direct witnesses. This was flagged as a fundamental flaw.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the context of the US-Iran conflict, is strategically located at the mouth of which body of water?
- A.The Red Sea
- B.The Persian Gulf✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Gulf of Aden
- D.The Arabian Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow passage connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is a vital global oil transit route, as mentioned in the article where its closure by Iran is a key leverage point.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran deadlock as per the article:
1. Iran is estimated to possess about 440 kg of uranium enriched to 60%, which can be further enriched to weapons-grade.
2. The United States has proposed that Iran halt all nuclear enrichment activities for a period of five years.
3. Pakistan has emerged as a mediator, hosting talks between US and Iranian officials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the US proposed a 20-year halt, while Iran indicated a cap of up to five years. Statement 3 is correct, as Pakistan is mentioned as a useful mediator hosting the J D Vance-Ghalibaf talks.
According to the article, what is the estimated value of Iran's frozen assets in the US, Europe, and the Gulf that it seeks relief on?
- A.$50 billion
- B.$75 billion
- C.$100 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$150 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Iran is seeking relief from sanctions and the release of its frozen assets, estimated at $100 billion, in the US, Europe, and the Gulf. This is a key data point in the economic dimension of the conflict.
What is identified as a primary reason for India's strong interest in peace and stability in the West Asia region, as per the article?
- A.To counter China's growing influence in the region
- B.To secure its position as a mediator in future conflicts
- C.Due to its significant energy imports and large expatriate population✓ Correct Answer
- D.To facilitate arms trade agreements with Gulf nations
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Explanation
The article clearly states India's interest is due to 10 million citizens living in the Gulf, 60% of its energy needs sourced from the region, and significant Gulf investments in its economy. Other options are not mentioned as primary reasons in the provided content.
As per the Indian Constitution, which body is primarily responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Parliament of India
- D.President of India
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Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body established by an Act of Parliament. Its orders have the force of law and cannot be questioned in any court, as mentioned in the Delimitation Commission Act. The Election Commission conducts elections based on these finalized constituencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:
1. The defeat of the delimitation bill is presented as a victory for the idea of a federal Indian state.
2. The consumption level of Scheduled Castes in Kerala and Tamil Nadu is lower than the national average for all social groups.
3. The proportion of women in the legislature is higher in Tamil Nadu than in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the defeat "must actually be seen as a victory for the idea of a federal state." Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the consumption level of SCs in these states is "higher than the national average." Statement 3 is incorrect; the proportion is 5% in Tamil Nadu and 9% in Kerala, making it lower in TN.
According to the article, what is the proportion of women legislators in the Kerala legislature?
- A.5%
- B.9%✓ Correct Answer
- C.14%
- D.18%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The proportion of women is 9 per cent in Kerala’s legislature." Option A (5%) is the figure for Tamil Nadu, and option C (14%) is the national average for women judges in high courts, creating close distractors.
What is the core argument the article makes about social justice in southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu?
- A.It has successfully eliminated caste-based inequalities through political programs.
- B.It has been imagined solely in terms of distributing goods, while eliding the distribution of political power, especially to women.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It focuses excessively on gender parity at the cost of economic development indicators.
- D.Its success is undermined by the central government's promotion of Hindi in these states.
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Explanation
The article's central critique is that while southern states have made progress on caste-based welfare (distribution of goods), they have failed on gender justice in political power, as evidenced by low female representation. The final sentence explicitly states: "Social justice has been imagined solely in terms of the distribution of goods, with power elided."
The news article cites data from the CAG for 11 months of 2025-26. What does CAG stand for?
- A.Comptroller and Auditor General of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.Controller of Accounts and Governance
- C.Commission for Audit and Government
- D.Chief Accountant General
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Explanation
CAG stands for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the supreme audit institution of India established under Article 148 of the Constitution. It audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments.
Consider the following statements regarding the analysis of state budgets mentioned in the article:
1. The revised estimates for 2025-26 indicated a 17% growth in combined state revenue receipts.
2. State GST collections showed a contraction of 1.2% during the 11-month period of 2025-26.
3. Central grants to states expanded by 11.5% in the 11-month period, matching the revised estimates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: revised estimates indicated 17% growth. Statement 2 is correct: State GST contracted by 1.2%. Statement 3 is incorrect; central grants contracted by 11.5%, while the revised estimates had indicated a 56% expansion.
According to the article, what is the expected range for actual state capital expenditure (capex) in FY2026?
- A.₹7.5-8.0 trillion
- B.₹8.6-8.9 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹9.5-10.0 trillion
- D.₹10.5-11.0 trillion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "For 2025-26, we expect actual capex at Rs 8.6-8.9 trillion in FY2026." The other figures are close distractors related to the budget estimate (₹10.9T) or hypothetical ranges.
What is the primary implication if state revenues fall short of their optimistic budget estimates, as feared in the article?
- A.States will automatically receive higher grants from the Centre to cover the gap.
- B.States will have to increase borrowing beyond FRBM limits to maintain spending.
- C.States will have to cut back on spending to avoid breaching their borrowing limits.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Reserve Bank of India will intervene to provide special liquidity support.
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Explanation
The article directly states: "If states’ revenues fall short of expectations, as we fear, they will have to cut back on spending to avoid breaching their borrowing limits, unless they have carried forward substantial cash balances." This is a direct application of fiscal rules.
Which statutory body is primarily responsible for adjudicating compensation claims for motor accident victims, as referenced in the news?
- A.District Civil Court
- B.Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Insurance Company
- D.State High Court
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Explanation
The Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT) is the specialized statutory body established under the Motor Vehicles Act to adjudicate such claims. The news article mentions the MACT award being challenged before the High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment:
1. The court enhanced the compensation for a deceased homemaker from ₹4.55 lakh to ₹16.92 lakh.
2. The court rejected the concept of 'notional income' for homemakers, stating their services cannot be monetized.
3. The court cited the case of National Insurance Co Ltd v. Dhan Singh to support its calculation of notional income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the compensation was enhanced from ₹4.55 lakh to ₹16.92 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly accepted and emphasized the concept of 'multifarious services' to monetize a homemaker's contribution. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court referenced the case National Insurance Co Ltd v. Dhan Singh.
According to the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment, what was the notional income per month assessed for the homemaker-cum-seamstress involved in the 2009 accident?
- A.₹5,000
- B.₹8,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹11,000
- D.₹16,000
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Explanation
The article states: 'Keeping in mind the considerations, notional income of the deceased as housewife-cum-seamstress could not be assessed less than Rs 8,000 per month against an accident which took place on 21.06.2009.' ₹5,000 was the erroneously assessed income by the tribunal, ₹11,000 was referenced from a 2017 case, and ₹16,000 was claimed by the petitioners.
What is the primary legal principle emphasized by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in enhancing the compensation?
- A.Strict requirement of documentary proof for income claims
- B.Consideration of a homemaker's 'multifarious services' for notional income✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mandatory insurance coverage for all vehicle owners
- D.Limitation of compensation to actual proven earnings only
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Explanation
The court's core reasoning, as stated in the article, was that 'the notional income of a housewife needs to be considered, keeping in mind multifarious services rendered by her for the family.' This principle led to the enhanced compensation. The other options are contrary to the judgment's findings.
The views expressed in the 'State of the Economy' article discussed in the news are attributed to which institution's researchers?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
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Explanation
The article is from the RBI's monthly bulletin and is authored by RBI researchers. The news explicitly mentions it as an 'RBI bulletin article' and 'authored by RBI researchers'.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic risks highlighted in the RBI bulletin article:
1. The conflict poses risks to domestic economy through higher energy costs and disruption in trade flows.
2. The RBI has officially revised its GDP growth projection for FY27 downwards to 6.5%.
3. A near halt in tanker movements through the Strait of Hormuz has intensified pressures on global supply chains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's warning about domestic challenges. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says RBI projected growth to decline to 6.9% (not 6.5%). Statement 3 is correct as the article specifically mentions the near halt in the Strait of Hormuz impacting supply chains.
According to the RBI projections mentioned in the article, what is the expected average headline retail inflation for the current fiscal year?
- A.4.2%
- B.4.6%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.0%
- D.5.4%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'headline retail inflation is set to average 4.6% in the current fiscal.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary channel through which the West Asia conflict, as per the RBI article, could impact the Indian economy?
- A.Direct military involvement requiring budget reallocation
- B.Disruption of critical trade routes leading to supply chain pressures✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mass migration from conflict zones straining social infrastructure
- D.Sanctions on Indian companies dealing with regional entities
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Explanation
The article emphasizes disruptions in trade flows and global supply chains, particularly via the Strait of Hormuz, leading to higher energy costs and input cost pressures. While other options are potential indirect effects, the primary channel discussed is supply chain disruption.
The International Energy Agency (IEA), which issued the warning on LNG supply, is primarily associated with which group of countries?
- A.European Union (EU) member states
- B.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
- C.Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Group of Twenty (G20)
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Explanation
The IEA was created in 1974 within the framework of the OECD to coordinate responses to major oil supply disruptions. While it works globally, its core membership consists of industrialized OECD countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA) report mentioned in the news:
1. It projects a cumulative loss of 120 billion cubic metres of LNG supply between 2026 and 2030.
2. The supply loss is estimated to be about 25% of the expected global LNG supply during that period.
3. The immediate trigger for the warning was the closure of the Strait of Malacca in March 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the loss is 15% of global supply, not 25%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the closure was of the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca.
According to the IEA report cited in the article, what was the estimated reduction in LNG production for Qatar and the UAE in March 2026 due to the Strait of Hormuz closure?
- A.5 bcm
- B.10 bcm✓ Correct Answer
- C.15 bcm
- D.20 bcm
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the closure of the Strait of Hormuz in March 2026 effectively reduced the combined LNG production of Qatar and the UAE by around 10 bcm for that month.
What is the primary significance of the IEA's warning about LNG supply losses for a country like India?
- A.It indicates a need to reduce domestic natural gas exploration.
- B.It highlights a critical risk to energy security and import costs.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It suggests a shift towards becoming a net LNG exporter.
- D.It implies that renewable energy targets are no longer necessary.
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Explanation
India is a major importer of LNG to meet its energy needs. A significant global supply shortage, as warned by the IEA, could lead to price spikes, increasing India's import bill and posing a challenge to its energy security, necessitating strategic planning.
Which institution published the 'State of the Economy' report mentioned in the news?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India
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Explanation
The 'State of the Economy' report is a periodic publication by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India's central bank, which analyses domestic and global economic developments.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's analysis mentioned in the news:
1. It warns that supply-side stress could turn into a demand shock in India.
2. The analysis is based on high-frequency indicators from February 2026.
3. The report expresses strong optimism about current business confidence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the RBI warns of the possibility of a supply shock turning into a demand shock. Statement 2 is incorrect; the indicators are from March 2026, not February. Statement 3 is incorrect; the report points towards a 'moderation in business optimism,' not strong optimism.
According to the RBI's report, high-frequency indicators for which month displayed divergent trends in economic activity?
- A.January 2026
- B.February 2026
- C.March 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'In March, available high-frequency indicators of economic activity displayed divergent trends.' The other months are not mentioned in the provided content.
What is the primary external factor identified by the RBI as causing supply-side stress in the Indian economy?
- A.The Russia-Ukraine conflict
- B.The West Asia crisis✓ Correct Answer
- C.Global semiconductor shortage
- D.Climate change-induced disruptions
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Explanation
The article directly links the supply-side stress to the 'West Asia crisis.' While other options are potential global stressors, only the West Asia crisis is mentioned in the context of this specific RBI analysis.
The European Union (EU) loan and sanctions package mentioned in the news were approved ahead of an informal summit held in which country?
- A.Belgium
- B.France
- C.Cyprus✓ Correct Answer
- D.Germany
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Explanation
The article states the approvals came ahead of an informal summit of the bloc's leaders in Cyprus, which Ukrainian President Zelenskyy attended.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The European Union approved a €90 billion loan to Ukraine on April 23, 2026.
2. The loan is expected to cover Ukraine's entire financial requirement for the next five years.
3. This was the 20th package of sanctions approved by the EU against Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article date and amount. Statement 2 is incorrect; the loan covers two-thirds of Ukraine's needs for the next two years, not the entire requirement for five years. Statement 3 is correct as it mentions the 20th sanctions package.
According to the news, what approximate US dollar value is equivalent to the €90 billion EU loan approved for Ukraine?
- A.$95 billion
- B.$100 billion
- C.$105 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$110 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the loan amount as "90-billion-euro ($105-billion)". The other options are close distractors.
What was the primary immediate financial risk the EU loan to Ukraine aimed to address, as indicated in the article?
- A.Collapse of the Ukrainian banking sector
- B.Default on existing international debt
- C.Ukraine running out of money by June 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.Hyperinflation of the Ukrainian currency
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Explanation
The article states economists warned Ukraine would start to run out of money by June if the EU loan was not disbursed, which would require deep cuts to public services. The loan directly aims to prevent this fiscal shortfall.
The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) in India is primarily implemented under the purview of which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- D.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
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Explanation
The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) is spearheaded by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) in coordination with the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution for sugar feedstock. The Ministry of Road Transport is involved in vehicle policy, but the fuel blending programme's nodal ministry is MoPNG.
Consider the following statements regarding India's Ethanol Blending Programme:
1. It was launched in the year 2003 but remained largely inactive for about a decade.
2. By the year 2014, the level of ethanol blending in petrol had reached approximately 10%.
3. The programme aims to enhance India's energy security and reduce import dependence on crude oil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the EBP was launched in 2003 and was dormant initially. Statement 2 is incorrect because blending was only around 2% in 2014, not 10%. Statement 3 is correct as reducing crude oil imports and enhancing energy security are core objectives of the programme. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, how much more energy does one litre of petrol provide compared to one litre of ethanol?
- A.20-30% more
- B.45-55% more✓ Correct Answer
- C.10-15% more
- D.70-80% more
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that one litre of petrol supplies 45-55% more energy than one litre of ethanol because ethanol is less energy-dense. This is a key technical fact with implications for vehicle efficiency and fuel economics.
What is a significant new application for ethanol, as highlighted by a recent government notification mentioned in the article?
- A.Production of biodiesel for ships
- B.Generation of electricity in thermal plants
- C.Manufacture of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Use as a cooking fuel in rural households
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Explanation
The article notes that a government notification extended the use of ethanol to make Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). This diversifies ethanol's role beyond blending with petrol and aligns with efforts to decarbonise the aviation sector.
As per the Indian Constitution, subjects related to 'Hospitals and Dispensaries' are included in which list of the Seventh Schedule?
- A.Union List
- B.State List
- C.Concurrent List✓ Correct Answer
- D.Residuary Powers
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Explanation
Entry 6 of the Concurrent List (List III) covers 'Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries'. This constitutional provision is the basis for the coordinated action between the Union and State governments directed by the Supreme Court in the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's directions on ICU standards:
1. The directions were issued by a bench comprising Justices Ahsanuddin Amanullah and R Mahadevan.
2. States have been asked to submit their final implementation reports directly to the Supreme Court within one week.
3. The court has directed the Union Health Ministry to issue the finalized 'Guidelines for Organization and Delivery of Intensive Care Services' as an advisory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court set a 3-week deadline for the entire exercise (from consultations to roadmap), not for submitting final reports directly to the SC within a week. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Court asked the Union Health Ministry to formally issue the guidelines as an advisory.
Within what timeframe has the Supreme Court directed the states and UTs to complete the entire exercise for preparing an ICU standards implementation roadmap?
- A.Within 1 week
- B.Within 2 weeks
- C.Within 3 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- D.Within 1 month
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court directed that 'the entire exercise, from consultations to preparation of a concrete implementation roadmap, must be completed within a strict three-week timeline.' The first meeting must be held within one week, but the complete roadmap deadline is three weeks.
What was a key practical suggestion from medical experts, as recorded by the Supreme Court, to be incorporated into the ICU framework?
- A.Privatization of all ICU facilities
- B.Creating a GPS-based hospital locator for emergencies✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mandating health insurance for all ICU patients
- D.Reducing the number of ICU beds to improve quality
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Explanation
The article mentions that practical suggestions from experts included 'creating a GPS-based hospital locator to help patients identify nearby facilities in emergencies.' The other options are not mentioned in the provided article content.
The 'State of the Economy' article discussed in the news is published by which institution?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'State of the Economy' article is published in the RBI monthly bulletin and is authored by RBI researchers. The RBI regularly publishes bulletins containing economic analysis.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic risks highlighted in the RBI article:
1. A prolonged West Asia conflict could pose risks through higher energy costs and disrupted trade flows.
2. The article represents the official monetary policy stance of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The temporary ceasefire mentioned was between Israel and Hamas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core warning. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bulletin clearly states the views are of the authors and do not represent the views of the RBI. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions a temporary two-week ceasefire between the US and Iran, not Israel and Hamas.
According to the RBI article, what was the GDP growth rate projected for India for the financial year 2026-27 (FY27)?
- A.6.5%
- B.6.9%✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.2%
- D.7.6%
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Explanation
The article states: "The RBI earlier this month projected that India’s GDP growth will decline to 6.9% in FY27 from 7.6% in FY26." The other options are distractors: 7.6% is the growth for FY26, while 6.5% and 7.2% are not mentioned.
What is a primary channel through which the West Asia conflict, as per the RBI article, could impact India's domestic inflation?
- A.Through a decrease in foreign direct investment
- B.Through higher energy costs leading to increased input prices✓ Correct Answer
- C.Through a sharp appreciation of the Indian Rupee
- D.Through increased government spending on defense
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Explanation
The article directly links the conflict to risks of 'higher energy costs, rising input prices' which are classic supply-side drivers of inflation. While other options might be secondary effects, the primary and direct transmission channel identified is the cost-push inflation from elevated energy prices.
Related Current Affairs Resources
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 24 April 2026?▼
This page contains 120 current affairs questions from 24 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 24 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the internal reser…
- Q27. According to the news, what is the reservation percentage appr…
- Q28. was the primary immediate governance objective behind the Karn…
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- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the BRICS meeting …
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- Q32. was the primary reason cited for the inability to forge a cons…
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- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the extortion rack…
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- Q53. constitutional article, invoked by the Supreme Court in this c…
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- Q56. was the primary judicial remedy directed by the Supreme Court …
- Q57. launched the indigenously manufactured Tetanus and Adult Dipht…
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- Q60. is the primary objective of launching the new indigenous Tetan…
- Q61. institution releases India's Balance of Payments (BoP) data?
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- Q64. was the primary trigger for the 1991 Balance of Payments crisi…
- Q65. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election…
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- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news article o…
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- Q76. was a fundamental lacuna highlighted by the Bombay High Court …
- Q77. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the c…
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- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the economic risks…
- Q95. According to the RBI projections mentioned in the article, wha…
- Q96. is a primary channel through which the West Asia conflict, as …
- Q97. The International Energy Agency (IEA), which issued the warnin…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the International …
- Q99. According to the IEA report cited in the article, what was the…
- Q100. is the primary significance of the IEA's warning about LNG sup…
- Q101. institution published the 'State of the Economy' report mentio…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's analysis…
- Q103. According to the RBI's report, high-frequency indicators for w…
- Q104. is the primary external factor identified by the RBI as causin…
- Q105. The European Union (EU) loan and sanctions package mentioned i…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q107. According to the news, what approximate US dollar value is equ…
- Q108. was the primary immediate financial risk the EU loan to Ukrain…
- Q109. The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) in India is primarily imp…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding India's Ethanol Bl…
- Q111. According to the article, how much more energy does one litre …
- Q112. is a significant new application for ethanol, as highlighted b…
- Q113. As per the Indian Constitution, subjects related to 'Hospitals…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q115. Within what timeframe has the Supreme Court directed the state…
- Q116. was a key practical suggestion from medical experts, as record…
- Q117. The 'State of the Economy' article discussed in the news is pu…
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- Q119. According to the RBI article, what was the GDP growth rate pro…
- Q120. is a primary channel through which the West Asia conflict, as …