22 April 2026, Questions & Answers

112 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

112 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  23 min revision

Start Interactive Quiz →

This page contains 112 current affairs questions with answers from 22 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

Use this page for:

  • Daily revision
  • Prelims preparation
  • Quick self-assessment
  • Mains answer enrichment

Want to test yourself first? Try the interactive quiz before checking answers.

Take the 22 April 2026 Quiz →

22 April 2026, Questions with Answers

112 Qs
Q1.

Which judicial body initially adjudicated the motor accident claim in this case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court
  • B.Rajasthan High Court
  • C.Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.District Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT) initially awarded Rs 8.73 lakh. MACTs are specialized tribunals under the Motor Vehicles Act for handling accident compensation claims.

Source: Supreme Court Enhances Accident Compensation by 463%, Sets Formula for Prosthetic Limb Costs Under MACT →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment:

1. The Court enhanced the compensation by 463.8%, raising it from Rs 8.73 lakh to Rs 49.22 lakh.

2. The Court accepted the government-notified rates for prosthetic limbs as the basis for calculating compensation.

3. The Court assumed a life expectancy of 70 years and a prosthetic limb's usable life of 5 years for its calculation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court refused to accept unrealistically low government-notified rates. Statement 3 is correct; the Court used these assumptions to create a structured formula. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Supreme Court Enhances Accident Compensation by 463%, Sets Formula for Prosthetic Limb Costs Under MACT →
Q3.

According to the Supreme Court's formula, what is the cost allocated per prosthetic limb?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 1 lakh
  • B.Rs 2 lakh
  • C.Rs 3 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rs 5 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court awarded Rs 3 lakh per prosthetic limb. Rs 5 lakh was allocated separately for long-term maintenance, not per limb.

Source: Supreme Court Enhances Accident Compensation by 463%, Sets Formula for Prosthetic Limb Costs Under MACT →
Q4.

What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's mandate for claimants to submit quotes from multiple prosthetic providers?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall compensation amount awarded by tribunals.
  • B.To introduce predictability and informed decision-making in compensation awards.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To delay the compensation process by adding procedural complexity.
  • D.To allow insurers to choose the cheapest available prosthetic option.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court stated this mandate was to fix the recurring problem of lack of reliable cost data, so tribunals can make informed decisions instead of rough estimates. This aims to standardize and rationalize the compensation process.

Source: Supreme Court Enhances Accident Compensation by 463%, Sets Formula for Prosthetic Limb Costs Under MACT →
Q5.

Which constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders for doing 'complete justice', as used in the highway safety case?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 136
  • C.Article 142✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 226
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 142 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court the unique power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it. The article explicitly mentions this was the power invoked by the Court in this suo motu case.

Source: SC Issues 13-Point Road Safety Directive Under Article 142, Mandates 60-Day Compliance for NHAI & States →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on road safety:

1. The Court held that the 'Right to Life' under Article 21 includes a positive mandate for the State to ensure road safety.

2. The order directed the construction of truck lay-bye facilities at intervals of every 50 km on all National Highways.

3. The Court mandated the use of Advanced Traffic Management System (ATMS) to track illegally parked vehicles and integrate it with e-Challan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment expanded Article 21 to include a safe road environment. Statement 2 is incorrect; the mandated interval for truck lay-bys is every 75 km, not 50 km. Statement 3 is correct as the Court specifically directed the use of ATMS for tracking and e-Challan integration.

Source: SC Issues 13-Point Road Safety Directive Under Article 142, Mandates 60-Day Compliance for NHAI & States →
Q7.

According to the article, what is the approximate share of National Highways in India's total road length and their contribution to road fatalities?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2% of road length, 10% of fatalities
  • B.2% of road length, 30% of fatalities✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5% of road length, 20% of fatalities
  • D.5% of road length, 40% of fatalities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'National Highways constitute approximately 2% of India’s total road length but account for nearly 30% of all road fatalities.' This stark statistic highlights the disproportionate danger on high-speed corridors.

Source: SC Issues 13-Point Road Safety Directive Under Article 142, Mandates 60-Day Compliance for NHAI & States →
Q8.

What was the primary judicial mechanism used by the Supreme Court to initiate the highway safety case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Public Interest Litigation (PIL) filed by an NGO
  • B.Writ Petition under Article 32
  • C.Appeal against a High Court order
  • D.Suo Motu Cognizance✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court took 'suo motu cognisance' of the issue following the two major accidents in November 2025. This means the Court initiated the case on its own motion, without a formal petition being filed by any aggrieved party, based on the gravity of the incidents reported.

Source: SC Issues 13-Point Road Safety Directive Under Article 142, Mandates 60-Day Compliance for NHAI & States →
Q9.

Which constitutional article empowers the state to make laws for social welfare and reform relating to religious practices?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 25(2)(b)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 29
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 25 of the Constitution deals with the freedom of religion. Specifically, clause (2)(b) provides that the State can make laws for 'social welfare and reform'. This is the provision under discussion in the Sabarimala hearing regarding state intervention.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Declines to Set General Rule on State Intervention Under Article 25(2)(b) for Religious Social Reforms →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court hearing:

1. The Court is hearing arguments on a blanket rule for state intervention in religious affairs under Article 25.

2. The Court stated it is easy to declare what constitutes an 'essential religious practice' for any group.

3. The hearing also involves a connected petition concerning the Dawoodi Bohra community's practice of excommunication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article discusses the Court's hearing on whether a general rule can be set for state intervention under Article 25(2)(b). Statement 2 is incorrect because the CJI explicitly said it was 'difficult if not impossible' for courts to decide what is an essential religious practice. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the apex court is also seized of a writ petition against excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Declines to Set General Rule on State Intervention Under Article 25(2)(b) for Religious Social Reforms →
Q11.

How many judges constitute the Supreme Court bench hearing the Sabarimala reference case, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Five-Judge Bench
  • B.Seven-Judge Bench
  • C.Nine-Judge Bench✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Eleven-Judge Bench
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Chief Justice Surya Kant is presiding over a 'nine-judge bench' for the Sabarimala reference hearing. This is a key factual detail about the composition of the constitutional bench.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Declines to Set General Rule on State Intervention Under Article 25(2)(b) for Religious Social Reforms →
Q12.

What was the primary reason given by the Supreme Court for declining to lay down future guidelines on state intervention in religious affairs?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Lack of jurisdiction over religious matters.
  • B.The issue is pending before a Parliamentary committee.
  • C.The extent of legitimate intervention depends on the facts of each case.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The relevant constitutional articles are under review for amendment.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the CJI saying 'it will always depend upon case to case' whether state intervention falls under Article 25(2)(b) or infringes on religious practice. The Court emphasized a fact-specific approach over a universal rule, which is the core of its current stance.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Declines to Set General Rule on State Intervention Under Article 25(2)(b) for Religious Social Reforms →
Q13.

According to the article, which alternative fuel is proposed as a key solution to India's energy crisis?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG)
  • B.Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
  • C.Compressed Biogas (CBG)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Green Hydrogen
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that "A push towards Compressed Biogas (CBG) will ensure energy security, environmental sustainability, and rural economic growth." This is the primary alternative fuel solution discussed.

Source: India's Energy Crisis: Crude Oil Import Dependence at 88.6%, LNG Imports 28-29 MMT, Demand to Triple by 2047 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding India's energy scenario as per the article:

1. India's domestic gas production currently meets barely half of its total requirement.

2. The country's energy demand is expected to triple by the year 2047.

3. The crude oil import dependence has decreased to below 80% as of 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions "domestic gas production meets barely half of the requirement." Statement 2 is correct as it states "energy demand is expected to triple by 2047." Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says crude oil import dependence has reached a "staggering 88.6%," not decreased below 80%.

Source: India's Energy Crisis: Crude Oil Import Dependence at 88.6%, LNG Imports 28-29 MMT, Demand to Triple by 2047 →
Q15.

As per the article, what is India's projected import volume of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) for the year 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.25-26 MMT
  • B.26-27 MMT
  • C.28-29 MMT✓ Correct Answer
  • D.30-31 MMT
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: "LNG imports are projected to hit 28 million metric tonnes (MMT)-29 MMT this year." The other options are close distractors.

Source: India's Energy Crisis: Crude Oil Import Dependence at 88.6%, LNG Imports 28-29 MMT, Demand to Triple by 2047 →
Q16.

What is the primary strategic risk identified by the article stemming from India's current energy import dependence?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increased competition for renewable energy investments
  • B.A threat to sustaining high economic growth and becoming a global manufacturing hub✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Difficulty in meeting international climate change commitments
  • D.Reduced fiscal space for social welfare schemes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links energy insecurity to a strategic risk for India's economic ambitions, stating: "For a country aiming to sustain high economic growth and emerge as a global manufacturing hub, energy insecurity is not just an inconvenience; it is a strategic risk." While other options may be indirect consequences, this is the core risk highlighted.

Source: India's Energy Crisis: Crude Oil Import Dependence at 88.6%, LNG Imports 28-29 MMT, Demand to Triple by 2047 →
Q17.

The news mentions a budget request by the 'Pentagon'. What is the Pentagon?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The official residence of the U.S. President
  • B.The headquarters of the United States Department of Defense✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The U.S. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) headquarters
  • D.The building housing the U.S. Congress
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Pentagon is the headquarters building of the United States Department of Defense. It is located in Arlington, Virginia, and its name is often used as a metonym for the Department of Defense and its leadership.

Source: Pentagon's FY27 Budget Seeks $74 Billion for Drones, $30 Billion for Munitions Amid Iran War →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. military's FY27 budget request as per the news:

1. It proposes to triple spending on drones and related technology.

2. The requested investment for critical munitions, including missile interceptors, is over $40 billion.

3. The push for increased spending is partly due to critically low stockpiles experienced during the Iran war.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Pentagon wants to triple spending on drones. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposed investment for munitions is over $30 billion, not $40 billion. Statement 3 is correct as low stockpiles during the Iran war are cited as a key reason for the budget boost.

Source: Pentagon's FY27 Budget Seeks $74 Billion for Drones, $30 Billion for Munitions Amid Iran War →
Q19.

According to the news, what is the proposed allocation for 'critical munitions, including missile interceptors' in the U.S. FY27 defence budget request?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Over $20 billion
  • B.Over $30 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over $40 billion
  • D.Over $50 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Pentagon wants to "invest over $30 billion into more critical munitions, including missile interceptors." The other options are close but incorrect numerical distractors.

Source: Pentagon's FY27 Budget Seeks $74 Billion for Drones, $30 Billion for Munitions Amid Iran War →
Q20.

What is a primary strategic implication of the U.S. military's focus on significantly boosting drone spending, as indicated in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A shift towards more manpower-intensive infantry operations.
  • B.A reduction in the overall defence budget to fund social programs.
  • C.A pivot towards unmanned systems and asymmetric warfare capabilities.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.An exclusive focus on naval power projection in the Pacific region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The decision to triple drone spending signals a strategic pivot towards warfare dominated by unmanned aerial systems (UAS). Drones represent a key tool in asymmetric warfare, offering persistent surveillance and strike options with reduced risk to personnel, a trend evident in recent conflicts.

Source: Pentagon's FY27 Budget Seeks $74 Billion for Drones, $30 Billion for Munitions Amid Iran War →
Q21.

Which regulatory body is empowered by the Insurance Amendment Bill, 2025 for greater operational flexibility in the insurance sector?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Insurance Amendment Bill, 2025 seeks to enhance regulatory agility by empowering IRDAI with greater operational flexibility. IRDAI is the statutory regulator for the insurance sector in India.

Source: Insurance Amendment Bill 2025 Introduces Managing General Agents (MGAs) to Boost Penetration in Tier 2/3 Cities →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Insurance Amendment Bill, 2025:

1. It introduces Managing General Agents (MGAs) as a new category of insurance intermediary.

2. The bill aims to enhance the regulatory powers of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) over the insurance sector.

3. The MGA model is established in several developed insurance markets in Europe and Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bill empowers IRDAI, not RBI. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the MGA model is well established in developed markets in Europe and Asia.

Source: Insurance Amendment Bill 2025 Introduces Managing General Agents (MGAs) to Boost Penetration in Tier 2/3 Cities →
Q23.

What is the popular name associated with the Insurance Amendment Bill, 2025 as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas Act
  • B.Sabka Bima, Sabki Raksha Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bharat Bima Suraksha Act
  • D.Pradhan Mantri Bima Yojana Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically refers to the Insurance Amendment Bill, 2025 with the tagline 'Sabka Bima, Sabki Raksha Act'. This is a factual detail from the news content.

Source: Insurance Amendment Bill 2025 Introduces Managing General Agents (MGAs) to Boost Penetration in Tier 2/3 Cities →
Q24.

What is a key expected benefit of introducing Managing General Agents (MGAs) in the Indian insurance sector, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To centralize all insurance underwriting with the national regulator.
  • B.To expand insurance outreach in Tier 2 and 3 cities and rural markets.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace all existing insurance agents and brokers.
  • D.To reduce the capital requirements for life insurance companies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that MGAs can leverage localised language capabilities and community-level engagement to expand outreach in Tier 2 and 3 cities and rural markets where insurance adoption remains limited. This is their primary intended benefit.

Source: Insurance Amendment Bill 2025 Introduces Managing General Agents (MGAs) to Boost Penetration in Tier 2/3 Cities →
Q25.

Which government department did the Supreme Court direct to intervene for the child's welfare in the case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Department of Women and Child Development✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Department of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically directed the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of NCT of Delhi, to assess the child's condition regarding education, nutrition, health, and living standards. This department is responsible for child protection and welfare schemes.

Source: SC: DNA Test Disproving Paternity Overrides Section 112 of Evidence Act, 1872; Directs Delhi Child Welfare Intervention →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on DNA tests and maintenance:

1. The Court held that Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, creates an irrebuttable presumption of legitimacy.

2. The ruling stated that a DNA test disproving paternity, if accepted by both parties, absolves the man from paying child maintenance.

3. The Court directed the concerned state child welfare department to ensure the child's well-being even while denying maintenance from the man.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court held that the presumption under Section 112 is rebuttable by conclusive scientific evidence like a DNA test. Statement 2 is correct as per the core ruling. Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed the Department of Women and Child Development to intervene for the child's welfare.

Source: SC: DNA Test Disproving Paternity Overrides Section 112 of Evidence Act, 1872; Directs Delhi Child Welfare Intervention →
Q27.

According to the article, what was the amount of monthly interim maintenance sought by the woman for the child and herself?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 15,000
  • B.Rs 20,000
  • C.Rs 25,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rs 30,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the woman sought a monthly sum of Rs 25,000 as interim maintenance for the upkeep of their child and herself. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: SC: DNA Test Disproving Paternity Overrides Section 112 of Evidence Act, 1872; Directs Delhi Child Welfare Intervention →
Q28.

What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's ruling in this case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It makes DNA tests mandatory in all matrimonial disputes.
  • B.It establishes that scientific proof can override a statutory legal presumption.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It abolishes the requirement of maintenance for children born out of wedlock.
  • D.It transfers all child welfare cases to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core legal principle established is that when a DNA test (scientific proof) accepted by both parties conclusively disproves paternity, it overrides the legal presumption of legitimacy under Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act. The Court did not mandate DNA tests in all cases, nor did it change rules for children born out of wedlock or transfer jurisdiction.

Source: SC: DNA Test Disproving Paternity Overrides Section 112 of Evidence Act, 1872; Directs Delhi Child Welfare Intervention →
Q29.

Which state government constituted the Expert Group that developed the Composite Backwardness Index (CBI) mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Government of Andhra Pradesh
  • B.Government of Telangana✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Government of Karnataka
  • D.Government of Tamil Nadu
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an independent expert committee was constituted by the Government of Telangana, which developed the Composite Backwardness Index (CBI).

Source: Telangana Caste Survey Introduces Composite Backwardness Index (CBI) Using 42 Parameters to Measure Relative Deprivation →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana Caste Survey and Composite Backwardness Index (CBI):

1. The CBI uses 42 parameters to measure backwardness, compared to the 11 parameters used by the Mandal Commission.

2. The survey found that Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) are 2.7 times more backward than the General Castes.

3. The biggest determinant of backwardness identified by the CBI is access to English and private education, not land ownership.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the CBI uses 42 parameters versus the Mandal Commission's 11. Statement 2 is incorrect; SCs and STs are three times (not 2.7 times) more backward, while BCs are 2.7 times more backward. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies access to English and private education as the biggest determinant.

Source: Telangana Caste Survey Introduces Composite Backwardness Index (CBI) Using 42 Parameters to Measure Relative Deprivation →
Q31.

According to the Telangana Caste Survey report, what percentage of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population was found to be more backward than the state average?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.71%
  • B.97%
  • C.99%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.85%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that in terms of population, 99% of STs are more backward than the state average. The other percentages correspond to other groups: 97% for SCs and 71% for BCs.

Source: Telangana Caste Survey Introduces Composite Backwardness Index (CBI) Using 42 Parameters to Measure Relative Deprivation →
Q32.

What is the primary policy implication advocated by the Telangana Caste Survey report based on the Composite Backwardness Index (CBI)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Abolishing all caste-based reservations and moving to purely economic criteria.
  • B.Increasing the overall reservation quota for Backward Classes to 50%.
  • C.Shifting social justice resource allocation to be proportional to measured backwardness, not just population size.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Merging all backward caste groups into a single category for simplified administration.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that the CBI framework supports moving to a social justice paradigm of 'share proportional to backwardness'. It uses the analogy of moving from a 'social justice well' (resources for all alike) to a 'social justice tap' (targeted delivery), implying a shift from population-based to backwardness-proportional allocation.

Source: Telangana Caste Survey Introduces Composite Backwardness Index (CBI) Using 42 Parameters to Measure Relative Deprivation →
Q33.

The author of the article is identified as the former finance minister of which state/union territory?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.State of Punjab
  • B.Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir✓ Correct Answer
  • C.State of Himachal Pradesh
  • D.Union Territory of Ladakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's byline explicitly states 'The writer is former finance minister, Jammu and Kashmir'. This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content.

Source: Pahalgam Terror Attack (2025) Claims 26 Lives, Operation Sindoor Marks India's Counterterrorism Policy Shift →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pahalgam terror attack and its aftermath:

1. The attack resulted in 26 fatalities, with a majority of the victims being tourists.

2. Operation Sindoor was a counter-terrorism operation that eliminated the perpetrators and marked a shift in India's policy to require definitive proof of Pakistani state complicity before retaliation.

3. The economic impact included a drastic reduction in visitors to the annual Tulip Festival in Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Operation Sindoor marked a shift allowing retaliation WITHOUT the need to definitively establish Pakistan's direct state complicity. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Tulip Festival footfall dropped sharply. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Pahalgam Terror Attack (2025) Claims 26 Lives, Operation Sindoor Marks India's Counterterrorism Policy Shift →
Q35.

According to the article, what was the approximate drop in visitor footfall for the Tulip Festival in Kashmir following the Pahalgam attack?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.From 10 lakh to 5 lakh
  • B.From over 8 lakh to about one-third of peak✓ Correct Answer
  • C.From 5 lakh to 1 lakh
  • D.It remained largely unaffected
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Even the Tulip Festival saw footfalls drop sharply this year, from over eight lakh visitors to barely a third of its peak.' This is the exact data point provided.

Source: Pahalgam Terror Attack (2025) Claims 26 Lives, Operation Sindoor Marks India's Counterterrorism Policy Shift →
Q36.

What is described as a significant 'doctrinal shift' in India's counterterrorism policy following the Pahalgam attack?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A move towards greater international diplomatic pressure on Pakistan
  • B.A policy of calibrated conventional retaliation without needing definitive proof of Pakistani state complicity✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A shift to relying solely on intelligence-based pre-emptive strikes
  • D.The outsourcing of counter-terror operations to international agencies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Operation Sindoor 'marked a significant doctrinal shift...: Major attacks on Indian soil would now trigger calibrated conventional retaliation without the need to definitively establish Pakistan’s direct state complicity.' This is the core policy shift described.

Source: Pahalgam Terror Attack (2025) Claims 26 Lives, Operation Sindoor Marks India's Counterterrorism Policy Shift →
Q37.

Which statutory body, mentioned in the article, mandates that tiger reserves ensure locals have a stake in forests and tourism?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.National Biodiversity Authority
  • B.National Tiger Conservation Authority✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Zoo Authority
  • D.Forest Survey of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'All tiger reserves are mandated to do that by the NTCA'. NTCA stands for the National Tiger Conservation Authority, a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Source: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve Model: 1.25 Lakh Buffer Zone Population, ₹40 Cr Ticket Revenue, 100 Tigers With 10 Annual Human Deaths →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) model:

1. The core zone of TATR has reported zero human deaths from conflict due to voluntary village relocation.

2. A significant portion of the annual tourism revenue is retained centrally by the state government for infrastructure projects.

3. Local employment generation includes at least 400 villagers employed as safari guides.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says 'There have been no reported conflict deaths in the core zone... from where entire villages have been voluntarily relocated'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states revenue is 'redistributed locally'. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions '400 locals as safari guides'. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve Model: 1.25 Lakh Buffer Zone Population, ₹40 Cr Ticket Revenue, 100 Tigers With 10 Annual Human Deaths →
Q39.

According to the article, approximately what is the annual revenue generated from tourism tickets in the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.₹20 crore
  • B.₹30 crore
  • C.₹40 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹50 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'A significant proportion of the ticket revenues of Rs 40 crore a year is redistributed locally'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve Model: 1.25 Lakh Buffer Zone Population, ₹40 Cr Ticket Revenue, 100 Tigers With 10 Annual Human Deaths →
Q40.

What is identified as a primary reason for the 'unusual stability' in the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve despite human-tiger conflict?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Strict ban on all human activity in the buffer zone
  • B.Heavy reliance on central government grants for compensation
  • C.Ensuring locals have a solid stake in forests and tourism through revenue sharing and employment✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Complete elimination of cattle grazing in surrounding villages
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article credits the stability to the Forest Department's efforts to ensure 'locals have a solid stake in forests and tourism', achieved through decentralised revenue use, direct employment (like 400 guides), and support for forest produce. This creates a community incentive for conservation.

Source: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve Model: 1.25 Lakh Buffer Zone Population, ₹40 Cr Ticket Revenue, 100 Tigers With 10 Annual Human Deaths →
Q41.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint mentioned in the news, is located between which two countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iran and Saudi Arabia
  • B.Iran and Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Iraq and Kuwait
  • D.UAE and Qatar
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is bounded by Iran to the north and the Musandam Peninsula of Oman to the south.

Source: Iran's IRGC Strikes Container Ship in Strait of Hormuz Amid U.S. Ceasefire Extension on 22 April 2026 →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Iran's regular Navy was responsible for the attack on the container ship.

2. The attack caused significant environmental damage in the Strait of Hormuz.

3. The incident occurred on the same day a U.S.-Iran ceasefire was originally set to expire.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the attack was carried out by Iran's paramilitary Revolutionary Guard (IRGC), not the regular Navy. Statement 2 is incorrect as the UKMTO reported 'no environmental impact'. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the attack happened on 22 April 2026, the day the ceasefire was due to expire before the U.S. extended it.

Source: Iran's IRGC Strikes Container Ship in Strait of Hormuz Amid U.S. Ceasefire Extension on 22 April 2026 →
Q43.

According to the news article, on which date did Iran's Revolutionary Guard attack the container ship in the Strait of Hormuz?

EasySSC, Banking
  • A.20 April 2026
  • B.21 April 2026
  • C.22 April 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.23 April 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the attack occurred on 'Wednesday (April 22, 2026)'. The U.S. ceasefire extension was also announced for the same date.

Source: Iran's IRGC Strikes Container Ship in Strait of Hormuz Amid U.S. Ceasefire Extension on 22 April 2026 →
Q44.

What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted by the incident in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It is a major route for international tourist cruises.
  • B.It is the sole naval base for the U.S. Fifth Fleet.
  • C.It is a critical global chokepoint for seaborne oil trade.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It is the site of a major undersea telecommunications cable network.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz's primary geopolitical and economic importance stems from its role as the world's most important oil transit chokepoint. A significant portion of globally traded oil passes through it, making stability there vital for global energy security, which is why attacks there escalate tensions.

Source: Iran's IRGC Strikes Container Ship in Strait of Hormuz Amid U.S. Ceasefire Extension on 22 April 2026 →
Q45.

The principle of 'Nemo Judex In Causa Sua' is one of the two anchors of which fundamental legal concept?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Due Process of Law
  • B.Natural Justice✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rule of Law
  • D.Procedural Fairness
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Natural Justice rests on two anchors: 1) Nemo Judex In Causa Sua and 2) Audi Alteram Partem. This is a core static Polity concept frequently tested.

Source: Delhi HC Justice Swarna Kanta Sharma Refuses Recusal in Excise Case, Citing 'Restatement of Values in Judicial Life' 1999 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding judicial recusal in India:

1. The Constitution of India provides detailed procedures governing the recusal of judges.

2. The decision to recuse generally comes from the judge herself, resting on her conscience and discretion.

3. The 'Restatement of Values in Judicial Life' (1999) is a statutory code that mandates recusal in cases of conflict of interest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as there are no formal rules or constitutional provisions for recusal. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 1999 Restatement is a code of ethics, not a statutory mandate.

Source: Delhi HC Justice Swarna Kanta Sharma Refuses Recusal in Excise Case, Citing 'Restatement of Values in Judicial Life' 1999 →
Q47.

According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), which courts are empowered to grant anticipatory bail?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Magistrate Court and Sessions Court
  • B.Sessions Court and High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.High Court and Supreme Court
  • D.Magistrate Court and High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that BNSS Section 482 (earlier CrPC 438) empowers only the Sessions Court and High Court to grant anticipatory bail. This is a precise data point from the news.

Source: Delhi HC Justice Swarna Kanta Sharma Refuses Recusal in Excise Case, Citing 'Restatement of Values in Judicial Life' 1999 →
Q48.

What is the primary rationale behind the practice of judicial recusal?

MediumUPSC, Judiciary
  • A.To reduce the pendency of cases by redistributing workload.
  • B.To uphold the cardinal principle that nobody can be a judge in their own case and prevent perceptions of bias.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To allow judges to specialize in specific areas of law.
  • D.To implement the directives of the executive branch in sensitive cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of recusal, as explained in the article, is to ensure due process and fairness by preventing any conflict of interest or bias, real or perceived, aligning with the principle 'Nemo Judex In Causa Sua'.

Source: Delhi HC Justice Swarna Kanta Sharma Refuses Recusal in Excise Case, Citing 'Restatement of Values in Judicial Life' 1999 →
Q49.

Which central armed police force, mentioned in the article, works in coordination with the Army for security in vulnerable areas of Kashmir?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Border Security Force (BSF)
  • B.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
  • D.Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions putting in additional 'CRPF detachments' closer to vulnerable areas as part of the enhanced security measures. The CRPF is a central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs, extensively deployed for internal security duties in J&K.

Source: Army Revamps Kashmir Security Post-Pahalgam: 49 Spots Closed, Enhanced Drone Surveillance, and Counter-Drone Systems Deployed →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the security changes implemented after the Pahalgam attack:

1. A security audit led to the closure of 49 out of 87 tourist spots across Kashmir.

2. Temporary Operating Bases (TOBs) allow troops to operate for a fixed period of 48-72 hours.

3. The strategy includes procurement of counter-drone systems, a key lesson from Operation Sindoor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; TOBs allow operations for 72-96 hours, not 48-72 hours. Statement 3 is correct as the article states procurement of counter-drone systems is a key lesson drawn from Operation Sindoor. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Army Revamps Kashmir Security Post-Pahalgam: 49 Spots Closed, Enhanced Drone Surveillance, and Counter-Drone Systems Deployed →
Q51.

According to the article, for how many hours can troops operate from the Temporary Operating Bases (TOBs) established as part of the new security strategy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24-48 hours
  • B.48-72 hours
  • C.72-96 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • D.96-120 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that Temporary Operating Bases are set up where troops can operate for a fixed period of '72-96 hours'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors based on common military operation timeframes.

Source: Army Revamps Kashmir Security Post-Pahalgam: 49 Spots Closed, Enhanced Drone Surveillance, and Counter-Drone Systems Deployed →
Q52.

What is a primary objective of the 'Seek and Destroy' missions mentioned in the revised Army strategy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To conduct diplomatic outreach in border villages
  • B.To dominate areas by finding and eliminating terrorist hideouts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide humanitarian aid in remote higher reaches
  • D.To train local police in advanced weaponry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, 'Seek and Destroy' missions involve troops combing through areas, seeking encounters with terrorists, and searching for and destroying their hideouts. The objective is to deny terrorists suitable places to hide, thereby dominating the area and forcing them into the open.

Source: Army Revamps Kashmir Security Post-Pahalgam: 49 Spots Closed, Enhanced Drone Surveillance, and Counter-Drone Systems Deployed →
Q53.

The Central pool for food grains, mentioned in the news, is primarily maintained for distribution under which Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
  • B.The National Food Security Act, 2013✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  • D.The Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the Central pool is maintained by the government to distribute food grain under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013. The NFSA is the legal framework for India's food security programs.

Source: Wheat Procurement Dips 16% to 114.29 LMT; MP, UP Lag, Raises National Food Security Act Concerns →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding wheat procurement as per the news:

1. The overall wheat procurement in the country as of April 20, 2026, is about 38% of the current year's target.

2. Madhya Pradesh's procurement this year is lower than last year, but it is still the highest contributor to the Central pool.

3. The buffer stock norm for wheat that must be maintained as of July 1 every year is 275 Lakh Metric Tonnes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Procurement is 114.29 LMT against a target of 303 LMT, which is approximately 38%. Statement 2 is incorrect: While MP's procurement is lower, the article states Punjab was the highest contributor last year (119.19 LMT vs MP's 77.74 LMT). Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states the buffer requirement on July 1 is set at 275 LMT.

Source: Wheat Procurement Dips 16% to 114.29 LMT; MP, UP Lag, Raises National Food Security Act Concerns →
Q55.

According to the news, what was the total quantity of wheat procured as of April 20 during the ongoing Rabi Marketing Season?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.114.29 Lakh Metric Tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • B.135 Lakh Metric Tonnes
  • C.77.74 Lakh Metric Tonnes
  • D.303 Lakh Metric Tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the procurement of 114.29 lakh metric tonnes of wheat has been reported... as of April 20." Option B is last year's corresponding procurement, C is MP's procurement last year, and D is the annual target.

Source: Wheat Procurement Dips 16% to 114.29 LMT; MP, UP Lag, Raises National Food Security Act Concerns →
Q56.

What is a primary immediate concern arising from the reported sluggish wheat procurement, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A significant increase in wheat exports
  • B.Difficulty in meeting the legally mandated buffer stock norms✓ Correct Answer
  • C.An immediate reduction in the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for wheat
  • D.The closure of procurement centers in major producing states
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article connects the procurement shortfall to the buffer stock norms required under the National Food Security Act. It specifies norms of 74.6 LMT (April 1) and 275 LMT (July 1). The procurement slump directly threatens the ability to meet these stock requirements for food distribution.

Source: Wheat Procurement Dips 16% to 114.29 LMT; MP, UP Lag, Raises National Food Security Act Concerns →
Q57.

Which of the following United Nations agencies jointly issued the report warning about extreme heat threatening global food systems?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.FAO and WHO
  • B.FAO and WMO✓ Correct Answer
  • C.UNDP and UNEP
  • D.WFP and UNESCO
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the report was released by the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).

Source: FAO-WMO Report Warns Extreme Heat Endangers Global Food Systems, Threatens 1+ Billion Livelihoods →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent UN report on extreme heat:

1. It warns that extreme heat is threatening the livelihoods of more than a billion people.

2. The report was jointly published by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

3. It highlights that heatwaves are damaging crops, livestock, fisheries, and forests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions threats to 'more than a billion people'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report was published by FAO and WMO, not WHO and UNEP. Statement 3 is correct as the article states heatwaves are damaging these components of agrifood systems.

Source: FAO-WMO Report Warns Extreme Heat Endangers Global Food Systems, Threatens 1+ Billion Livelihoods →
Q59.

According to the UN report mentioned in the article, how many people's livelihoods and health are threatened by extreme heat pushing agrifood systems to the brink?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Over 500 million
  • B.Over 750 million
  • C.Over 1 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 2 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the threat is to 'the livelihoods and health of more than a billion people'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the specific figure mentioned.

Source: FAO-WMO Report Warns Extreme Heat Endangers Global Food Systems, Threatens 1+ Billion Livelihoods →
Q60.

What is the primary concern highlighted by the FAO-WMO report regarding the impact of higher temperatures?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increasing frequency of earthquakes in food-producing regions
  • B.Shrinking the safety margin that plants, animals, and humans rely on to function✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Causing a sudden decline in global fertilizer production
  • D.Leading to the immediate collapse of international trade agreements
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report's core finding, as stated in the article, is that 'higher temperatures are shrinking the safety margin that plants, animals and humans rely on to function.' The other options describe impacts not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: FAO-WMO Report Warns Extreme Heat Endangers Global Food Systems, Threatens 1+ Billion Livelihoods →
Q61.

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established under which Act of Parliament?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
  • C.The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002
  • D.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NIA was created as a federal agency by the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, in the wake of the 2008 Mumbai attacks. While it extensively uses the UAPA for prosecution, its foundational statute is the separate NIA Act, 2008.

Source: NIA Secures Third Conviction in 2022 Shivamogga ISIS Conspiracy Case: Key Recruiter Gets 6 Years RI Under UAPA Sections 18, 38, 40 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the Shivamogga ISIS terror conspiracy case:

1. The case involves the conviction of Arafath Ali under Sections 18, 38, and 40 of the UAPA, 1967.

2. The accused was sentenced to six years of simple imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 10,000.

3. The period of detention undergone by the accused will be set off against the term of imprisonment as per Section 428 of the CrPC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the sentence was rigorous imprisonment (RI) and the fine was Rs. 5,000, not Rs. 10,000. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned by the court. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: NIA Secures Third Conviction in 2022 Shivamogga ISIS Conspiracy Case: Key Recruiter Gets 6 Years RI Under UAPA Sections 18, 38, 40 →
Q63.

For how many years was Arafath Ali sentenced to rigorous imprisonment by the NIA special court?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 years
  • B.6 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.7 years
  • D.10 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Arafath Ali was sentenced to six years of rigorous imprisonment. The other options are plausible distractors for different terror-related sentences.

Source: NIA Secures Third Conviction in 2022 Shivamogga ISIS Conspiracy Case: Key Recruiter Gets 6 Years RI Under UAPA Sections 18, 38, 40 →
Q64.

What was a key method of terror financing uncovered in the NIA's probe into the Shivamogga ISIS module?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Hawala transactions
  • B.Bank transfers from foreign accounts
  • C.Funding through cryptocurrency✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Cash smuggling across borders
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NIA probe found that an online ISIS handler provided funds to the accused 'in cryptocurrency to crypto wallets' to further the module's activities. This highlights the modern challenge of digital terror financing, making it a significant point for exams focusing on internal security.

Source: NIA Secures Third Conviction in 2022 Shivamogga ISIS Conspiracy Case: Key Recruiter Gets 6 Years RI Under UAPA Sections 18, 38, 40 →
Q65.

The draft regulations for electricity market coupling in India have been issued by which regulatory body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL)
  • D.Grid Controller of India (Grid India)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the draft regulations named 'CERC (Power Market) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026' have been issued by India's top electricity regulator, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).

Source: CERC Proposes Market Coupling via Grid India, Aims for Uniform Power Price Under Draft 2026 Regulations →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed electricity market coupling in India:

1. It aims to discover a uniform market-clearing price by aggregating bids from all power exchanges.

2. The Grid Controller of India (Grid India) has been proposed as the Market Coupling Operator.

3. The India Energy Exchange (IEX), which dominates the market, has welcomed this proposal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as market coupling matches bids to discover a uniform price. Statement 2 is correct as the draft regulation proposes Grid India as the MCO. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states IEX has been opposing market coupling, fearing it would reduce its competitive advantage.

Source: CERC Proposes Market Coupling via Grid India, Aims for Uniform Power Price Under Draft 2026 Regulations →
Q67.

According to the article, what was the volume of short-term transactions of electricity in India in the year 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.65.90 Billion Units
  • B.173.14 Billion Units
  • C.238.35 Billion Units✓ Correct Answer
  • D.90.00 Billion Units
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the total volume of short-term transactions of electricity increased to 238.35 BU in 2024-25. 65.90 BU was the volume in 2009-10, and Rs 173.14 crore is the amount SEBI impounded in the insider trading case.

Source: CERC Proposes Market Coupling via Grid India, Aims for Uniform Power Price Under Draft 2026 Regulations →
Q68.

What is the primary objective behind the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission's (CERC) proposal for market coupling in electricity trading?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the market share of the India Energy Exchange (IEX)
  • B.To replace long-term Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs) entirely
  • C.To enable more efficient price discovery and reduce price disparities across regions✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To centralize all electricity generation under the government
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As explained in the article, the new framework aims to change the decentralized system where each exchange sets its own price, resulting in variations. Market coupling aggregates bids to discover a uniform price, leading to more efficient price discovery, reduced disparities, and increased market stability.

Source: CERC Proposes Market Coupling via Grid India, Aims for Uniform Power Price Under Draft 2026 Regulations →
Q69.

Which regulatory body issued the 'Digital Payments – E-mandate Framework, 2026' discussed in the news?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised guidelines for recurring e-mandate transactions' and refers to the 'central bank’s Digital Payments – E-mandate Framework, 2026'. RBI is the apex body regulating payment and settlement systems in India.

Source: RBI Revises E-mandate Framework 2026: Rs 15,000 Cap Without AFA, Rs 1 Lakh for Insurance/MF/Credit Card →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the revised e-mandate framework:

1. Recurring transactions up to Rs 15,000 per transaction do not require Additional Factor of Authentication (AFA).

2. Insurance premium payments up to Rs 2 lakh per transaction are exempted from AFA.

3. Any modification or withdrawal of an existing e-mandate will require AFA validation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'allowing payments of up to Rs 15,000 per transaction without additional factor of authentication (AFA).' Statement 2 is incorrect; the special higher limit for insurance premiums is Rs 1 lakh, not Rs 2 lakh. Statement 3 is correct: 'Any modification or withdrawal of an existing e-mandate will require AFA validation.'

Source: RBI Revises E-mandate Framework 2026: Rs 15,000 Cap Without AFA, Rs 1 Lakh for Insurance/MF/Credit Card →
Q71.

According to the RBI's revised e-mandate framework, what is the minimum period before a debit by which a pre-transaction notification must be sent to the customer?

MediumBanking, SSC
  • A.12 hours
  • B.24 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • C.48 hours
  • D.72 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Issuers are mandated to send pre-transaction notifications at least 24 hours before a debit...' The other options (12, 48, 72 hours) are distractors. This is a specific data point examiners can target.

Source: RBI Revises E-mandate Framework 2026: Rs 15,000 Cap Without AFA, Rs 1 Lakh for Insurance/MF/Credit Card →
Q72.

What is a primary objective of the RBI's revised e-mandate framework as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase government revenue from transaction taxes
  • B.To reduce the operational workload of commercial banks
  • C.To enhance customer convenience while maintaining security in digital payments✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote the use of physical cash over digital transactions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The framework raises AFA exemption limits (enhancing convenience for smaller transactions) while mandating AFA for first transactions and modifications (maintaining security). It also introduces mandatory notifications and dispute resolution. The other options are incorrect: there is no mention of transaction taxes (A), reducing bank workload is not the primary goal (B), and promoting cash use contradicts digital payment initiatives (D).

Source: RBI Revises E-mandate Framework 2026: Rs 15,000 Cap Without AFA, Rs 1 Lakh for Insurance/MF/Credit Card →
Q73.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the defence agreements signed during Rajnath Singh's visit to Germany?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the agreements were signed during a bilateral meeting between Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and his German counterpart. The Ministry of Defence (MoD) is the nodal ministry for all defence cooperation and agreements.

Source: India-Germany Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap, UN Peacekeeping Pact; Boost P-75(I) Submarine Deal →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding Rajnath Singh's visit to Germany:

1. India and Germany exchanged the Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap.

2. The visit aimed to finalize the Project-75 submarine deal.

3. Both sides agreed to enhance military-to-military cooperation as a key pillar of their Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions India is closer to finalizing the 'Project-75(I)' deal, not 'Project-75' – the '(I)' is a crucial suffix. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states military cooperation is a key pillar of the 'Strategic Partnership', not a 'Comprehensive Strategic Partnership'.

Source: India-Germany Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap, UN Peacekeeping Pact; Boost P-75(I) Submarine Deal →
Q75.

In which year are India and Germany commemorating 75 years of diplomatic relations, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2024
  • B.2025
  • C.2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2027
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India and Germany... are commemorating 75 years of diplomatic relations in 2026.' This is a direct factual recall question.

Source: India-Germany Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap, UN Peacekeeping Pact; Boost P-75(I) Submarine Deal →
Q76.

What is a primary strategic objective behind the Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap signed between India and Germany?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase arms imports from Germany
  • B.To facilitate co-development and co-production of defence equipment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a military alliance against a common threat
  • D.To outsource India's defence manufacturing entirely
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the ministers discussed 'priority areas for co-development and co-production of defence equipment, especially in the field of niche technologies.' The Roadmap is an instrument to institutionalize this shift from a buyer-seller relationship to a collaborative partnership, aligning with India's self-reliance goals.

Source: India-Germany Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap, UN Peacekeeping Pact; Boost P-75(I) Submarine Deal →
Q77.

Which state's land reform act was central to the Supreme Court's judgment striking down illegal land titles in Hardoi?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Bihar Land Reforms Act, 1950
  • C.Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966
  • D.Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the protected status of the public utility land falls under Section 132 of the Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950. The case pertained to land in Uttar Pradesh.

Source: SC Strikes Down 1992 Land Allotments in UP Hardoi, Upholds Section 132 of UP Zamindari Abolition Act 1950 →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on land titles in Hardoi:

1. The Court held that the Sub-Divisional Officer had the jurisdiction to reclassify the land from public utility to cultivable.

2. The judgment emphasized that statutory prohibitions under land reform acts can be bypassed through administrative re-categorization.

3. The land in question was originally recorded as 'Category-6' in revenue records, which includes non-agricultural land and areas for community purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court categorically held that the Sub-Divisional Officer lacked jurisdiction; only the State Government can alter land classification. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court ruled that statutory prohibitions (like Section 132) CANNOT be defeated by indirect methods like administrative re-categorization. Statement 3 is correct: As per the article, the land was originally 'Category-6' under the UP Land Records Manual.

Source: SC Strikes Down 1992 Land Allotments in UP Hardoi, Upholds Section 132 of UP Zamindari Abolition Act 1950 →
Q79.

In which year did the revenue officials in Hardoi recommend the reclassification of the land from Category-6 to Category-5, leading to the grant of illegal pattas?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1989
  • B.1992✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1999
  • D.2016
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the case traces back to April 1992, when revenue officials recommended the reclassification. The Sub-Divisional Officer approved it on October 31, 1992, and pattas were granted thereafter.

Source: SC Strikes Down 1992 Land Allotments in UP Hardoi, Upholds Section 132 of UP Zamindari Abolition Act 1950 →
Q80.

What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court terming the 1992 land pattas as 'void ab initio'?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It means the pattas were temporarily valid but have now expired.
  • B.It means the pattas were illegal and had no legal standing from the very beginning.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It means the pattas can be regularized upon payment of a penalty.
  • D.It means the pattas were valid but were cancelled due to a procedural lapse.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

"Void ab initio" is a legal term meaning 'void from the outset' or 'invalid from the beginning'. The Supreme Court used this term because the pattas were granted based on an invalid reclassification, meaning they never legally existed. This is stronger than a cancellation, which implies something was once valid.

Source: SC Strikes Down 1992 Land Allotments in UP Hardoi, Upholds Section 132 of UP Zamindari Abolition Act 1950 →
Q81.

Which central investigating agency was established in 2008 and was the final agency to probe the 2006 Malegaon blasts case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NIA was established by the NIA Act of 2008. As per the article, the Malegaon blasts case was among probes handed to the NIA in 2011, making it the final prosecuting agency after the ATS and CBI.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Case, Exposing 20-Year Probe Failures by ATS, CBI, NIA →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2006 Malegaon blasts case:

1. The first investigative agency was the Maharashtra Anti-Terrorism Squad (ATS).

2. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) supported the charges against the nine Muslim men initially arrested by the ATS.

3. The Bombay High Court quashed charges against the last four accused in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The ATS took over the probe in October 2006. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NIA found the nine men were not involved and backed their discharge. Statement 3 is correct: The Bombay High Court allowed the appeal of the four men to quash charges in April 2026.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Case, Exposing 20-Year Probe Failures by ATS, CBI, NIA →
Q83.

According to the article, how many people were killed and injured in the 2006 Malegaon blasts?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.28 killed, 250 injured
  • B.31 killed, 312 injured✓ Correct Answer
  • C.35 killed, 300 injured
  • D.40 killed, 350 injured
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the explosions killed 31 people and injured 312. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Case, Exposing 20-Year Probe Failures by ATS, CBI, NIA →
Q84.

What was a primary reason cited by the Bombay High Court for granting bail to the four accused in 2019, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of jurisdiction of the special court
  • B.Expiry of the maximum detention period under law
  • C.Political pressure on the investigating agencies
  • D.Absence of witnesses who saw them planting bombs✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the High Court granted bail in 2019, saying there were no witnesses who had seen them planting the bombs or purchasing the bicycles. This highlights the evidentiary weakness in the NIA's case.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Charges in 2006 Malegaon Blasts Case, Exposing 20-Year Probe Failures by ATS, CBI, NIA →
Q85.

Under which Act did the Chhattisgarh High Court primarily grant permission for the termination of pregnancy in this case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
  • B.The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017
  • D.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the petition was sought under the provisions of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, and the court referred to Section 3 of this Act. The other acts, while related to social justice, are not the primary legal basis for the termination permission in this specific news.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows 23-Week Abortion Under MTP Act, Cites Foetal Risk & Reproductive Autony for Rape Survivor →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Chhattisgarh High Court allowed termination of a pregnancy at 23 weeks citing risks to the woman's health and potential foetal complications.

2. The FIR in the case was registered under the relevant sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860.

3. The court directed that the DNA sample of the foetus be preserved for evidence in the case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the court allowed termination due to risks to the petitioner's health and the medical report on foetal problems. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FIR was registered under the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, not the IPC. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed preservation of the foetal DNA sample. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows 23-Week Abortion Under MTP Act, Cites Foetal Risk & Reproductive Autony for Rape Survivor →
Q87.

As per the medical board report mentioned in the article, how many weeks pregnant was the survivor as of April 17, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 weeks and 5 days
  • B.22 weeks and 1 day
  • C.23 weeks and 3 days✓ Correct Answer
  • D.24 weeks exactly
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the medical board reported the survivor was '23 weeks and 3 days pregnant as of April 17'. The other options are close distractors but do not match the specific data point provided in the news content.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows 23-Week Abortion Under MTP Act, Cites Foetal Risk & Reproductive Autony for Rape Survivor →
Q88.

What was a key argument presented by the state's advocate in favour of allowing the pregnancy termination?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.That the accused had confessed to the crime, simplifying the legal process.
  • B.That denying termination would cause grave injury to the petitioner's mental and physical health.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.That the pregnancy had exceeded the legal limit, making termination mandatory.
  • D.That the foetus was confirmed to have severe abnormalities incompatible with life.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Advocate S S Baghel, for the state, submitted that denying termination 'would cause grave injury to her mental and physical health, as she herself is mentally ill'. The other options, such as a confession or confirmed severe abnormalities, are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows 23-Week Abortion Under MTP Act, Cites Foetal Risk & Reproductive Autony for Rape Survivor →
Q89.

Which Iranian paramilitary force was reported to have carried out the ship seizures in the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iranian Regular Navy
  • B.Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Basij Resistance Force
  • D.Quds Force
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the operations were carried out by the country's paramilitary Revolutionary Guard (IRGC). While the Quds Force is a unit within the IRGC, the broader IRGC is the correct answer as per the news report.

Source: Iran's Revolutionary Guard Seizes 2 Vessels, Attacks 3 in Strait of Hormuz, Vital Global Oil Chokepoint →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and is a critical route for global energy supplies.

2. The attacks led to a significant drop in global crude oil prices, with Brent crude falling below $90 per barrel.

3. More than 30 shipping-related incidents have been reported in the region since the conflict escalated in late February 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Brent crude was trading **above** $98 per barrel, reflecting a sharp increase, not a drop below $90. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Source: Iran's Revolutionary Guard Seizes 2 Vessels, Attacks 3 in Strait of Hormuz, Vital Global Oil Chokepoint →
Q91.

According to the article, approximately what proportion of global oil and gas supplies passes through the Strait of Hormuz during peacetime?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.One-tenth
  • B.One-fifth✓ Correct Answer
  • C.One-fourth
  • D.One-third
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'roughly one-fifth of global oil and gas supplies passing through it during peacetime.' This is a key data point for understanding the strait's strategic significance.

Source: Iran's Revolutionary Guard Seizes 2 Vessels, Attacks 3 in Strait of Hormuz, Vital Global Oil Chokepoint →
Q92.

What is a primary strategic implication of incidents like the seizure of ships in the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Promotion of regional tourism and cultural exchange
  • B.Ensuring the stability of agricultural commodity prices
  • C.Creating volatility in global energy markets and prices✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Accelerating the adoption of renewable energy worldwide
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz to rising energy prices, mentioning Brent crude trading above $98. While renewable energy adoption is a long-term trend, the immediate and primary implication discussed is the risk to energy security and market volatility.

Source: Iran's Revolutionary Guard Seizes 2 Vessels, Attacks 3 in Strait of Hormuz, Vital Global Oil Chokepoint →
Q93.

The 'Look East Policy' of India, which initially spurred momentum in India-South Korea ties, was launched in which decade?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.1960s
  • B.1970s
  • C.1980s
  • D.1990s✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, India's Look East policy, which spurred momentum in ties with South Korea, was launched in the early 1990s. This policy marked a strategic shift in India's foreign policy focus towards Southeast Asia.

Source: India-South Korea Special Strategic Partnership: 15 Outcomes, CEPA Upgrade Talks, $50 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-South Korea developments:

1. The two countries agreed to resume negotiations to upgrade their Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).

2. A Distinguished Visitors Programme (DVP) was announced to invite Indian lawmakers to South Korea.

3. The two sides have set a bilateral trade target of $50 billion to be achieved by the year 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states they agreed to resume CEPA upgrade talks. Statement 2 is incorrect; the DVP is to invite Korean lawmakers to India, not vice-versa. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the goal to reach $50 billion in trade by 2030.

Source: India-South Korea Special Strategic Partnership: 15 Outcomes, CEPA Upgrade Talks, $50 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q95.

Diplomatic relations between India and the Republic of Korea (South Korea) were formally established in which year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1947
  • B.1950
  • C.1962
  • D.1973✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that diplomatic ties between India and South Korea were established in 1973. This was delayed due to ideological differences during the Cold War era.

Source: India-South Korea Special Strategic Partnership: 15 Outcomes, CEPA Upgrade Talks, $50 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q96.

What is a primary criticism from Korean stakeholders, as mentioned in the article, that has been a hurdle in the India-South Korea economic relationship?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.India's lack of market size
  • B.India's strict regulations and weak IPR regime✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India's high tariff barriers on Korean electronics
  • D.India's focus on short-term export goals
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Korean counterparts criticise India for strict regulations and a weak intellectual property rights (IPR) regime. This is highlighted as a persistent issue that India needs to address to boost investor confidence.

Source: India-South Korea Special Strategic Partnership: 15 Outcomes, CEPA Upgrade Talks, $50 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q97.

The 'Five Eyes' intelligence alliance, mentioned in the news, is primarily focused on cooperation in which domain?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Military operations and joint exercises
  • B.Signals intelligence (SIGINT) and surveillance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Counter-terrorism and law enforcement
  • D.Economic intelligence and trade secrets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Five Eyes alliance is a signals intelligence (SIGINT) partnership. While its work supports broader security goals like counter-terrorism, its core foundation and historical purpose is the sharing of intercepted communications and electronic surveillance data among the five member nations.

Source: OpenAI Deploys GPT-5.4-Cyber Model for US, Five Eyes Alliance Under Limited Rollout to Vetted Entities →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. OpenAI's GPT-5.4-Cyber model is being made available to all cybersecurity firms globally.

2. The briefing by OpenAI included US federal agencies and member countries of the Five Eyes alliance.

3. Rival AI lab Anthropic has also announced a project named 'Glasswing' involving technology companies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states GPT-5.4-Cyber is initially being rolled out on a 'limited basis to vetted security vendors, organizations and researchers', not to all firms globally. Statement 2 is correct as per the report. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Anthropic's 'Project Glasswing' initiative with major technology companies.

Source: OpenAI Deploys GPT-5.4-Cyber Model for US, Five Eyes Alliance Under Limited Rollout to Vetted Entities →
Q99.

According to the news report, which of the following is NOT a member country of the Five Eyes intelligence sharing network?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Australia
  • B.Canada
  • C.Japan✓ Correct Answer
  • D.New Zealand
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly lists the Five Eyes members as the US, Britain, Canada, Australia and New Zealand. Japan, while a key ally of the US, is not part of this specific intelligence-sharing pact. It is a common distractor in questions about international alliances.

Source: OpenAI Deploys GPT-5.4-Cyber Model for US, Five Eyes Alliance Under Limited Rollout to Vetted Entities →
Q100.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for governments' heightened interest in advanced AI models from labs like OpenAI?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To automate routine administrative tasks and reduce public spending.
  • B.To enhance creative industries like film and music production.
  • C.To leverage their dual-use nature for both cybersecurity risks and defense capabilities.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To replace existing human intelligence analysts entirely.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that cybersecurity is a key battleground because AI models 'can both pose security risks and offer cyber defense capabilities, sparking interest from governments.' This dual-use potential, where the same technology can be a threat and a tool, is the core driver of government engagement, not mere automation or creative applications.

Source: OpenAI Deploys GPT-5.4-Cyber Model for US, Five Eyes Alliance Under Limited Rollout to Vetted Entities →
Q101.

The Supreme Court's ruling on court fees and plaint rejection is based on provisions from which major legislation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  • D.The Constitution of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment specifically interprets and applies Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, which deals with the rejection of plaints. The CPC is the primary legislation governing the procedure for civil suits in India.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Two-Step Process Under Order VII Rule 11(b)(c) Before Rejecting Plaint for ₹53 Cr Suit →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent ruling on court fees and plaint rejection:

1. The Court held that deficiency in court fees is a curable defect and plaintiffs must be given an opportunity to rectify it.

2. The ruling was delivered in an appeal against a judgment of the Karnataka High Court.

3. The Supreme Court emphasized that courts cannot conduct a 'mini-trial' at the stage of deciding an application for rejection of plaint.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Judicial Services
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court ruled the defect is curable and an opportunity must be granted. Statement 2 is incorrect; the appeal was against the Madras High Court, not Karnataka. Statement 3 is correct as the Court faulted the High Court for conducting a 'mini-trial' by examining the merits prematurely.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Two-Step Process Under Order VII Rule 11(b)(c) Before Rejecting Plaint for ₹53 Cr Suit →
Q103.

What was the total approximate value of the commercial transaction at the heart of the dispute, as mentioned in the Supreme Court news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹53 Crore
  • B.₹78 Crore
  • C.₹105 Crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹150 Crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the case stems from a complex commercial transaction 'structuring a transaction valued at approximately Rs 105 crore.' The suit was for the alleged unpaid portion of ₹53 crore from this larger transaction.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Two-Step Process Under Order VII Rule 11(b)(c) Before Rejecting Plaint for ₹53 Cr Suit →
Q104.

What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's ruling that mandates a two-step process before rejecting a plaint for insufficient court fees?

MediumUPSC, Judicial Services
  • A.To increase government revenue from court fees
  • B.To expedite the disposal of cases by summarily rejecting defective plaints
  • C.To protect litigants' access to justice by preventing dismissal on curable technical grounds✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce the workload of higher courts by empowering trial courts to decide on merits prematurely
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the ruling, is to uphold the 'statutory safeguard' built into the law. It ensures that a technical lapse like undervaluation, which is curable, does not defeat the right to a full trial where a substantive cause of action exists, thereby protecting access to justice.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Two-Step Process Under Order VII Rule 11(b)(c) Before Rejecting Plaint for ₹53 Cr Suit →
Q105.

Which institute has been directed by the SC-NBWL to undertake a comprehensive study on pastoral and nomadic communities' dependence on protected areas?

EasyUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
  • B.Wildlife Institute of India (WII)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Forest Survey of India (FSI)
  • D.National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has directed the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) to undertake the study. WII is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, focusing on wildlife research and training.

Source: SC-NBWL Directs WII to Study Nomadic Pastoralists; MeitY Tightens AI Content Labelling; ₹1,934 Cr 3D Chip Plant Approved →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Ember report on global electricity in 2025:

1. It was the first time this century that fossil fuel-based electricity generation fell in both China and India.

2. The decline in India was primarily due to a record increase in solar and wind generation, combined with lower-than-average demand growth.

3. The report predicts that the decline in fossil fuel generation is irreversible and will continue in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states, "2025 was the first year this century when fossil generation fell in both countries." Statement 2 is correct as the report attributes India's decline to "a record increase in both solar and wind generation... and lower-than-average demand growth." Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions that 2026 could be different due to a predicted below-normal monsoon, which may increase demand for fossil fuel power.

Source: SC-NBWL Directs WII to Study Nomadic Pastoralists; MeitY Tightens AI Content Labelling; ₹1,934 Cr 3D Chip Plant Approved →
Q107.

According to the article, what is the total sanctioned outlay for the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) under which the 3D chip packaging plant was approved?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1,934 crore
  • B.₹76,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1.6 lakh crore
  • D.₹11 billion (approx. ₹90,000 crore)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states, "Launched in 2021 with a Rs 76,000-crore outlay, the India Semiconductor Mission..." Option A is the investment for the specific 3D chip plant. Option C is the total investment drawn by approved projects. Option D is the speculated outlay for a potential ISM 2.0.

Source: SC-NBWL Directs WII to Study Nomadic Pastoralists; MeitY Tightens AI Content Labelling; ₹1,934 Cr 3D Chip Plant Approved →
Q108.

What is the primary objective behind the Ministry of Electronics and IT's (MeitY) proposed amendment to mandate continuous labelling of AI-generated content?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote the development of indigenous AI technologies
  • B.To curb the spread of misinformation and protect users from synthetic media✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To generate revenue for the government through compliance fees
  • D.To restrict the use of foreign social media platforms in India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article links the amendment to the IT Rules, 2021, and states that the government's rationale, as per an explanatory note, is "To curb the spread of misinformation, damage reputation, manipulate and influence elections or commit financial fraud." This directly addresses the risks posed by synthetically generated information like deepfakes.

Source: SC-NBWL Directs WII to Study Nomadic Pastoralists; MeitY Tightens AI Content Labelling; ₹1,934 Cr 3D Chip Plant Approved →
Q109.

The Supreme Court has directed which Central Government department's senior officials to participate in the High-Powered Committee proceedings?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B.Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Health and Family Welfare
  • D.Department of Prison Reforms
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court directed senior officials from the 'Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities at the Centre' to participate. This department is the nodal agency for policies related to persons with disabilities.

Source: SC Directs High-Powered Committee to Enforce Disability Rights in Prisons, Mandates Compliance Affidavits Within 6 Weeks →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's directions on disability rights in prisons:

1. The Court directed all states and Union territories to submit compliance affidavits within six weeks.

2. The High-Powered Committee tasked with oversight was originally constituted in the case of L Muruganantham v. State of Tamil Nadu.

3. The Court emphasised that the rights of prisoners with disabilities are grounded in Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's fresh directions. Statement 2 is incorrect; the High-Powered Committee was constituted in Suhas Chakma v. Union of India (February 26), not the L Muruganantham case. Statement 3 is correct as the Court explicitly linked the rights to Articles 14 and 21.

Source: SC Directs High-Powered Committee to Enforce Disability Rights in Prisons, Mandates Compliance Affidavits Within 6 Weeks →
Q111.

As informed to the Supreme Court on April 8, how many states and Union territories had filed compliance affidavits regarding the earlier directions on disability rights in prisons?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.8
  • B.10
  • C.12✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states in the 'Partial compliance' section that 'only 12 states and Union territories had filed compliance affidavits' when the matter was taken up on April 8. This highlights the uneven implementation that prompted stricter oversight.

Source: SC Directs High-Powered Committee to Enforce Disability Rights in Prisons, Mandates Compliance Affidavits Within 6 Weeks →
Q112.

What is the primary reason the Supreme Court entrusted the enforcement of disability rights in prisons to a High-Powered Committee?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To reduce the judicial workload by delegating monitoring functions.
  • B.To ensure a structured, continuous, and expert-driven mechanism for uniform implementation across states.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To bypass state governments and allow direct central intervention in prison administration.
  • D.To create a new statutory body with legislative powers for prison reforms.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the Court's reasoning: the committee would provide a 'structured, continuous, and expert-driven' mechanism to assess compliance and ensure uniformity, bridging the gap between judicial directions and on-ground implementation. The other options are not supported by the text.

Source: SC Directs High-Powered Committee to Enforce Disability Rights in Prisons, Mandates Compliance Affidavits Within 6 Weeks →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 22 April 2026?▼

This page contains 112 current affairs questions from 22 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 22 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. judicial body initially adjudicated the motor accident claim i…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  3. Q3. According to the Supreme Court's formula, what is the cost all…
  4. Q4. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's mandate for cl…
  5. Q5. constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to pass orde…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what is the approximate share of Nat…
  8. Q8. was the primary judicial mechanism used by the Supreme Court t…
  9. Q9. constitutional article empowers the state to make laws for soc…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  11. Q11. many judges constitute the Supreme Court bench hearing the Sab…
  12. Q12. was the primary reason given by the Supreme Court for declinin…
  13. Q13. According to the article, which alternative fuel is proposed a…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India's energy sce…
  15. Q15. As per the article, what is India's projected import volume of…
  16. Q16. is the primary strategic risk identified by the article stemmi…
  17. Q17. The news mentions a budget request by the 'Pentagon'. What is …
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. military'…
  19. Q19. According to the news, what is the proposed allocation for 'cr…
  20. Q20. is a primary strategic implication of the U.S. military's focu…
  21. Q21. regulatory body is empowered by the Insurance Amendment Bill, …
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Insurance Amen…
  23. Q23. is the popular name associated with the Insurance Amendment Bi…
  24. Q24. is a key expected benefit of introducing Managing General Agen…
  25. Q25. government department did the Supreme Court direct to interven…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  27. Q27. According to the article, what was the amount of monthly inter…
  28. Q28. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's rulin…
  29. Q29. state government constituted the Expert Group that developed t…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana Cast…
  31. Q31. According to the Telangana Caste Survey report, what percentag…
  32. Q32. is the primary policy implication advocated by the Telangana C…
  33. Q33. The author of the article is identified as the former finance …
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Pahalgam terro…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what was the approximate drop in vis…
  36. Q36. is described as a significant 'doctrinal shift' in India's cou…
  37. Q37. statutory body, mentioned in the article, mandates that tiger …
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Tadoba-Andhari…
  39. Q39. According to the article, approximately what is the annual rev…
  40. Q40. is identified as a primary reason for the 'unusual stability' …
  41. Q41. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint mentioned…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Iran…
  43. Q43. According to the news article, on which date did Iran's Revolu…
  44. Q44. is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz,…
  45. Q45. The principle of 'Nemo Judex In Causa Sua' is one of the two a…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding judicial recusal i…
  47. Q47. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNS…
  48. Q48. is the primary rationale behind the practice of judicial recusal?
  49. Q49. central armed police force, mentioned in the article, works in…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the security chang…
  51. Q51. According to the article, for how many hours can troops operat…
  52. Q52. is a primary objective of the 'Seek and Destroy' missions ment…
  53. Q53. The Central pool for food grains, mentioned in the news, is pr…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding wheat procurement …
  55. Q55. According to the news, what was the total quantity of wheat pr…
  56. Q56. is a primary immediate concern arising from the reported slugg…
  57. Q57. of the following United Nations agencies jointly issued the re…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the recent UN repo…
  59. Q59. According to the UN report mentioned in the article, how many …
  60. Q60. is the primary concern highlighted by the FAO-WMO report regar…
  61. Q61. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established under …
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Shivamogga ISI…
  63. Q63. For how many years was Arafath Ali sentenced to rigorous impri…
  64. Q64. was a key method of terror financing uncovered in the NIA's pr…
  65. Q65. The draft regulations for electricity market coupling in India…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed elect…
  67. Q67. According to the article, what was the volume of short-term tr…
  68. Q68. is the primary objective behind the Central Electricity Regula…
  69. Q69. regulatory body issued the 'Digital Payments – E-mandate Frame…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the revised e-mand…
  71. Q71. According to the RBI's revised e-mandate framework, what is th…
  72. Q72. is a primary objective of the RBI's revised e-mandate framewor…
  73. Q73. ministry is primarily responsible for the defence agreements s…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding Rajnath Singh's vi…
  75. Q75. In which year are India and Germany commemorating 75 years of …
  76. Q76. is a primary strategic objective behind the Defence Industrial…
  77. Q77. state's land reform act was central to the Supreme Court's jud…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  79. Q79. In which year did the revenue officials in Hardoi recommend th…
  80. Q80. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court terming…
  81. Q81. central investigating agency was established in 2008 and was t…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the 2006 Malegaon …
  83. Q83. According to the article, how many people were killed and inju…
  84. Q84. was a primary reason cited by the Bombay High Court for granti…
  85. Q85. Under which Act did the Chhattisgarh High Court primarily gran…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  87. Q87. As per the medical board report mentioned in the article, how …
  88. Q88. was a key argument presented by the state's advocate in favour…
  89. Q89. Iranian paramilitary force was reported to have carried out th…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  91. Q91. According to the article, approximately what proportion of glo…
  92. Q92. is a primary strategic implication of incidents like the seizu…
  93. Q93. The 'Look East Policy' of India, which initially spurred momen…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-S…
  95. Q95. Diplomatic relations between India and the Republic of Korea (…
  96. Q96. is a primary criticism from Korean stakeholders, as mentioned …
  97. Q97. The 'Five Eyes' intelligence alliance, mentioned in the news, …
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Open…
  99. Q99. According to the news report, which of the following is NOT a …
  100. Q100. is a primary reason cited in the article for governments' heig…
  101. Q101. The Supreme Court's ruling on court fees and plaint rejection …
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  103. Q103. was the total approximate value of the commercial transaction …
  104. Q104. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's ruling that ma…
  105. Q105. institute has been directed by the SC-NBWL to undertake a comp…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
  107. Q107. According to the article, what is the total sanctioned outlay …
  108. Q108. is the primary objective behind the Ministry of Electronics an…
  109. Q109. The Supreme Court has directed which Central Government depart…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  111. Q111. As informed to the Supreme Court on April 8, how many states a…
  112. Q112. is the primary reason the Supreme Court entrusted the enforcem…