17 April 2026, Questions & Answers
112 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
112 questions · 0 topics covered · 23 min revision
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This page contains 112 current affairs questions with answers from 17 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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112 QsWhich constitutional articles are primarily concerned with the composition of the Lok Sabha and the readjustment of seats among states?
- A.Articles 79 and 80
- B.Articles 81 and 82✓ Correct Answer
- C.Articles 83 and 84
- D.Articles 85 and 86
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Explanation
Article 81 deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha, including the allocation of seats to states. Article 82 provides for the readjustment of seats after each Census. These articles are central to the debate on delimitation and seat allocation mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the legislative package discussed in the article:
1. The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirty-First Amendment) Bill was introduced with 251 members supporting and 185 voting against.
2. The Bills propose to remove the constitutional freeze on seat allocation that is anchored to the 1971 Census.
3. The Delimitation Commission is required to readjust seats among states on the basis of the 2001 Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Bill was introduced with 251 supporting and 185 against. Statement 2 is correct: the Bills propose to remove the freeze anchored to the 1971 Census. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Delimitation Bill requires the Commission to readjust seats based on the 'latest published Census', not specifically the 2001 Census.
According to the article, until when is the freeze on Lok Sabha seat allocation (based on the 1971 Census) currently extended?
- A.Until the 2021 Census
- B.Until the 2031 Census
- C.Until the first Census after 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.Until the first Census after 2030
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Explanation
The article states that the arrangement of freezing seat allocation to the 1971 Census was 'subsequently extended until the first Census after 2026'. This is a key factual detail regarding the current constitutional provision.
What is the primary federal concern raised in the article regarding the proposed legislative package?
- A.It might delay the implementation of women's reservation.
- B.It could disadvantage states with lower population growth by reducing their share of Lok Sabha seats.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It requires ratification by only half of the states.
- D.It overrides the powers of the Election Commission.
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Explanation
The core federal concern is that removing the 1971 Census freeze and shifting to a purely population-based allocation model would reduce the relative representation of states (like southern states) that have controlled their population growth, altering the federal balance.
Which ministry issued the Gazette notification bringing the Women's Reservation Act 2023 into force?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Law and Justice (Union Law Ministry)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the notification was issued by the Union Law Ministry. This ministry is responsible for the administration of justice and the notification of Acts passed by Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Women's Reservation Act 2023 provides for 33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. The Act was brought into force through a notification issued by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
3. A 10-day ceasefire agreement between Israel and Lebanon took effect, with the US President involved in mediation efforts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the notification was issued by the Union Law Ministry, not the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
What is the percentage of seats reserved for women in legislatures as per the Women's Reservation Act 2023?
- A.30%
- B.33%✓ Correct Answer
- C.50%
- D.25%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Women's Reservation Act 2023 provides a 33% quota for women in legislatures. The other options are common distractors based on other reservation percentages in Indian polity.
What is the primary significance of the Gazette notification mentioned in the news regarding the Women's Reservation Act?
- A.It amends the Constitution to introduce the reservation.
- B.It formally brings the Act into legal force and effect.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It allocates funds for implementing the reservation.
- D.It appoints a committee to oversee the Act's implementation.
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Explanation
A Gazette notification is the official mechanism through which an Act passed by Parliament is promulgated and becomes enforceable law. The news states the Act 'came into force' via this notification, making option B correct.
Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in India?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.President of India
- D.Parliament of India
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Explanation
Article 324 of the Constitution vestes the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. The Supreme Court's role in this news is intervention using Article 142, not primary control.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on West Bengal deleted voters:
1. The Supreme Court exercised its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution.
2. The court ordered the Election Commission to publish supplementary lists of voters cleared by appellate tribunals.
3. The appellate tribunals comprised of sitting High Court judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC invoked Article 142. Statement 2 is correct as the order directed EC to publish supplementary lists. Statement 3 is incorrect because the appellate tribunals comprised retired High Court judges, not sitting judges.
According to the article, how many electors were initially flagged by the Election Commission's software for having 'logical discrepancies' during the Special Intensive Revision in West Bengal?
- A.27.10 lakh
- B.34 lakh
- C.60 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.19 lakh
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Explanation
The article states that 60 lakh electors were flagged by the EC's centralised software. 27.10 lakh were subsequently deleted, and over 34 lakh appeals were filed.
What was the primary objective of the Supreme Court invoking Article 142 in this case?
- A.To permanently freeze the electoral rolls for the elections.
- B.To allow deleted voters to appeal and potentially vote via supplementary lists.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To appoint new judicial officers for the adjudication process.
- D.To direct the Election Commission to cancel the Special Intensive Revision.
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Explanation
The SC used Article 142 to order supplementary lists beyond the statutory freeze under the RP Act, thereby providing a pathway for deleted voters cleared by appellate tribunals to vote.
Which international organization publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) report cited in the news?
- A.World Bank
- B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- D.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
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Explanation
The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a flagship report published biannually by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It provides detailed analysis and projections of global economic developments.
Consider the following statements regarding India's economic ranking as per the news:
1. According to the IMF's World Economic Outlook, India slipped to the 6th largest economy in the world in 2026.
2. The primary reasons for this slip were a downward revision of India's GDP estimates and an appreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar.
3. The IMF projects that India will overtake Germany to become the 3rd largest economy by 2031.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states India is ranked 6th in 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the rupee depreciated (lost value), not appreciated, against the dollar. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the projection of overtaking Germany by 2031.
According to the IMF's World Economic Outlook mentioned in the article, what is India's projected Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for the year 2026?
- A.$3.92 trillion
- B.$4.15 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$4.27 trillion
- D.$4.38 trillion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to the latest WEO, India's GDP in 2026 will be around $4.15 trillion. $3.92 trillion was the 2025 figure, $4.27 trillion is the UK's 2026 GDP, and $4.38 trillion is Japan's 2026 GDP.
What was a key implication of the Indian rupee losing value against the US dollar, as explained in the context of the IMF's GDP ranking?
- A.It made Indian exports more competitive globally.
- B.It increased the dollar-value of India's foreign exchange reserves.
- C.It widened the GDP gap between India and countries like the UK when measured in US dollars.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It led to a reduction in India's current account deficit.
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Explanation
The article explains that the rupee's depreciation against the dollar, coupled with the dollar's own weakness against the pound and yen, meant that when the IMF converted national GDPs into dollars for comparison, the gap between India and countries like the UK expanded further, contributing to the lower ranking.
The Sabarimala Reference case is being heard by which judicial body?
- A.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.High Court of Kerala
- C.National Green Tribunal
- D.Law Commission of India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the arguments are before a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India. This is a constitutional court with the authority to interpret fundamental rights.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments in the Sabarimala Reference case:
1. The Centre argues that courts can review a religious practice only if it has been translated into a statutory law.
2. The Centre supports the use of 'constitutional morality' as a standard to review restrictions under Article 25.
3. The Travancore Devaswom Board argues that the word 'morality' in Article 25 was intended by the framers to mean societal morality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The Centre says courts acquire jurisdiction to examine a religious practice only where it has been translated into law.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the Centre is attacking the doctrine of constitutional morality. Statement 3 is correct as the Board argued the framers placed 'morality' without qualification, implying societal standards.
In which year did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar use the phrase 'constitutional morality' in the Constituent Assembly, as mentioned in the article?
- A.1946
- B.1947
- C.1948✓ Correct Answer
- D.1949
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Explanation
The article states: 'The phrase constitutional morality did not originate with recent judges: Ambedkar used it in the Constituent Assembly in 1948.' This is a precise factual detail from the source material.
According to the article, what is a primary implication if the Centre's argument against 'constitutional morality' is accepted by the Supreme Court?
- A.It would strengthen the regulatory power of the RBI over NBFCs.
- B.It would make religious practices automatically compliant with constitutional values if endorsed by the community.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would mandate the use of PILs only by directly affected parties.
- D.It would transfer the power to amend the Constitution to State Legislatures.
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Explanation
The article explains the Centre's framework: 'A practice that the community endorses satisfies the standard automatically.' This means societal morality becomes the benchmark, potentially insulating majoritarian religious practices from judicial review based on constitutional principles like equality and dignity.
Which constitutional body has directed the government to frame a compensation policy for COVID-19 vaccine injuries, as per the news?
- A.The Parliament of India
- B.The Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.The National Human Rights Commission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court, in the case of Rachana Gangu v. Union of India (2026), has directed the Union government to frame the no-fault compensation policy. The Supreme Court is the highest constitutional court in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on vaccine injury compensation:
1. The Supreme Court directive is specifically for injuries related to COVID-19 vaccination.
2. The proposed compensation mechanism requires the victim to prove negligence by the vaccine manufacturer.
3. Over 219 crore doses of COVID-19 vaccines were administered in India by late 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the directive is for COVID-19 vaccination. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifies a 'no-fault' policy, which means proof of negligence is NOT required. Statement 3 is correct as the article gives the exact figure of 219.86 crore doses.
According to the article, approximately how many crore doses of COVID-19 vaccines were administered in India by late 2022?
- A.Approximately 150 crore
- B.Approximately 200 crore
- C.Approximately 219 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 250 crore
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Explanation
The article provides the precise data point: "over 219.86 crore doses administered by late 2022." The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the core constitutional principle highlighted by the article as being addressed by the Supreme Court's directive on vaccine injury compensation?
- A.The principle of federalism and state autonomy.
- B.The principle of social contract and state accountability to citizens.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The principle of separation of powers between legislature and judiciary.
- D.The principle of secularism in public policy.
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes that when the state promotes vaccination as a civic duty, it creates a 'social contract' and must accept responsibility for rare adverse outcomes. This underscores state accountability, a fundamental constitutional principle stemming from the relationship between the state and its citizens.
Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the directive principle for 'equal justice and free legal aid'?
- A.Part III (Fundamental Rights)
- B.Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Part IVA (Fundamental Duties)
- D.Part V (The Union)
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Explanation
Article 39A, which directs the state to provide free legal aid and ensure justice on the basis of equal opportunity, is enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, containing the Directive Principles of State Policy. This is a core static GK concept linked to judicial reforms.
Consider the following statements regarding the challenges of the Indian legal system as discussed in the article:
1. The delays primarily affect high-profile cases while common citizens get speedy justice.
2. The article argues that judicial delays have transformed from a warning into a standard operating procedure.
3. It posits that judicial reform is primarily a theoretical exercise for academics and lawyers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states high-profile cases move with momentum while the average citizen is trapped in delays. Statement 2 is correct, directly reflecting the article's phrase. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly says reform is NOT just a theoretical exercise but a human rights crisis.
According to the article, what has the phrase 'justice delayed is justice denied' become in the context of the Indian legal system?
- A.A guiding principle for new legislation
- B.A warning for potential litigants
- C.A standard operating procedure✓ Correct Answer
- D.A motto for the Supreme Court
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'We have reached a point where the phrase "justice delayed is justice denied" is no longer a warning but a standard operating procedure.' This is a key conceptual takeaway highlighting the normalization of delays.
What is the primary critique leveled by the article against the current focus of judicial reform discussions?
- A.They focus too much on increasing the number of law colleges.
- B.They focus on the judge holding the gavel rather than the people in the dock.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They emphasize foreign models over indigenous solutions.
- D.They prioritize criminal law reforms over civil law reforms.
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Explanation
The article's core argument for a 'total reimagining' is pivoted on this shift. It states: 'It’s time for the focus to shift away from the judge holding the gavel and towards the people standing in the dock.' This implies reform must be citizen-centric, not just institution-centric.
Under which ministry is the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) implemented?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NRLM was launched under the Ministry of Rural Development in 2011. This ministry is responsible for policies and programs aimed at rural poverty alleviation and infrastructure development.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM):
1. It was launched in 2011 with the objective of tackling multidimensional poverty through self-employment and financial inclusion.
2. Under NRLM, women banking correspondents are present in over 80% of local governments.
3. The SHG-based framework of NRLM is being explored by several African governments as a development model.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states women banking correspondents are present in over 60% (not 80%) of local governments. Statement 3 is correct as the article highlights African governments exploring the Indian SHG-based framework. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the approximate number of women members of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) who earn over ₹1,00,000 in income under NRLM?
- A.Over 10 million
- B.Over 20 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 30 million
- D.Over 50 million
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Explanation
The article specifically states that 'Over 20 million women members of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) earn over ₹1,00,000 in income'. The figure of 50 million refers to women who have accessed bank credit, not specifically those earning over ₹1 lakh.
What broader strategic significance does the adoption of India's NRLM model by African countries hold, as per the article?
- A.It primarily increases India's foreign aid obligations.
- B.It signifies a shift in India's role from aid recipient to a provider of development solutions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It reduces the domestic focus on the NRLM program.
- D.It is aimed at countering Chinese military influence in Africa.
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Explanation
The article frames the adoption of the SHG model as 'development diplomacy', showcasing India's successful home-grown poverty alleviation framework. This enhances India's soft power and positions it as a partner sharing proven models (South-South cooperation), rather than just a recipient of traditional aid.
Which national agency in India is the main cybersecurity body for the IT sector, as implied in the article studying the Mythos AI?
- A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- B.Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
- D.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
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Explanation
The article mentions 'the Indian IT sector’s main cybersecurity body'. CERT-In, under MeitY, is the national nodal agency for cybersecurity threats and incident response in India's IT domain.
Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's Mythos AI model:
1. It is designed to autonomously find cybersecurity vulnerabilities known as 'zero-day' exploits.
2. The model has been released for public use to improve overall software security.
3. Its development and controlled sharing initiative is known as 'Project Glasswing'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states Mythos is powerful at finding 'zero-day' exploits. Statement 2 is incorrect: The model is NOT released publicly due to risks; it is shared selectively. Statement 3 is correct: The initiative is called Project Glasswing.
On which date did Anthropic announce its decision regarding the Mythos AI model, as per the article?
- A.April 7, 2025
- B.April 17, 2026
- C.April 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 17, 2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'On April 7, AI firm Anthropic said its new model, Mythos...'. The publication date is April 17, 2026, but the announcement was made earlier on April 7, 2026.
What is the primary reason cited by Anthropic for not releasing the Mythos AI model publicly?
- A.The model is not yet technologically mature.
- B.It is too expensive for public cloud deployment.
- C.Its capability to find vulnerabilities poses a significant cybersecurity risk if misused.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It infringes on intellectual property rights of other software companies.
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Explanation
The core concern is the dual-use risk. The article highlights that the model is 'so powerful at finding cybersecurity vulnerabilities' that it will not be released, indicating the primary reason is the potential for misuse by AI-enabled attackers to exploit zero-days.
Under which Ministry does the India Meteorological Department (IMD) function?
- A.Ministry of Earth Sciences✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
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Explanation
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the principal agency for meteorology and is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 monsoon forecast:
1. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast 92% of the Long Period Average rainfall for the 2026 monsoon season.
2. This is the highest monsoon rainfall forecast issued by IMD in the last decade.
3. The forecast indicates that the second half of the monsoon season (August-September) is expected to be drier due to the influence of El Niño.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states IMD forecast is 92% of LPA. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states it is the lowest forecast in 20 years, not the highest. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions El Niño is expected to peak in July and its impact over India is felt after a lag, making Aug-Sep drier.
According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what percentage of the Long Period Average (LPA) rainfall is expected for the 2026 monsoon season?
- A.90%
- B.92%✓ Correct Answer
- C.95%
- D.98%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that IMD's first forecast said the country as a whole was likely to get only 92% of normal rainfall. The other options are close distractors.
As per the article, what is a primary reason cited for reduced alarm regarding the below-normal monsoon forecast for 2026?
- A.A significant reduction in the area under rainfed agriculture.
- B.Improved resilience due to better water management and comfortable reservoir storage.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A government announcement of massive drought relief funds in advance.
- D.The forecast being revised upwards by private weather agencies.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that India's resilience has improved due to factors like better water management practices, accurate forecasting, and high reservoir storage from previous good monsoons, which is why the forecast is 'no cause for alarm'. It does not mention a reduction in rainfed area, pre-announced relief funds, or contradictory private forecasts.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for granting emigration clearance for Indians seeking employment abroad, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
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Explanation
The article states that the Ministry of External Affairs manages emigration clearances and diplomatic coordination related to overseas migration. This is a key function under the Emigration Act, 1983.
Consider the following statements regarding Indian migration governance as discussed in the article:
1. India successfully coordinated the return of over 4.75 lakh citizens from West Asia by the end of March 2026.
2. The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries accounted for nearly 50% of India's total remittance inflows in 2023-24.
3. Kerala's sustained political attention has led to significant investment in migration data and institutions, serving as a model.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the GCC share was 37.9%, not nearly 50%. Statement 3 is correct as Kerala is highlighted for its investment in migration data and institutions.
According to the article, what was the estimated number of Indians residing in the six GCC countries as of December 2025?
- A.Approximately 75 lakh
- B.Nearly 85.5 lakh
- C.Nearly 99.35 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 1.2 crore
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Explanation
The article provides the specific figure: 'The six GCC countries alone were estimated to host nearly 99.35 lakh Indians in December 2025.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the core criticism of India's current migration governance framework, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It focuses too much on skilled migration at the expense of unskilled workers.
- B.It is overly bureaucratic and hinders the speed of diplomatic evacuations.
- C.It engages with migration only reactively during crises rather than across the full continuum of the migrant's journey.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It centralizes all powers with the Union Government, ignoring state-level initiatives.
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Explanation
The article's central argument is that India's governance has a 'blind spot' and becomes 'legible only once disruption is underway,' lacking a proactive 'whole-of-journey' approach that covers pre-departure, destination support, and return.
The news discusses strategies like 'patent thickets' used by pharmaceutical companies. Which Indian law contains provisions, like Section 3(d), aimed at preventing such 'evergreening' practices?
- A.The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
- B.The Patents Act, 1970✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- D.The Competition Act, 2002
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Explanation
Section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act, 1970 is a crucial provision that prevents the grant of patents for mere discovery of a new form of a known substance unless it significantly enhances therapeutic efficacy. This is specifically designed to curb 'evergreening' by pharmaceutical companies.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The drug Keytruda (pembrolizumab) is an example of immunotherapy used in cancer treatment.
2. Biosimilars of such drugs are identical chemical copies and can be developed as quickly as conventional generic medicines.
3. A key challenge mentioned is the 'patent thicket' strategy, which can delay the entry of cheaper alternatives even after the core patent expires.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Keytruda harnesses the body's immune system. Statement 2 is incorrect because biosimilars are derived from living cells, not simple chemical copies, and the article explicitly states they take 4-8 times longer to develop than conventional generics. Statement 3 is correct, directly quoting the article's analysis of the 'patent thicket' strategy.
According to the investigation mentioned in the article, what is the cost of a 100 mg vial of the cancer drug Keytruda (pembrolizumab)?
- A.Rs 50,000
- B.Rs 1 lakh
- C.Rs 1.5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rs 2 lakh
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Explanation
The article specifically states: "A 100 mg vial costs Rs 1.5 lakh". This is a precise data point central to the argument about drug affordability and the resulting shadow economy.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for India's need to move beyond being just a manufacturer of affordable medicines to becoming a centre for innovation in biotech?
- A.To increase pharmaceutical exports and improve the trade balance.
- B.To reduce dependence on foreign clinical trials for new drugs.
- C.To lower costs and expand access to advanced therapies for its large disease burden.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To attract more foreign direct investment in the healthcare sector.
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Explanation
The article concludes by stating, "the country with the world’s third-largest cancer burden cannot treat drug discovery as a distant goal." It links the innovation push directly to the goal of creating homegrown, affordable therapies (like CAR-T) to improve access for India's own population, not primarily for trade or investment reasons.
According to the article, which Pakistani leader was specifically praised by US President Trump and is involved in the US-Iran intermediary process?
- A.Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif
- B.Foreign Minister Ishaq Dar
- C.Field Marshal Asim Munir✓ Correct Answer
- D.President Asif Ali Zardari
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Explanation
The article states that Trump praised Field Marshal Munir as 'fantastic' and that Munir is visiting Tehran as part of the US-Iran negotiations, indicating his central role. The civilian leaders, Sharif and Dar, were on a separate trip to other countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic developments discussed in the article:
1. US President Trump had a 40-minute telephonic conversation with Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
2. The US-Iran talks are being held in Pakistan, with Field Marshal Asim Munir visiting Tehran.
3. Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif and Foreign Minister Ishaq Dar were visiting Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Turkey to brief them on the negotiations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of the 40-minute call. Statement 2 is correct as Trump hinted the talks would be in Pakistan and Munir visited Tehran. Statement 3 is correct as Sharif and Dar's trip to those three countries is mentioned, likely for briefing purposes.
As mentioned in the article, what was the duration of the telephonic conversation between US President Trump and Prime Minister Modi?
- A.20-minute
- B.30-minute
- C.40-minute✓ Correct Answer
- D.50-minute
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the conversation was 40 minutes long. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the fact mentioned.
What is the primary concern raised by the article regarding US diplomatic actions towards India and Pakistan?
- A.A reduction in US economic aid to Pakistan.
- B.A revival of the historical 'hyphenation' treating India and Pakistan as a strategic pair.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An increase in military conflicts between India and Pakistan.
- D.A shift in US focus away from the Quad alliance.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that Trump's balancing act between Modi and Munir, and Pakistan's intermediary role, could lead to a 're-hyphenation' of India-Pakistan relations, undermining India's independent global weight. The other options are not the central concern discussed.
The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary is located at the tri-junction of which three Indian states?
- A.Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan
- B.Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh
- D.Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the sanctuary is located at the tri-junction of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. This is a factual detail crucial for Prelims.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court order on Chambal sand mining:
1. The Supreme Court cautioned the Madhya Pradesh government about potential paramilitary deployment.
2. The Court attributed the rampant sand mining solely to the failure of the Madhya Pradesh government.
3. The Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras and GPS tracking along the routes used for mining.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court said the rampant mining is a result of the abject failure of the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, not solely MP. Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed installation of CCTV cameras and GPS tracking.
According to the news article, to which date has the Supreme Court posted the matter for further hearing?
- A.April 30, 2026
- B.May 5, 2026
- C.May 11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.May 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states 'matter posted for May 11'. This is a precise data point for Prelims recall.
What is the primary implication of the Supreme Court's warning of paramilitary deployment in this case?
- A.It signifies a shift in environmental policy from the states to the central government.
- B.It highlights the Court's use of suo motu powers for routine administrative oversight.
- C.It underscores the failure of state governance and the Court's 'last resort' option for enforcement.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It indicates the Court's intention to take over direct management of the sanctuary.
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Explanation
The warning of paramilitary deployment is a drastic step mentioned only if the State fails to initiate prosecution. This acts as a final deterrent, highlighting state failure and the judiciary's ultimate enforcement power when constitutional and statutory duties are neglected.
Which body of the European Union is responsible for enforcing the Digital Markets Act (DMA) as mentioned in the news?
- A.European Parliament
- B.European Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Council of the European Union
- D.Court of Justice of the European Union
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Explanation
The article states that the European Commission set out how Google must comply with the DMA. The European Commission is the EU's executive arm, responsible for proposing legislation and ensuring EU law is applied.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The European Commission's action is part of amicable proceedings launched in January 2026.
2. The Digital Markets Act (DMA) aims to regulate 'gatekeeper' platforms to ensure fair competition.
3. Violations of the DMA can lead to fines of up to 20% of a company's global turnover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions 'amicable proceedings launched in January'. Statement 2 correctly describes the DMA's objective. Statement 3 is incorrect; the fine is up to 10% of global turnover, not 20%, as stated in the article.
As per the Digital Markets Act (DMA) mentioned in the article, what is the maximum financial penalty for violations?
- A.Up to 5% of global turnover
- B.Up to 10% of global turnover✓ Correct Answer
- C.Up to 15% of global turnover
- D.Up to 20% of global turnover
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Any DMA violations can lead to fines of up to 10% of a company’s total global turnover.' The other percentages are plausible-sounding distractors.
What is the primary objective of the European Commission's action against Google under the Digital Markets Act (DMA), as inferred from the news?
- A.To increase tax revenue from digital companies
- B.To mandate localization of data servers within the EU
- C.To ensure data sharing with rivals to promote competition✓ Correct Answer
- D.To enforce stricter content moderation rules on search results
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Explanation
The core of the news is the EU spelling out 'how Google must make a wide range of data accessible to rival search engines' to comply with the DMA. The DMA's stated purpose, as mentioned, is to 'open up to competition' and 'limit abuses linked to market dominance'.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for India's representation and statements at the United Nations General Assembly?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry responsible for India's foreign policy and diplomatic engagements, including statements and representation at international forums like the United Nations General Assembly. India's Permanent Mission to the UN operates under the purview of the MEA.
Consider the following statements regarding India's statement at the UN:
1. India urged for the early restoration of freedom of navigation through the Strait of Malacca.
2. India's statement was primarily motivated by concerns for its energy and economic security.
3. The statement was delivered by India's Permanent Representative at a UN Security Council meeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. India urged for the restoration of freedom of navigation through the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca. Statement 2 is correct as the article explicitly states the concern was for India's energy and economic security. Statement 3 is incorrect; the statement was delivered at the UN General Assembly, not the UN Security Council.
On which date did India's Permanent Representative deliver the statement at the UN General Assembly urging restoration of navigation freedom in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.April 15, 2026
- B.April 16, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 17, 2026
- D.April 18, 2026
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Explanation
According to the article, India's Permanent Representative Ambassador Harish Parvathaneni made the statement in the UN General Assembly on Thursday, April 16, 2026. April 17, 2026, is the publication date of the news article.
What was the primary strategic concern cited by India in its UN statement regarding the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.To protect the marine biodiversity of the Persian Gulf.
- B.To ensure the security of commercial shipping for its energy imports.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a new naval base in the region.
- D.To mediate a ceasefire in the West Asia conflict.
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Explanation
The article clearly states, "An aspect of particular concern for India for its energy and economic security relates to commercial shipping through the Strait of Hormuz." Therefore, the core concern is securing the sea lane for energy imports, which is vital for India's economy. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.
The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), which tracks data on women in parliaments, is headquartered in which city?
- A.New York
- B.Geneva✓ Correct Answer
- C.London
- D.Paris
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is a Geneva-based global nonprofit. It maintains the Parline tracker on national parliaments.
Consider the following statements regarding women's representation in Indian legislatures:
1. The share of women MPs in the 18th Lok Sabha is higher than in the 17th Lok Sabha.
2. The Trinamool Congress has a higher percentage of women MPs in the Rajya Sabha than in the Lok Sabha.
3. No Indian state had a Vidhan Sabha with more than 15% women MLAs until after the 2023 Chhattisgarh elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 17th Lok Sabha (2019-24) had 14.36% women MPs, while the 18th has 13.6%. Statement 2 is correct: TMC has 46% women in Rajya Sabha (6/13) vs 39.3% in Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that until the 2023 Chhattisgarh election, no state had crossed the 15% mark.
According to the April 2026 data cited in the article, what is India's rank in terms of women's representation in Parliament?
- A.111th
- B.127th
- C.147th✓ Correct Answer
- D.165th
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Explanation
The article clearly states that out of some 190 countries, India ranks 147 in terms of women's representation in Parliament according to April 2026 data by Parline, the IPU tracker.
As per the IPU report mentioned in the article, what are the two most significant factors that have made a difference in the share of women elected to parliaments globally?
- A.Economic development and literacy rates
- B.Presence of women party leaders and campaign funding
- C.Electoral systems and gender quotas✓ Correct Answer
- D.Social media penetration and youth activism
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the IPU report, stating that 'two factors have made a significant difference...: electoral systems — especially proportional representation or mixed systems — and gender quotas in any form.'
Which state's cabinet has cleared the 'Rohith Vemula Bill' aimed at preventing discrimination in higher education?
- A.Maharashtra
- B.Karnataka✓ Correct Answer
- C.Telangana
- D.Uttar Pradesh
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Karnataka Cabinet cleared the bill on April 17, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bill:
1. The bill prohibits discrimination against SC/ST students in all institutes of higher education.
2. It mandates the formation of an 'Equity Committee' with a presiding member from the SC/ST communities.
3. Higher Educational Institutes violating the bill can face a fine of up to Rs 5 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the bill aims to safeguard SC/ST students in all higher education institutes. Statement 2 is correct as it requires forming an Equity Committee with an SC/ST presiding member. Statement 3 is incorrect; the fine is up to Rs 10 lakh, not Rs 5 lakh.
According to the provisions of the Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bill, what is the maximum penalty a Higher Educational Institute can face for violations?
- A.Rs 5 lakh
- B.Rs 10 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 25 lakh
- D.Rs 50 lakh
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Explanation
The article specifies that Higher Educational Institutes violating the law can face a fine of up to Rs 10 lakh from the state government.
What is the primary objective of the 'Equity Committee' mandated by the Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bill?
- A.To allocate scholarships to SC/ST students
- B.To oversee infrastructure development in colleges
- C.To act as a redressal authority for discrimination complaints✓ Correct Answer
- D.To conduct annual audits of institutional finances
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Explanation
The bill establishes the Equity Committee as a redressal authority if students from SC/ST groups face discrimination from teachers or fellow students, as stated in the article.
The Delhi High Court judgment dealt with provisions of the POCSO Act and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). The BNS replaced which older Indian law?
- A.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- B.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- C.The Indian Penal Code, 1860✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
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Explanation
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, is the new substantive criminal code that replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860. The BNS along with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) overhauled India's criminal justice system.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment on quashing a POCSO case:
1. The court quashed the FIR registered under Section 6 of the POCSO Act and the Indian Penal Code.
2. The court held that the concept of 'victim' must distinguish between a legal (de jure) victim and an actual (de facto) victim.
3. The judgment stated that quashing proceedings under POCSO is always an anathema to the law and cannot be permitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The FIR was registered under Section 6 of the POCSO Act and provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), not the Indian Penal Code. Statement 2 is correct as the court highlighted the de jure vs. de facto victim distinction. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court explicitly said quashing under POCSO is 'not an anathema to the law'.
According to the news article, on which date was the First Information Report (FIR) in the quashed POCSO case registered?
- A.September 4, 2024
- B.April 16, 2026
- C.June 13, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- D.June 12, 2025
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Explanation
The article states 'The case stemmed from an FIR registered on June 13, 2025'. September 4, 2024, is the marriage date. April 16, 2026, is when the court set aside the FIR. June 12, 2025, is the child's birth date.
What was the primary rationale given by the Delhi High Court for quashing the POCSO proceedings in this specific case?
- A.To reduce the backlog of cases in the judicial system.
- B.Because the accused was a first-time offender with no criminal record.
- C.To protect the family unit and prevent re-victimisation, as there was 'no de facto victim'.✓ Correct Answer
- D.As the offence occurred before the BNS came into effect, making the IPC applicable.
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Explanation
The court's core reasoning was that continuing prosecution where the prosecutrix (now wife) disclaimed harm would be an 'exercise in futility' and could destroy the family, leaving her and the child without support. It emphasized the absence of a 'de facto victim' despite the legal (de jure) status of the minor.
The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary spans across which of the following Indian states?
- A.Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan
- B.Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan✓ Correct Answer
- C.Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Madhya Pradesh
- D.Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Uttar Pradesh
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Supreme Court's order is for the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh regarding the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary. This is a standard static GK fact about the sanctuary's location.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court order on Chambal Sanctuary:
1. The Court took suo motu cognisance of the issue of illegal sand mining.
2. The Court ordered the immediate deployment of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in the sanctuary area.
3. The Court gave a one-month deadline to the concerned states to take concrete measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Bench took suo motu cognisance. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court threatened future paramilitary deployment if states fail, but did not order immediate CRPF deployment. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a one-month deadline, with the next hearing on May 11, 2026.
As per the Supreme Court order mentioned in the news, by what date must the states of M.P., U.P., and Rajasthan present concrete measures to curb illegal sand mining?
- A.April 30, 2026
- B.May 11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 17, 2026
- D.June 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the Supreme Court warned states to take measures within a month, 'by the next date of hearing on May 11.' This is a direct factual data point from the news.
What is the primary ecological concern cited by the Supreme Court in its order against illegal sand mining in the Chambal Sanctuary?
- A.Depletion of groundwater resources in the surrounding states.
- B.Increased river pollution affecting downstream urban water supply.
- C.Severe degradation of the critical habitat of the endangered gharial.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Loss of revenue for state governments from illegal activities.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Court's suo motu cognisance was due to illegal mining 'resulting in severe degradation of critical wildlife habitats, including that of the endangered gharials.' The other options, while potential secondary impacts, are not the primary concern highlighted in the judicial order.
Which institution conducted the 7-day VRRR auction mentioned in the news to withdraw transient liquidity?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted the 7-day Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction. The RBI is India's central bank and is responsible for monetary policy and liquidity management in the banking system.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's VRRR auction mentioned in the news:
1. The auction was undersubscribed, with bids lower than the notified amount.
2. The funds were accepted at a cut-off rate of 5.24%.
3. The primary objective was to inject liquidity into the banking system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the auction received higher bids (₹2,28,098 crore) than the notified amount (₹2 lakh crore), meaning it was oversubscribed, not undersubscribed. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because a VRRR auction is used to absorb or withdraw liquidity, not inject it.
According to the news, what was the exact amount (in crore) that the RBI withdrew from the banking system via the 7-day VRRR auction?
- A.₹2,00,000 crore
- B.₹2,00,031 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2,28,098 crore
- D.₹2,50,000 crore
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the RBI pulled out '₹2,00,031 crore' of transient liquidity. While the notified amount was ₹2 lakh crore, the accepted withdrawal was ₹2,00,031 crore. Option A is the rounded notified amount, and option C is the total bid amount received.
What is the primary purpose of the RBI conducting a Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction as described in the news?
- A.To permanently reduce the statutory reserve requirements for banks.
- B.To provide long-term capital for infrastructure projects.
- C.To absorb temporary excess liquidity from the banking system.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To directly finance the government's fiscal deficit.
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Explanation
VRRR is a liquidity management tool. As per the context of the article, it is used to withdraw or absorb 'transient liquidity' (temporary excess funds) from the banking system. This helps in aligning short-term market rates with the policy rate and managing inflation. It is not used for reserve requirements, project financing, or deficit financing.
According to the article, which institution's official records detail India's gold pledge during the 1991 Balance of Payments crisis?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states "according to official RBI records" when detailing the pledge of approximately 67 tonnes of gold to raise emergency funds in 1991. The RBI is India's central bank and maintains such financial records.
Consider the following statements regarding historical oil shocks and India's response:
1. During the 1990 Gulf War crisis, India's foreign exchange reserves fell to a level insufficient to cover oil import costs.
2. In response to the 2008 oil price spike, the Government of India issued oil bonds and also increased excise duties on petroleum products.
3. The Russia-Ukraine war led India to decrease its imports of Russian crude due to Western sanctions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: reserves fell to $1-1.2 billion, not enough for oil imports. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says customs duties were cut to zero, not increased. Statement 3 is incorrect; India increased imports of discounted Russian crude.
According to the article, what was the approximate amount of foreign currency raised by India by pledging gold during the 1991 crisis?
- A.About $400 million
- B.About $600 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.About $800 million
- D.About $1 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states that pledging about 67 tonnes of gold raised "about $600 million in foreign currency." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is identified in the article as a primary long-term strategic response by India to mitigate the impact of global oil shocks?
- A.Increasing subsidies on domestic petroleum products
- B.Diversifying energy import sources and developing Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Imposing export restrictions on agricultural commodities to earn foreign exchange
- D.Nationalizing all private oil marketing companies
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists diversification of energy imports and the development of SPRs as key policy measures India has taken to better absorb energy market volatility and reduce dependence on a single source.
Which constitutional body is vested with the power under Article 142 to ensure 'complete justice'?
- A.The Parliament of India
- B.The Election Commission of India
- C.The Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.The President of India
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Explanation
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court the unique and extraordinary power to pass any decree or make any order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'State of India's Bats, 2024-25' report:
1. It is the first-ever national assessment of bat species in India.
2. It reported that all 135 bat species found in India have been assessed by the IUCN.
3. The report was pieced together by bat experts from the Nature Conservation Foundation and Bat Conservation International.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is the 'first-ever national assessment'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report found that 35 species have either not been assessed or data is deficient. Statement 3 is correct as the report was led by the Nature Conservation Foundation (NCF) and Bat Conservation International.
According to the India Meteorological Department's first forecast mentioned in the article, what percentage of the Long Period Average (LPA) is the monsoon rainfall for the year expected to be?
- A.90%
- B.92%✓ Correct Answer
- C.95%
- D.98%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the IMD forecast said 'the country as a whole was likely to get only 92% of normal rainfall'. It further notes this is the lowest forecast in 20 years.
What was the primary reason given in the article for the Supreme Court's invocation of Article 142 in the context of the West Bengal elections?
- A.To disqualify certain candidates from contesting.
- B.To order a re-poll in specific constituencies.
- C.To allow voters cleared by appellate tribunals to vote despite the frozen electoral roll.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
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Explanation
The article explains that the electoral roll is frozen by law after the nomination date. The Supreme Court used Article 142 to override this statutory freeze, enabling the publication of supplementary lists so that individuals cleared by the appellate tribunals could exercise their franchise.
Who introduced the term "illiberal democracy" in a 1997 Foreign Affairs article?
- A.Marc F. Plattner
- B.Larry Diamond
- C.Viktor Orbán
- D.Fareed Zakaria✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the term "illiberal democracy" was first introduced by Fareed Zakaria in an article titled "The Rise of Illiberal Democracy" published in Foreign Affairs in 1997.
Consider the following statements regarding the concepts discussed in the article:
1. Liberal democracy is characterized by the rule of law, universal suffrage, and protection of civil rights.
2. The term "illiberal democracy" describes systems that hold elections but completely lack a liberal tradition.
3. Historically, democracy (universal suffrage) came about before liberty (limited government and rule of law).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as defined by Marc F. Plattner in the article. Statement 2 is correct as per Fareed Zakaria's description. Statement 3 is incorrect; Larry Diamond notes that historically "liberty... came about before democracy."
In the 2026 Hungarian parliamentary elections, how many seats did the Tisza party win out of the 199-member Parliament?
- A.120 seats
- B.136 seats✓ Correct Answer
- C.150 seats
- D.165 seats
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Explanation
The article states that Orbán's center-right opponent, the Tisza party led by Péter Magyar, won 136 seats of the 199-member Hungarian Parliament.
According to Marc F. Plattner's observation cited in the article, what is a key threat to liberal democracy?
- A.The rise of communist ideologies
- B.The failure of electoral systems
- C.Mainstream center-right parties being captured by tendencies hostile to liberal democracy✓ Correct Answer
- D.Economic recession leading to political instability
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Explanation
The article quotes Plattner saying the threat to liberal democracy lies in the possibility that "mainstream center-right parties will be captured by tendencies that are indifferent or even hostile to liberal democracy."
The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary spans across which of the following states?
- A.Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
- B.Rajasthan and Gujarat
- C.Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
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Explanation
The article mentions that the Supreme Court issued notices to the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh concerning illegal mining in the National Chambal Sanctuary, indicating it spans these three states.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's directions on illegal sand mining:
1. The Court ordered the installation of high-resolution CCTV cameras and mandatory GPS devices in mining vehicles on a pilot basis.
2. The Court invoked its powers under Article 32 of the Constitution to issue these directions.
3. The Court warned that failure to comply could lead to a complete ban on sand mining and deployment of paramilitary forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the key directions in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court invoked Article 142 (power to do complete justice), not Article 32. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions warnings of a complete ban and paramilitary deployment.
On which date did the Supreme Court initiate the suo motu writ petition titled 'In Re: Illegal Sand Mining in the National Chambal Sanctuary and Threat to Endangered Aquatic Wildlife'?
- A.April 8, 2026
- B.March 13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 2026
- D.May 11, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the suo motu writ petition was initiated on March 13. April 8 is the date of a forest guard's killing, January 2026 is another incident date, and May 11 is the date of the next hearing.
What is the primary constitutional significance of the Supreme Court linking the illegal mining issue to the 'Right to Life' under Article 21?
- A.It allows the Central Government to directly impose President's Rule in the affected states.
- B.It elevates environmental protection from a mere policy directive to an enforceable fundamental right.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It empowers the National Green Tribunal to take suo motu cognizance of all mining cases.
- D.It mandates the compulsory acquisition of private land for wildlife conservation.
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Explanation
By linking environmental degradation (like illegal mining destroying habitats) to Article 21, the Supreme Court reinforces its established jurisprudence that a clean and healthy environment is integral to the right to life. This makes environmental protection a legally enforceable fundamental right, not just a Directive Principle of State Policy.
The Allahabad High Court, which refused to quash the FIR in the news, is the High Court for which Indian state(s)?
- A.Uttar Pradesh only
- B.Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand✓ Correct Answer
- C.Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Delhi
- D.Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
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Explanation
The Allahabad High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Uttar Pradesh. Historically, it also had jurisdiction over Uttarakhand before it became a separate state. Even after Uttarakhand's formation, the Allahabad High Court remained its High Court until the separate High Court of Uttarakhand was established at Nainital in 2000. The article mentions the case pertains to Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Allahabad High Court quashed the FIR registered under the Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021.
2. The Court observed that stopping a new statute meant to curb an 'emergent mischief' at the initial stage would frustrate its purpose.
3. The case involved allegations of attempting religious conversion by forcing a classmate to wear traditional attire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The High Court refused to quash the FIR, it did not quash it. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's observation: 'A statute that is enacted to curtail an emergent mischief, if stopped in its tracks at the very early stages... would bog down the statute and frustrate its purpose.' Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions allegations of forcing a burqa (a veil) on a classmate.
Under which sections of the Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021, was the FIR lodged in the case discussed?
- A.Sections 4 and 6
- B.Sections 3 and 5(1)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sections 2 and 7
- D.Sections 5 and 8
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The two girls sought to quash the FIR lodged on January 22 under sections 3 and 5(1) of anti-conversion Act.' Sections 3 and 5(1) deal with prohibition of conversion and declaration of conversion respectively.
What was a key reason cited by the Allahabad High Court for not quashing the FIR at this stage?
- A.The accused had already confessed to the crime.
- B.The court found the allegations to be politically motivated.
- C.The court found tangible materials like a victim statement and CCTV evidence in the case diary.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The anti-conversion law had been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
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Explanation
The court stated that the victim's statement before the Judicial Magistrate 'cannot be trashed' and noted from the case diary that the victim was caught on a CCTV camera. It concluded that these materials prima facie attracted the provisions of the Act, making it unfit for quashing at the threshold.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is established under which Act?
- A.The Information Technology Act, 2000
- B.The Consumer Protection Act, 2019✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
- D.The Indian Contract Act, 1872
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Explanation
The NCDRC is the apex body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, for redressal of consumer disputes. The Act provides for a three-tier quasi-judicial mechanism comprising District, State, and National Commissions.
Consider the following statements regarding the NCDRC ruling in the SBI cyber fraud case:
1. The commission ordered SBI to refund ₹1.99 lakh and pay compensation of ₹25,000 to the customer.
2. The ruling was based on an RBI circular that provides for zero customer liability if the fraud is reported within seven calendar days.
3. The commission held that downloading a fraudulent application amounts to contributory negligence by the consumer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the RBI circular mandates reporting within three working days, not seven calendar days. Statement 3 is incorrect; the commission explicitly stated that merely downloading an app does not amount to negligence by the consumer.
According to the RBI circular cited in the NCDRC ruling, within how many working days must a customer report an unauthorized electronic transaction caused by a third-party breach to qualify for 'zero liability'?
- A.1 working day
- B.3 working days✓ Correct Answer
- C.5 working days
- D.7 working days
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Explanation
The article specifically references the RBI circular dated July 6, 2017, which states that customers bear zero liability in cases of unauthorized electronic transactions caused by third-party breaches, provided the fraud is reported within three working days.
What is the primary significance of the NCDRC's ruling in the SBI cyber fraud case for consumer protection?
- A.It mandates that all banks must offer free cyber insurance to their customers.
- B.It shifts the burden of proof onto banks to demonstrate customer negligence in unauthorized transaction cases.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It requires customers to use biometric authentication for all digital payments above ₹10,000.
- D.It directs the Telecom Regulatory Authority to block all suspicious SMS senders.
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Explanation
The core significance of the ruling is that it reinforces that banks cannot automatically blame the customer. The liability lies with the bank unless it can provide concrete evidence (like OTP sharing) of customer negligence. This strengthens the RBI's zero-liability framework and empowers consumers.
The list of banks authorized to import bullion, as per the news, is issued by which government body?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- C.Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article states that the commerce ministry's Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) issued the order authorizing the banks. While the RBI grants approval to banks to act as nominated agencies, the specific list for bullion imports under the Foreign Trade Policy is issued by DGFT.
Consider the following statements regarding the bullion import authorizations mentioned in the news:
1. A total of 17 banks have been authorized to import bullion for a period of three years.
2. All 17 authorized banks are permitted to import both gold and silver.
3. The authorization list includes foreign banks such as Industrial and Commercial Bank of China and Sberbank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the DGFT authorized 17 banks for three years. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 15 banks are authorized for both gold and silver; two banks (Union Bank and Sberbank) are authorized for gold only. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly names these foreign banks.
According to the article, what was the value of India's gold imports in the financial year 2025-26?
- A.$48 billion
- B.$60 billion
- C.$72 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$84 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states that India brought in '$72 billion worth of it [gold] in 2025-26'. This was 24% higher than the previous year. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What was a major immediate consequence of the delay in issuing the list of banks authorized to import bullion, as per the news?
- A.A sharp decline in the international price of gold and silver.
- B.An increase in smuggling activities across the borders.
- C.Effective halting of gold imports and consignments stuck at customs.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Reserve Bank of India had to intervene with an emergency credit line.
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Explanation
The article quotes an economist stating the delay 'effectively halted gold imports' and a Reuters report specifying that it led to 'more than 5 tonnes of gold and around 8 tonnes of silver being stuck without customs clearance'. The other options, while possible long-term effects, are not mentioned as immediate consequences in the provided text.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 17 April 2026?▼
This page contains 112 current affairs questions from 17 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 17 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. constitutional articles are primarily concerned with the compo…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative pa…
- Q3. According to the article, until when is the freeze on Lok Sabh…
- Q4. is the primary federal concern raised in the article regarding…
- Q5. ministry issued the Gazette notification bringing the Women's …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q7. is the percentage of seats reserved for women in legislatures …
- Q8. is the primary significance of the Gazette notification mentio…
- Q9. constitutional body is primarily responsible for the superinte…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q11. According to the article, how many electors were initially fla…
- Q12. was the primary objective of the Supreme Court invoking Articl…
- Q13. international organization publishes the World Economic Outloo…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India's economic r…
- Q15. According to the IMF's World Economic Outlook mentioned in the…
- Q16. was a key implication of the Indian rupee losing value against…
- Q17. The Sabarimala Reference case is being heard by which judicial…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments in t…
- Q19. In which year did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar use the phrase 'constituti…
- Q20. According to the article, what is a primary implication if the…
- Q21. constitutional body has directed the government to frame a com…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news on vaccin…
- Q23. According to the article, approximately how many crore doses o…
- Q24. is the core constitutional principle highlighted by the articl…
- Q25. part of the Indian Constitution contains the directive princip…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges of …
- Q27. According to the article, what has the phrase 'justice delayed…
- Q28. is the primary critique leveled by the article against the cur…
- Q29. Under which ministry is the National Rural Livelihood Mission …
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the National Rural…
- Q31. According to the article, what is the approximate number of wo…
- Q32. broader strategic significance does the adoption of India's NR…
- Q33. national agency in India is the main cybersecurity body for th…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's Mythos…
- Q35. On which date did Anthropic announce its decision regarding th…
- Q36. is the primary reason cited by Anthropic for not releasing the…
- Q37. Under which Ministry does the India Meteorological Department …
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 monsoon f…
- Q39. According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what p…
- Q40. As per the article, what is a primary reason cited for reduced…
- Q41. ministry is primarily responsible for granting emigration clea…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding Indian migration g…
- Q43. According to the article, what was the estimated number of Ind…
- Q44. is the core criticism of India's current migration governance …
- Q45. The news discusses strategies like 'patent thickets' used by p…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q47. According to the investigation mentioned in the article, what …
- Q48. is the primary reason cited in the article for India's need to…
- Q49. According to the article, which Pakistani leader was specifica…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic dev…
- Q51. As mentioned in the article, what was the duration of the tele…
- Q52. is the primary concern raised by the article regarding US dipl…
- Q53. The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary is located at the tri-j…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q55. According to the news article, to which date has the Supreme C…
- Q56. is the primary implication of the Supreme Court's warning of p…
- Q57. body of the European Union is responsible for enforcing the Di…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q59. As per the Digital Markets Act (DMA) mentioned in the article,…
- Q60. is the primary objective of the European Commission's action a…
- Q61. ministry/department is primarily responsible for India's repre…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding India's statement …
- Q63. On which date did India's Permanent Representative deliver the…
- Q64. was the primary strategic concern cited by India in its UN sta…
- Q65. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), which tracks data on wome…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding women's representa…
- Q67. According to the April 2026 data cited in the article, what is…
- Q68. As per the IPU report mentioned in the article, what are the t…
- Q69. state's cabinet has cleared the 'Rohith Vemula Bill' aimed at …
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Rohi…
- Q71. According to the provisions of the Karnataka Rohith Vemula Bil…
- Q72. is the primary objective of the 'Equity Committee' mandated by…
- Q73. The Delhi High Court judgment dealt with provisions of the POC…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
- Q75. According to the news article, on which date was the First Inf…
- Q76. was the primary rationale given by the Delhi High Court for qu…
- Q77. The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary spans across which of t…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q79. As per the Supreme Court order mentioned in the news, by what …
- Q80. is the primary ecological concern cited by the Supreme Court i…
- Q81. institution conducted the 7-day VRRR auction mentioned in the …
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's VRRR auc…
- Q83. According to the news, what was the exact amount (in crore) th…
- Q84. is the primary purpose of the RBI conducting a Variable Rate R…
- Q85. According to the article, which institution's official records…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding historical oil sho…
- Q87. According to the article, what was the approximate amount of f…
- Q88. is identified in the article as a primary long-term strategic …
- Q89. constitutional body is vested with the power under Article 142…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the 'State of Indi…
- Q91. According to the India Meteorological Department's first forec…
- Q92. was the primary reason given in the article for the Supreme Co…
- Q93. introduced the term "illiberal democracy" in a 1997 Foreign Af…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the concepts discu…
- Q95. In the 2026 Hungarian parliamentary elections, how many seats …
- Q96. According to Marc F. Plattner's observation cited in the artic…
- Q97. The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary spans across which of t…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q99. On which date did the Supreme Court initiate the suo motu writ…
- Q100. is the primary constitutional significance of the Supreme Cour…
- Q101. The Allahabad High Court, which refused to quash the FIR in th…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q103. Under which sections of the Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlaw…
- Q104. was a key reason cited by the Allahabad High Court for not qua…
- Q105. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the NCDRC ruling i…
- Q107. According to the RBI circular cited in the NCDRC ruling, withi…
- Q108. is the primary significance of the NCDRC's ruling in the SBI c…
- Q109. The list of banks authorized to import bullion, as per the new…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the bullion import…
- Q111. According to the article, what was the value of India's gold i…
- Q112. was a major immediate consequence of the delay in issuing the …