18 April 2026, Questions & Answers
100 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
100 questions · 0 topics covered · 20 min revision
Start Interactive Quiz →
This page contains 100 current affairs questions with answers from 18 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
Use this page for:
- Daily revision
- Prelims preparation
- Quick self-assessment
- Mains answer enrichment
Want to test yourself first? Try the interactive quiz before checking answers.
Take the 18 April 2026 Quiz →18 April 2026, Questions with Answers
100 QsWhich constitutional article governs the procedure for amending the Constitution of India, as relevant to the defeat of the 131st Amendment Bill?
- A.Article 352
- B.Article 368✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 356
- D.Article 370
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure thereof. The 131st Amendment Bill required a special majority as per this article, which it failed to secure.
Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026:
1. It sought to delimit Lok Sabha constituencies based on the population data from the 2026-27 Census.
2. The bill required a simple majority of members present and voting in the Lok Sabha to pass.
3. Its defeat led to the shelving of the companion Delimitation Bill and Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The bill mandated delimitation based on the latest Census, which is currently 2011, not the 2026-27 Census. Statement 2 is incorrect: A constitutional amendment requires a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting), not a simple majority. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states the government shelved the companion bills after the main bill's defeat.
According to the news, how many votes were in favor of the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, in the Lok Sabha?
- A.230
- B.298✓ Correct Answer
- C.352
- D.528
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that 298 members voted in favor of the bill. 230 voted against, 352 was the number of votes required to pass, and 528 was the total number of members present and voting.
What was a primary reason cited in the editorial for the opposition's rejection of the Home Minister's verbal guarantee during the debate?
- A.The guarantee promised a reduction in the total number of Lok Sabha seats.
- B.The guarantee was not incorporated into the official text of the Bill.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The guarantee was provided by a minister not responsible for the subject.
- D.The guarantee contradicted the provisions of the women's reservation bill.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article questions why a proportional increase for southern states was not in the Bill itself if it was the intent, highlighting that the Opposition dismissed the verbal guarantee because it was not part of the official amendment. The bill's text clearly mandated delimitation based on the 2011 Census.
In which house of Parliament was the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, voted on as per the news?
- A.Rajya Sabha
- B.Lok Sabha✓ Correct Answer
- C.Both Houses in a joint session
- D.Standing Committee
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that members voted on the Bill in the Lok Sabha on April 17, 2026. The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament where money bills and most other bills are introduced.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, was voted on in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Bill aims to address the gap between low female voter turnout and their high representation in legislatures.
3. High turnout among women voters is cited in the article as a sign of democratic vitality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions voting in the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article highlights the gap between high female voter turnout and low representation, not low turnout. Statement 3 is correct as the article directly states this point.
As per the news, on which date did the Lok Sabha vote on the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- A.April 17, 2025
- B.April 17, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 18, 2026
- D.April 19, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article caption for the image clearly states the voting occurred in the Lok Sabha on April 17, 2026. The published date of the opinion piece is April 18, 2026, which is a close distractor.
What is the primary democratic contradiction highlighted by the article that the Women's Reservation Bill seeks to address?
- A.Contradiction between high male voter turnout and low male representation
- B.Contradiction between participation in elections and representation in legislatures for women✓ Correct Answer
- C.Contradiction between state and central government policies on reservation
- D.Contradiction between constitutional provisions and their implementation
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article's core argument is that India has high voter participation and an engaged female electorate, yet women remain underrepresented in legislative institutions. The Bill aims to bridge this specific gap between electoral participation and political representation.
Which constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Law Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body constituted under the Delimitation Act to redraw the boundaries of constituencies. This is directly linked to the news, as the amendment's defeat centered on apprehensions about the delimitation process.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The constitutional amendment defeated in Parliament sought to delink women's reservation from the delimitation exercise.
2. The principle of women's reservation in legislatures is already enshrined in an Act passed in 2023.
3. A key opposition concern was the need to wait for caste data from the ongoing census before proceeding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect; the amendment sought to LINK women's reservation to delimitation, not delink it. Statement 2 is correct as the Women's Reservation Act was passed in 2023. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the opposition questioned the refusal to wait for census data including caste numbers.
According to the article, for how long has the freeze on the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies been in place?
- A.Three decades
- B.Four decades
- C.Five decades✓ Correct Answer
- D.Six decades
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly mentions a 'five decades-long freeze' on the expansion of seats, which the government's amendment sought to lift as part of implementing women's reservation.
What was the primary reason cited in the article for the opposition's resistance to the government's constitutional amendment on women's reservation?
- A.Opposition to the principle of women's reservation itself
- B.Concerns over the haste and distrust in the institutional mechanism for delimitation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of sufficient funds for implementing the reservation
- D.Belief that reservation should be extended to other social groups first
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the opposition flagged the 'cloud of distrust on delimitation's institutional mechanism' and questioned the haste, not the principle of reservation itself. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation exercise necessary to implement the Women's Reservation Act?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Law Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the Act awaits the 'delimitation exercise'. The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body constituted under the Delimitation Act to redraw electoral constituency boundaries. The Election Commission conducts polls but does not delimit constituencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the women's reservation debate in the Constituent Assembly:
1. Hansa Mehta and Renuka Ray were the only two women members who opposed reservation for women.
2. R K Chaudhari was the sole male member who argued in favor of reservation for women.
3. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for reservation of seats for women in the legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article says 'two out of the 15 women' opposed it, but does NOT state they were the 'only two' who opposed it; others may have had different views or remained silent. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'the only one in favour was a man: R K Chaudhari.' Statement 3 is correct as Renuka Ray recalled her opposition to the 1935 Act which ensured reservation for women.
According to the article, what percentage of legislators in the Lok Sabha were women after the first general election of 1951-52?
- A.4.9%✓ Correct Answer
- B.9.4%
- C.13.6%
- D.15.0%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article provides the data point: 'a definite improvement from the 4.9% in the first general election of 1951-52'. The current figure of 13.6% is a close distractor. The other percentages are not mentioned.
What was the primary argument advanced by Hansa Mehta and Renuka Ray against legislating reservation for women in the Constituent Assembly?
- A.Reservation would violate the principle of secularism.
- B.Reservation would impede women's growth and insult their intelligence and capacity.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reservation was financially unviable for the newly independent nation.
- D.Reservation required a prior constitutional amendment which was not possible.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly quotes Renuka Ray saying reservation would be 'an impediment to our growth and an insult to our very intelligence and capacity.' Hansa Mehta similarly argued for social, economic, and political justice based on equality, not privileges. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation of Lok Sabha and Assembly constituencies?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Law Commission of India
- D.National Commission for Women
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body constituted under the Delimitation Act to redraw constituency boundaries based on census data. This is directly relevant as the news mentions delimitation as a prerequisite for implementing women's reservation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reservation Act:
1. The Act provides for 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. The Act was notified and its implementation timeline began on April 16, 2026.
3. The Act can be implemented immediately without any further procedural requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Act mandates 33% reservation. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which states the Act was notified on April 16, 2026, starting its timeline. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clarifies implementation requires delimitation, which is a procedural hurdle.
For how many years is the sunset clause of the notified Women's Reservation Act (2023) valid?
- A.10 years
- B.15 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.20 years
- D.25 years
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the law timeline of 15 years, often referred to as the 'sunset clause', begins from April 16, 2026. The other options are plausible but incorrect durations.
What was the primary objective of the defeated Constitution (131st) Amendment Bill, 2026, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To increase the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha
- B.To redistribute Lok Sabha seats based on the 2011 Census to expedite women's reservation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To extend the sunset clause of the Women's Reservation Act
- D.To amend the eligibility criteria for women candidates
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the bill 'sought to redistribute Lok Sabha seats on the basis of the 2011 Census to expedite the implementation of women’s reservation'. This was its core purpose, aiming to bypass the need for a fresh census for delimitation.
Which ministry/department is responsible for releasing the new GDP series with base year 2022-23?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.NITI Aayog
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the new series of national income accounts, shifting the base from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
2. The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, sought to advance reservation of 33% seats for women in Lok Sabha and state Assemblies and facilitate delimitation of constituencies.
3. India's GDP for 2026, according to IMF's World Economic Outlook, is projected to be $4.38 trillion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's 'Do You Know' section. Statement 2 is correct as described in the 'Key Takeaways'. Statement 3 is incorrect: India's projected GDP for 2026 is $4.15 trillion; $4.38 trillion is Japan's projected GDP.
According to the article, what is the current percentage share of women MPs in the 18th Lok Sabha (2024-29)?
- A.4.9%
- B.10.9%
- C.13.6%✓ Correct Answer
- D.14.36%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states: "the figure for the incumbent House — the 18th Lok Sabha (2024-29) — stands at 75 out of a total 543 (13.6%)." 4.9% was the share in the first Lok Sabha, 10.9% in 2009, and 14.36% in the previous Lok Sabha (2019-24).
What was a key reason cited in the article for the recent worker protests in Noida related to minimum wages?
- A.Introduction of a new income tax slab
- B.Delay in the issuance of the list of banks authorized to import gold
- C.Inadequacy in the revision of the basic component of minimum wages, last revised in 2014/2015✓ Correct Answer
- D.A sudden increase in the repo rate by the RBI
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article identifies that while inflation updates happened regularly, "the basic component was last revised in Haryana in 2015 and in 2014 in UP" and was not revised every five years as stipulated, leading to falling real wages and protests.
Under which Ministry does the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, responsible for conducting the Census, function?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which conducts the decennial Census of India, operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding delimitation and Article 81:
1. Article 81(3) currently freezes the total number of Lok Sabha seats.
2. The proviso to Article 81(3) mandates that for delimitation within a state, the 2001 census figures are to be used.
3. The freeze on delimitation was first introduced through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 81(3) freezes the population basis for seat allocation (at 1971), not the total number of seats. Statement 2 is correct as per the proviso (ii) to Article 81(3). Statement 3 is incorrect; the initial freeze was introduced by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, but the article mentions extensions in 2001, not the first introduction.
As per the Cabinet press release mentioned in the article, when is the Population Enumeration phase of the upcoming Census scheduled to begin for most of India?
- A.April 2026
- B.September 2026
- C.February 2027✓ Correct Answer
- D.December 2027
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the Cabinet press release of December 12, 2025, announced the Population Enumeration (PE) phase would be conducted in February 2027 for most of the country, with exceptions for snow-bound areas.
What is the primary constitutional principle that will be enforced upon the lapse of the delimitation freeze under Article 81?
- A.Protection of linguistic minorities
- B.One person, one vote, one value✓ Correct Answer
- C.Proportional representation for all states
- D.Fixed ratio of rural to urban constituencies
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the reason for the impending seat reallocation is the constitutional principle enshrined in Article 81: 'one person, one vote, one value'. The lapse of the freeze will make seat distribution reflect current population, upholding this principle.
The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is primarily related to which domain of bilateral relations?
- A.Defense and Security Cooperation
- B.Trade and Economic Integration✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cultural and Educational Exchange
- D.Energy and Infrastructure Development
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a type of free trade agreement focused on reducing tariffs, improving market access, and setting rules for trade in goods, services, and investment, as mentioned in the article's context of bilateral trade.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis as per the article:
1. Iran has completely closed the Strait of Hormuz, blocking all maritime traffic.
2. The UAE has termed Iran's actions as 'economic terrorism' impacting India's imports.
3. The total India-UAE trade under CEPA was USD 100 billion in the year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: the article states the Strait is not completely closed but access is 'restricted, conditioned, and controlled' with Iran charging a toll. Statement 2 is correct as per the UAE minister's quote. Statement 3 is incorrect: the trade figure for 2025 is USD 75 billion, not USD 100 billion.
According to the article, what was the value of total India-UAE trade under CEPA in the year 2025?
- A.USD 50 Billion
- B.USD 75 Billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.USD 100 Billion
- D.USD 200 Billion
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'total trade reaching USD 75 billion in 2025.' USD 200 billion is the target for 2032, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the significant impact of the Strait of Hormuz closure on India?
- A.Disruption of Indian exports to European markets.
- B.Threat to the safety of the Indian diaspora in the UAE.
- C.Dependence on the corridor for crude oil, LPG, and fertilizer imports.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Cancellation of major infrastructure projects under CEPA.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article directly quotes the UAE minister stating that the Strait's closure 'impacts India, which depends on this corridor for a significant share of its crude oil, LPG, and fertilizer imports.' This is identified as the core economic impact.
Which constitutional principle is most directly invoked by Justice Nagarathna's emphasis on judges being free from external pressures?
- A.Rule of Law
- B.Judicial Independence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Separation of Powers
- D.Natural Justice
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Justice Nagarathna's call for judges to be free from external pressures directly aligns with the constitutional principle of Judicial Independence, which is essential for a fair judiciary. While Separation of Powers (Article 50) supports this, the core concept invoked is independence itself.
Consider the following statements regarding Justice BV Nagarathna's speech:
1. She stated that judges succumbing to greed must be removed from the system.
2. She emphasized that judges must be free from pressure from their colleagues.
3. She argued that Artificial Intelligence should replace human judges to ensure efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as she said judges "fall prey to greed and temptation must be weeded out." Statement 2 is correct as she said judges must be free from "external pressures or from their colleagues." Statement 3 is incorrect; she warned against over-reliance on AI and said judges must retain control over reasoning, not that AI should replace them.
At which event did Justice BV Nagarathna deliver the speech discussed in the article?
- A.National Judicial Conference
- B.22nd Biennial State-Level Conference of Judicial Officers, Bengaluru✓ Correct Answer
- C.Supreme Court's Annual Retreat
- D.Conference on Legal Ethics
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the speech was delivered at the 22nd Biennial State-Level Conference of Judicial Officers in Bengaluru.
According to Justice Nagarathna, what is a key threat posed by Artificial Intelligence to the judiciary?
- A.It reduces the transparency of court proceedings.
- B.It creates a form of cognitive influence and threatens human cognitive autonomy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It makes legal research too expensive for common lawyers.
- D.It leads to faster but less accurate judgments.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Justice Nagarathna stated that if judges rely too much on AI, it can create cognitive influence and poses a threat to the cognitive autonomy of humans. This is the core threat she identified, emphasizing the need for judges to retain final control over reasoning.
Which office within the US Treasury Department issued the General License extending the sanctions waiver for Russian oil?
- A.Office of the Comptroller of the Currency
- B.Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bureau of Engraving and Printing
- D.Internal Revenue Service
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the General License was issued by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) of the US Department of the Treasury. OFAC is responsible for administering US economic and trade sanctions.
Consider the following statements regarding the US sanctions waiver for Russian oil:
1. The waiver extension allows purchase of oil loaded on or before April 17, 2026, until May 16, 2026.
2. The primary objective of the waiver is to increase US government revenue from energy exports.
3. The waiver specifically facilitates Indian refiners' ability to deal with sanctioned Russian companies like Rosneft.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the OFAC General License details. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the objective was to ease global supply and exert downward pressure on oil prices, not to increase US revenue. Statement 3 is correct as the waiver allowed Indian refiners to take deliveries from sanctioned tankers and deal with companies like Rosneft.
According to the article, what was India's approximate daily import volume of Russian crude oil in March 2026?
- A.1 million barrels per day
- B.1.6 million barrels per day
- C.2 million barrels per day✓ Correct Answer
- D.2.7 million barrels per day
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that India's Russian oil imports nearly doubled to 2 million barrels per day (bpd) in March 2026, according to tanker data from Kpler. The 1.6 million bpd figure is for the first two weeks of April, and 2.7 million bpd is mentioned as the upper range of India's total imports transiting Hormuz.
What was a key implication for India had the US NOT extended the Russian oil sanctions waiver?
- A.Indian refiners would have faced automatic tariffs on all energy imports.
- B.Indian refiners would have been exposed to the risk of US secondary sanctions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India would have been forced to halt all diplomatic ties with Russia.
- D.India's strategic oil reserves would have been mandated for immediate release.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explains that without the waiver, Indian refiners taking deliveries of Russian crude on sanctioned tankers or dealing with sanctioned Russian suppliers would have risked attracting secondary sanctions from the US. The other options are not mentioned as direct consequences in the article.
Which apex body has approved the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy for India's nuclear power sector as mentioned in the news?
- A.Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
- B.Atomic Energy Commission (AEC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
- D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that Seema Jain, Member (Finance) of DAE, said the Atomic Energy Commission has approved the FDI policy. The AEC is the apex policy-making body for atomic energy in India, while DAE is the administrative department.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on India's nuclear power sector:
1. The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy approved by the Atomic Energy Commission is a part of the push for the proposed SHANTI Act.
2. The estimated investment required to achieve 100 GW of nuclear power capacity by 2047 is ₹10 lakh crore.
3. The next technological challenge identified is the indigenization of Light Water Reactor (LWR) technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article links the FDI policy clearance to the SHANTI Act push. Statement 2 is incorrect; the required investment is ₹20 lakh crore, not ₹10 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as Seema Jain stated the next challenge is to indigenize LWR technology.
According to the article, what is the current estimated timeline for the entire process of a nuclear power project, including regulatory clearances and implementation?
- A.5-6 years
- B.8-9 years
- C.13 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.15 years
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Ghanshyam Prasad, Chairperson of CEA, highlighted that the current process for nuclear projects takes around 13 years. He stressed the need to reduce this to about 8-9 years. The other options are distractors related to the target or incorrect figures.
What is a primary expected outcome of diluting the liability clause under the proposed SHANTI Act, as discussed in the article?
- A.To increase government control over nuclear power generation
- B.To boost Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India's nuclear power sector✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the tariffs of existing nuclear power plants
- D.To accelerate the indigenization of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) technology
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article's opening states that the dilution of the liability clause under the proposed SHANTI Act is expected to boost FDI as it opens the sector to private participation. The other options are either not the primary outcome mentioned or are incorrect; for example, PHWR technology is already indigenized.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 323
- B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 325
- D.Article 326
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Election Commission of India, the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, is established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution. This article vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the ECI.
Consider the following statements regarding the new election monitoring measures:
1. For the first time, incidents of violence occurring outside the polling booth can be a ground for ordering a repoll.
2. If a webcam at a polling station remains inactive for more than one hour, officials may automatically order a repoll.
3. The Election Commission has identified Malda and Cooch Behar as 'super-sensitive' districts for the upcoming elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trigger for repoll is webcam inactivity for more than 30 minutes, not one hour. Statement 3 is correct as Malda and Cooch Behar are mentioned among the super-sensitive districts.
According to the article, what is the approximate number of polling booths in West Bengal that are mandated to have 100% webcasting coverage?
- A.Approximately 60,000
- B.Approximately 70,000
- C.Approximately 80,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 90,000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that West Bengal has approximately 80,000 polling booths, all of which are mandated to have 100 per cent webcasting coverage. The other figures are close distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Election Commission's shift to a 'proactive, technology-driven model' as described in the news?
- A.To reduce the cost of conducting elections by automating processes.
- B.To eliminate both overt and subtle forms of electoral malpractice and ensure a free and fair process.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase voter turnout by making the polling process faster.
- D.To delegate election monitoring responsibilities entirely to artificial intelligence.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As stated in the concluding part of the article, the ECI's aim is to eliminate both overt and subtle forms of electoral malpractice and ensure a free, fair and intimidation-free voting process. The other options describe potential secondary effects or misinterpretations of the model.
Which constitutional article establishes a High Court as a 'Court of Record'?
- A.Article 129
- B.Article 215✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 227
- D.Article 235
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Article 215 of the Indian Constitution states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court. Article 129 pertains to the Supreme Court as a court of record.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court observation:
1. The Supreme Court cautioned High Courts against publicly criticizing subordinate judicial officers.
2. The observation was made by a bench hearing an appeal against a Madras High Court order.
3. The Supreme Court stated that High Courts are expected to act as guardians of the district judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the case was against a Calcutta High Court order, not Madras High Court. Statement 3 is correct as the SC emphasized the guardian role of High Courts.
In the case discussed, for how many years had the bail order been in effect before the High Court cancelled it?
- A.Nearly 5 years
- B.Nearly 8 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nearly 10 years
- D.Nearly 12 years
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that the Supreme Court said the High Court was not justified in unsettling a bail order after nearly eight years on technical grounds.
What was the primary objective of the Supreme Court's observation in this news item?
- A.To increase the appellate jurisdiction of High Courts
- B.To reduce the backlog of cases in district courts
- C.To reinforce institutional respect and the protective role of High Courts✓ Correct Answer
- D.To introduce new guidelines for granting bail in civil cases
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The core of the observation was to caution against public criticism and to remind High Courts of their expected role as guardians of the district judiciary, thereby reinforcing institutional respect and hierarchy.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for executing the railway quadrupling project approved by the Union Cabinet?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Railway infrastructure projects, including line expansion and quadrupling, are executed by the Ministry of Railways. This ministry oversees the planning, construction, and operation of the Indian Railways network.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved railway project:
1. The project involves laying third and fourth railway lines between Rajahmundry and Visakhapatnam.
2. The total estimated cost of the project is ₹9,889 crore and the route length is 458 km.
3. The project is part of the quadrupling initiative of the Howrah-Chennai High Density Network (HDN) route.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions laying third and fourth lines. Statement 2 is incorrect; the cost is ₹9,889 crore but the route length is 198 km (458 km is the total track length). Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the project is part of quadrupling the Howrah-Chennai HDN route.
What is the estimated cost of the railway quadrupling project between Rajahmundry and Visakhapatnam approved by the Union Cabinet?
- A.₹8,500 crore
- B.₹9,889 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹10,250 crore
- D.₹11,500 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states the estimated cost is ₹9,889 crore. The other options are close distractors. Memorizing exact financial figures for major infrastructure projects is crucial for Prelims.
What is the primary objective of the approved railway quadrupling project on the Rajahmundry-Visakhapatnam corridor?
- A.To introduce high-speed passenger trains like Vande Bharat
- B.To ease congestion on one of the country's busiest rail corridors✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote tourism along the coastal regions of Andhra Pradesh
- D.To electrify the entire railway network in the state
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the project aims 'to ease congestion on one of the country's busiest rail corridors'. While improving port connectivity and boosting freight traffic are secondary benefits, decongestion is the core objective mentioned.
Which body is responsible for proposing the amendments to ease norms for medical colleges and tighten PG standards?
- A.Medical Council of India (MCI)
- B.National Medical Commission (NMC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Medical Association (IMA)
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the National Medical Commission (NMC) has proposed the draft amendments. The NMC is the apex regulatory body for medical education in India, having replaced the MCI.
Consider the following statements regarding the NMC's proposed amendments:
1. They aim to ease norms for establishing medical colleges by allowing more corporate hospitals.
2. They propose to introduce a single-State licence for all private practitioners to practice nationwide.
3. They include measures to tighten standards for postgraduate (PG) medical education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says norms are eased for 'trusts and societies', not specifically for 'corporate hospitals'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the single-State licence is proposed specifically for Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS) doctors, not for all private practitioners. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.
Until what date has the NMC invited public comments on its proposed draft amendments?
- A.April 30, 2026
- B.May 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 15, 2026
- D.June 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that the Commission has invited comments until May 7. The other dates are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.
What is a primary objective of proposing a single-State licence for AFMS doctors, as per the news?
- A.To reduce the number of doctors in the armed forces
- B.To allow them to practice across the country without state-wise registration hurdles✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the National Medical Commission's authority over military doctors
- D.To standardise medical college fees across India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the proposal is for a 'single-State licence for Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS) doctors to practice across the country'. This implies removing administrative barriers related to state-wise registration, enhancing their mobility for service. The other options are not supported by the article.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical waterway mentioned in the news, separates which two bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- C.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
- D.Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per static geography, the Strait of Hormuz is the narrow passage that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the wider Arabian Sea. It is a vital global oil transit route.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent news about the Strait of Hormuz:
1. Iran reimposed restrictions on the strait on April 18, 2026.
2. The action was taken by Iran's Ministry of Foreign Affairs.
3. Iran stated it would continue the blockade as long as the U.S. maintains its blockade of Iranian ports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the action was taken on Saturday, April 18, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; the announcement was made by Iran's joint military command, not the Foreign Ministry. Statement 3 is correct, as the article quotes Iran's warning linking the two blockades.
According to the news article, on which specific date in April 2026 did Iran reimpose restrictions on the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.April 15, 2026
- B.April 17, 2026
- C.April 18, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 20, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions the action was taken on 'Saturday (April 18, 2026)' and the published date is also April 18, 2026. This is a precise factual detail examiners can test.
What is the primary strategic objective behind Iran's action to reimpose control over the Strait of Hormuz, as indicated in the news?
- A.To promote regional tourism and maritime trade
- B.To retaliate against and pressure the United States over its port blockade✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with new United Nations Security Council resolutions
- D.To facilitate the passage of humanitarian aid to neighboring countries
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states Iran's action is a direct response, accusing the U.S. of violating a deal and warning it will continue 'as long as the U.S. blockade of Iranian ports remained in effect.' This establishes retaliation and leverage as the primary objective.
As per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, which body is mandated to review the financial position of the Panchayats and recommend the principles for fund devolution?
- A.Central Finance Commission
- B.State Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Article 243-I of the Constitution mandates the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and recommend the principles for devolution of funds from the state's Consolidated Fund. This was highlighted in the parliamentary debate by MP Padmanabham.
Consider the following statements regarding the history of women's reservation in local bodies in India:
1. The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 made one-third reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions mandatory.
2. Before these amendments, the state of Karnataka had already introduced 25% reservation for women in Panchayats under a state act.
3. The Ashok Mehta Committee, which recommended reforms in local governance, was constituted in 1957.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the 73rd Amendment (1992) mandated 33% reservation for women in PRIs. Statement 2 is correct as Karnataka introduced 25% reservation via a 1983 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted in 1977, not 1957; the 1957 committee was the Balwantrai Mehta Committee.
According to the article, approximately what percentage of the nearly three million panchayat and gram sabha representatives in India are women?
- A.33%
- B.40%
- C.46%✓ Correct Answer
- D.50%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that women constitute about 46% of the nearly three million panchayat and gram sabha representatives today. While 33% was the constitutional mandate, many states have extended it to 50%, leading to higher actual representation. The 50% option is a common distractor.
What was a primary concern raised by MPs during the 1992 debates regarding the implementation of women's reservation in local bodies, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It would lead to excessive centralization of power.
- B.It would overlook women from marginalized groups due to potential 'elite capture'.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would require a constitutional amendment to include the post of Mayor.
- D.It would mandate the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
A central concern raised by MPs like Syed Shahbuddin was that reservation for women, without sub-quotas, could lead to 'elite capture' where powerful groups use women from their families to augment their power, overlooking marginalized women. This concern directly ties to the ongoing debate on OBC sub-reservation within women's quota.
As per the Indian Constitution, which body is responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Parliamentary Standing Committee
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body established by an Act of Parliament to redraw the boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies. The Election Commission conducts elections but does not delimit constituencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the issue discussed in the article:
1. The proposed constitutional amendment sought to combine 33% reservation for women with an expansion of the Lok Sabha.
2. The current strength of the Lok Sabha is frozen as per the provisions of the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
3. Southern states are concerned that delimitation based on population will reduce their political representation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article discusses linking women's reservation to expanding legislatures via delimitation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the freeze is via the 84th Amendment Act of 2001 (not 2002). Statement 3 is correct, reflecting the core federal concern raised in the article about southern states.
What is the percentage of reservation for women in legislatures as proposed in the constitutional amendment discussed in the article?
- A.25%
- B.30%
- C.33%✓ Correct Answer
- D.50%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly mentions a "33 per cent reservation" for women in legislatures. This has been the long-standing proposal in the Women's Reservation Bill. Other percentages are commonly discussed but 33% is the specific figure mentioned.
According to the analysis in the article, what was the primary political objective behind linking the Women's Reservation Bill with delimitation?
- A.To expedite the implementation of gender justice before the 2024 elections.
- B.To use women's reservation as a smokescreen to force a new delimitation exercise.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To appease male legislators by increasing the total number of available seats.
- D.To build a national consensus on the need for expanding the Lok Sabha.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article's core argument is that the women's reservation cause was "weaponised as a smokescreen" to breach the consensus on freezing Lok Sabha seats and push through delimitation, which is a politically contentious issue with significant federal implications.
Which central government department is the nodal agency for the National Quantum Mission (NQM) mentioned in the news?
- A.Department of Telecommunications
- B.Department of Science & Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Atomic Energy
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly cites the source as the 'National Quantum Mission, Department of Science & Technology, Government of India'. The DST is the central department responsible for formulating and implementing policies for science and technology in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's National Quantum Mission (NQM):
1. It has a total outlay of ₹6,003.65 crore for the period 2023-24 to 2030-31.
2. One of its objectives is to develop satellite-based secure quantum communications over a range of 1000 kilometers within India.
3. The mission has set up four Thematic Hubs, with the hub for Quantum Sensing & Metrology located at IIT Bombay.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Launched at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to 2030-31'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target range is 2000 kilometers, not 1000 km. Statement 3 is correct as the article states 'Quantum Sensing & Metrology — IIT Bombay' is one of the four pillars.
What is the target number of physical qubits that India's National Quantum Mission aims to develop in intermediate-scale quantum computers within 8 years?
- A.10-100 qubits
- B.50-1000 qubits✓ Correct Answer
- C.100-5000 qubits
- D.500-10000 qubits
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states the mission objective: 'Developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years'. The other options are plausible-sounding distractors but do not match the specific target mentioned.
What is the primary significance of launching the Amaravati Quantum Reference Facility (AQRA), as highlighted in the news?
- A.It is India's first facility dedicated to quantum cryptography for defense applications.
- B.It marks India's entry into having open sovereign quantum infrastructure for testing and R&D.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is a joint international venture aimed at commercializing quantum computers.
- D.Its primary role is to train civil servants in quantum technology policy.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that with the launch of AQRA, 'India now has open sovereign quantum infrastructure.' The facility is described as a 'testing facility' and part of creating a quantum technology hub. The other options describe potential applications or outcomes but are not the primary significance stated in the article.
Which cabinet committee approved the ₹24,815 crore railway multi-tracking projects mentioned in the news?
- A.Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
- B.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cabinet Committee on Security
- D.Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the approval was given by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister and is responsible for reviewing and approving major economic projects and policies.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved railway projects:
1. The Ghaziabad-Sitapur project involves constructing six new stations and is expected to add 36 million tonnes of freight capacity per year.
2. The Rajahmundry-Visakhapatnam project includes a new rail bridge over the Krishna river and connects the ports of Mundra and Kandla.
3. The total length added to the railway network by both projects is 601 km, and the high-density network accounts for about 16% of India's total railway route length.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bridge is over the Godavari river, not Krishna, and it connects ports like Kakinada and Gangavaram, not Mundra and Kandla (which are in Gujarat). Statement 3 is correct, with exact figures from the article.
What is the total approved cost for the multi-tracking of the 403-km Ghaziabad-Sitapur railway section?
- A.₹9,889 crore
- B.₹14,926 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹24,815 crore
- D.₹18,509 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifies that the Cabinet approved the construction of the 3rd and 4th line of the 403-km Ghaziabad-Sitapur section at a cost of ₹14,926 crore. ₹9,889 crore is for the Andhra Pradesh project, and ₹24,815 crore is the combined total.
What is a stated primary objective of the approved railway multi-tracking projects, as per the government statement?
- A.To primarily increase passenger train speeds for tourism
- B.To minimize logistics cost and help achieve climate goals✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace road transport completely in the concerned states
- D.To generate immediate revenue through fare hikes
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The government statement quoted in the article says the projects will help in "minimising logistics cost" and "achieving climate goals" by lowering CO2 emissions. While other options might be indirect effects, this dual objective of economic efficiency and environmental benefit is explicitly highlighted as the primary aim.
The Iranian ambassador summoned by India over the Strait of Hormuz incident was Dr. Mohammad Fathali. What is the official designation of an ambassador representing their country in another?
- A.High Commissioner
- B.Envoy Extraordinary and Minister Plenipotentiary✓ Correct Answer
- C.Consul General
- D.Charge d'Affaires
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
An ambassador is formally titled 'Envoy Extraordinary and Minister Plenipotentiary'. A High Commissioner represents a Commonwealth country in another Commonwealth country. A Consul General heads a consulate, and a Charge d'Affaires acts as head of mission in the ambassador's absence.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The incident involving Indian-flagged ships occurred approximately 20 nautical miles northeast of Oman.
2. The United States Central Command (CENTCOM) announced a blockade preventing ships from entering or exiting ports of all Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries.
3. Diplomatic talks between the US and Iran, following the incident, were being mediated by Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the UK Maritime Trade Operations report mentioned. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CENTCOM blockade specifically targeted 'Iranian-controlled ports and coastal areas', not all GCC countries. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the first round of US-Iran talks on April 7 was mediated by Pakistan.
According to the article, until what date was the two-week ceasefire window between the involved parties in place?
- A.April 18, 2026
- B.April 22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 7, 2026
- D.February 28, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'a two-week ceasefire window in place until April 22, 2026.' April 18 is the date of the incident, April 7 is the date of the first talks, and February 28 is the start date of the broader conflict.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted by the incident in the news?
- A.It is the primary route for global natural gas shipments via pipelines.
- B.It is a critical chokepoint for global oil shipments, impacting energy security and prices.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It serves as the main naval base for multinational forces combating piracy.
- D.It is the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) for fisheries cooperation between Iran and Oman.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article emphasizes that the Strait of Hormuz is 'one of the most critical chokepoints in global trade' and that 'nearly a fifth of global oil consumption flows' through it. Any disruption there has immediate implications for global oil prices and supply chains, which is the core of its strategic significance.
Which ministry is responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As mentioned in the article's historical context, PMGSY is a flagship rural infrastructure program. Such programs for rural connectivity and development fall under the mandate of the Ministry of Rural Development.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Cabinet decision on PMGSY-III:
1. The scheme's outlay has been increased by ₹3,727 crore to a revised total of ₹83,977 crore.
2. The extended timeline for completion of roads and bridges in hilly areas is till March 2028.
3. The scheme includes consolidation of routes connecting habitations to Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the timeline for bridges in hilly areas is extended till March 2029, not 2028. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions consolidation to connect habitations to GrAMs, schools, and hospitals.
According to the article, what was the original outlay for PMGSY-III before the recent Cabinet revision?
- A.₹70,125 crore
- B.₹80,250 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹83,977 crore
- D.₹87,704 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states: 'the outlay of the scheme has been revised to Rs 83,977 crore from the original outlay of Rs 80,250 crore.' ₹70,125 crore is the outlay for PMGSY-IV, and ₹83,977 crore is the revised outlay.
What is a key new objective introduced in the extended PMGSY-III approval, as per the article?
- A.To construct new national highways in rural areas
- B.To consolidate routes connecting habitations to key facilities like GrAMs and hospitals✓ Correct Answer
- C.To privatize the maintenance of all rural roads
- D.To focus exclusively on roads in Left Wing Extremism affected areas
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The new approval also involves consolidation of through routes and major rural links connecting habitations to Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs), higher secondary schools and hospitals.' This indicates a shift towards enhancing connectivity to socio-economic hubs.
The 'Mosquito Fleet' discussed in the news operates under which branch of Iran's armed forces?
- A.Islamic Republic of Iran Navy
- B.Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) Navy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Iranian Coast Guard
- D.Basij paramilitary force
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the 'mosquito fleet' forms the heart of the naval forces deployed by the Revolutionary Guard, which is a force separate from Iran's regular navy.
Consider the following statements regarding Iran's 'Mosquito Fleet':
1. It is primarily composed of small, fast attack boats designed for asymmetrical warfare.
2. The fleet operates from at least ten well-hidden, fortified bases along the Persian Gulf coast.
3. It was established immediately after the 1979 Islamic Revolution as part of the regular Iranian army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article describes a flotilla of small, fast, agile boats focused on asymmetrical warfare. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the construction of at least 10 well-hidden, fortified bases. Statement 3 is incorrect; the IRGC navy was added around 1986, not immediately after 1979, and it is separate from the regular army.
According to the article, what is the estimated top speed of the boats in Iran's 'Mosquito Fleet'?
- A.More than 50 knots
- B.More than 75 knots
- C.More than 100 knots✓ Correct Answer
- D.More than 125 knots
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that those boats often reach speeds of more than 100 knots, or more than 115 mph. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the text.
What is the primary strategic objective of Iran's 'Mosquito Fleet' in the Strait of Hormuz, as per the analysis in the article?
- A.To win a conventional naval battle against the U.S. Navy
- B.To harass shipping and deny freedom of navigation through asymmetrical means✓ Correct Answer
- C.To conduct deep-sea exploration and resource extraction
- D.To provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief in the region
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article emphasizes the fleet's role in asymmetrical warfare and hit-and-run attacks designed to harass shipping and stymie transit through the strait, making it a disruptive force rather than one seeking conventional victory.
The reviewer of the book 'India and the Rebalancing of Asia' is identified as a former representative of India to which international organization?
- A.United Nations Security Council
- B.United Nations✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Trade Organization
- D.International Monetary Fund
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article's byline identifies the writer as the 'former permanent representative of India to the United Nations'. This is a static fact about the reviewer's position.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in C Raja Mohan's book 'India and the Rebalancing of Asia':
1. It argues that India's current strategic turn is a recent development with no historical precedent.
2. It posits that the challenge from China is confined only to the disputed boundary between the two nations.
3. It presents closer cooperation with the United States as a pragmatic alignment to prevent Chinese dominance in Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the book argues the turn is a 'long correction' of historical retreat. Statement 2 is incorrect as the book shows China's challenge extends to South Asia and multilateral institutions. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
According to the review, what is the primary conceptual contribution of C Raja Mohan's book 'India and the Rebalancing of Asia' to India's strategic discourse?
- A.Advocating for a return to strict non-alignment
- B.Presenting India as a hesitant spectator in Asian geopolitics
- C.Framing India as a balancing power in a contested Asia✓ Correct Answer
- D.Arguing for India to become an appendage of the United States
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the book's 'deeper conceptual contribution is to present India as a balancing power in a contested Asia'. The other options are either opposite to or distortions of the book's arguments.
As per the article's critique, which significant region does the book 'India and the Rebalancing of Asia' keep outside its central argument, despite its importance for India?
- A.South China Sea
- B.European Union
- C.West Asia (The Gulf)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Central Asia
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Raja Mohan keeps West Asia outside the book’s central argument' and notes that for India, 'the Gulf is not peripheral' due to energy, diaspora, and security interests.
Under which Act was the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary originally notified?
- A.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- B.The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- D.The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the sanctuary was 'notified in 1983 under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972'. This is the primary legislation for declaring sanctuaries and national parks in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The denotification of 732 hectares was based on a site inspection and recommendation by the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL).
2. The Supreme Court took suo motu cognizance of the denotification while hearing a separate case related to illegal sand mining in Rajasthan.
3. The contested area includes land parcels that were recorded as forest land prior to the sanctuary's notification in 1983.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes the forest official saying the denotification was based on NBWL recommendations. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the SC took suo motu cognizance 'while taking suo motu cognisance of illegal sand mining in Rajasthan'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the area is 'recorded as revenue land', not forest land.
What is the total area (in hectares) that the Rajasthan government's December 2025 circular sought to de-notify from the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary?
- A.520 hectares
- B.650 hectares
- C.732 hectares✓ Correct Answer
- D.815 hectares
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically mentions '732 hectares' multiple times as the area proposed for denotification. The other figures are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary ecological concern raised by experts regarding the denotification of parts of the Chambal sanctuary?
- A.It will lead to increased human-wildlife conflict with leopards.
- B.It threatens a fragile, interconnected river ecosystem supporting critically endangered species like the gharial.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will reduce the groundwater recharge capacity of the Aravalli hills.
- D.It will violate the rights of forest-dwelling communities under the Forest Rights Act.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article quotes an ecologist saying the denotification 'raises serious ecological concerns' for the 'fragile, interconnected system supporting critically endangered species' like the gharial. The other options, while plausible environmental concerns, are not directly mentioned in the article's context.
Related Current Affairs Resources
More Current Affairs Questions
Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 18 April 2026?▼
This page contains 100 current affairs questions from 18 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 18 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. constitutional article governs the procedure for amending the …
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution (…
- Q3. According to the news, how many votes were in favor of the Con…
- Q4. was a primary reason cited in the editorial for the opposition…
- Q5. In which house of Parliament was the Constitution (131st Amend…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q7. As per the news, on which date did the Lok Sabha vote on the C…
- Q8. is the primary democratic contradiction highlighted by the art…
- Q9. constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation of par…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q11. According to the article, for how long has the freeze on the n…
- Q12. was the primary reason cited in the article for the opposition…
- Q13. constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation exerci…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the women's reserv…
- Q15. According to the article, what percentage of legislators in th…
- Q16. was the primary argument advanced by Hansa Mehta and Renuka Ra…
- Q17. constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation of Lok…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reserv…
- Q19. For how many years is the sunset clause of the notified Women'…
- Q20. was the primary objective of the defeated Constitution (131st)…
- Q21. ministry/department is responsible for releasing the new GDP s…
- Q22. Consider the following statements: 1. The Delimitation Commis…
- Q23. According to the article, what is the current percentage share…
- Q24. was a key reason cited in the article for the recent worker pr…
- Q25. Under which Ministry does the Office of the Registrar General …
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding delimitation and A…
- Q27. As per the Cabinet press release mentioned in the article, whe…
- Q28. is the primary constitutional principle that will be enforced …
- Q29. The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CE…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q31. According to the article, what was the value of total India-UA…
- Q32. is the primary reason cited in the article for the significant…
- Q33. constitutional principle is most directly invoked by Justice N…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding Justice BV Nagarat…
- Q35. At which event did Justice BV Nagarathna deliver the speech di…
- Q36. According to Justice Nagarathna, what is a key threat posed by…
- Q37. office within the US Treasury Department issued the General Li…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the US sanctions w…
- Q39. According to the article, what was India's approximate daily i…
- Q40. was a key implication for India had the US NOT extended the Ru…
- Q41. apex body has approved the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) pol…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the news on India'…
- Q43. According to the article, what is the current estimated timeli…
- Q44. is a primary expected outcome of diluting the liability clause…
- Q45. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the new election m…
- Q47. According to the article, what is the approximate number of po…
- Q48. is the primary objective of the Election Commission's shift to…
- Q49. constitutional article establishes a High Court as a 'Court of…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q51. In the case discussed, for how many years had the bail order b…
- Q52. was the primary objective of the Supreme Court's observation i…
- Q53. ministry is primarily responsible for executing the railway qu…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the recently appro…
- Q55. is the estimated cost of the railway quadrupling project betwe…
- Q56. is the primary objective of the approved railway quadrupling p…
- Q57. body is responsible for proposing the amendments to ease norms…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the NMC's proposed…
- Q59. Until what date has the NMC invited public comments on its pro…
- Q60. is a primary objective of proposing a single-State licence for…
- Q61. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical waterway mentioned in the new…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the recent news ab…
- Q63. According to the news article, on which specific date in April…
- Q64. is the primary strategic objective behind Iran's action to rei…
- Q65. As per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, which body is mandat…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the history of wom…
- Q67. According to the article, approximately what percentage of the…
- Q68. was a primary concern raised by MPs during the 1992 debates re…
- Q69. As per the Indian Constitution, which body is responsible for …
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the issue discusse…
- Q71. is the percentage of reservation for women in legislatures as …
- Q72. According to the analysis in the article, what was the primary…
- Q73. central government department is the nodal agency for the Nati…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding India's National Q…
- Q75. is the target number of physical qubits that India's National …
- Q76. is the primary significance of launching the Amaravati Quantum…
- Q77. cabinet committee approved the ₹24,815 crore railway multi-tra…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the recently appro…
- Q79. is the total approved cost for the multi-tracking of the 403-k…
- Q80. is a stated primary objective of the approved railway multi-tr…
- Q81. The Iranian ambassador summoned by India over the Strait of Ho…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q83. According to the article, until what date was the two-week cea…
- Q84. is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz,…
- Q85. ministry is responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Gr…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Cabinet…
- Q87. According to the article, what was the original outlay for PMG…
- Q88. is a key new objective introduced in the extended PMGSY-III ap…
- Q89. The 'Mosquito Fleet' discussed in the news operates under whic…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding Iran's 'Mosquito F…
- Q91. According to the article, what is the estimated top speed of t…
- Q92. is the primary strategic objective of Iran's 'Mosquito Fleet' …
- Q93. The reviewer of the book 'India and the Rebalancing of Asia' i…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
- Q95. According to the review, what is the primary conceptual contri…
- Q96. As per the article's critique, which significant region does t…
- Q97. Under which Act was the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary ori…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q99. is the total area (in hectares) that the Rajasthan government'…
- Q100. is the primary ecological concern raised by experts regarding …