16 April 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 81 of the Indian Constitution specifies the composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), including the maximum number of seats and their allocation to states and union territories. This is the foundational article being amended by the proposed Bill.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill requires the use of the latest published Census, which is proposed to be the 2011 Census, not 2021. Statement 3 is incorrect; the women's reservation is stated to be valid for 15 years, not 20 years.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill proposes to increase the limit on the size of the Lok Sabha from 550 to 850. Option B is the current constitutional limit, while A is the current actual strength. Option C is a close distractor.

Explanation

The article explains that using the 2011 Census (which reflects higher population growth in northern states) will change the relative share of Lok Sabha seats. States like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar will gain seats (increasing to 25% of total), while southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu will lose seats, thereby shifting political power northwards.

Explanation

Article 82 of the Indian Constitution explicitly provides for the readjustment of constituencies for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies after each Census. Article 81 deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha, while Articles 80 and 83 pertain to the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the proposal is to increase seats to 850. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendment seeks to delink delimitation from the latest census, allowing the use of 2011 data, not necessarily 2027. Statement 3 is correct; the Women's Reservation Act was passed in 2023 but kept in abeyance till delimitation is completed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Constitutional amendment proposes to increase the total number of seats in Lok Sabha to up to 850, with '815 from the states, 35 from the Union Territories'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the delimitation exercise is meant to preserve the principle of 'one vote, one value'. This ensures that the value or weight of a vote is broadly similar across different constituencies by adjusting seat boundaries based on population changes. The other principles, while important, are not the core objective of delimitation.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India under the Delimitation Act to redraw constituency boundaries. The Election Commission administers elections but does not draw boundaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the delimitation will use the 1971 Census, not the upcoming one. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the distribution will keep to the 1971 template.

Explanation

The article refers to the 'long promised one-third reservation for women'. One-third is equivalent to 33.33%, commonly rounded to 33%.

Explanation

The article questions why the delimitation for the 2029 election follows a Census from 1971, disregarding changes due to population shifts or growth, which is the core procedural criticism.

Explanation

As per the article, the government is introducing delimitation Bills to pave the way for implementation, indicating the law's enforcement is linked to the delimitation exercise, which itself is based on census data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The H.D. Deve Gowda government introduced the Constitution (81st Amendment) Bill in 1996. Statement 2 is correct: The 2008 Bill (108th Amendment) was passed by the Rajya Sabha in 2010 but lapsed. Statement 3 is incorrect: The bill passed in 2023 is the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam; the 108th Amendment Bill was the earlier UPA version that lapsed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill ultimately passed with 454 votes in favour in the Lok Sabha. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Explanation

Throughout the article, leaders like Uma Bharti, Lalu Prasad, and Nitish Kumar emphasized the concern that OBC women would be left out. The demand was to create a sub-quota within the 33% reservation to specifically benefit women from Other Backward Classes.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament to redraw the boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies. The Election Commission conducts elections based on these demarcated constituencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a special session. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target is the 2029 Lok Sabha election, not 2027. Statement 3 is correct as per the vote tally provided in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the motion was carried with 251 members voting in favour and 185 against. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article states that Opposition members accused the government of using the amendment to push ahead with delimitation rather than to implement the women's quota. This is the core political contention highlighted.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered statutory body established by an Act of Parliament under Article 82. Its primary function is to redraw the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the latest census data. Its orders have the force of law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the proposal is to raise seats to 850. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions replacing the constitutional freeze with a parliamentary law formula. Statement 3 is incorrect; the purpose is to 'operationalise' women's reservation, which is a prerequisite step (delimitation) before implementation, not immediate implementation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bills seek to raise the Lok Sabha ceiling from 543 to 850 seats. Option A is the current strength. Options B and C are plausible but incorrect distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article clearly states the 'stated purpose is to operationalise women's reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023.' The other options, while related to broader governance, are not mentioned as the primary rationale in the provided content.

Explanation

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution specifically lays down the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so, as mentioned in the article discussing the amendment process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because a Constitutional Amendment Bill requires a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting), not a simple majority. Statement 2 is incorrect as ratification is needed by at least 50% (half) of the states, not one-third. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states the bill receives assent from the President.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for an amendment affecting the federal structure, it must 'get ratified by at least 50% State legislatures'. This is a key factual data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The article directly states that the bill is 'seeking to increase the size and composition of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies'. This is its primary objective, making it a classic example of an amendment that would require the rigorous process described.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Union Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal will introduce The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirty First Amendment) Bill 2026. The Law Minister heads the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's 'Key Takeaways'. Statement 2 is incorrect; a Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House and requires ratification by half the states only for amendments affecting federal structure. Statement 3 is correct as per the 'Do You Know' section on Article 334.

Explanation

Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agarwal stated, "Our monthly exports to the West Asia region were about $6 billion, which has come down to $3.5 billion." This is a specific data point from the 'Economy' section of the article.

Explanation

The article states that Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE—all BRICS members—are on opposing sides of the West Asia war. This puts India, as the chair, in a difficult diplomatic position of balancing between these conflicting members, which is the core challenge mentioned.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the first challenge to implementing the law is institutional as it is chained to the timely completion of the Census and the delimitation. This is a key procedural hurdle mentioned directly in the source text.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the legislation guarantees 33% reservation. Statement 2 is correct as it is called the Women's Reservation Act 2023. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states implementation is chained to the completion of the Census and delimitation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the legislation guarantees 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislatures. This is the core factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The article's core analysis frames the Act as a shift from procedural democracy (focus on structures) to deliberative democracy (focus on quality of debate and diverse arguments). This is presented as a primary transformative outcome of the legislation.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is an independent body established by the Government of India under the Delimitation Commission Act. Its mandate is to redraw the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the latest census data, as mentioned in the context of the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the freeze was imposed via the 42nd Amendment based on the 1971 Census. Statement 2 is incorrect because delimitation is currently frozen until after the 2026 census; it is not mandated after every census. Statement 3 is correct as the women's reservation law is to be implemented after delimitation, as stated in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that PM Narendra Modi's proposal expands the Lok Sabha to around 850 seats. The current strength is 543, and 650 and 750 are plausible distractors but not the figure mentioned.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the expansion uses a 50% increase formula to protect the southern states' share of seats (23.7%) which would otherwise shrink sharply after the 2027 Census triggers a population-based redistribution. While better governance is a benefit, it is not the primary objective stated.

Explanation

Article 368 mandates a special majority for constitutional amendments: the bill must be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the 2026 amendment proposes to increase Lok Sabha seats to 815. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies implementation is linked to delimitation which would follow the 'upcoming census', not the 2011 census. Statement 3 is correct: The Bill's trajectory began with its first introduction in 1996.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'women add up to no more than 13.6% of the Lok Sabha members today.' 4.41% was the figure for the first Lok Sabha, 9.22% is the increase over 80 years, and 33% is the proposed reservation quota.

Explanation

The article highlights that the opposition stems from the link between women's quota and delimitation. Southern states fear that post-delimitation based on population, the number of Lok Sabha seats from the South and East will decline compared to the North, making their interests 'subservient'.

Explanation

The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous intergovernmental organization established in 1974 within the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Its core mandate is to coordinate energy security among its member nations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IEA described the situation as 'more severe' than the 1970s oil shocks, not 'less severe'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the crisis has reduced 'daily transits from around 130 vessels to just a few on several days'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article's core focus is on the Strait's role in global energy security, handling about one-fifth of the world's oil supply. While it is used for other shipping, its paramount strategic importance lies in energy transit, making it a focal point during geopolitical tensions.

Explanation

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and lays down the procedure for doing so. The article was directly referenced by the Law Minister in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha in 2010, not the Lok Sabha, and the Joint Parliamentary Committee under Geeta Mukherjee was formed in 1996, not 2010. Statement 3 is correct as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was passed in 2023.

Explanation

The article clearly states that implementing the one-third reservation for women requires a 50% increase in the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This ensures new seats are added for reservation without reducing existing seats.

Explanation

The core objective of the Bills is to operationalize the already-passed Women's Reservation Act (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023) by the year 2029, bypassing the delay linked to the pending Census and subsequent delimitation exercise.

Explanation

The article states the Ordinance was signed by the Vice President, V.V. Giri, who was then also the acting President, as President Zakir Hussain had died a few months earlier.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the Narasimham Committee (1991) came later. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the ₹50 crore deposit criterion. Statement 3 is incorrect; nationalisation was done via an Ordinance, not an Act passed in July 1969.

Explanation

The article mentions that initially, banks with deposits of Rs 100 crore were listed. The limit was then lowered to Rs 50 crore to include important banks like Dena Bank (with Rs 98 crore).

Explanation

The article states that private banks were seen as neglecting rural and priority sectors. Nationalisation aimed to reorient bank lending toward weaker sectors like small farmers and enterprises, aligning with socialist goals.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly states that the executive power of the State, flowing from Article 162 of the Constitution, furnishes the necessary authority to translate constitutional aspirations into tangible policy measures. Article 162 defines the extent of the executive power of a State.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Court directed implementation in both organised and unorganised sectors. Statement 2 is correct as the order states the policy is 'intrinsically connected to realisation of a fundamental right'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the petition was filed by an individual hotel worker, Chandravva Hanamant Gokavi. The Bangalore Hotels Association is a petitioner in a separate challenge being heard by a coordinate bench.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the notifications dated November 12 and November 20, 2025, provide for 'a day's paid menstrual leave per month to women employees'. The proposed Bill also provides for a monthly, paid menstrual leave.

Explanation

The Court's order emphasizes that 'true equality... demands a more compassionate and nuanced approach' and that 'menstrual leave is not a plea for privilege, but an assertion of dignity, fairness and humane understanding'. It argues acknowledging biological differences gives substantive meaning to the constitutional guarantee of equality.

Explanation

As per the article, the Bench was headed by the Chief Justice of India, Surya Kant. The CJI is the highest judicial authority and head of the Supreme Court, making this a direct factual question from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SC issued notice. Statement 2 is incorrect; the plea challenges the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, not the 2019 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; the petitioners argue the provisions are NOT 'essential religious practices'. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the plea challenges provisions of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act of 1937 on inheritance and testamentary succession. The other Acts govern different communities or aspects of law.

Explanation

The petition, as described, challenges the rules as discriminatory to women. This directly invokes the fundamental right to equality under Article 14 and the prohibition of discrimination under Article 15 of the Constitution. The core grievance is gender-based inequality in inheritance shares.

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned under Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the Constitution. It directs the state to endeavor to secure a uniform civil code for citizens throughout India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CJI explicitly called UCC a 'constitutional ambition'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the plea challenged the application of Shariat law in matters of inheritance, not the Hindu Succession Act. Statement 3 is correct as the counsel argued inheritance is not an essential religious practice under Article 25, a point noted in the proceedings.

Explanation

The article's published date and the context indicate the hearing was on Thursday, April 16, 2026, as mentioned in the source metadata and the article text ('said on Thursday').

Explanation

The counsel argued that the Shariat law's provision giving women half or less than half the share of their male counterparts in inheritance is discriminatory. He contended that inheritance is a civil matter, not an essential religious practice protected under Article 25, and such discriminatory practices can be struck down.

Explanation

As per the article, the notification was issued by the Ministry of Law and Justice in the Gazette of India. This ministry is responsible for the administration of justice and the publication of official gazettes for legal enactments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Act provides for 33% (one-third) reservation. Statement 2 is incorrect because any Constitution Amendment Bill requires a special majority (two-thirds of those present and voting), not a simple majority. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states there are 540 MPs in the Lok Sabha at present, with three seats vacant.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The NDA’s own strength is 293". Option A (251) was the number of 'Ayes' during the introduction vote. Option C (360) is the two-thirds majority target. Option D (436) was the total number of MPs present during that vote.

Explanation

Congress MP Manish Tewari's statement in the article explains this. He referenced Rule 66 of the Lok Sabha Rules, which states that if a contingent Bill fails, the original Act becomes infructuous. By notifying the 2023 Act after suspending this rule, the government aimed to save it from becoming void if the 2026 Bills failed.

Explanation

The Delimitation Bill, 2026, mentioned in the article, seeks to set up a Delimitation Commission. The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body constituted under the Delimitation Act to redraw electoral constituency boundaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the NSVA was passed in a 'special session' in September 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says the 131st Amendment Bill seeks to raise seats to 850, not 900. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions the Delimitation Bill uses the 'latest Census figures... which is the 2011 Census'.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill which seeks to raise the number of seats in Parliament to 850 seats'. The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that linking the quota to delimitation (and thereby to a future Census) has put its implementation 'in limbo contingent on other factors', denying women representation in the 2024 elections and beyond. This is the central critique presented.

Explanation

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the principal agency for meteorology and is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). This is a key static fact for governance and disaster management topics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; IMD defines 'deficient' as rainfall below 90% of LPA, not between 90-95%. 'Below normal' is 90-95% of LPA. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the depressed monsoon is expected in the second crucial half (August and September).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The India Meteorological Department (IMD) in its April forecast has predicted an 8% deficit, or 'below normal' rainfall." The 5% figure is the margin of error, not the deficit itself.

Explanation

The article directly links the forecast to "weather models indicating an El Nino." It explains that heating in the central equatorial Pacific beyond 1 degree Celsius (El Nino) has historically correlated with deficient monsoons. The IOD is mentioned as a potential counteracting factor, not the primary cause.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'RBI's Digital Lending Guidelines'. The RBI is the central banking and monetary authority responsible for regulating banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states these apps 'fabricate Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) partnerships'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that while RBI regulates financial entities, 'the harmful entity operates in the app and data layers', indicating a regulatory gap. Statement 3 is correct as it is mentioned as a proposed solution: 'mandate all financial apps to have a cryptographically signed certificate of association from a regulated bank or NBFC'.

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'Since January, over 35 complaints related to these apps have been registered in Thiruvananthapuram Rural alone.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Kerala in particular has high smartphone penetration and digital literacy, but not necessarily financial literacy, and a large student population with urgent small-credit needs.' This combination makes the population susceptible to easily accessible but deceptive digital loan offers.

Explanation

The Ministry of Labour and Employment is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to labour, including the consolidated Labour Codes. The article discusses the challenges of implementing these codes, which fall under this ministry's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions operationalising provisions for gig workers and establishing a Social Security Fund. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the impact is heterogeneous and SMEs may face compliance burdens that offset gains. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions threshold-based distortions that discourage firm scaling.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the four labour codes are the Code on Wages, Code on Social Security, Industrial Relations Code, and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code. This is a key factual takeaway from the reform.

Explanation

The article's core analysis highlights that while large firms can absorb compliance costs, SMEs face disproportionate compliance burdens which can offset any labour productivity gains. This is a central point of the heterogeneous impact discussed.

Explanation

The article's metadata explicitly states that the writer is 'chairman, Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs'. This is a factual detail from the source.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states, 'For India, the closure of Hormuz, through which half of our crude imports flow, remains a national emergency.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says China settled crude 'in yuan rather than petrodollars'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article argues against passive restraint, calling for 'proactive, principled diplomacy' and for India to 'claim that role'.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'crude imports' flowing through the Strait of Hormuz. While gas shortages are also mentioned as an effect, the direct and primary threat identified is to crude oil supplies.

Explanation

The article frames India's choice as an 'existential' one between 'hedging its bets' (safeguarding interests) and 'standing up to be counted as a principled architect' (maintaining credibility). It explicitly states that 'strategic restraint makes sense when principle collides with national interest' but warns that passivity risks losing credibility.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Section 156(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure empowers a magistrate to order a police investigation into a cognisable offence and direct the registration of an FIR if the police failed to act upon a complaint.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC set aside the Karnataka HC's September 28, 2016 order. Statement 2 is incorrect: The SC held the HC transgressed boundaries under Section 482 CrPC. Statement 3 is correct: The SC clearly stated that a civil remedy does not bar criminal proceedings for cognisable offences.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court bench was hearing appeals against the Karnataka High Court judgment dated September 28, 2016, which had quashed the FIRs. November 6, 2013, is the date of the magistrate's order, and November 16, 2013, is the date of FIR registration.

Explanation

The Supreme Court observed that the High Court erred by undertaking a detailed examination of disputed facts and defence material, effectively conducting a 'mini-trial' before the investigation could even begin, which stifled the investigative process.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body established by an Act of Parliament to redraw the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies. The Election Commission conducts elections based on these demarcated constituencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the case name is mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the court can intervene if delimitation is 'manifestly arbitrary'. Statement 3 is correct as it directly quotes the court's warning from the article.

Explanation

The article title and content explicitly state that the Supreme Court's warning was part of a verdict delivered in 2025. The year 2026 is mentioned as the year of a future census, while 2022 was when delimitation in Jammu and Kashmir was conducted.

Explanation

The core of the verdict, as per the article, is the warning that delimitation must not 'destabilise the uniform electoral framework' envisaged by the Constitution. This underscores the concern for maintaining constitutional integrity over political or administrative convenience.

Explanation

Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. The Supreme Court's ruling that voting is a voluntary choice, not a compulsory duty, aligns with the protection of individual autonomy under this article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court ruled voters cannot be punished. Statement 2 is correct as the article quotes the Court saying 'awareness...not compulsion, is the right antidote'. Statement 3 is correct as the article specifies the Bench was headed by CJI Surya Kant.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The Supreme Court on Thursday (April 16, 2026) said...'. This is a direct factual recall from the published content.

Explanation

The Court's statement that 'awareness...not compulsion, is the right antidote' directly implies that the path forward is through educational initiatives like SVEEP, not through coercive laws or punishments.

Explanation

The U.S. Treasury Department, specifically its Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), is the primary agency responsible for administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions. The announcement in the news was made by the U.S. Treasury Secretary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the announcement was made by U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent. Statement 2 is incorrect; the waiver was for a limited 30-day period starting March 5 and had a transactional cut-off (oil on water before March 11), it was not an unrestricted license until April 15. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly stated in the article.

Explanation

U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent explicitly stated that the waiver covered "oil that was on the water prior to March 11." March 5 is the date the waiver was issued, and April 15/16 are the announcement and publication dates, respectively.

Explanation

The end of the waiver removes a legally secure channel for discounted Russian/Iranian oil, directly impacting India's import costs. India must now find a new balance between securing affordable energy (a domestic economic imperative) and navigating its diplomatic relationships with the U.S., Russia, and Iran, which is the core of its 'strategic autonomy' challenge.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent said the United States will not renew the waivers. The Treasury Department oversees economic sanctions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the historic peak was in March 2026, not February. Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states Brent crude futures slipped 44 cents, or 0.5%, to $94.49 a barrel. The other options are distractors; $90.59 is the price for US West Texas Intermediate crude.

Explanation

The article directly states that if India continues to buy Russian or Iranian oil without the waiver, it may expose Indian firms to financial penalties from Washington. This is the immediate and primary risk mentioned.

Explanation

The news article mentions that Backward Classes Welfare Minister Ponnam Prabhakar released the findings. This indicates the survey falls under the purview of the Backward Classes Welfare Department of the Telangana government, which handles matters related to SC, ST, and OBC welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the survey covered nearly 97% of households, not 90%. Statement 3 is incorrect; among the 135 castes, the largest number (69) belong to the Backward Classes (BC) category, not Scheduled Castes (41).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that only 2.1 per cent among SCs and STs earned over Rs 5 lakh per annum. The other percentages correspond to different data points: 5.8% lack electricity, 13.3% have no toilet, and 21.2% have no tap water.

Explanation

The article explains that the Composite Backwardness Index score measures backwardness, with a higher score indicating higher backwardness. It was used to compare communities, revealing SCs/STs as three times more backward than General Castes. This quantification allows for targeted policy, unlike a simple BPL or fund allocation tool.

Explanation

The entire case revolved around the interpretation of Sections 124 and 121(1) of the Air Force Act, 1950, which governs the legal and disciplinary framework for the Indian Air Force.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court held the IAF's understanding that administrative action could follow a discharge was 'fallacious' and the initiation of such proceedings was 'bad in law'. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the Court's ruling detailed in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the three-year limitation period for a court-martial under Section 121(1) of the Air Force Act had expired by the time the officer was discharged by the sessions court in January 1990.

Explanation

The Court held, "Once the road is chosen, the traveller must walk it to the end." This means that upon electing a criminal trial under Section 124 of the Air Force Act, the force cannot subsequently revert to court-martial or disciplinary action for the same offence.

Explanation

Article 82 of the Indian Constitution provides for the readjustment of Lok Sabha constituencies after each census. Article 80 deals with the composition of Rajya Sabha, Article 324 with the Election Commission, and Article 368 with the amendment process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Delimitation Commission is established under a Delimitation Act passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body, not a constitutional one. Statement 2 is incorrect: Its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in court. Statement 3 is correct: The last delimitation was based on the 2001 Census, and seat allocation is frozen until 2026.

Explanation

The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001, froze the delimitation of Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies until the year 2026. This was done to encourage population stabilization efforts by states.

Explanation

As per the article, delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of constituencies 'to ensure equal representation based on population.' This upholds the democratic principle of 'one vote, one value.' The other options are functions of different constitutional processes or bodies.

Explanation

The article states that the four volumes of the SEEPC-2024 survey are available on the website of the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Telangana. This is the nodal agency for statistical data in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the survey's full name is 'Socio Economic, Educational, Employment, Political and Caste Survey'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly mentions the survey was conducted for 50 days from November 2024, not 60 days from December. Statement 3 is correct as Volume-IV is specifically mentioned as 'Caste-wise Population Data Tables'.

Explanation

According to the article, the Telangana Socio Economic, Educational, Employment, Political and Caste Survey-2024 was conducted in Telangana for 50 days from November 2024. The other options are plausible distractors for survey durations.

Explanation

The article states the volumes contain data on the percentage of people across social categories who benefitted from reservations in education and employment, along with data on livelihoods and education levels. This objective is for evidence-based analysis, not for immediate quota changes (A), replacing the national census (C), or a specific scheme (D).

Explanation

The article clearly states that the markets regulator SEBI issued the circular announcing the extensions. SEBI is the regulator for securities markets in India, which includes the Social Stock Exchange.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The validity was extended to three years, not five. Statement 2 is correct as the minimum subscription for ZCZP instruments was lowered to 50% from 75%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the changes aim to promote and encourage greater NPO participation, not discourage it.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SEBI has 'lowered the minimum subscription requirement for Zero Coupon Zero Principal instruments to 50% from 75%'. The previous requirement was 75%.

Explanation

The article directly quotes SEBI, stating 'The moves are aimed at promoting the SSE (Social Stock Exchange) and facilitating ease of fundraising and encouraging greater participation by NPOs.' This is the core objective behind extending registration validity and lowering the ZCZP subscription threshold.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. This is the foundational constitutional provision for the ECI's authority, as referenced in the news context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC upheld the ECI's decision. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court clarified that 'consultation is not concurrence', meaning the ECI does not need the state's agreement. Statement 3 is correct as CJI Surya Kant made this observation about All India Services.

Explanation

Senior Advocate Kalyan Bandopadhyay informed the Supreme Court bench that 'One thousand and one hundred officers have been transferred overnight.' The exact figure of 1100 is a key data point from the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, as quoted by CJI Surya Kant, stated it had to depute judicial officers 'Because of the trust deficit on both sides.' This trust deficit between the poll body and the state government was the core justification for the ECI's intervention.

Explanation

Article 82 of the Constitution specifically provides for the readjustment of constituencies for Lok Sabha and state Assemblies after every Census. Article 81 deals with the composition of Lok Sabha, Article 170 with the composition of state assemblies, and Article 262 with inter-state river water disputes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Women's Reservation Act was passed in 2023 but its implementation has been kept in abeyance until delimitation is completed. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times: in 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002, under respective Delimitation Acts.

Explanation

Article 262 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of inter-state river water disputes. Under this, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which establishes Water Disputes Tribunals for such adjudication. The Supreme Court's jurisdiction is explicitly barred in these matters by Article 262.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that data regarding Strategic Petroleum Reserves is according to the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG). This ministry oversees the exploration, production, and storage of petroleum and natural gas resources in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 1973 crisis occurred during the Arab-Israeli war with an embargo by Arab members of OAPEC. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India's import bill rose from $500 million in 1973 to $1.3 billion in 1974, not the reverse. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions India was compelled to approach the IMF after the 1979 crisis.

Explanation

The article specifically states that India's strategic petroleum reserves have a capacity to store 5.33 million tonnes of crude oil. Option A is the current holding, Option C is India's total crude oil imports for 2024-25, and Option D is domestic coal production for 2024-25.

Explanation

The article states that India's engagement with the IMF for balance of payment support after the 1979 crisis is often seen as laying the foundation for the process of economic liberalisation, as IMF support came with conditions for structural adjustments. This is a key historical linkage between an external shock and domestic policy change.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Karnataka High Court, in a ruling by Justice M Nagaprasanna, directed the state government to strictly implement its menstrual leave policy. The Madras and Kerala High Courts have separate pending petitions on the issue.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the cap is 12 days a year, not 10. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court anchored its reasoning in Articles 15(3) and 42, not 14 and 21. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, where the court discussed the 'coalesced vulnerability' of domestic workers and daily wage labourers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the policy provides 'one day of paid menstrual leave per month, capped at 12 days a year'. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The court's judgment, as described, leaned on the principle of substantive equality. It held that acknowledging biological differences (using Article 15(3)'s allowance for special provisions) does not violate equality but gives it substantive meaning. The other articles mentioned are not central to the court's reasoning in this case.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the power of superintendence is conferred upon High Courts by Article 227 of the Constitution. Article 226 relates to writ jurisdiction, Article 136 to the Supreme Court's special leave to appeal, and Article 32 to the right to constitutional remedies from the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the High Court's direction to place its order in the officer's ACR. Statement 2 is correct as the article quotes the SC saying Article 227 should be a mechanism for nurturing. Statement 3 is incorrect because the appeal was against a Calcutta High Court order, not Bombay High Court.

Explanation

The article clearly states the bench was composed of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta. The other options are names of other Supreme Court judges not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court suggested that observations on the merits of a trial court order can be noted in a 'remark slip', which would be placed before the administrative judge or Chief Justice for necessary action, rather than including strictures in the public judicial order.

Explanation

The Centre for Social and Economic Progress (CSEP) is an independent, non-profit, non-partisan research institution. Think tanks like CSEP conduct policy research and analysis but are not part of the formal government structure like a ministry or a statutory body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states that between FY19-FY23, Tamil Nadu's subsidy-to-deficit ratio remained below 40%, which was lower than the major states' average of around 47%. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the Magalir Urimai Thogai scheme. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states that cash transfers have 'significantly increased' and created a 'structurally higher and persistent fiscal strain' compared to one-time goods distribution.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Magalir Urimai Thogai scheme accounts for an annual burden of 'Rs 13,800 crore'. ₹758 crore was the cost of free laptops in 2018. ₹59,000 crore is Tamil Nadu's total subsidy outlay. ₹8,000 is the coupon amount mentioned in a manifesto promise, not the scheme's annual cost.

Explanation

The article's core analysis highlights that one-time consumer good distributions were 'limited in scale', while cash transfers represent a 'structurally higher and persistent fiscal strain' making expenditure 'more inflexible'. This is the primary fiscal implication discussed. The article does not suggest it reduces political appeal, increases flexibility, or shifts the beneficiary base.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US is committed to helping Taiwan under the Taiwan Relations Act (TRA). The TRA is a United States domestic law enacted in 1979 that governs unofficial relations between the US and Taiwan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Cheng Li-wun's visit was the 'first sitting KMT leader to do so in a decade'. Statement 2 is incorrect; Xi stated China will 'absolutely not tolerate' Taiwan’s independence, which is the opposite of supporting self-determination. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes the KMT's unified stance towards the '1992 Consensus' and the meeting revolved around this principle.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Taiwan continues to manufacture around 60 per cent of the global advanced chips and semiconductors...'. This is a key data point highlighting Taiwan's strategic economic importance in the global supply chain.

Explanation

The article analyzes that China's dual strategy involves inducements ('carrots') alongside coercion ('sticks'). Offering economic incentives like flights and imports is aimed at creating domestic pressure within Taiwan, highlighting benefits of cooperation with Beijing and driving a wedge between the pro-independence DPP government and segments of the Taiwanese populace/business community that favor engagement.

Explanation

The article states that US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent made the announcement regarding the waiver's expiry. The Department of the Treasury is responsible for managing US financial systems and enforcing economic sanctions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the waiver was for oil 'loaded on or before' March 12. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the objective was to ease global supply and exert downward pressure on oil prices ahead of US midterm elections, not to increase US production. Statement 3 is correct as per the Kpler data cited (2 million bpd, 44.4% of total imports).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Russian oil accounted for 44.4% of India's total oil imports in March 2026, which is approximately 40%. The other options are distractors: 20% was the share in February, 30% is not mentioned, and 50% is close but an overstatement of the exact figure.

Explanation

The article quotes an expert saying the decision is 'about supply security and economics in a much more fragile system,' highlighting the advantage of Russian crude in pricing and stable logistics via non-Strait of Hormuz routes. The other options are not the primary reasons discussed; the relationship is driven by pragmatic energy needs, not military ties or contracts, and complete Middle East independence is not stated as a goal.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that according to India's Ministry of External Affairs, the Indian diaspora in GCC countries stands at approximately 8.9 million. This ministry handles India's external relations and diaspora affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the failure of Pakistan-moderated negotiations had 'no representation of the 35 million migrant workers'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states migrant workers make up 75-90% of the population, rendering native Arabs a minority.

Explanation

The article specifically states that foreign remittance from GCC countries in 2024 was about Rs 4.6 lakh crore. This is a key data point highlighting the economic significance of the diaspora.

Explanation

The article argues that while political conversation frames the conflict in terms of oil, the more immediate concern for Asian and African societies is the safety and livelihoods of their family members who are migrant workers in the Gulf region.

Explanation

The Supreme Court order specifically directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to issue supplementary revised electoral rolls. The ECI is the constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court clarified that 'the mere pendency of appeals... shall not entitle them to exercise their right to vote.' Statement 2 is incorrect. The Court invoked its powers under Article 142, not Article 136. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the order.

Explanation

The Supreme Court set dual cut-off dates: April 21, 2026, for the first phase of polling on April 23, and April 27, 2026, for the second phase on April 29. The question asks for the date for the second phase.

Explanation

The Court explicitly stated that if pendency allowed voting, then 'objectors may likewise seek denial of the right to vote to those individuals whose names appear in the revised electoral roll.' This would recreate the problematic situation the verification exercise aimed to resolve.