11 April 2026, Questions & Answers
112 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
112 questions · 0 topics covered · 23 min revision
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This page contains 112 current affairs questions with answers from 11 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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112 QsUnder which Article of the Indian Constitution is the term 'State' defined for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
- A.Article 13
- B.Article 32
- C.Article 12✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 226
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Explanation
Article 12 defines 'State' for Part III of the Constitution, which deals with Fundamental Rights. It includes the Government, Parliament, State Legislatures, and all local or other authorities. The Supreme Court judgment specifically referenced Article 12 to conclude cooperative societies are not 'State'.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment:
1. The right to vote and the right to contest elections are fundamental rights under the Constitution.
2. Cooperative societies are considered 'State' under Article 12 of the Constitution.
3. Disputes regarding elections in cooperative societies can generally be entertained under the writ jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3
- D.(D) None of the above✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the SC held these are statutory, not fundamental rights. Statement 2 is incorrect as the SC clarified cooperative societies are not 'State' under Article 12. Statement 3 is incorrect as the SC ruled writ petitions under Article 226 are generally not maintainable for such internal disputes, which should be resolved through statutory forums.
Which Supreme Court bench delivered the judgment reiterating that the right to vote is not a fundamental right?
- A.Justices D Y Chandrachud and Hima Kohli
- B.Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Sudhanshu Dhulia
- C.Justices B V Nagarathna and R Mahadevan✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justices Surya Kant and K V Viswanathan
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Explanation
The article clearly states the judgment was delivered by a bench of Justices B V Nagarathna and R Mahadevan. The verdict dated April 10, 2026, was authored by Justice Mahadevan. Memorizing bench compositions is crucial for polity questions.
What was the primary legal distinction made by the Supreme Court regarding the bye-laws challenged in the Rajasthan cooperative society case?
- A.Between mandatory and directory provisions.
- B.Between eligibility criteria and disqualifications.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Between substantive and procedural laws.
- D.Between plenary and delegated legislation.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court clarified that the impugned bye-laws prescribing conditions like minimum milk supply were 'eligibility criteria' (threshold requirements for active members) and not 'disqualifications' (legal bars due to negative factors). This distinction is central to understanding the reasonableness of such regulations.
The UNSC resolution vetoed by China and Russia was formally adopted as Resolution 2817 (2026). How many permanent members (P5) does the UN Security Council have?
- A.Four
- B.Five✓ Correct Answer
- C.Six
- D.Seven
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Explanation
The United Nations Security Council has five permanent members (P5) with veto power: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States, as mentioned in the article's explanation of veto power.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The ceasefire between the US and Iran was brokered by Pakistan and is scheduled to last for two weeks.
2. UNSC Resolution 2817 (2026), which was vetoed, called for the condemnation of Iranian attacks and aimed to boost security in the Strait of Malacca.
3. Chinese President Xi Jinping met the leader of Taiwan's Democratic Progressive Party (DPP) to discuss the '1992 Consensus'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the resolution concerned the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca. Statement 3 is incorrect; Xi met the leader of the Kuomintang (KMT), not the DPP, which Beijing refuses to engage with.
According to the article, what proportion of global energy supplies transit through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.One-tenth
- B.One-fifth✓ Correct Answer
- C.One-quarter
- D.One-third
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz is 'the transit route for a fifth of global energy supplies.' This is a critical data point for understanding the strategic importance of the conflict.
What is a primary strategic objective for Iran in the ceasefire negotiations, as per its demands?
- A.Gaining permanent UNSC membership
- B.Legitimizing its sovereign control over the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- C.Joining the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
- D.Acquiring nuclear weapons from Russia
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Explanation
The article details that Iran seeks to 'legitimise its control at the negotiation table, demanding the US's recognition of Iran's sovereignty over the Strait.' This is a core geopolitical demand, unlike the other options which are not mentioned.
Which institution has released the 'Discussion Paper – Exploring Safeguards in Digital Payments to Curb Frauds' proposing the 1-hour payment delay?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
- D.National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
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Explanation
The discussion paper titled 'Exploring Safeguards in Digital Payments to Curb Frauds' has been released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India's central bank and primary regulator of payment systems.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's proposal on digital payments:
1. It proposes a mandatory cooling-off period of one hour for all digital payment transactions.
2. The proposed delay threshold is set at ₹10,000 per transaction for Authorised Push Payments (APP).
3. The data on digital payment frauds cited in the proposal is sourced from the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (NCRP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The proposed delay is not for 'all' digital payments; it is specifically for APP transactions above ₹10,000. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is also correct; the RBI's discussion paper uses fraud data from the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (NCRP).
According to the RBI discussion paper, what was the total value of digital payment frauds reported in India in the year 2025?
- A.₹22,848 crore
- B.₹22,931 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹7,465 crore
- D.₹2,290 crore
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Explanation
The article states that digital payment frauds amounted to ₹22,931 crore in 2025, based on data from the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (NCRP). ₹22,848 crore was the value for 2024, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary rationale behind the RBI's proposal to introduce a time lag for high-value digital payments?
- A.To reduce the transaction processing load on banking servers during peak hours.
- B.To act as a preventive control by disrupting the fraudster's psychological influence over the victim.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To encourage the use of cash for large transactions and reduce digital footprint.
- D.To comply with new international banking regulations on transaction delays.
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Explanation
The RBI explicitly states that the short delay is intended to act as a 'preventive control' by breaking the psychological hold fraudsters have during social engineering scams, giving the payer a chance to reconsider. The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the article.
Which committee is responsible for deciding the repo rate in India?
- A.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
- B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
- D.Committee on Payments and Settlement Systems (CPSS)
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India is the statutory body mandated to decide the benchmark interest rate (repo rate). This is a core static GK fact linked to the news article which mentions the MPC meeting.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Reserve Bank of India decided to maintain the repo rate at 5.25%.
2. The decision was taken by the Monetary Policy Committee on April 11, 2026.
3. The decision is expected to negatively impact the real estate sector due to higher EMIs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the MPC meeting and decision date was April 8, 2026, not April 11, 2026 (which is the publication date). Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the decision offers stability and predictable EMIs, which is welcomed by the sector, implying a positive or neutral impact, not a negative one.
According to the news, what is the current repo rate as decided by the RBI MPC?
- A.5.00%
- B.5.25%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.50%
- D.5.75%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India decided to maintain the repo rate at 5.25%. This is a direct data point from the news. The other options are close distractors representing possible rate changes.
What is the primary impact of maintaining the repo rate, as highlighted in the news article?
- A.It directly reduces the fiscal deficit of the government.
- B.It increases foreign direct investment in the technology sector.
- C.It provides predictability for home loan EMIs and aids long-term planning for homebuyers.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It leads to immediate depreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar.
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Explanation
The article focuses on the impact on the real estate sector, stating that the decision 'allows for better planning among homebuyers, as they benefit from stable EMIs and the potential for long-term savings'. The other options are generic impacts not specifically mentioned in the provided content.
Which Indian ministry is the nodal authority for receiving and processing extradition requests from foreign countries?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Defence
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the central authority that receives extradition requests from foreign governments. It reviews the request for compliance with the relevant treaty before forwarding it to the Ministry of Home Affairs and the judiciary for further action.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The extradition request for Sheikh Hasina was first made by the current BNP government of Bangladesh.
2. The India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty provides the legal basis for the request.
3. The request was discussed during the Bangladeshi Foreign Minister's meeting with the Indian National Security Advisor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the request was first made by a previous caretaker government, not the current BNP government. Statement 2 is correct: The demand is made under the India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions talks with NSA Ajit Doval in Delhi.
In which city did Bangladesh's Foreign Minister announce the reiteration of the extradition demand?
- A.New Delhi, India
- B.Dhaka, Bangladesh
- C.Port Louis, Mauritius✓ Correct Answer
- D.Colombo, Sri Lanka
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Explanation
According to the article, Bangladesh Foreign Minister Khalilur Rahman made the announcement in Port Louis, Mauritius, on April 10, 2026, where he was attending the 9th Indian Ocean Conference. The talks with Indian officials had occurred earlier in New Delhi.
What is a primary diplomatic challenge for India arising from Bangladesh's extradition request?
- A.Managing its obligations under the Non-Proliferation Treaty
- B.Balancing treaty obligations with broader strategic bilateral relations✓ Correct Answer
- C.Re-negotiating the terms of the bilateral trade agreement
- D.Addressing shared river water disputes under a new framework
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Explanation
The core challenge is the need to adhere to the legal process under the Extradition Treaty while simultaneously managing the wider impact on the strategic partnership with Bangladesh, which encompasses security, connectivity, and regional cooperation. The decision could set a significant precedent.
Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.State Election Commission
- D.Chief Electoral Officer of the State
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional authority under Article 324 responsible for superintendence, direction, and control of all elections. The SIR is a nationwide exercise directed by the ECI, implemented by state-level officers like the Chief Electoral Officer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise in Uttar Pradesh:
1. The total deletions of voter names represented exactly 13.21% of the electorate before the SIR process commenced.
2. The final electoral roll published shows a higher number of female voters than male voters.
3. The SIR process in Uttar Pradesh commenced in the month of October 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states deletions (2,04,45,300) represent 13.21% of total voters before SIR. Statement 2 is incorrect; the final list has 7,30,71,071 male and 6,09,09,525 female voters, meaning more male voters. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the SIR process commenced in October 2025.
According to the final list released after the SIR-2026 exercise, what is the total number of electors in Uttar Pradesh?
- A.13,39,84,792✓ Correct Answer
- B.15,44,00,000
- C.14,23,84,792
- D.12,50,00,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the final list comprises 13,39,84,792 electors. Option B is the pre-SIR electorate count (15.44 crore). Option C and D are incorrect figures not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary objective of the Election Commission's Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise as demonstrated in Uttar Pradesh?
- A.To increase the total number of voters by adding new registrations.
- B.To purify the electoral roll by removing ineligible, duplicate, and deceased voters.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To conduct a mock poll for testing Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
- D.To assign new polling stations based on population density.
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Explanation
The core objective of the SIR is to clean up and ensure the accuracy of electoral rolls, which involves the deletion of ineligible entries. While new voters are also added, the massive scale of deletions (over 2 crore) highlights the purification objective. The other options describe different electoral activities.
The article discusses the legal regime of 'Transit Passage'. Under which international convention is this regime defined?
- A.Geneva Conventions
- B.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
- D.Montreal Protocol
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Explanation
The 'Transit Passage' regime is a specific provision created by the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) to ensure freedom of navigation through international straits. The article explicitly mentions UNCLOS in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis as discussed in the article:
1. The entire navigable corridor of the Strait of Hormuz falls within the territorial waters of Iran and Oman.
2. Iran has ratified the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) and is applying the 'Transit Passage' regime.
3. The principle of 'Mare Liberum' or 'free sea' was proposed by the Dutch jurist Hugo Grotius.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the strait falls within Iranian and Omani territorial waters. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies Iran signed but has NOT ratified UNCLOS and is applying the restrictive 'Innocent Passage' clause, not 'Transit Passage'. Statement 3 is correct as Hugo Grotius's concept of 'Mare Liberum' is mentioned.
According to the article, what approximate percentage of global Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) trade passes through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.15%
- B.20%
- C.25%✓ Correct Answer
- D.30%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz impacts 'nearly 20 per cent of the world’s oil and 25 per cent of LNG trade'. The close distractor 20% refers to the oil trade figure.
What is the primary strategic reason cited in the article for Iran's ability to enforce a de facto blockade of the Strait of Hormuz despite the destruction of its navy?
- A.Support from allied naval powers in the region.
- B.Control over the territorial waters and deployment of coastal missile batteries, drone swarms, and sea mines.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A United Nations Security Council mandate allowing it to inspect ships.
- D.The complete freezing of all marine insurance for the region by international agencies.
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Explanation
The article explains that Iran's navy may have been destroyed, but the threat from its 'coastal missile batteries, drone swarms, and sea mines' has been sufficient to deter commercial shipping. This highlights asymmetric warfare and the strategic leverage of controlling a choke point's geography.
Which space agency successfully completed the Artemis II crewed lunar mission in April 2026?
- A.ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
- B.Roscosmos (Russian State Space Corporation)
- C.CNSA (China National Space Administration)
- D.NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NASA's Artemis II mission was successfully completed. NASA is the US government agency responsible for the civilian space program.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Artemis II mission was an uncrewed test flight around the Moon.
2. NASA plans to use landers developed solely by SpaceX for the Artemis III Moon landing mission.
3. China has announced its ambition to send humans to the Moon by the year 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Artemis II was a crewed mission with astronauts Reid Wiseman, Victor Glover, Christina Koch, and Jeremy Hansen. Statement 2 is incorrect: NASA is looking to both SpaceX and Blue Origin for Moon landings. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions China hoping to send humans to the Moon by 2030.
On which date did the Artemis II mission successfully splash down, completing its lunar journey?
- A.April 9, 2026
- B.April 10, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 11, 2026
- D.April 12, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Artemis II successfully completed its mission 'on Friday (April 10, 2026)'. The other dates are close distractors related to the article's publication date.
What is the primary strategic significance of NASA's partnership with SpaceX and Blue Origin for the Artemis program, as indicated by the news?
- A.To completely privatize all aspects of space exploration.
- B.To shift from a fully government-run model to a public-private partnership for developing key mission components.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce competition in the global space sector.
- D.To focus solely on robotic missions instead of human spaceflight.
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Explanation
The article contrasts the Apollo program, which was designed and run entirely by the government, with the current approach where NASA is 'banking on billionaires' and their companies for the landing systems. This represents a strategic shift towards a public-private partnership model.
Which international court gave an advisory opinion in 2019 stating that the UK should end its administration of the Chagos Archipelago?
- A.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
- B.International Criminal Court (ICC)
- C.International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
- D.Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
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Explanation
In 2019, the International Court of Justice (ICJ), the UN's principal judicial organ, issued an advisory opinion stating that the UK is obliged to end its administration of the Chagos Archipelago. This is a key static fact linked to the dispute.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent news on Chagos Islands:
1. The UK has permanently cancelled its plan to transfer sovereignty of the islands to Mauritius.
2. The proposed deal included a provision for the UK to retain control of the Diego Garcia base for 99 years.
3. The pause in the plan was influenced by opposition from the government of France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The UK has 'paused' or put the plan 'on hold', not permanently cancelled it. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the deal included a 99-year lease for the Diego Garcia base. Statement 3 is incorrect: the opposition came from the U.S., not France.
For how many years was the UK to retain control of the Diego Garcia military base under the proposed deal with Mauritius?
- A.50 years
- B.75 years
- C.99 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.125 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that under the deal, Britain would retain control of the Diego Garcia military base on a '99-year lease'. This is a precise data point that can be asked in prelims.
What is the primary strategic reason cited for the U.S. opposition to the UK ceding the Chagos Islands to Mauritius?
- A.To protect the fishing rights of U.S. vessels in the region.
- B.To preserve uninterrupted U.S. military operations at the Diego Garcia base.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To support the territorial claims of another ally in the Indian Ocean.
- D.To maintain control over potential deep-sea mining resources.
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Explanation
The article states the deal 'preserves U.S. operations there' and the pause came after U.S. criticism. Diego Garcia is a pivotal logistics hub for U.S. forces in the Middle East and Asia, making the continuity of operations the core strategic concern.
Which institution is the sole authority for issuing Government Securities (G-Secs) and conducting their auctions in India?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.National Stock Exchange (NSE)
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Explanation
As stated in the article, the RBI is the sole authority for G-Secs and issues them through auctions conducted on its electronic platform E-Kuber. SEBI regulates securities markets, but G-Sec issuance is under RBI's debt management function.
Consider the following statements regarding Government Securities:
1. Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are issued by both Central and State Governments.
2. Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are short-term instruments with maturities less than 91 days.
3. State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, known as State Development Loans (SDLs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the RBI, the Central Government issues both T-Bills and bonds, while State Governments issue only bonds (SDLs). Statement 2 is correct: CMBs were introduced in 2010 to manage cash flow mismatches and have maturities less than 91 days. Statement 3 is correct, as per the RBI statement quoted in the article.
According to the RBI circular of 6th April 2026, what is the limit for Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) investment in State Government Securities (SGSs) for FY 2026-27 under the general route?
- A.2% of outstanding stocks✓ Correct Answer
- B.6% of outstanding stocks
- C.15% of outstanding stocks
- D.No specific limit mentioned
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the limits for FY27: 6% for Central G-Secs, 2% for State Government Securities (SGSs), and 15% for corporate bonds. This data point is crucial for prelims questions on capital market regulations.
What is the primary purpose of the Reserve Bank of India conducting Open Market Operations (OMOs) as mentioned in the article?
- A.To directly control foreign exchange rates
- B.To adjust rupee liquidity conditions on a durable basis✓ Correct Answer
- C.To set the fiscal deficit targets for the government
- D.To regulate stock market trading volumes
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Explanation
The article states that RBI uses OMOs to adjust rupee liquidity conditions. When there is excess liquidity, RBI sells G-Secs to suck it out; when liquidity is tight, RBI buys securities to release liquidity. This is a key monetary policy tool for inflation and money supply management.
The draft Delhi EV Policy 2026 mentions that purchase incentives will be provided via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Under which government ministry does the DBT mechanism primarily operate?
- A.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries
- D.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
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Explanation
The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mission is a flagship program of the Government of India under the Ministry of Finance. It aims to reform the government delivery system by re-engineering existing processes and leveraging digital and biometric platforms. While other ministries implement DBT for their schemes, the overarching framework and mission are anchored in the Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements regarding the draft Delhi EV Policy 2026:
1. It proposes a 100% exemption on road tax and registration fees for all electric vehicles, irrespective of their price.
2. It includes a provision for a scrapping incentive of ₹1 lakh for buyers of electric cars priced up to ₹30 lakh, limited to the first 1 lakh applicants.
3. The policy mandates that all new commercial four-wheeler goods carriers registered in Delhi must be electric from the date of its notification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy states that electric cars priced above ₹30 lakh will NOT be eligible for any road tax or registration fee exemption. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the policy proposes incentives for electric trucks (N1 category) but does not mention a mandate or ban on new ICE commercial four-wheelers.
According to the draft Delhi EV Policy 2026, what is the proposed incentive for a buyer purchasing an electric two-wheeler priced up to ₹2.25 lakh in the SECOND year after policy notification?
- A.₹10,000 per kWh, capped at ₹30,000
- B.₹6,600 per kWh, capped at ₹20,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹3,300 per kWh, capped at ₹10,000
- D.₹5,000 per kWh, capped at ₹15,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states the tiered incentive structure: In the first year, it is ₹10,000/kWh (cap ₹30,000); in the second year, it reduces to ₹6,600/kWh (cap ₹20,000); and in the third year, it drops to ₹3,300/kWh (cap ₹10,000).
What is the primary rationale, as per the draft policy, for prioritizing the electrification of two-wheelers and three-wheelers in Delhi?
- A.They are the most affordable vehicle segments for low-income groups.
- B.They have the highest export potential under the 'Make in India' initiative.
- C.They constitute a large share of the vehicle stock and have high daily utilization, contributing disproportionately to air pollution.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Their charging infrastructure is simpler and cheaper to deploy compared to four-wheelers.
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Explanation
The policy document explicitly states that two-wheelers constitute about 67% of Delhi's vehicle stock, and three-wheelers and commercial cars have high daily mileage. Therefore, their electrification is deemed critical for achieving meaningful reductions in vehicular emissions and sustained improvements in air quality.
Which regulatory body released the draft guidelines for NBFC Upper Layer classification mentioned in the news?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the draft guidelines were released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is the primary regulator for banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's draft guidelines for NBFC Upper Layer (NBFC-UL):
1. It proposes that any NBFC with assets of ₹1 lakh crore or more will automatically qualify as NBFC-UL.
2. The new framework completely abolishes the earlier parametric scoring model that considered factors like interconnectedness and complexity.
3. As per the draft, Core Investment Companies (CICs) classified as NBFC-UL are mandatorily required to list on stock exchanges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the new framework replaces the earlier parametric scoring model with an asset-based one, but does not 'abolish' the concept—it changes the primary determinant. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states a 'key ambiguity persists' regarding mandatory listing for CICs, and the RBI is yet to clarify this.
According to the news article, what is the estimated asset base of Tata Sons for FY25?
- A.Approximately ₹1.00 lakh crore
- B.Approximately ₹1.25 lakh crore
- C.Approximately ₹1.50 lakh crore
- D.Approximately ₹1.75 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'With Tata Sons’ FY25 asset base estimated at around Rs 1.75 lakh crore...'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective cited by the RBI for shifting to an asset-size-based classification for NBFC Upper Layer entities, as per the draft guidelines?
- A.To increase government revenue from financial sector taxes
- B.To make the classification process more transparent, simple, and objective✓ Correct Answer
- C.To encourage mergers and acquisitions among smaller NBFCs
- D.To reduce the overall number of NBFCs in the Upper Layer
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Explanation
The article quotes the RBI stating that the change is aimed at making the process 'transparent, simple and objective,' eliminating the ambiguity of the earlier methodology. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives in the provided content.
Which space agency led the Artemis II mission described in the news?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.European Space Agency (ESA)
- D.China National Space Administration (CNSA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Artemis II mission was conducted by NASA. The capsule used was NASA's Orion, and the mission was a key part of NASA's Artemis program to return to the Moon.
Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mission:
1. It was the first crewed test flight in NASA's Artemis program, involving a lunar flyby.
2. The mission set a new record for the farthest distance humans have traveled from Earth, surpassing the Apollo 13 record.
3. The crew included the first woman, the first Black astronaut, and the first non-U.S. citizen to travel on a mission to the lunar vicinity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'the debut crewed test flight in a series of Artemis missions'. Statement 2 is correct: the crew's peak distance of 252,756 miles broke the record set by Apollo 13 (~248,000 miles). Statement 3 is correct: Glover, Koch, and Hansen were respectively the first Black astronaut, first woman, and first non-U.S. citizen on a lunar mission.
According to the article, what was the total distance traveled by the Artemis II mission?
- A.252,756 miles
- B.500,000 miles
- C.694,392 miles✓ Correct Answer
- D.1,000,000 miles
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'The Artemis II flight, traveling a total of 694,392 miles (1,117,515 km)...' Option A is the peak distance from Earth, not the total mission distance.
What is the stated broader strategic objective of NASA's Artemis program, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To exclusively mine lunar resources for commercial gain
- B.To establish a long-term lunar presence as a stepping stone to human exploration of Mars✓ Correct Answer
- C.To permanently station astronauts on the International Space Station
- D.To win a new Cold War by defeating China in a race to the Moon
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The agency more broadly aims to establish a long-term lunar presence as a stepping stone to eventual human exploration of Mars.' While competition with China is mentioned, it is not stated as the primary strategic objective.
The sickle cell screening program in Nandurbar is backed by which state-level initiative focusing on last-mile healthcare delivery?
- A.Ayushman Bharat Yojana
- B.Arunodoy Initiative✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Health Mission
- D.Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the sickle cell screening effort in Nandurbar is backed by the state's Arunodoy initiative, which focuses on last-mile healthcare delivery in vulnerable regions.
Consider the following statements regarding the sickle cell screening in Nandurbar, Maharashtra:
1. The screening uses Dried Blood Spot (DBS)-based Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) testing, which replaced the older solubility test method.
2. Under the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission, the district has screened nearly seven lakh people since April 2025.
3. The solubility test, previously used, could accurately distinguish between sickle cell patients and carriers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the shift to DBS-PCR testing. Statement 2 is correct as it states nearly 7 lakh people have been screened since April 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states the solubility test 'cannot distinguish between patients and carriers'.
According to the article, what percentage of those screened in Nandurbar district were identified as carriers of the sickle cell trait?
- A.5% to 10%
- B.10% to 15%
- C.15% to 22%✓ Correct Answer
- D.22% to 30%
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Explanation
The article provides the data point that 'around 7,000 people diagnosed so far in Nandurbar and up to 22% of those screened identified as carriers' and later reiterates '15% to 22% of those screened are carriers'.
What is cited as a key advantage of the Dried Blood Spot (DBS)-PCR method over the older solubility test for large-scale sickle cell screening?
- A.It is significantly faster and cheaper per test.
- B.It provides a genetically confirmed diagnosis and is feasible for remote areas.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It can be administered and interpreted by community health workers without training.
- D.It simultaneously tests for multiple other genetic disorders.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the DBS method combines accuracy (genetically confirmed diagnosis) with feasibility, as samples can be collected in remote villages and transported without refrigeration. It does not claim it is faster, cheaper, requires no training, or tests for multiple disorders.
Under which constitutional provision is the Governor vested with the executive power of the State?
- A.Article 153
- B.Article 154✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 155
- D.Article 156
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Explanation
Article 154 of the Constitution states that the executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor. This power includes the authority to sanction discretionary benefits like extraordinary pensions under rules like the UPCS Rules 1981, as highlighted in the Supreme Court judgment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The Supreme Court awarded a total compensation of ₹1 crore to the widow of Dr Sunik Kumar Singh.
2. The Court held that the grant of an extraordinary pension under the UPCS Rules 1981 does not require any external sanction.
3. The Court permitted the widow to make a fresh application for the extraordinary pension to be considered by the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court finalised the compensation at ₹1 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court specifically clarified that the sanction of the Governor is necessary for an extraordinary pension. Statement 3 is correct as the Court allowed the widow to apply for the pension under the Rules. Hence, option C is correct.
What was the amount of compensation originally awarded by the Uttarakhand High Court to the widow of Dr Sunik Kumar Singh?
- A.₹50 lakh
- B.₹1 crore
- C.₹1.99 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹2 crore
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Explanation
The article states that in 2018, a division bench of the Uttarakhand High Court ordered the state to pay approximately ₹1.99 crore in compensation. The Supreme Court later modified this order to ₹1 crore. ₹50 lakh was the state's initial proposal, and ₹2 crore is not mentioned.
What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's clarification regarding the 'Governor's sanction' rule in this case?
- A.It expands the power of the High Court to grant pensions directly.
- B.It emphasises that compensation for public servants can only be granted by the judiciary.
- C.It reinforces that discretionary administrative benefits must follow prescribed procedural channels and require executive sanction.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It mandates that all pension matters must be decided exclusively by the Finance Ministry.
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Explanation
The Court's ruling underscores the principle of separation of powers and procedural compliance. While courts can award compensation, discretionary benefits like extraordinary pensions under specific rules require the sanction of the executive head (the Governor), as per the delegated legislation. This ensures adherence to established administrative procedures.
Which ministry's secretary highlighted the potential of farm solarisation to reduce state electricity subsidies?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article quotes Santosh Kumar Sarangi, Secretary of the Ministry for New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), discussing the subsidy reduction potential of solar programmes. This ministry is responsible for policy related to renewable energy sources like solar.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Indian States spend nearly ₹2.4 lakh crore annually on subsidising electricity for agricultural consumers only.
2. The Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) is a tool to build India's domestic solar manufacturing base.
3. The Centre's solar programmes are now designed solely to add clean energy capacity to the grid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the subsidy of ₹2.4 lakh crore is for both agricultural and domestic consumers, not just agricultural. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which states ALMM is the Centre's primary tool for building a domestic solar manufacturing base. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says solar programmes are 'increasingly designed not just to add clean energy capacity but to persuade States' to eliminate subsidy bills.
What is the approximate annual electricity subsidy bill for Indian states, as mentioned in the news?
- A.₹1.8 lakh crore
- B.₹2.0 lakh crore
- C.₹2.4 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹3.0 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Indian States collectively spend nearly ₹2.4 lakh crore a year on subsidising electricity. The other options are plausible but incorrect figures that could be used as distractors.
According to the news, what is a key strategic shift in the Centre's approach to solar programmes?
- A.Focusing exclusively on large-scale solar parks
- B.Linking solar adoption to the reduction of state subsidy burdens✓ Correct Answer
- C.Prioritising offshore wind energy over solar energy
- D.Shifting all solar subsidies to direct cash transfers
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Explanation
The core insight from the news is that solar programmes are now being designed with the explicit objective of helping states eliminate their massive electricity subsidy bill through farm and rooftop solarisation. This represents a strategic shift from a pure capacity-addition goal to a fiscal relief goal.
Under which Act was the Lok Sabha committee investigating Justice Yashwant Varma constituted?
- A.The Judges (Protection) Act, 1985
- B.The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
- D.The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the investigation by the Lok Sabha committee was under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. This act regulates the procedure for investigation and proof of misbehaviour or incapacity of a judge.
Consider the following statements regarding the concept of 'Constitutional Morality':
1. The term was first coined by the British historian George Grote.
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar used this term during his speech in the Constituent Assembly on the Draft Constitution.
3. It refers to a fixed judicial standard of adjudication that provides clear answers in all constitutional cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the term was coined by George Grote. Statement 2 is correct as Ambedkar quoted Grote in the Constituent Assembly. Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the article notes, constitutional morality is 'indeterminate' and 'cannot, by itself, yield a standard of adjudication'; it is more of a guiding principle or diagnostic tool.
According to the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24 data cited in the article, what is the estimated national average Cost of a Healthy Diet (CoHD) for a non-vegetarian diet per person per day?
- A.Rs 62.5
- B.Rs 73.1✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 81.7
- D.Rs 89.3
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'We estimate the national average CoHD for a non-vegetarian diet at Rs 73.1 per person per day in 2023-24.' This is a precise data point crucial for understanding economic and social welfare dimensions.
What is the primary legal reason cited in the article for Iran's blockade of the Strait of Hormuz being contentious under international law?
- A.Iran has not signed the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
- B.Iran is applying the regime of 'Innocent Passage', which it can suspend, instead of 'Transit Passage', which it cannot.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Strait falls within the Exclusive Economic Zone of Oman, not Iran.
- D.International law allows blockades only during formally declared wars.
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Explanation
The article explains that the Strait of Hormuz qualifies as a 'strait used for international navigation' under UNCLOS, where the 'Transit Passage' regime applies. This regime guarantees continuous transit and cannot be suspended. By applying the more restrictive 'Innocent Passage' regime, Iran brings itself into conflict with UNCLOS.
Which United Nations body, mentioned in the article, provides expertise on demining challenges?
- A.UN Mine Action Service (UNMAS)✓ Correct Answer
- B.UN Security Council
- C.International Maritime Organization (IMO)
- D.UN Development Programme (UNDP)
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Explanation
The article quotes Paul Heslop, an expert with the UN Mine Action Service (UNMAS), discussing the dynamic challenges of clearing sea mines. This is the primary UN entity responsible for coordinating mine action globally.
Consider the following statements regarding naval mines:
1. Contact mines detonate upon physical contact with a vessel, while Influence mines use sensors to detect target signatures.
2. Bottom mines are a type of Contact mine that rest on the sea floor.
3. Limpet mines are small explosives that divers attach to a ship's hull and can be set with a timer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's classification. Statement 2 is incorrect because Bottom mines are classified as 'Influence' mines, not 'Contact' mines. Statement 3 is correct as the article defines Limpet mines precisely as such. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, what is the estimated size of Iran's stockpile of naval mines?
- A.1,000 to 2,000 mines
- B.3,000 to 4,000 mines
- C.5,000 to 6,000 mines✓ Correct Answer
- D.7,000 to 8,000 mines
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, 'According to the US, Iran has about 5,000 to 6,000 naval mines.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the provided text.
What is the primary reason, as discussed in the article, that makes clearing naval mines from the Strait of Hormuz particularly challenging?
- A.The extreme depth of the strait makes sonar ineffective.
- B.Mines can be laid and move in three dimensions (surface, water column, seabed) and over time (a fourth dimension).✓ Correct Answer
- C.International law prohibits foreign navies from conducting demining operations in the strait.
- D.The mines used are all of a new, stealth variety that are undetectable by current technology.
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Explanation
The article quotes UN expert Paul Heslop explaining that sea mines operate in three spatial layers and a 'fourth dimension, which is time,' as currents can move them, creating a dynamic and changing environment for deminers. This is cited as the core challenge.
Which key training institution for the Pakistan Air Force is located at the Nur Khan Airbase, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Pakistan Air Force Academy Risalpur
- B.PAF College Chaklala✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Defence University, Islamabad
- D.Air War College, Karachi
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Nur Khan Airbase 'is also home to PAF College Chaklala, a key training institution for the Pakistan Air Force.' The other institutions, while related to Pakistani defence, are not mentioned in the article in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Nur Khan Airbase is located in Rawalpindi and serves as a key logistical hub for Pakistan's armed forces.
2. Operation Sindoor was launched by India in response to the Pulwama terror attacks.
3. The US Vice-President's aircraft was escorted by PAF F-16 fighter jets before landing at Nur Khan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which says the base is in Rawalpindi and is a 'key logistical hub'. Statement 2 is incorrect; Operation Sindoor was launched in response to the 'Pahalgam terror attacks', not Pulwama. Statement 3 is correct as visuals showed 'five PAF F-16s escorting the US Air Force’s Boeing C-32A plane'.
According to the article, during which dates was Operation Sindoor, the Indian military action that targeted Nur Khan Airbase, conducted?
- A.April 7-10, 2025
- B.May 7-10, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 7-10, 2025
- D.September 7-10, 2025
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Explanation
The article clearly states 'Operation Sindoor, launched between May 7 and 10 last year'. The other options are distractors based on other months mentioned in the article (June 2025 for the Pak Army Chief's US visit, September 2025 for the White House meeting).
What is a primary strategic implication of the US Vice-President's visit to Nur Khan Airbase, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It signals a major US investment in Pakistan's civilian infrastructure.
- B.It demonstrates warming US-Pakistan ties and Islamabad's central role in regional diplomacy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It marks the beginning of a new US-led military alliance in South Asia.
- D.It indicates a US shift in support from India to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue.
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Explanation
The article's analysis emphasizes that the visit, with its symbolic F-16 escort, shifts attention to Pakistan's strategic site and is part of Islamabad's effort to 'place Pakistan at the centre of world diplomacy, Washington by its side.' While the other options are potential broader implications, the article most directly supports this interpretation of the visit's primary strategic messaging.
Which international court issued an advisory opinion in 2019 stating that the UK must hand over the Chagos Archipelago to Mauritius?
- A.International Criminal Court (ICC)
- B.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
- D.European Court of Human Rights (ECHR)
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Explanation
As per the article, in 2019, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) issued an advisory opinion that the UK must hand over the Chagos islands to Mauritius. The ICJ is the UN's principal judicial organ for settling disputes between states.
Consider the following statements regarding the Chagos Archipelago:
1. The UK detached it from Mauritius in 1965 to create the British Indian Ocean Territory (BIOT).
2. The joint US-UK military base on Diego Garcia was established before World War II.
3. As part of the 2025 UK-Mauritius deal, Diego Garcia would be leased back to the UK for 99 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states Britain 'detached' Chagos from Mauritius in 1965 to create BIOT. Statement 2 is incorrect: The US Navy sought Diego Garcia after WWII due to Cold War concerns, not before. Statement 3 is correct: The 2025 deal includes leasing Diego Garcia back to the UK for 99 years.
According to the 2025 UK-Mauritius agreement, what is the annual fee for the leaseback of the Diego Garcia base?
- A.£40 million
- B.£75 million
- C.£101 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.£150 million
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that as part of the deal, Diego Garcia would be leased back to the UK for the next 99 years for £101 million a year. £40 million is for the Chagossian trust fund, making it a close distractor.
What was a primary strategic reason for the US interest in establishing a base on Diego Garcia, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To monitor shipping in the Arctic Ocean
- B.To maintain a permanent foothold in the central Indian Ocean near key maritime chokepoints✓ Correct Answer
- C.To serve as a primary base for operations in the Atlantic Ocean
- D.To provide humanitarian aid to East African nations
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Explanation
The article states that after WWII, US naval planners wanted a permanent foothold in the ocean. Diego Garcia's central Indian Ocean location puts critical chokepoints like the Strait of Hormuz, Bab-el-Mandeb, and Malacca Strait within reach of long-range bombers, making it strategically vital.
The Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (CIDS), whose keynote address is mentioned in the article, heads which headquarters organization?
- A.Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (IDS)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Strategic Forces Command
- C.Defence Planning Committee
- D.National Security Council Secretariat
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Explanation
The Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (CIDS) is the head of the Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (IDS), which is the joint organization of the Indian Armed Forces aimed at fostering integration and jointness among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Consider the following statements regarding the discussions at the Ran Samwad conference 2026:
1. The Army Chief emphasized that modern warfare must be 'technology-led' to maintain a decision advantage.
2. A key lesson from Operation Sindoor was the successful use of ground intelligence coupled with cyber and electronic warfare inputs for precision targeting.
3. The Navy Chief stated that the West Asia conflict demonstrated that speed is now a distinct capability, not just an enabler.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Army Chief specifically said warfare must be 'technology-enabled, and not technology-led'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of Operation Sindoor. Statement 3 is correct as the Navy Chief highlighted that speed is a 'distinct capability' in modern warfare.
According to the article, how many drone regiments is the Indian Army looking to set up as part of its drone strategy?
- A.5 regiments
- B.10 regiments
- C.15 regiments✓ Correct Answer
- D.20 regiments
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes the Army Chief stating, 'Today, we are looking at about 15 regiments...' as part of the force's drone battalion expansion following lessons from Operation Sindoor.
What was a primary institutional lesson from Operation Sindoor that led to a new creation within the Indian Army's structure?
- A.Creation of a dedicated Cyber Command
- B.Establishment of a Psychological Warfare Division✓ Correct Answer
- C.Merger of the Mountain Strike Corps with the Central Command
- D.Formation of an Integrated Rocket Force
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Explanation
The article states that a lesson from Operation Sindoor was the requirement of a 'psychological warfare division' because 15% of the effort was in managing disinformation. Consequently, a psychological division under a Brigadier is being set up.
Who is leading the Iranian delegation for the Islamabad talks as mentioned in the article?
- A.The President of Iran
- B.The Supreme Leader of Iran
- C.The Speaker of the Iranian Parliament and the Foreign Minister✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Chief of the Iranian Armed Forces
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Iranian delegation is headed by Parliamentary Speaker Mohammad Baqher Ghalibaf and Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi.
Consider the following statements regarding the preconditions for the Iran-US Islamabad talks:
1. Iran demands a ceasefire in Lebanon before negotiations can begin.
2. Iran demands the release of its blocked assets as a precondition.
3. The US has agreed to both conditions and implemented them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per Iran's Speaker Ghalibaf's tweet quoted in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions these conditions 'have yet to be implemented' and talks are uncertain because they are not fulfilled.
According to Lebanese officials cited in the article, approximately how many people have been killed in Israeli strikes since early March?
- A.Over 350
- B.Nearly 1,000
- C.Nearly 2,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 5,000
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'Lebanese officials say nearly 2,000 people have been killed in Israeli strikes since early March.' The figure 'Over 350' refers to a single deadly attack mentioned earlier.
What is the primary strategic leverage Iran is using, as indicated by its actions mentioned in the article?
- A.Its advanced nuclear weapons program
- B.Control over the Strait of Hormuz and support for Hezbollah in Lebanon✓ Correct Answer
- C.Strong diplomatic alliances with European countries
- D.A massive conventional army
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Explanation
The article mentions Iran's blockade of the Strait of Hormuz disrupting energy flows and its backing of Hezbollah fighting in Lebanon. These are the tangible points of pressure it holds, as opposed to other potential but unmentioned leverages.
As per the news, which central agency's extradition cell should state extradition cells consult for clarification in complex cases?
- A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
- D.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Home Secretary advised state extradition cells to consult the 'CBI’s extradition cell for clarification in complex cases.' This highlights the CBI's nodal role in coordinating international police and judicial requests.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Rule of Specialty' in extradition cases:
1. It is a statutory mandate under Section 21 of the Extradition Act, 1962.
2. It allows India to try an extradited individual for any offence committed on Indian soil.
3. It requires prior consent of the extraditing country to prosecute for an offence not mentioned in the extradition decree.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Rule of Specialty is 'a statutory mandate under the Extradition Act, 1962.' Statement 2 is incorrect and is the trap; the rule explicitly prohibits trying the individual for other offences. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which says trying them for any other offence requires 'prior consent of the surrendering State.'
According to the CBI's data mentioned in the article, how many fugitives were extradited or deported to India between 2020 and 2025?
- A.71
- B.134✓ Correct Answer
- C.203
- D.27
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Explanation
The article's final paragraph provides the exact data: 'According to the CBI, it was able to secure the extradition or deportation of 134 fugitives from 2020 to 2025.' 71 is the number located abroad in 2024-25, 203 is the number of foreign fugitives located in India, and 27 is the number returned to India in 2024-25.
What is the primary risk identified by the Home Secretary if states violate the 'Rule of Specialty' in extradition cases?
- A.Increased financial cost of extradition proceedings
- B.Overburdening of the Indian judiciary with new cases
- C.Undermining India's credibility in future international extradition matters✓ Correct Answer
- D.Violation of the extradited individual's fundamental rights under Article 21
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the Home Secretary stating that deviations 'may adversely affect India’s credibility in the ongoing extradition matters and could have wider implications in future extradition requests.' While other options might be secondary consequences, the core strategic risk highlighted is to India's international credibility and cooperation.
The Artemis II mission, which recently returned from a lunar flyby, is a program of which space agency?
- A.ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
- B.NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Roscosmos (Russian State Space Corporation)
- D.ESA (European Space Agency)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Artemis II is a mission of NASA's Artemis programme. NASA is the United States' civilian space agency.
Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mission:
1. It carried astronauts from the United States and Canada.
2. The spacecraft reached a maximum distance from Earth greater than any previous Apollo mission.
3. Its primary objective was to conduct a soft landing on the lunar surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the crew included three US astronauts and one Canadian. Statement 2 is correct as it reached 4,06,778 km, surpassing Apollo 13. Statement 3 is incorrect; Artemis II was a crewed flyby mission, not a landing mission. The landing is planned for Artemis III.
According to the article, what was the approximate maximum distance from Earth reached by the Artemis II spacecraft?
- A.3,84,400 km
- B.4,00,172 km
- C.4,06,778 km✓ Correct Answer
- D.4,20,000 km
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Explanation
The article clearly states, "Their spacecraft reached 4,06,778 km from the Earth at its furthest." Option A is the average Earth-Moon distance, serving as a common distractor.
What is the primary significance of the Artemis II mission's success for the broader Artemis program?
- A.It discovered new mineral resources on the lunar surface.
- B.It served as a successful dress rehearsal and technology test for the planned human Moon landing.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It established the first permanent communication satellite around the Moon.
- D.It successfully deployed a rover to map the lunar south pole.
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that "Artemis II successfully completed the dress rehearsal for the actual Moon landing mission in 2028." It tested crewed operations and high-speed re-entry, critical for the next step (Artemis III landing).
The Artemis II mission, which recently splashed down, is a program of which space agency?
- A.ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
- B.NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Roscosmos (Russian State Space Corporation)
- D.ESA (European Space Agency)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Artemis II is a mission of NASA. NASA is the United States government agency responsible for the civilian space program and aeronautics research.
Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Artemis II mission:
1. It was the first crewed mission of the Artemis program.
2. The astronauts onboard traveled a greater total distance than the Apollo 17 mission.
3. The spacecraft reached a point farther from Earth than the Apollo 13 mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Artemis II was the first crewed mission of the Artemis programme.' Statement 2 is incorrect: Apollo 17 traveled about 2.38 million km, while Artemis II traveled 1.12 million km. Statement 3 is correct: Artemis II reached 406,778 km, which was about 6,606 km farther than Apollo 13.
According to the article, what was the approximate speed of the Orion spacecraft during its re-entry into Earth's atmosphere?
- A.26,000-28,000 kmph
- B.30,000-35,000 kmph
- C.40,000-42,000 kmph✓ Correct Answer
- D.45,000-48,000 kmph
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Explanation
The article states: 'At the time of re-entry... the Orion spacecraft were travelling at a speed of about 11-12 km/sec (about 40,000-42,000 kmph).' The other options are distractors: 26,000-28,000 kmph is the speed for re-entry from Low Earth Orbit (like the ISS).
What is the primary significance of the successful Artemis II splashdown, as described in the article?
- A.It demonstrated the capability for satellite repair in deep space.
- B.It served as a dress rehearsal for the planned human Moon landing mission in 2028.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It established the first permanent space station in lunar orbit.
- D.It tested a new propulsion system for faster travel to Mars.
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'Artemis II successfully completed the dress rehearsal for the actual Moon landing mission in 2028.' The other options, such as establishing a space station or testing Mars propulsion, are not mentioned as primary objectives of this specific mission.
The sea-based leg of India's nuclear triad, involving submarines like INS Aridhaman, falls under the operational command of which body?
- A.Integrated Defence Staff (IDS)
- B.Strategic Forces Command (SFC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nuclear Command Authority (NCA)
- D.Indian Navy's Western Command
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Explanation
The Strategic Forces Command (SFC) is the tri-services command responsible for the management and administration of India's tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile. It exercises operational control over all nuclear delivery platforms, including SSBNs like INS Aridhaman.
Consider the following statements regarding India's SSBN program:
1. INS Arihant was India's first indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine, commissioned in 2016.
2. INS Aridhaman, the third SSBN, has a greater missile carrying capacity than INS Arihant and INS Arighat.
3. The K-15 Sagarika missile is a land-based intermediate-range ballistic missile developed for the nuclear triad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as INS Aridhaman can carry 24 K-15 missiles compared to 12 in its predecessors. Statement 3 is incorrect because the K-15 Sagarika is a submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM), not a land-based missile.
According to the news article, what is the reported displacement tonnage of the newly commissioned INS Aridhaman?
- A.5,000 tonnes
- B.6,000 tonnes
- C.7,000 tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.8,000 tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that INS Aridhaman is a larger 7,000-tonne vessel. This is a key data point distinguishing it from its predecessors in the Arihant class.
The commissioning of INS Aridhaman is strategically significant primarily because it:
- A.Enhances India's coastal surveillance capabilities against piracy.
- B.Provides a significant boost to India's anti-submarine warfare tactics.
- C.Strengthens the survivable, sea-based leg of India's nuclear deterrent.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Marks India's entry into the exclusive club of nations with aircraft carriers.
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Explanation
SSBNs like INS Aridhaman form the most survivable component of the nuclear triad due to their stealth. Their primary role is to ensure a second-strike capability, thereby strengthening nuclear deterrence as per India's doctrine. The other options describe conventional naval roles.
Which constitutional entry empowers Parliament to legislate on coordination and standards in higher education?
- A.Entry 25, Concurrent List
- B.Entry 66, Union List✓ Correct Answer
- C.Entry 17, State List
- D.Entry 44, Union List
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Explanation
Entry 66 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution specifically grants Parliament legislative power for 'Coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions'. This is the legal basis cited in the article for Parliament's limited role.
Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhisthan (VBSA) Bill:
1. The Bill aims to statutorily implement the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
2. It proposes to give sole discretionary power to State government-controlled councils for higher education standards.
3. The Bill dilutes Section 13 of the UGC Act, which requires consultation with universities before inspections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Bill proposes to statutorily take forward NEP 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill gives power to Union government-controlled councils, not State councils. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the Bill dilutes the consultative requirements of Section 13 of the UGC Act.
According to the article, which specific section of the UGC Act is being diluted by the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhisthan Bill?
- A.Section 12
- B.Section 13✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 22
- D.Section 25
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'The Bill dilutes the University Grants Commission’s (UGC) consultative requirements. Section 13 of the UGC Act provides for inspections...' This exact section number is a key factual detail for exam purposes.
What is a primary criticism leveled against the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhisthan Bill, as per the article?
- A.It excessively increases funding for private universities.
- B.It constitutes a constitutional overreach by centralizing power.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It abolishes the University Grants Commission entirely.
- D.It mandates the teaching of only regional languages.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that the Bill is a 'constitutional overreach' as it gives 'sole discretionary power to Union government-controlled councils' beyond the limited power granted by Entry 66 of the Union List. This centralization of power at the expense of States and autonomous institutions is the main criticism.
The term 'examination republic' used in the context of India primarily highlights which of the following aspects?
- A.The large number of competitive examinations conducted.✓ Correct Answer
- B.The constitutional provisions governing examinations.
- C.The role of the President in appointing exam bodies.
- D.The international treaties on educational standards.
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Explanation
The article uses 'examination republic' metaphorically to describe India's massive scale of high-stakes exams (~6 crore annual test-takers), not a formal constitutional or international status. It emphasizes the pervasive role of exams in the national fabric.
Consider the following statements regarding India's exam ecosystem as discussed in the article:
1. It is described as the world's largest examination republic.
2. It involves approximately six crore students and job aspirants annually.
3. Its primary function is to generate revenue for the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly calls India the 'world's largest examination republic'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'around six crore' annual participants. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article frames the system's primary function as an 'instrument of social justice', not revenue generation.
According to the article, approximately how many students and job aspirants appear for high-stakes examinations in India every year?
- A.4 crore
- B.5 crore
- C.6 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.7 crore
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Explanation
The article states: 'Every year, around six crore students and job aspirants appear for high-stakes examinations across the country.' The other options are close distractors.
As per the article, why is the integrity of India's exam ecosystem considered a 'matter of national trust'?
- A.Because it affects foreign direct investment in the education sector.
- B.Because a single exam can determine the lifetime trajectory for millions, making it key to social justice.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because it is the main source of employment for the IT sector.
- D.Because it is mandated by international educational agreements.
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Explanation
The article directly links exam integrity to national trust by stating that for millions, 'a single examination can determine the trajectory of a lifetime' and that the system 'functions as a powerful instrument of social justice'. Breaches of integrity thus undermine a core mechanism for equitable opportunity.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 11 April 2026?▼
This page contains 112 current affairs questions from 11 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 11 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
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- Q96. is the primary significance of the Artemis II mission's succes…
- Q97. The Artemis II mission, which recently splashed down, is a pro…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Artemis II …
- Q99. According to the article, what was the approximate speed of th…
- Q100. is the primary significance of the successful Artemis II splas…
- Q101. The sea-based leg of India's nuclear triad, involving submarin…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding India's SSBN progr…
- Q103. According to the news article, what is the reported displaceme…
- Q104. The commissioning of INS Aridhaman is strategically significan…
- Q105. constitutional entry empowers Parliament to legislate on coord…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
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- Q108. is a primary criticism leveled against the Viksit Bharat Shiks…
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- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding India's exam ecosy…
- Q111. According to the article, approximately how many students and …
- Q112. As per the article, why is the integrity of India's exam ecosy…