10 April 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee constituted under the RBI Act to determine the policy interest rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target. The article mentions the 'RBI Monetary Policy Committee's (MPC) decision'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the MPC's decision was to 'keep interest rates unchanged'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that inflationary pressure is 'due to supply issues rather than demand conditions', so holding rates was not to combat demand-pull inflation. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra predicted that India’s GDP would grow 6.9% in 2026-27'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra predicted that India’s GDP would grow 6.9% in 2026-27.' 6.5% was last year's prediction, 7.6% is the latest estimate for 2025-26, and 4.6% is the inflation forecast.

Explanation

The article explains that raising rates to contain supply-driven inflation would hurt growth, and lowering rates to boost growth would push inflation up. External supply shocks from the West Asia war have created this dilemma, making inaction the best course. The other options are not supported as primary reasons in the text.

Explanation

Article 26 of the Indian Constitution specifically grants every religious denomination the freedom to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. The Supreme Court's emphasis on following a temple's sampradaya (practices) relates directly to this right of religious institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the Court said the opposite—that temple rituals must be followed despite personal beliefs. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which mentions petitioners' argument that the 2018 verdict didn't apply the sampradaya test. Statement 3 is correct as it directly quotes the Court's core message.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court of India made this statement on Thursday, April 9, 2026. April 10 is the publication date of the news article, not the date of the statement.

Explanation

By stating that worshippers must follow a temple's established practices (sampradaya), the Court reinforces the right of religious denominations under Article 26 to manage their own affairs in matters of religion. This clarifies the limits of individual religious freedom (Article 25) when it conflicts with institutional religious norms.

Explanation

The Kigali Amendment is an amendment to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer. It was adopted in 2016 to phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). The article explicitly states it is an amendment to the Montreal Protocol.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India ratified the Kigali Amendment in 2021. Statement 2 is incorrect; India has agreed to an 85% phase-down by 2047, not a complete phase-out. Statement 3 is a trap; the article states India is in Group 2 with Gulf nations, while China and the US are in separate groups.

Explanation

The article states, "according to the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), the average global warming potential of 22 of the most used HFCs is about 2,500 times that of carbon dioxide." The other options are distractors: 80x is methane's GWP over 20 years, also mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article directly links the government directive to India's international commitments under the Kigali Amendment, which mandates a freeze on new production capacity from January 1, 2028. While protecting the ozone layer was the original goal of the Montreal Protocol, HFCs are targeted for their global warming potential, not ozone depletion.

Explanation

The administration of Union Territories is detailed in Part VIII of the Constitution (Articles 239 to 242). This part entrusts the administration of UTs to the President, who acts through appointed administrators.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 16th FC grant is Rs. 4.35 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct as it states the 94.98% release and names five states (Assam, Kerala, Mizoram, Tripura, Uttar Pradesh). Statement 3 is correct as the basic grant is Rs. 3.48 lakh crore, while the performance grant is Rs. 43,524 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that '90 per cent will be given to gram panchayats, while block and district panchayats will each receive 10 per cent.' This is a key data point for fund distribution.

Explanation

The article mentions that the project, including an international airport and transshipment port, is proposed to make the island an 'economic and defence hub'. It was given a go-ahead 'keeping in mind the strategic importance of the port to be developed,' linking it to maritime security.

Explanation

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a state, allowing the President to assume control of the state's administration, known as President's Rule. This was imposed in Manipur in February 2025 as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the conflict is between the Meiteis in the valley and Kuki-Zo tribes in the hills. Statement 2 is incorrect; the MLR&LR Act, 1960 prohibits non-tribals (Meiteis) from buying land in the hills. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions STDCM voicing the Meitei demand for ST status since 2012.

Explanation

The article states that 'a formidable contingent exceeding 250 Central Armed Police Force companies remains stationed to maintain order' following President's Rule. The other options are lower distractors.

Explanation

The article's analysis of the 'road ahead' lists 'Disarmament first' as a key point, specifically mentioning the need to recover looted weapons and dismantle vigilante and militant parallel structures. The other options are not highlighted as primary structural reforms.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the blockade is a 'core mandate executed by the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) Navy' using fast attack crafts (FACs), anti-ship missiles, and sea mines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's dimensions. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states 'while Iran signed the UNCLOS, it never ratified it.' Statement 3 is correct as Iran relies on the 1958 Geneva Convention framework, arguing it only recognises the right of 'innocent passage' which can be suspended.

Explanation

The article states: 'Estimates by the International Energy Agency state that the strait facilitates the passage of roughly 20 million barrels of oil per day (about 20% of the global tally).'

Explanation

The article's 'Vision for the future' section explicitly states: 'Iran’s long-term aims are centred around transitioning this wartime blockade into a permanent, institutionalised chokehold.' It details plans for permanent transit taxes, mandatory maps, and cryptocurrency tolls to 'dictat[e] the terms of global energy transit to its advantage.'

Explanation

As per the static GK linkage, the Quad is an informal strategic dialogue between India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. This is a fundamental fact for International Relations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states it will be Rubio's first visit to India as Secretary of State. Statement 2 is incorrect: The initiative discussed was 'Pax Silica', not 'Pax Americana'. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions discussions on the Persian Gulf situation and a meeting with the FBI Director on counter-terrorism cooperation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that US Secretary of State Marco Rubio is set to visit New Delhi 'next month' (from the publication date of April 10, 2026), which is May 2026. This is a direct factual extraction.

Explanation

The article links discussions on critical minerals and the Pax Silica initiative (focusing on semiconductors, AI, quantum) to the shared vision for 'resilient supply chains'. This objective is central to reducing dependencies, particularly on China, in key technology sectors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Special Cell of the Delhi Police' busted the inter-state terror and espionage module. The Special Cell is a dedicated unit for handling terrorism and organized crime.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions handlers from Pakistan and ISI. Statement 2 is incorrect; the network involved solar-powered CCTV cameras near sensitive military locations, not thermal cameras near airports. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the module was tasked with recruiting local youths for long-term operations.

Explanation

The headline and article clearly state '11 held' in connection with the busted espionage module. The other numbers are close distractors.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the uncovering of a 'covert surveillance network involving solar-powered CCTV cameras installed near sensitive military locations'. This was a defining feature of the exposed network.

Explanation

ONGC is a Maharatna Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) that operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India. This ministry is responsible for the exploration, production, and distribution of petroleum and natural gas resources.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India relied on West Asia for 'nearly half of its crude oil imports'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions '85-90% of its LPG' comes from West Asia. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the reliance for gas is 30%, not less than 20%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India relied on West Asia to meet '85-90% of its LPG' imports. The other options are close distractors based on common approximations, but the precise range given in the source is 85-90%.

Explanation

The core recommendation in the article is that 'India... must invest in building strategic storage as insurance against price and supply disruptions.' This is a pragmatic risk-mitigation strategy, unlike the other options which are either extreme, unrelated, or not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states the tax is to help fund the EU's next seven-year budget, which is the Multiannual Financial Framework (MFF) for 2028-2034. The MFF is the EU's long-term budget plan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the budget is set at €2 trillion, not €1.5 trillion. Statement 3 is a core static fact about EU taxation policy; major tax decisions require unanimity among member states in the Council.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the EU executive set the 2028-2034 budget at two trillion euros. Option D ($2.3 trillion) is the approximate dollar equivalent mentioned in parentheses, but the question asks for the euro figure.

Explanation

The article's context indicates the tax is to 'help fund' the budget amid reluctance from governments to chip in more. This aligns with the EU's long-standing goal of developing new 'own resources' (direct revenue streams) to make its budget less dependent on direct national contributions.

Explanation

Great Nicobar is the southernmost and largest island in the Nicobar group, which along with the Andaman Islands forms the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states tourism is proposed as the 'primary economic driver'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target year is 2055, not 2047. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states the Nicobarese population is expected to grow to about 11,500 from 7,500, not decrease.

Explanation

The draft master plan is drafted for a projected population of 3.36 lakh by 2055. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the plan notes it 'intends to get the population to settle here, through both permanent and temporary jobs that are expected to be created.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Pakistani Interior Minister Mohsin Naqvi is at the centre of the preparations, including establishing a control room. The Interior Ministry typically handles internal security and law enforcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article clearly states the negotiations are expected to be indirect, with delegations in separate rooms. Statement 2 is correct: Pakistan announced a two-day public holiday in the capital on Thursday and Friday. Statement 3 is correct: the US delegation includes Vice President JD Vance and President Trump's son-in-law Jared Kushner.

Explanation

The article states: "The countries announced the two-week ceasefire, brokered by Pakistan, minutes before the expiration of Trump's deadline for Tehran to reopen the Strait of Hormuz." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article directly states: "The ceasefire remains fragile owing to key demands from each side in direct contradiction with each other." It mentions the US forwarded a 15-point proposal which Iran rejected before producing a 10-point counterproposal. None of the other options are mentioned as reasons.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) informed the Rajya Sabha about the status of India's SPRs. This ministry oversees the country's oil and gas resources and infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India depends on imports for over 88% of its crude oil. Statement 2 is correct as the article states 55-60% of LNG imports come via the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is correct as the article states India's LPG import reliance is 60%, with 90% coming through the Strait. All three statements are directly supported by the article.

Explanation

The article states that India's SPRs have a capacity to store 5.33 million tonnes of crude oil. Option A (3.37 million tonnes) is the amount currently held, not the capacity. Option C (9.5 million tonnes) is a distractor related to the number of days the SPRs cover. Option D (90 million tonnes) is a distractor related to the IEA's recommended 90-day reserve.

Explanation

The Chairman explicitly states, 'We should chase wherever oil or gas is in our country at any cost, because in a crisis nobody (will help).' He describes domestic exploration as an 'existential necessity' for protecting India's energy sovereignty amidst global supply disruptions, not primarily for revenue, employment, or emissions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the assessment is from the World Bank's latest India Development Update. The IMF, ADB, and WTO are other global institutions but were not the source of this specific report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the World Bank's revised projection. Statement 2 is incorrect; Private Consumption (C) is the biggest engine of growth, accounting for 55-60% of GDP, not the smallest. Statement 3 is correct as the government updated the base year to 2022-23.

Explanation

The article states: "In the absence of the conflict, GDP growth was projected at 7.2 percent... Growth is now projected at 6.6 percent in FY27." The other options are distractors: 6.6% is the revised projection, 7.0% is a round figure, and 7.6% was the growth for FY26.

Explanation

The article's concluding quote from the World Bank states: "the conflict underscores the importance of energy diversification, prudent fiscal management, and trade diversification." The other options, while possibly relevant in a broader sense, are not the specific recommendations highlighted by the Bank in this context.

Explanation

The article states the crew module was dropped off the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SHAR) in the Bay of Bengal. SDSC SHAR in Sriharikota is ISRO's primary launch centre.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions the drop from about 3km. Statement 2 is incorrect because the helicopter used was from the Indian Air Force (IAF), not the Navy, and the drop zone was in the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions ten parachutes of four types were deployed.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the simulated crew module involved in the test weighed about 5.7 tonnes, which is similar to the weight of the original module for the uncrewed mission.

Explanation

ISRO's statement, as quoted in the article, says the test validated the parachute-based deceleration systems in the crew module. The deployment of ten parachutes was to achieve gradual velocity reduction for a safe splashdown, which is the test's core objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) issued the monthly ENSO bulletin predicting the El Niño. NOAA is the primary agency for weather and climate monitoring in the US.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the phase is based on the Relative Oceanic Niño Index measured in the Niño 3.4 region. Statement 2 is incorrect; El Niño is declared when the value is equal to or over 0.5°C, not lower than -0.5°C (which is for La Niña). Statement 3 is correct: the article states these phases alternate once every two to seven years.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'El Niño is declared when this value is equal or over 0.5 degree Celsius and La Niña when it is equal or lower than -0.5 degree Celsius.' The value 2.0°C is the threshold mentioned for a 'very strong' El Niño, not for declaring an El Niño event.

Explanation

The article explains that the predicted El Niño episode will coincide with the southwest monsoon (which provides over 70% of India's annual rainfall), raising concerns about kharif output. A poor harvest can lead to higher food prices, impacting inflation. The other options are not mentioned in the article as direct consequences of El Niño for India.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank approached the court questioning the show-cause notices issued by GST authorities. This is a regional rural bank operating in Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court ruled pigmy agents are employees, not independent contractors. Statement 2 is correct: The judgment states services fall under Schedule III exemption. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court clarified pigmy agents are NOT appointed under RBI-sanctioned business facilitator models.

Explanation

The article states that the Additional Advocate General argued the bank would be liable to pay GST on commission under Section 9(3) of the CGST Act. This section deals with the levy and collection of tax, including reverse charge provisions.

Explanation

The court held that services rendered by pigmy agents, being in the course of employment, are insulated from GST levy under Sl.No.1 of Schedule III to the CGST Act. This schedule lists activities not considered supply of services, including services by an employee to the employer.

Explanation

The article states the final electoral roll was 'released by UP Chief Electoral Officer Nadeep Rinwa'. The Chief Electoral Officer is appointed by the Election Commission of India for each state to oversee electoral processes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the gender ratio improved to 834 from 824. Statement 3 is correct: during claims/objections, 84.28 lakh names were added while 8.15 lakh were deleted, meaning more were added.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'There are 17.63 lakh electors in the 18-19 year age group.' The other options are numerical distractors based on decimal placement.

Explanation

The SIR process, involving deletions and subsequent additions during claims/objections, is fundamentally aimed at ensuring an accurate and updated voter list. This upholds the integrity of the electoral process, which is the core mandate of the Election Commission.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the permanent constitutional body established under Article 324. It is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections, which includes initiatives like the Special Intensive Revision (SIR).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The SIR is not a routine annual exercise; the last intensive revision was about 20 years ago. It is distinct from the SSR, where additions/deletions are made to existing rolls. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: in an intensive revision, rolls are prepared afresh with a mandatory form submission. Statement 3 is correct as the EC's June 24, 2025 order is under challenge in the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article states that the SIR led to the electorate being cut by 5.58 crore, which corresponds to a 9.55% decrease. Option C (10.55%) is the decrease specifically for the second phase of nine states and three UTs. Option D (13.23%) is the decrease seen in Uttar Pradesh alone.

Explanation

The Election Commission's order stated that the last intensive revision was carried out about 20 years ago and the rapid urbanisation and migration since then had necessitated a clean-up of the rolls. The article does not mention the other options as primary reasons for the SIR.

Explanation

The article states that the 'Andaman and Nicobar Islands administration has outlined the proposed development'. As a Union Territory, its administration is responsible for such planning within its jurisdiction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the transshipment port is proposed at Galathea Bay, not Campbell Bay. Statement 3 is incorrect; the no-felling zone condition was laid down by the Environment Ministry, not the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Annual tourist arrivals are projected to grow from 98,000 in 2029 to 7.35 lakh by 2047 and over one million by 2055.' 98,000 is the 2029 projection, and 1 million is for 2055.

Explanation

The article's opening line states: 'CITING TOURISM as the "backbone" for the growth of Great Nicobar Island and its primary economic driver...' While other components like the port and defence are key, tourism is explicitly designated as the central economic pillar.

Explanation

The Forest Rights Act, 2006 (Section 4(5) and Rules) mandates that the Gram Sabha's consent is required for the diversion of forest land for development projects to ensure the rights of forest-dwelling communities are protected.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Vedanta has received only Stage-1 (conditional) forest clearance, not the final Stage-II clearance. Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the article's section on past protests against bauxite mining.

Explanation

The article states that Odisha was the leading producer of bauxite in 2021-22, comprising about 73% of India's total production. The 41% figure refers to Odisha's share of India's total bauxite resources, not production.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the villagers protested over concerns that the project would endanger their livelihoods and that the Gram Sabhas, which gave purported consent, were conducted fraudulently. This captures the core issue of livelihood security and procedural injustice.

Explanation

The iGOT Karmayogi (Integrated Government Online Training) platform is a flagship mission-mode program under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, designed for capacity building of civil servants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions a halt in shipping and soaring prices due to the crisis affecting the Strait of Hormuz, not the Suez Canal. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly stated in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz is 'a vital waterway through which a fifth of global oil passes'. This makes 'one-fifth' the correct answer.

Explanation

The article directly links the agreement to the crisis in West Asia, where Iran's chokehold on the Strait of Hormuz has halted shipping. The pact aims to strengthen Mauritius's energy security amid this specific disruption, making option B correct.

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas aimed at providing LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. This is a standard static GK fact linked to the scheme mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'over 55% held by women'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'close to 70% of MUDRA loans going to women entrepreneurs'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the FLFPR has risen to 'nearly 37%', not 40%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Nearly 10 crore women, organised into over 90 lakh self-help groups, are now driving grassroots entrepreneurship...'. The other options are close distractors to test precise recall of this key data point.

Explanation

The article concludes by stating, 'Over the next five years, India must invest in preparing women to lead not just electorally, but institutionally.' This points towards building leadership capacity in various institutions, which is the application of the analysis presented.

Explanation

The CBI functions under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. This ministry handles matters related to civil services and anti-corruption.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the matter was first examined by the State government and referred to the State Vigilance Bureau in February before the CBI registered the FIR. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBI registered an FIR in connection with the alleged siphoning off of Haryana government funds worth over ₹550 crore. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

Referral to the CBI typically occurs in cases of serious nature, involving large sums of money, potential inter-state ramifications (like shell companies operating across states), or allegations against high-ranking state officials where an independent central agency investigation is deemed necessary. The article mentions the systematic siphoning using shell companies, fitting this rationale.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional body under Article 324 empowered to conduct, direct, control, and supervise all elections. This includes processes like the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SIR registered a drop of 91 lakh electors, a 12% decrease. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that unlike in Bihar, deletions in West Bengal disproportionately affected minority electors and border districts. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court did intervene and appoint judicial officers for the task.

Explanation

The article states that the process initiated by the Supreme Court 'resulted in the disenfranchisement of 27 lakh electors'. The 91 lakh figure is the total initial deletion, and over 60 lakh were the ones initially flagged with discrepancies.

Explanation

The article argues that an election that should be about 'governance and livelihoods is instead being fought over identity and the composition of the electoral roll itself.' The SIR issue has sidestepped civic and governance issues, polarizing the discourse.

Explanation

The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) like the CRPF, which are pivotal in internal security and counter-insurgency operations, operate under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the killing of Basavaraju last year as a key factor. Statement 2 is correct as it directly quotes reasons like 'security grid expansion' and 'erasure of corridors'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the housing scheme is for 'residents of Maoism-prone areas', not exclusively for surrendered cadres.

Explanation

The article clearly states, 'especially since the killing of its top leader Basavaraju last year,' where 'last year' refers to 2025 relative to the article's publication date of April 2026.

Explanation

The article highlights the example of a two-room house built under a government housing scheme in Kacchapal village. This represents the development and welfare aspect of the government's strategy to address root causes and win local support, which is a key non-kinetic measure.

Explanation

The Gaganyaan mission is India's human spaceflight program spearheaded and executed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). While the Department of Space provides oversight, ISRO is the implementing agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the IADT tests the parachute system for crew module recovery. Statement 2 is incorrect; the test was conducted at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, not VSSC. Statement 3 is correct regarding Gaganyaan's objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ISRO completed the IADT-02 on April 10, 2026. This is a factual data point crucial for prelims-style questions.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the IADT system is 'essential to ensure safe recovery of the crew module... during re-entry and landing.' It specifically tests the parachute-based deceleration and recovery system.

Explanation

Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 specifically empowers the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to issue directions to banks in the public interest, for banking policy, or to prevent detrimental conduct. The fraud classification guidelines flow from this authority, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The SC ruled that natural justice does NOT require an oral hearing; a notice, written reply, and reasoned order suffice. Statement 2 is correct as the SC mandated disclosure of the forensic audit report. Statement 3 is correct as the court explicitly stated fraud is of a 'qualitatively different order' involving criminality, unlike wilful default.

Explanation

The article explicitly states RBI data showed 36,060 fraud cases in FY 2023-24. The other numbers are from different years: 13,494 cases in FY 2022-23 and 23,953 in FY 2024-25.

Explanation

The court stated mandating oral hearings would be 'practically inexpedient' given the number of cases (36,060 in FY 2023-24) and would paralyse decision-making, enabling delay tactics. This practical concern, not criminal trials or international norms, was the core rationale.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the panel was appointed by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. This Act provides the procedure for investigating misbehaviour or incapacity of judges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (Collegium proposed transfer on March 20, 2025). Statement 2 is correct as the SC bench dismissed Justice Varma's challenge to the inquiry. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the in-house panel found credence first, and motions were introduced subsequently.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that in his letter dated April 9, Justice Varma tendered his resignation. April 10, 2026, is the publication date of the news article.

Explanation

The resignation, while not clearing the judge of allegations, effectively ends the ongoing impeachment process under the Judges (Inquiry) Act. This is significant as impeachment requires a majority in both Houses, making it a rare and difficult political process.

Explanation

The Forest Rights Act, 2006, specifically mandates that the Gram Sabha's consent is required for diverting forest land for developmental projects. This is a key provision to protect the rights of forest-dwelling communities, as highlighted in the news about the Sijimali bauxite mine.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Vedanta has received only Stage-I (conditional) forest clearance, not the final Stage-II clearance. Statement 3 is correct as the district administration stated that Gram Sabhas were held and gave unanimous approval, though this is contested by residents.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Odisha was the leading producer of bauxite in 2021-22, comprising about 73% of India's total production. The 41% figure refers to Odisha's share of India's total bauxite resources, not production.

Explanation

The article states that residents held protests over concerns that the project would endanger their livelihoods. Furthermore, they specifically alleged that the Gram Sabhas were conducted fraudulently and their signatures were forged, making the consent process the core of the dispute.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign policy and the welfare of Indian nationals overseas. The Supreme Court asking the Solicitor General to get the Union government's response points towards the MEA's role in diplomatic interventions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bench was headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, not the Attorney General. The Solicitor General was asked to represent the government. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Court indicated a 'human trafficking' angle.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court decided to intervene on behalf of '26 persons'. This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Explanation

While Articles 23 (against forced labor) is also relevant, the core issue is the threat to the life and liberty of citizens. The Supreme Court has historically expanded the scope of Article 21 to include the right to live with dignity, making it the most directly applicable fundamental right in cases of illegal detention or forced service in a war zone.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the appeal process against an Electoral Registration Officer's (ERO) decision is provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. This Act deals with the preparation of electoral rolls and qualifications of voters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that 84.28 lakh names were added during the claims/objections phase, but it does not specify if this led to a net increase from the draft roll. The focus is on the net reduction from the pre-SIR roll. Statement 2 is correct: the gender ratio improved from 824 (draft roll) to 834 (final roll). Statement 3 is correct: the SIR lasted 166 days (Oct 27, 2025 to Apr 10, 2026) and covered all 75 districts and 403 ACs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the final electoral roll contains 13.39 crore (13,39,84,792) electors. 12.55 crore was the count after the draft roll. 15.44 crore was the count before the SIR began. 17.63 lakh is the number of voters in the 18-19 age group.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'no voter’s name was deleted without due process' and mentions the identification of 'non-mapped' voters and cases with 'logical discrepancies'. The SIR is a systematic exercise to clean the roll of inaccuracies like duplicates and entries of deceased or relocated individuals, not a political or technical one-off event.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the powerful Speaker of the Majlis, Iran's parliament, M B Ghalibaf'. Majlis is the name of the national legislative body of Iran.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states this was the first time post-WWII the US failed to mobilize NATO/European support. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says India let relations with Iran slide while pursuing I2U2 and IMEC, which excluded Iran. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's description of Pakistan's role.

Explanation

The article clearly states that US President Trump agreed to negotiate 'based on a set of 10 Iranian demands'. It also mentions the US had earlier put forward 15 points, which is a potential distractor.

Explanation

The article argues that the region's reassessment of US-dependent security creates an opening. It explicitly states: 'India should get into pole position in this process by enhancing its defence collaboration with these countries.' The other options are not supported by the article's main argument.

Explanation

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 replaced the CrPC. Sections 106 and 107 of BNSS deal with police powers of seizure and court-ordered attachment, respectively, as discussed in the Allahabad HC judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly held that 'nowhere in the statutory scheme there is any requirement that prior notice must be given'. Statement 2 is correct as the court said seizure is 'limited to the extent of the alleged or suspicious amount'. Statement 3 is correct as the court noted jurisdiction lies with the Magistrate where the bank branch is situated.

Explanation

The court directed that 'within a week of production of a certified copy of order, the concerned respondent bank shall... restore the operation of the bank accounts forthwith'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the specific timeframe mentioned.

Explanation

The court stated that 'prior notice will curtail the power expressly granted under the statute and will frustrate the very object of enabling prompt action to preserve property connected with suspected offences'. The other options are not mentioned as the core rationale.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly states that the constitutional ethos supported by Article 21 demands that deprivation of life must be just, fair and reasonable. Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated 'brutality, however grave, cannot by itself justify the imposition of the death penalty.' Statement 2 is correct as the judgment applies the Bachan Singh doctrine. Statement 3 is correct as the court emphasized 'the burden lies on the prosecution to establish that the accused is incapable of reformation.'

Explanation

The article states: 'The trial court originally sentenced Das to death on October 22, 2025.' The incident occurred in 2023, and the Gauhati HC judgment was reported in 2026.

Explanation

The article states: 'the order referred to the Vasanta Sampat Tupare v Union of India, which further crystallised it and mandates a threefold assessment.' This assessment includes evaluating the crime, the criminal, and a principled balancing.