7 April 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution specifically guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. This is the core article discussed in the Supreme Court observation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Supreme Court's clarification. Statement 2 is incorrect; forcible conversion is not protected. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that Ruthnaswamy pointed out that Christianity and Islam are proselytising religions and suggested adding 'propagate'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities was chaired by Sardar Vallabhai Patel. This is a key static fact from the constituent assembly's structure.

Explanation

Justice B V Nagarathna explicitly stated, "There is a difference between propagation of religion and forcible conversion. Here what is protected is propagation of religion." This is the core legal distinction being clarified.

Explanation

The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. This article mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier to make recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the SFC recommended nearly ₹7.91 lakh crore for panchayats and urban local bodies. Statement 2 is correct as the article criticizes the discontinuation of revenue deficit grants and other grants under Article 275(1). Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states the share in tax devolution for all northeastern states is 15.5% lower than under the Fifteenth Finance Commission.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the 16th Finance Commission has recommended nearly Rs 7.91 lakh crore for the third tier, with roughly Rs 4.4 lakh crore for rural and Rs 3.6 lakh crore for urban local bodies. Option A and B are components of the total, while D is a distractor.

Explanation

The article argues that by making local bodies a major stakeholder in vertical distribution, the SFC treats them at par with states. This is problematic because states are fundamental constitutional units (Part VI), while local bodies have a subordinate, derived status under the 73rd/74th Amendments. The other options are not raised in the article.

Explanation

As per the article, the PFBR was designed by the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR). IGCAR, located at Kalpakkam, is the premier institution dedicated to fast reactor technology and research under the Department of Atomic Energy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the use of liquid sodium as a coolant. Statement 2 is correct as it describes the MOX fuel and Uranium-238 blanket. Statement 3 is incorrect because achieving criticality marks the beginning of the second stage, not the third stage, of India's nuclear programme.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the PFBR is a 500 MWe (Megawatt electric) reactor. This is a key factual detail about the scale of this indigenous nuclear power project.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the three-stage programme, with the FBR as the second stage, envisages independence from fuel imports. It aims to use vast domestic thorium reserves and breed more fuel than is consumed, which is central to India's long-term energy security strategy.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the debate revolves around definitions of 'religious denomination' and 'essential religious practice', which are protected under Article 26 (rights of religious denominations) and Article 25 (freedom of religion). Articles 14, 21, 32, 136, 19, and 29 pertain to other fundamental rights and judicial powers, not directly the core of this religious freedom debate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Centre's position that a strict definition would 'compress' Hinduism's diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies a 'nine-judge Bench', not a seven-judge Bench. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2018 judgment, as mentioned, dismissed the prohibition as an 'essential religious practice'. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the review petitions are scheduled to be heard by a 'nine-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant'. The 2018 judgment was delivered by a five-judge Bench.

Explanation

The article's core argument from the Centre is that 'a straitjacket definition of what constitutes a ‘religious denomination’ or which religious practices are ‘essential’ would "compress" the inherently plural nature of Hinduism'. The other options relate to economic, environmental, or constitutional amendment issues not discussed in this article.

Explanation

The article states BHAVINI was incorporated in 2003 to build and operate India's most advanced nuclear reactor, the PFBR (Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor) at Kalpakkam. NPCIL operates PHWRs, while IREL and UCIL handle rare earths and uranium mining respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition of criticality. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 16th FC retained the states' share at 41%, not increased it to 45%. Statement 3 is correct as the DK Basu guidelines are a key judicial measure against custodial torture and deaths.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which form the bulk of India's installed atomic power capacity, have a capacity of 8,180 MWe. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The editorial analysis by Haseeb Drabu argues that changes in horizontal criteria, discontinuation of statutory grants, and tacit approval to the shrinking divisible pool have increased the Centre's discretionary power over funds, weakening state fiscal autonomy. The share of northeastern states was reportedly reduced.

Explanation

Article 17 of the Indian Constitution specifically abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. This article was central to the arguments presented by Justice Nagarathna and the Solicitor General during the Supreme Court hearing.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 2018 judgment was by a five-judge bench. Statement 2 is incorrect; Justice Nagarathna questioned the applicability of Article 17, stating it cannot apply for only three days a month. Statement 3 is correct as the article states a nine-judge bench is hearing the review petitions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on September 28, 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court delivered the judgment by a 4:1 majority. The other options are incorrect ratios not mentioned in the content.

Explanation

Justice Nagarathna argued, referencing menstrual cycles, that 'there can’t be three day untouchability every month and on the fourth day there is no untouchability,' implying Article 17 cannot apply to a practice that is periodic and not permanent.

Explanation

All submarines, including the SSBNs like INS Aridaman, are inducted and operated by the Indian Navy. The Strategic Forces Command (SFC) is responsible for the management and administration of the nuclear arsenal, but the platforms are operated by their respective services.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the Agni missiles are land-based. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states that India's nuclear doctrine was operationalised in 2003, not 2010.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that INS Arighaat was inducted in 2024. INS Arihant was inducted in 2016, and INS Aridaman in 2026. This is a direct factual recall question.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that SSBNs, due to their stealth and ability to remain submerged, can survive a first strike and launch a retaliatory strike. This 'assured second-strike capability' is the cornerstone of India's 'No First Use' deterrence policy, making option B correct. Option A contradicts the NFU policy.

Explanation

The article states that Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI) was incorporated in 2003 to build and operate India's most advanced nuclear reactor, the prototype FBR at Kalpakkam. NPCIL operates PHWRs, UCIL handles uranium mining, and AMD is involved in exploration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the PFBR attained criticality. Statement 2 is incorrect; the PFBR uses Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel, not natural uranium. Natural uranium and heavy water are used in Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs). Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the FBR as the vital second stage of the three-stage programme.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the PFBR is a 500-megawatt electric (MWe) reactor. 13.5 MWe is the capacity of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR). 600 MWe is the planned capacity for the next six FBRs. 8,180 MWe is India's total installed atomic power capacity.

Explanation

As per the article, FBRs are 'crucial for enlarging the inventory of plutonium' produced from first-stage PHWRs. This plutonium is needed to produce Uranium-233 from thorium in the third stage. The programme's core objective is to utilize India's thorium reserves for long-term energy security, not immediate coal replacement, exports, or weapons production.

Explanation

Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha is known as the father of India's nuclear programme and is credited with formulating the three-stage nuclear power strategy for India, aiming for long-term energy independence using thorium reserves.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the PFBR is part of the second stage, not the first stage (which uses PHWRs). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the reactor is 'capable of producing more fuel than it consumes'. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Prime Minister Narendra Modi made the announcement 'on Monday (April 6, 2026)' regarding the reactor attaining criticality. The other dates are close distractors based on the article's publication date.

Explanation

As stated by the Prime Minister in the article, this development is 'a decisive step towards harnessing our vast thorium reserves in the third stage of the programme.' The other options are either incorrect or represent long-term indirect impacts, not the primary strategic significance.

Explanation

The NALSA judgment explicitly rooted the right to self-identified gender identity in the principles of human dignity, autonomy, and constitutional morality under Articles 14 (Equality), 15 (Non-discrimination), 19 (Freedom of Expression), and 21 (Life and Personal Liberty).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the amendment mandates medical board assessment and District Magistrate certification. Statement 2 is incorrect; the penalty for 'undue influence' is up to 15 years, not 10 years. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the amendment was notified on March 30, 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the amendment introduces a clause criminalizing 'undue influence' in helping someone identify as transgender, with penalties up to 15 years of imprisonment. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The core criticism in the article is that forcing transgender persons to 'prove' their gender identity to a medical board is a violation of their dignity, bodily autonomy, and mental well-being, reversing the progressive principle of self-identification established by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The National Action Plan on Climate Change and Human Health (NAPCHH) is a strategic health sector framework to address climate impacts, falling under the mandate of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states dengue now peaks in November in Delhi-NCR. Statement 2 is incorrect; malaria was already present in the Gangetic Plains and is now expanding to cooler areas like Himachal Pradesh. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly links PM2.5 to kidney damage.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that parts of the country like Odisha, Telangana, and Vidarbha are reporting a rising number of heat-stroke-related deaths due to climate change-induced heat stress.

Explanation

The article states that rising temperatures can cause a decline in milk production as cattle are affected by heat stress. This compromises infant and child nutrition, representing a cascading impact on health through food security.

Explanation

The Quadripartite collaboration specifically includes WHO, FAO, UNEP, and the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH). The WTO is a trade body and is not part of this health-focused alliance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'Manhattan Principles' came from a Wildlife Conservation Society meeting, not a WHO meeting. Statement 3 is correct, describing the catalyst and outcome of the pandemic.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The WHO Pandemic Agreement, adopted on May 20, 2025, is a legally binding international treaty..." The other years are distractors related to other events mentioned, like the launch of the One Health Joint Plan of Action (2022).

Explanation

The article states the mission is "designed to integrate human, animal, and environmental health sectors" and aims "to enhance pandemic preparedness, disease surveillance, and zoonotic disease control." The other options are either incorrect or not supported by the article's description.

Explanation

As per the Constitution, a Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President to redraw constituency boundaries. While the Election Commission collaborates, the high-power Delimitation Commission is the primary body, and its orders have the force of law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the delimitation increased seats in Bodoland Territorial Region from 11 to 15. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states minority-decisive seats reduced from around 35 to about 23. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions Algapur and Katlicherra were merged to create a new constituency.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the constituencies where minority voters play a decisive role have reduced from around 35 of the state's 126 seats. Therefore, the total number of Assembly seats in Assam is 126.

Explanation

The article quotes a scholar mentioning a 'crisis of representation' for minorities. It also details how the squeeze on minority seats and the AGP (an NDA ally) fielding Muslim candidates creates a complex scenario, leading some voters to consider aligning with the NDA for pragmatic reasons, indicating strategic voting shifts.

Explanation

The requirement for a valid PUC certificate is mandated under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989. While pollution control acts set ambient standards, the specific rule for vehicle emission testing and certification is under motor vehicle regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the deadline for Ghazipur landfill clearance is December 2027, not 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the plan mentions restricting vehicle entry from November 1 to low-emission categories. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the plan targets "installing 32,000 EV charging points over the next four years to accelerate electric mobility." The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article's analysis clearly states, "The critical missing piece... is the Delhi government’s silence on firecrackers. Without a complete ban, at least from October to March, Delhi’s winter pollution peaks are unlikely to see a significant fall." The other options are either addressed in the plan or not highlighted as the critical omission.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. It is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing government finances. Article 76 deals with the Attorney General, Article 324 with the Election Commission, and Article 280 with the Finance Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states '518 lakes... have either disappeared or shrunk'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the J&K government has conservation programmes for only six lakes. Statement 3 is correct as the report suggested shrinkage 'was also one of the causes for massive floods in J&K in September 2014'.

Explanation

The CAG report highlighted that '315 lakes, 45% of the total 697 lakes in J&K... have disappeared.' 203 lakes had decreased in water area, and 518 is the total number of lakes that have either disappeared or shrunk.

Explanation

The article states that the disappearance and shrinkage of lakes 'has resulted in the degradation of ecosystem and climate insecurity.' The report also links it to increased flood risk, but the direct consequence mentioned is ecosystem degradation and climate insecurity. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the guarantee on bank loans would be provided by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), a wholly-owned subsidiary of the government. NCGTC is a common trustee for managing credit guarantee funds.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article specifies a credit guarantee of about 90%, not 100%. A 100% guarantee was a feature of the earlier ECLGS. Statement 2 is correct as the scheme is for businesses, especially MSMEs, impacted by the West Asia crisis. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the government would have to provide about ₹17,000 to ₹18,000 crore for the scheme.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the scheme would provide a credit guarantee on loans of up to ₹100 crore. The other options (₹50 crore, ₹75 crore, ₹150 crore) are distractors not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The article states the scheme is to support businesses, especially MSMEs impacted by the West Asia crisis, by providing a guarantee to lenders in case of default. Its primary objective is crisis mitigation, not revenue generation or FDI promotion. While it mirrors the ECLGS model, it is a new scheme for a different crisis, not a replacement.

Explanation

As per the article, Sections 69A and 79 of the IT Act, 2000, empower the government to issue blocking orders to ISPs and intermediaries. Section 66A was struck down by the Supreme Court, while Sections 43A, 72A, 67, and 67A deal with data protection and obscene content, not the primary blocking mechanism.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the licensing agreement requires ISPs to 'block Internet sites... as identified and directed by the Licensor.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The study found extreme inconsistency, with only 1,414 domains blocked by all six ISPs out of 43,083 blocked. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions the Shreya Singhal case upheld Section 69A but emphasized procedural safeguards.

Explanation

The article states that out of the total 43,083 blocked domain names found by the study, only 1,414 were blocked by all six ISPs. The other options are distractors: 43,083 is the total blocked domains found, and 294 million is the total number of domains tested.

Explanation

The article explains that ISPs are free to implement blocking orders through various protocols (DNS, HTTP, TLS/SNI). Most rely on cheap DNS blocking (DNS poisoning), but the lack of a standardized framework leads to inconsistent implementation. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

ICMR is funded and overseen by the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This department is responsible for formulation of biomedical research policies in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because NIRRCH was renamed to National Institute for Research on Women’s Health (NIRWoH) to take a comprehensive approach beyond just maternal and neonatal health. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the National Institute of Pathology is now the National Institute of Child Health and Development Research.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Sample Registration System 2023 reports India's infant mortality rate at 25 per 1,000 live births. 19 is the Neonatal Mortality Rate, over 35% refers to stunting, and 67.1% is the anaemia prevalence among children.

Explanation

As stated by ICMR officials in the article, the effort is to ensure healthcare goes beyond maternal needs. The new mandate includes research on conditions unique to women, those affecting them disproportionately (like cardiovascular diseases), and adolescent health, representing a holistic, continuum-based approach.

Explanation

Article 26 of the Constitution deals with the freedom to manage religious affairs. Specifically, clause (b) grants every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. This was a key point of argument for the Sabarimala devotees in the case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The September 28, 2018 ruling was by a five-judge bench. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article mentions the verdict applied Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability), not Article 15. Statement 3 is correct: The Solicitor General specifically argued that the Sabarimala temple is a unique ('sui generis') case.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on September 28, 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, by a 4:1 majority, lifted the age restriction on women visitors to the Sabarimala temple.

Explanation

The Solicitor General took 'strong exception' to applying the untouchability clause (Article 17) to Sabarimala customs. He argued the case was wrongly decided and that the court failed to grant protection under Article 26(b), which guarantees the right to manage religious affairs to denominations.

Explanation

The 'Master Directions on Frauds' are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is the central banking and regulatory institution for the banking sector in India. The Supreme Court was interpreting these specific RBI directions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Supreme Court specifically ruled that borrowers do NOT have a legal right to a personal hearing. Statement 2 is correct as the bench is accurately identified. Statement 3 is correct as the Court mandated banks to supply the forensic audit report.

Explanation

The article quotes the Court, via Justice Viswanathan, stating that the RBI opined granting personal hearings would be 'practically inexpedient considering a large volume of cases that have already arisen.' This directly points to the logistical challenge of scale.

Explanation

The Court stated that an oral hearing would convert a swift process into a protracted one, 'defeating the very purpose of the exercise' and would 'put public money in jeopardy as borrowers will continue to enjoy exposures from banks.' Thus, protecting public funds through expediency was the core objective.

Explanation

The NIA was established by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008, as a central agency to investigate and prosecute offenses affecting national security, such as terrorism.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Raiyyan was acquitted. Statement 2 is incorrect because the High Court judgment was by a single bench (Justice Siddharth) after a division bench had a split verdict. Statement 3 is correct as the trial court convicted two accused, and Munir died in jail.

Explanation

The Bijnor additional district judge's court awarded capital punishment to the accused in May 2022. The murder occurred in 2016, charges were framed in 2019, and the High Court acquittal was in 2026.

Explanation

The High Court specifically stated the prosecution case was 'full of doubts and unexplained questionable conduct of the prosecution witnesses,' with witnesses naming the accused under duress, making the conviction unsafe.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Cabinet approved a restructuring plan for the Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Company Limited (MSEDCL or Mahavitaran), including raising ₹32,679 crore through bonds and listing on the stock market.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Cabinet approved a new IT-AI department. Statement 2 is correct as MRSAC is being converted into a company under the Companies Act, 2013. Statement 3 is incorrect because the MRDP funding of ₹165 crore is from the World Bank, not the IMF. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the MRDP programme includes Rs 165 crore from the World Bank. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the change (conversion into a company) is expected to help accelerate the rollout of projects linked to urban planning, water conservation, agriculture, mining, and land records. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified the new Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026'. This ministry is the nodal agency for environmental regulations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the rules spell out a 'four-way' segregation (dry, wet, sanitary, special-care). Statement 2 is correct as the rules levy environmental compensation for non-compliance like improper waste management. Statement 3 is incorrect; the deadline for mapping legacy landfills is October 31, 2026, not December 31, 2026.

Explanation

The article provides specific CPCB data: '1.79 lakh is collected, 1.14 lakh tonnes is processed or treated, and 39,629 tonnes is landfilled'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

As per the article, the portal is introduced 'for tracking different stakeholders and all stages of the solid waste life cycle itself'. All listed entities, from bulk generators to processing facilities, must register, enhancing transparency and accountability in the waste management chain.

Explanation

The article states the petitioner invoked the court's jurisdiction under Article 226, which gives High Courts the power to issue writs. Article 32 is for the Supreme Court, Article 21 is the right to privacy invoked, and Article 142 relates to Supreme Court's enforcement powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court linked the right to be forgotten to Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court clarified that 'safe harbour' is conditional, not absolute, and is forfeited upon inaction. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article regarding evidence preservation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "the Rajasthan High Court said on March 19." April 07, 2026 is the publication date of the news article, not the judgment date.

Explanation

The article states that failure or delay in removing illegal content "would result in the forfeiture of the statutory protection" (i.e., safe harbour under Section 79 of the IT Act). The other options are extreme actions not specified in the judgment.

Explanation

As per the article, the NCERT issued the notification reconstituting the NSTC. NCERT is the apex body for school education research and training under the Ministry of Education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Supreme Court took up a suo motu case. Statement 2 is incorrect because Michel Danino was removed from the reconstituted NSTC as per the Supreme Court's direction. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the NSTC was first constituted in 2023 under NEP 2020.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The reconstituted NSTC comprises 20 members.' The old committee, constituted in 2023, had 19 members, and 14 of them have been retained in the new 20-member committee.

Explanation

The Supreme Court order, as mentioned in the article, expressed disappointment that 'not a single eminent jurist has been included in the NSTC, especially when the NCERT desires to teach young students about the Judiciary and the law.' This was a key reason for its scrutiny.

Explanation

The article mentions the Delhi Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) in the context of the Covid-19 pandemic. The court noted that while the DDMA could issue enforceable orders, the CM's verbal assurance could not.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly ruled that a 'mere statement' by a CM is NOT enforceable in law, even if citizens believed it. Statement 2 is correct as the division bench overturned the July 22, 2021, single-judge order. Statement 3 is correct as the assurance was given by CM Arvind Kejriwal on March 29, 2020, regarding rent for migrant tenants.

Explanation

The article clearly states the assurance was made by Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal at a press conference on March 29, 2020. July 22, 2021, is the date of the single-judge order that was later overturned.

Explanation

The core ruling of the division bench was that a 'mere statement' by a CM is not enforceable in law. The court emphasized that for an assurance to acquire legal sanctity, the state government must translate it into a written document. This principle limits judicial enforcement of political promises.

Explanation

The Ministerial Conference is the top-most decision-making body of the WTO, which meets at least once every two years. The 14th such conference (MC14) was held in Yaounde, Cameroon, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. MC14 failed to reach a consensus on extending the e-commerce moratorium, leading to its lapse. Statement 2 is correct as India opposed the IFD Agreement. Statement 3 is incorrect; while discussions on WTO reform continued, no comprehensive package for the dispute settlement system was adopted at MC14.

Explanation

The article states that WTO members have agreed not to impose customs duties on electronic transmissions since 1998. This moratorium has been renewed every two years until it expired at the 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) in March 2026 due to a lack of consensus.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that developing countries, including India, oppose the extension due to the potential loss of revenue from digitally delivered services in the future, with UNCTAD estimating over USD 10 billion annually forgone. This is a key economic concern behind their stance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Uttarakhand High Court stayed the felling of oak trees on April 1, 2026. The Supreme Court, NGT, or District Court are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states oak forests assist watershed protection by promoting recharge of springs. Statement 2 is incorrect because the degradation rate (0.36 sq km/year) is due to both natural calamities AND anthropogenic disturbances, not only natural calamities. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions oak species are the most preferred fuel species due to sustained burning and better heat production.

Explanation

The article directly quotes a December 2025 paper which pegged the degradation of forests in the Indian Himalayan regions at a rate of 0.36 sq km per year. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that oak forests assist watershed protection by promoting the recharge of springs, which is a key ecosystem service. While they provide fuelwood and fodder, their primary ecological role highlighted is watershed protection and soil conservation.

Explanation

The article explicitly cites data from 'commodity market analytics firm Kpler' regarding the volume of Venezuelan crude deliveries to India. The other options are major financial data providers but are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India depends on imports for 'over 88%' of its requirement. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'Over 40% of the imports come from West Asia through the Strait of Hormuz'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly notes these cargoes 'were most likely purchased before the West Asia war began'.

Explanation

The article states: 'Caracas was New Delhi’s fifth-largest supplier of oil in 2019, providing close to 16 million tonnes, or about 117 million barrels, of crude.' Option B provides the figure in tonnes as directly mentioned. Option C is the barrel equivalent, but the question asks for the volume supplied, and the primary metric given is tonnes.

Explanation

The article quotes an analyst saying, 'heavier Venezuelan barrels tend to yield higher proportions of distillates, particularly middle distillates such as diesel and jet fuel.' This is cited as a significant benefit in the current tight market for these products. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution. The court specifically invoked Articles 38 and 39 from this part to override the statutory 80-day rule.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled that the 80-day condition does not apply specifically to establishments of the State Government; it did not nullify it for all establishments. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment emphasized the state's duty under Directive Principles.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the court directed authorities to grant maternity benefits in accordance with Section 5(1) of the Act, which provides for 26 weeks of paid maternity leave. The court further clarified that 8 weeks are prior to delivery and 18 weeks after delivery.

Explanation

The court invoked the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), specifically Articles 38 (state to promote welfare) and 39 (health and strength of workers), to establish that the constitutional mandate for welfare overrides a rigid statutory condition for state government employees. The article quotes the court's reliance on these articles.

Explanation

Section 125 is part of Chapter IX (Order for maintenance of wives, children and parents) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. It provides a quick, summary remedy for maintenance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court specifically held that 'mere denial of sufficient income cannot be a ground to avoid the statutory obligation of maintenance'. Statement 3 is correct as the court noted the provision is an emergency measure to prevent vagrancy and destitution.

Explanation

The article states that the court ordered the sale proceeds from the auction to be used for payment of arrears 'along with interest at the rate of 6% per annum'. This is a specific data point from the judgment.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly notes that 'Section 125 CrPC is an emergency provision…enacted to prevent vagrancy and destitution, providing for grant of maintenance'. Its core objective is social welfare and prevention of poverty, not punishment or replacement of laws.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'according to data with the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, India’s oil imports accounted for 90.8% of the total oil processed by Indian refineries in February 2026.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says volume increased 'nearly 33%' or 'a third more.' Statement 2 is incorrect: West Asia's share **rose** to 54%, not decreased. Statement 3 is correct: The article states 'Priced had averaged about $78 in the previous financial year.'

Explanation

The article states: 'The price of the Indian basket of crude oil in February 2026 stood at $69 per barrel.' $78 was the average for the previous financial year, $113.5 was the price in March 2026, and $126 was the price as of April 7, 2026.

Explanation

Officials confirmed that India's oil imports from Russia increased 'big time' in March 2026, 'but this time without the benefit of the discount Russia was earlier providing.' The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Election Commission of India (ECI) releasing data and overseeing the Special Intensive Revision exercise. The ECI is the constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for electoral rolls and elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The final deletion figure...stood at a little over 90.83 lakh' and 'stands at over 11.85%.' Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the Supreme Court declined the plea and tribunals were 'specially set up under Supreme Court orders.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the deletion rate post-adjudication was 45.22% (27.16 lakh of 60.06 lakh), not 'more than 50%.'

Explanation

The article states: 'some 45.22% of the cases under judicial scrutiny...were deleted.' The other percentages are distractors: 36.19% is the deletion percentage for Kolkata South, 55.08% for North 24 Parganas, and 77.86% for Nadia district.

Explanation

The core issue in the news is the balance between the ECI's duty under Article 324 to maintain accurate rolls (leading to mass deletions) and the fundamental right of citizens to vote. The article notes aggrieved voters can move tribunals, but clarity on their voting rights is pending, underscoring this constitutional tension.

Explanation

The 'Sarabhai doctrine' refers to the foundational philosophy of ISRO, established by its visionary founder Dr. Vikram Sarabhai. It emphasized using space technology for societal development and peaceful purposes, guiding ISRO's early missions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article defines the 'Second Space Age' by the rise of private enterprise. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Sarabhai doctrine is specifically about using space for societal development, not prioritizing military use. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions legal questions creating a 'wild east' of ambiguity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'India targets ambitious 2047 space goals'. This year is significant as it marks the 100th year of India's independence, making it a symbolic target for national achievements.

Explanation

The article frames the Gaganyaan mission as 'a quest for global prestige in the new space race'. While it may involve technology development and boost the private sector, the stated primary objective from a strategic standpoint is enhancing India's global standing.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India (ECI) and vests in it the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. The ECI is the constitutional authority conducting the adjudication process described in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the adjudication was carried out by 705 judicial officers under Supreme Court supervision. Statement 2 is incorrect because the total voters fell from 7.66 crore to 6.77 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect as a senior ECI official stated deleted individuals can challenge the decision before tribunals.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 27,16,393 out of 60,06,675 names under adjudication were deleted, which is 45.22%. 11.62% is the percentage fall in total voters. 28.91% and 41.33% are deletion percentages for specific districts like Malda and Murshidabad, respectively.

Explanation

The core objective of an SIR and adjudication is to clean the electoral roll by reviewing flagged entries. The article's context of mass deletions indicates the process aims to remove ineligible voters, thereby ensuring the integrity and accuracy of the voter list, which is fundamental for free and fair elections.

Explanation

The article states that the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) was the implementing agency for the PM-UDAY scheme, which saw low uptake, prompting the shift to the Delhi Revenue Department under the new policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the policy covers commercial buildings up to 20 sqm. Statement 2 is incorrect; the implementation is transferred to the Delhi Government's Revenue Department, not MoHUA. Statement 3 is correct as the policy builds upon the 2019 Act mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article provides specific data from a Rajya Sabha reply, stating that only 20,228 conveyance deeds had been executed by the DDA under the PM-UDAY scheme as of January 25. Option A is the number for authorisation slips, and D is the number of unauthorised colonies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that regularisation by the MCD will make it possible for owners to avail loans and redevelop their properties. This is a direct impact of bringing unauthorised structures into the formal regulatory framework.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Maharashtra’s higher and technical education department issued the guidelines via a Government Resolution (GR). This is a direct fact from the source material.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Only colleges with PG and PhD programs in the same major are automatically allowed; others need permission. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the CGPA requirement. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the lateral entry provision in Maharashtra's GR. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Students must obtain a CGPA of 7.5 while successfully earning the required credits by the end of the third year to seek admission to the fourth year of UG.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Whereas all students must be registered in the Academic Bank of Credit (ABC) portal to facilitate credit transfers and the multiple entry/exit system.' This is the core function of ABC as per NEP 2020 and the news report.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) on Tuesday notified the new Transit Oriented Development (TOD) policy for Delhi...'. MoHUA is the nodal ministry for urban development and housing policies in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy applies within a 500-metre radius, not 1 kilometre. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the policy is part of the Master Plan of Delhi-2021 framework (and was expected to be part of MPD-2041), construction has started at only one node (Karkardooma), not all 12.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Under the new policy, developers are allowed a base FAR of 400.' This means they can build on four times the plot area. The other options are distractors close to the correct figure.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to make 'smaller, more affordable housing units available in Delhi.' The policy uses the carrot of higher FAR (500 instead of 400) to mandate that a significant portion (65%) of the built-up area must be for small, affordable units. This is a direct incentive mechanism to address the housing shortage.

Explanation

As per the article, the Division Bench held that the lapses corresponded to Section 351 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which is the new provision replacing Section 313 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). This is a direct static linkage from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court set aside the sentences due to procedural lapses and remanded the case back; it did not acquit the accused. Statement 2 is correct as explicitly stated in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court directed the Sessions Court to resume from the stage of recording the accused's statements afresh under Section 351 BNSS, not from framing of charges.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the crime involved the rape and murder of a 'seven-and-a-half-year-old girl'. This is a specific data point from the prosecution's case. Other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The core of the judgment, as detailed in the article, is that Section 313 CrPC (Section 351 BNSS) is not a mere formality but a 'mandatory obligation'. The court set aside the sentences because this procedure was not followed, especially for DNA and medical evidence. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The Petroleum Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC) is a body under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas, Government of India. It is responsible for data analysis in the petroleum sector, as mentioned in the article context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fossil-fuel intensity measures consumption of oil, gas, and coal (fossil fuels), not renewable energy. Statement 2 is correct as explicitly stated in the article. Statement 3 is correct as per the government data for 2023-24 mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that government data for 2023-24 estimates import dependency for crude stood at roughly 89%. The other percentages correspond to coal (~26%) and natural gas (~47%).

Explanation

The article states that existing metrics like carbon intensity don't measure continued fossil-fuel dependence and associated vulnerabilities. The proposed fossil-fuel intensity metric is a complementary tool to measure this specific risk, especially relevant for import-dependent Global South economies.