3 April 2026, Questions & Answers

156 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

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This page contains 156 current affairs questions with answers from 3 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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3 April 2026, Questions with Answers

156 Qs
Q1.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the superintendence, direction, and control of elections vested?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 352
  • C.Article 356
  • D.Article 368
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. This is a fundamental static GK fact for Polity.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Article 324 Limits: ECI's Plenary Powers Cannot Override All India Services Act on Transfers →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Election Commission of India (ECI) under Article 324:

1. The Supreme Court, in the Mohinder Singh Gill case, described Article 324 as a 'reservoir of power' for the ECI.

2. The ECI can use its plenary powers under Article 324 even in areas where a valid law made by Parliament exists.

3. The All India Services Act is the statute that governs the service conditions of officers like the IAS and IPS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Supreme Court held that the ECI's plenary power under Article 324 can only be used where the field is 'unoccupied' by a statute. Statement 3 is correct as the All India Services Act, 1951 governs All India Services.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Article 324 Limits: ECI's Plenary Powers Cannot Override All India Services Act on Transfers →
Q3.

In which landmark case did the Supreme Court clarify the limitations on the Election Commission's powers under Article 324?

MediumUPSC, Judiciary
  • A.Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
  • B.Maneka Gandhi case (1978)
  • C.Mohinder Singh Gill case (1978)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.S.R. Bommai case (1994)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the Supreme Court's significant observations on the scope and limitations of Article 324 were made in the case of Mohinder Singh Gill and Anr. vs The Chief Election Commissioner, New Delhi and Ors. (1978).

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Article 324 Limits: ECI's Plenary Powers Cannot Override All India Services Act on Transfers →
Q4.

What is the primary constitutional principle highlighted by the controversy over the ECI transferring state officials without the state government's consent?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of Judicial Review
  • B.The principle of Cooperative Federalism✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The principle of Public Interest Litigation
  • D.The principle of Basic Structure
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article discusses the tension between the ECI's constitutional duty and the administrative autonomy of states. The unilateral transfer of state officials, who are under the control of the state government as per the All India Services Act, raises concerns about upsetting the balance inherent in India's federal structure, which is based on cooperation between the Centre and the States.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Article 324 Limits: ECI's Plenary Powers Cannot Override All India Services Act on Transfers →
Q5.

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, was piloted by which Union Minister in Parliament?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Minister of Law and Justice
  • B.Minister of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Minister of Finance
  • D.Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal replied to the discussion on the legislation in the Rajya Sabha. The bill aims to improve the business environment, which falls under the purview of the Commerce and Industry Ministry.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill Amends 784 Provisions Across 79 Central Laws for Decriminalising Minor Offences →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026:

1. It amends provisions across 79 central laws administered by 23 different ministries.

2. The bill seeks to decriminalise 67 provisions related to minor offences.

3. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on April 1, 2026, and by the Rajya Sabha on April 3, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions amendments across 79 laws administered by 23 ministries. Statement 2 is incorrect; the bill decriminalises 717 provisions, not 67. The 67 provisions are for 'ease of living' rationalisation. Statement 3 is correct as per the dates mentioned in the article.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill Amends 784 Provisions Across 79 Central Laws for Decriminalising Minor Offences →
Q7.

According to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, how many provisions are being amended specifically to facilitate 'ease of living'?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.67 provisions✓ Correct Answer
  • B.717 provisions
  • C.784 provisions
  • D.79 provisions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Out of 784, 717 provisions are being amended for decriminalising minor offences and 67 to facilitate ease of living.' The other numbers are distractors: 784 is the total provisions amended, 717 are for decriminalisation, and 79 is the number of laws impacted.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill Amends 784 Provisions Across 79 Central Laws for Decriminalising Minor Offences →
Q8.

What is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, as highlighted in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through higher penalties
  • B.To introduce new criminal offences for corporate fraud
  • C.To decriminalise minor offences and improve the business environment✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To transfer regulatory powers from the centre to the states
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core focus is on decriminalising minor offences to 'further improve the country's business environment' and help 'citizens and MSMEs'. It is a deregulation and ease-of-doing-business measure, not a revenue-generating or centralisation effort.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill Amends 784 Provisions Across 79 Central Laws for Decriminalising Minor Offences →
Q9.

The right to be considered for promotion as a fundamental right is derived primarily from which articles of the Constitution?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Articles 19 and 21
  • B.Articles 14 and 16(1)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Articles 32 and 226
  • D.Articles 309 and 311
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the right is rooted in Articles 14 (equality before law) and 16(1) (equality of opportunity in public employment) of the Constitution. Articles 19 and 21 relate to freedoms and life/liberty. Articles 32 and 226 are for enforcement. Articles 309 and 311 deal with service conditions and dismissal.

Source: Right to be Considered for Promotion Held as Fundamental Right Under Articles 14 & 16(1), SC Distinguishes from Right to Actual Promotion →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the right to promotion in public employment:

1. The Supreme Court has held that there is a fundamental right to be promoted.

2. The Supreme Court has held that there is a fundamental right to be considered for promotion when eligible.

3. The principle that the right to be considered for promotion is a fundamental right was underlined by a five-judge Constitution Bench in the Ajit Singh vs State of Punjab case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article explicitly states the Supreme Court distinguished between the right to be considered and the right to an actual promotion, ruling there is 'no fundamental right to promotion'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 1999 Ajit Singh case was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench.

Source: Right to be Considered for Promotion Held as Fundamental Right Under Articles 14 & 16(1), SC Distinguishes from Right to Actual Promotion →
Q11.

In the recent Punjab and Haryana High Court case mentioned, what was the frequency directed for holding Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC) meetings?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Every month
  • B.Every three months✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Every six months
  • D.Every year
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Punjab and Haryana High Court ordered that DPCs 'must be held regularly, that is, every three months.' This is a specific factual detail from the news that can be tested.

Source: Right to be Considered for Promotion Held as Fundamental Right Under Articles 14 & 16(1), SC Distinguishes from Right to Actual Promotion →
Q12.

What is the primary legal remedy courts have used to address the violation of the fundamental right to be considered for promotion due to administrative delays?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Awarding monetary compensation only
  • B.Directing immediate dismissal of responsible officers
  • C.Granting notional promotions with retroactive effect✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ordering fresh recruitment for the vacant posts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides multiple examples where courts, including the Punjab & Haryana HC and Manipur HC, granted 'notional promotion with retroactive effect' or 'notional promotions from the date the original vacancies arose' to compensate employees for career progression lost due to state lapses and delays in convening DPCs.

Source: Right to be Considered for Promotion Held as Fundamental Right Under Articles 14 & 16(1), SC Distinguishes from Right to Actual Promotion →
Q13.

Which regulatory body granted the final approval for Emirates NBD to acquire a stake in RBL Bank?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Competition Commission of India (CCI)
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) accorded approval for the acquisition. SEBI regulations apply, and CCI had given earlier approval, but the final banking sector approval came from RBI, the primary regulator for banks in India.

Source: RBI Approves Emirates NBD to Acquire 74% Stake in RBL Bank for ₹26,853 Cr Under Banking Regulation Act 1949 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI approval for Emirates NBD's acquisition in RBL Bank:

1. The approval allows Emirates NBD to acquire up to a 74% stake and classifies it as the promoter of RBL Bank.

2. The voting rights of Emirates NBD in RBL Bank are capped at 49% as per the approval conditions.

3. The approval is valid for a period of one year from the date it was granted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the voting rights are capped at 26% under Section 12(2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, not 49%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the approval has one year validity. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: RBI Approves Emirates NBD to Acquire 74% Stake in RBL Bank for ₹26,853 Cr Under Banking Regulation Act 1949 →
Q15.

For what approximate deal value did Emirates NBD express interest to acquire a majority stake in RBL Bank in October 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹22,500 crore
  • B.₹24,150 crore
  • C.₹26,853 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹28,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that Emirates NBD expressed interest in October 2025 to acquire a majority 60% stake in RBL Bank for ₹26,853 crore. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: RBI Approves Emirates NBD to Acquire 74% Stake in RBL Bank for ₹26,853 Cr Under Banking Regulation Act 1949 →
Q16.

What is a key regulatory implication for RBL Bank following the RBI approval for Emirates NBD's acquisition?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It will be treated as a public sector bank under the Bank Nationalisation Act.
  • B.It will be governed by provisions for foreign banks in wholly owned subsidiary mode.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It must reduce its branch network by 50% within one year.
  • D.It will be exempt from all RBI regulations for a five-year period.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the provisions applicable to foreign banks operating in wholly owned subsidiary mode, as per RBI's 2025 Governance Directions, shall apply to RBL Bank. This is the direct regulatory implication of the ownership change, as mentioned in the fourth paragraph of the article.

Source: RBI Approves Emirates NBD to Acquire 74% Stake in RBL Bank for ₹26,853 Cr Under Banking Regulation Act 1949 →
Q17.

Which ministry presided over the commissioning ceremony of INS Aridhaman and INS Taragiri?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Science & Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Defence Minister Rajnath Singh presided over the commissioning ceremonies. The Defence Minister heads the Ministry of Defence, which is responsible for the armed forces and major defence inductions.

Source: India Inducts 3rd SSBN INS Aridhaman Under ₹90,000 Cr ATV Project, Boosting Sea-Based Deterrent →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. INS Aridhaman is India's second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN).

2. The Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project has an estimated outlay of ₹90,000 crore.

3. With the induction of INS Aridhaman, India will have three operational ballistic missile submarines at sea for the first time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. INS Aridhaman is India's third SSBN, as INS Arihant and INS Arighaat were commissioned earlier. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which mentions the ATV project's ₹90,000 crore outlay. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states this fact.

Source: India Inducts 3rd SSBN INS Aridhaman Under ₹90,000 Cr ATV Project, Boosting Sea-Based Deterrent →
Q19.

What is the estimated outlay of the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹75,000 crore
  • B.₹90,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1,20,000 crore
  • D.₹50,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the four SSBN platforms are part of the ATV project with an estimated outlay of Rs 90,000 crore. The other options are distractors.

Source: India Inducts 3rd SSBN INS Aridhaman Under ₹90,000 Cr ATV Project, Boosting Sea-Based Deterrent →
Q20.

What is the primary strategic significance of inducting INS Aridhaman, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It enhances India's coastal surveillance capabilities.
  • B.It provides a major boost to India's sea-based nuclear deterrent capabilities.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It marks India's first step towards developing aircraft carriers.
  • D.It is primarily aimed at anti-piracy operations in the Indian Ocean.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme is the enhancement of India's nuclear deterrent. The headline and opening paragraph explicitly state that the induction is 'in a major boost to its sea-based nuclear deterrent capabilities'. The other options describe other naval functions but are not the primary significance of an SSBN like INS Aridhaman.

Source: India Inducts 3rd SSBN INS Aridhaman Under ₹90,000 Cr ATV Project, Boosting Sea-Based Deterrent →
Q21.

Which quasi-judicial body is the adjudicating authority for corporate insolvency resolution under the IBC?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
  • B.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
  • D.Competition Commission of India (CCI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is the adjudicating authority for insolvency proceedings against corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016. The article mentions NCLT overseeing the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process.

Source: IBC Amendment Bill 2026 Passed: Introduces CIIRP, Group Insolvency, Targets ₹4.11 Lakh Cr Recovered →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026:

1. It mandates that the NCLT must admit an insolvency application once the default is proven, with limited other conditions.

2. It introduces a Creditor-initiated Insolvency Resolution Process (CIIRP), which requires approval from at least 51% of all creditors.

3. It proposes replacing criminal penalties with civil penalties for offences like contravention of moratorium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The NCLT must now admit applications once the default is proven.' Statement 2 is incorrect because CIIRP requires approval from at least 51% of 'specified financial creditors', not all creditors. Statement 3 is correct as the Select Committee recommended replacing criminal penalties with civil penalties for certain offences, which was incorporated into the Bill.

Source: IBC Amendment Bill 2026 Passed: Introduces CIIRP, Group Insolvency, Targets ₹4.11 Lakh Cr Recovered →
Q23.

According to the article, what was the total amount recovered by creditors through the IBC resolution process as of December 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹2.95 Lakh Crore
  • B.₹3.50 Lakh Crore
  • C.₹4.11 Lakh Crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹5.25 Lakh Crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'As of December 2025, IBC has facilitated the resolution of 1,376 companies, helping creditors to recover 4.11 lakh crore.' The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: IBC Amendment Bill 2026 Passed: Introduces CIIRP, Group Insolvency, Targets ₹4.11 Lakh Cr Recovered →
Q24.

What is a key rationale, as per the Select Committee, for disallowing a Resolution Professional (RP) from becoming the Liquidator of the same corporate debtor?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To reduce the overall cost of the insolvency process.
  • B.To prevent a potential conflict of interest where the RP might favour liquidation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ensure specialized expertise is applied during the liquidation phase.
  • D.To comply with international best practices on insolvency.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the committee's observation that the RP may have a 'perverse incentive' to favour liquidation over resolution to secure additional fees, as the liquidator's remuneration is often a percentage of the liquidation estate, unlike the RP's fixed monthly salary. This directly points to a conflict of interest.

Source: IBC Amendment Bill 2026 Passed: Introduces CIIRP, Group Insolvency, Targets ₹4.11 Lakh Cr Recovered →
Q25.

Which international convention, mentioned in the article, provides for the protection of cultural property during armed conflict?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Geneva Convention of 1949
  • B.Hague Convention of 1954✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
  • D.UNESCO Convention concerning Cultural Property
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Hague Convention of 1954, formulated under UNESCO, which provides for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict. It establishes the Blue Shield emblem for marking protected sites.

Source: Iran-Israel-US Conflict: 10 Strategic Locations Including Strait of Hormuz (25% Global Oil) & Hague Convention 1954 for Cultural Property Protection →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding locations in the news due to the Iran-Israel-US conflict:

1. The Strait of Hormuz lies between Oman and Iran and accounts for 20-25% of global oil supply.

2. Kharg Island, Iran's key oil export terminal, processes about 70% of the country's crude oil exports.

3. The Litani River, mentioned in the context of Israel's security buffer, is the longest river in Syria.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Kharg Island processes 90% (not 70%) of Iran's crude oil exports. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Litani River is the longest in Lebanon, not Syria. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Source: Iran-Israel-US Conflict: 10 Strategic Locations Including Strait of Hormuz (25% Global Oil) & Hague Convention 1954 for Cultural Property Protection →
Q27.

According to the article, what approximate percentage of global oil and natural gas shipments passes through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5-7%
  • B.10-12%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15-18%
  • D.20-25%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Bab el-Mandeb Strait accounts for roughly 10 to 12 per cent of global oil and natural gas shipments. The 20-25% figure is a close distractor for the Strait of Hormuz.

Source: Iran-Israel-US Conflict: 10 Strategic Locations Including Strait of Hormuz (25% Global Oil) & Hague Convention 1954 for Cultural Property Protection →
Q28.

What is the primary strategic significance of Iran's blockade of the Strait of Hormuz in the context of the conflict, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To protect Iran's domestic shipping industry from foreign competition.
  • B.To serve as a bargaining chip and maintain leverage in negotiations with the US.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To divert global attention from its nuclear enrichment activities at Natanz.
  • D.To facilitate the movement of Iranian naval vessels into the Indian Ocean.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Iran's blockade of the Strait of Hormuz has emerged as its most effective strategic tool, allowing it to maintain leverage and stonewall US attempts to push for peace. This directly positions it as a tool for negotiation and coercion.

Source: Iran-Israel-US Conflict: 10 Strategic Locations Including Strait of Hormuz (25% Global Oil) & Hague Convention 1954 for Cultural Property Protection →
Q29.

The INS Aridhaman submarine, as part of India's strategic weapons programme, falls under the operational control of which command?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Integrated Defence Staff
  • B.Strategic Forces Command✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Western Naval Command
  • D.Nuclear Command Authority
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the submarine 'falls under the domain of the Strategic Forces'. The Strategic Forces Command (SFC) is the tri-service command responsible for the management and administration of India's nuclear weapons.

Source: India Commissions 7,000-Ton INS Aridhaman SSBN, Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 & K-15 SLBMs →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding INS Aridhaman:

1. It is India's second indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN).

2. It is larger than the earlier Arihant-class vessels, with a displacement of about 7,000 tonnes.

3. It can carry a mix of missiles including the K-4, which has a range of approximately 3,500 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, CDS
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: INS Aridhaman is the *third* indigenously built SSBN, after INS Arihant and INS Arighaat. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'Aridhaman (S4) and S4* are bigger boats of about 7,000 tonnes.' Statement 3 is correct: the article states it can carry K-4 missiles with a range of about 3,500 km.

Source: India Commissions 7,000-Ton INS Aridhaman SSBN, Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 & K-15 SLBMs →
Q31.

As per the news, what is the approximate range of the K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missile that INS Aridhaman can carry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 1,500 km
  • B.About 2,500 km
  • C.About 3,500 km✓ Correct Answer
  • D.About 5,000 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The K-4 missiles have a range of about 3,500 km and are developed as nuclear-capable submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs).' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: India Commissions 7,000-Ton INS Aridhaman SSBN, Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 & K-15 SLBMs →
Q32.

What is the primary strategic significance of commissioning INS Aridhaman, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, CDS
  • A.It enhances India's coastal surveillance and anti-piracy operations.
  • B.It strengthens the land-based leg of India's nuclear deterrent.
  • C.It significantly boosts the sea-based leg of India's nuclear triad for assured second-strike capability.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It marks India's entry into the exclusive club of nations operating aircraft carriers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the submarine 'falls under the domain of the Strategic Forces and is part of the country’s nuclear triad.' Its primary role is strategic deterrence. SSBNs like Aridhaman are valued for their stealth and survivability, which are critical for a credible second-strike capability, ensuring retaliation even after a first nuclear strike.

Source: India Commissions 7,000-Ton INS Aridhaman SSBN, Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 & K-15 SLBMs →
Q33.

CoBRA, the elite force mentioned as leading camp establishments in Maoist areas, operates under which central armed police force?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Border Security Force (BSF)
  • B.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
  • D.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, CoBRA is an elite force of the CRPF. This is a key static fact about India's security architecture, where specialized units like CoBRA are raised under existing central police forces for specific operational roles.

Source: Maoist 'Liberated Area' of 20,000 Sq Km in Abujhmad Falls After 45 Years, Key Role of Human Intelligence and Secret Letter →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the fall of the Maoist stronghold in Abujhmad:

1. The Maoists referred to the area as a 'liberated zone' and had controlled it for over four decades.

2. The primary reason for the success, as per the police, was the overwhelming use of drone technology and satellite assistance.

3. A key turning point was a secret letter written by tribal commanders in 2024, which was initially rejected by the Maoist Central Committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states Maoists controlled over 20,000 sq km for over 45 years as a 'liberated area'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The police chief attributed 80% of success to 'Human Intelligence', while drones and satellites were part of the remaining 20% ('the rest'). Statement 3 is correct: The secret letter from tribal commanders in 2024 and its rejection by the Central Committee is a central fact in the article.

Source: Maoist 'Liberated Area' of 20,000 Sq Km in Abujhmad Falls After 45 Years, Key Role of Human Intelligence and Secret Letter →
Q35.

For approximately how many years did the Maoists control their 'liberated area' in the Abujhmad region, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 30 years
  • B.Over 35 years
  • C.Over 40 years
  • D.Over 45 years✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Maoists controlled the area 'for over 45 years from 1980'. This is a precise data point crucial for factual recall in prelims-style questions.

Source: Maoist 'Liberated Area' of 20,000 Sq Km in Abujhmad Falls After 45 Years, Key Role of Human Intelligence and Secret Letter →
Q36.

What was the primary strategic objective of establishing Forward Operating Posts (FOPs) or police camps in the heart of Maoist areas, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To provide immediate healthcare services to tribal populations.
  • B.To act as permanent bases denying sanctuary and disrupting Maoist movement.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To serve as training centers for newly recruited local police.
  • D.To facilitate large-scale infrastructure projects like road construction.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the policy of creating camps gained momentum to establish a permanent presence in Maoist heartlands. The Maoists' planned attack on a CoBRA camp aimed to stop this policy, indicating its effectiveness in denying them safe havens and cutting their connection with local people.

Source: Maoist 'Liberated Area' of 20,000 Sq Km in Abujhmad Falls After 45 Years, Key Role of Human Intelligence and Secret Letter →
Q37.

Which parliamentary committee examined the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025, and submitted recommendations?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Standing Committee on Finance
  • B.Select Committee✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Joint Parliamentary Committee
  • D.Department-related Parliamentary Committee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Bill was referred to a Select Committee on the same day it was introduced in Lok Sabha (August 12, 2025). This committee, chaired by Baijayant Panda, submitted its report with 11 recommendations.

Source: Parliament Passes IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2026 to Introduce CIIRP, Group Insolvency & Cross-border Framework →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026:

1. It introduces a Creditor-initiated Insolvency Resolution Process (CIIRP) which requires approval from at least 51% of financial creditors.

2. It mandates that the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) must admit an application for insolvency within 14 days of filing, without exception.

3. It proposes to replace criminal penalties with civil penalties for offences such as contravention of a moratorium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: CIIRP requires at least 51% of financial creditors to agree. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendment mandates admission upon proven default but does not re-state or change the existing 14-day timeline for NCLT's decision. The article highlights that the 14-day rule exists but is often delayed. Statement 3 is correct as the Select Committee recommended replacing criminal penalties with civil penalties for certain offences, which was incorporated.

Source: Parliament Passes IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2026 to Introduce CIIRP, Group Insolvency & Cross-border Framework →
Q39.

As of December 2025, what was the approximate amount recovered by creditors through resolutions under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹2.11 lakh crore
  • B.₹3.11 lakh crore
  • C.₹4.11 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹5.11 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'As of December 2025, IBC has facilitated the resolution of 1,376 companies, helping creditors to recover 4.11 lakh crore.' The other options are close distractors.

Source: Parliament Passes IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2026 to Introduce CIIRP, Group Insolvency & Cross-border Framework →
Q40.

What is a key rationale, as per the Select Committee, for disallowing a Resolution Professional (RP) from becoming the liquidator of the same corporate debtor?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To reduce the overall cost of the insolvency process.
  • B.To prevent a potential conflict of interest where the RP might favour liquidation to secure higher fees.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ensure that the liquidation process is handled by a separate, more experienced agency.
  • D.To comply with international norms on insolvency practitioner roles.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the committee's observation: the RP may have a 'perverse incentive' to favour liquidation over resolution because a liquidator's remuneration is often a percentage of the liquidation estate, unlike the RP's fixed salary. This is a direct conflict of interest.

Source: Parliament Passes IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2026 to Introduce CIIRP, Group Insolvency & Cross-border Framework →
Q41.

The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, primarily falls under the purview of which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, and its amendments are administered by the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. This ministry is responsible for the welfare of marginalized communities, including transgender persons.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Excludes Self-ID, Recognizes Only Traditional Identities →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026:

1. It recognizes self-identification as the sole basis for determining gender identity.

2. It prescribes a maximum punishment of life imprisonment for kidnapping a minor to force them into a transgender identity.

3. It recognizes socio-cultural identities such as 'hijra' and 'kinner' but does not recognize identities like 'transwoman' or 'non-binary'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act does NOT recognize self-identification; it requires a district magistrate-led process. Statement 2 is correct: The article states 'life imprisonment in the case of minors'. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly says it recognizes hijra, kinner etc., but does not recognize transmen, transwomen, non-binary.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Excludes Self-ID, Recognizes Only Traditional Identities →
Q43.

According to the article, within how many days was the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, passed by both Houses of Parliament and received the President's assent after its introduction in the Lok Sabha?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15 days
  • B.19 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25 days
  • D.30 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Introduced in the Lok Sabha on March 13, the law — passed in both Houses of Parliament and securing the President’s assent in 19 days'. This highlights the expedited passage of the legislation, a key factual detail for prelims.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Excludes Self-ID, Recognizes Only Traditional Identities →
Q44.

A major criticism of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, as highlighted in the article, is that it could potentially lead to which of the following negative consequences?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It could accelerate the assimilation of transgender persons into mainstream society.
  • B.It could criminalize community support systems that help transgender persons after they come out.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It could lead to an excessive financial burden on the Union Budget due to new welfare schemes.
  • D.It could create a conflict of jurisdiction between the Central and State governments.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes activists fearing that the provision penalizing 'kidnapping' a person to 'force' them to become transgender could be used to prosecute community members and NGOs who provide crucial initial support to individuals after they come out, if family members file a complaint.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Excludes Self-ID, Recognizes Only Traditional Identities →
Q45.

Which expert body, mentioned in the article, is responsible for recommending Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for agricultural commodities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Food Corporation of India (FCI)
  • D.Central Water Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Ashok Gulati as a former chairman of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). This body, under the Ministry of Agriculture, recommends MSPs for various crops.

Source: Groundwater Declines 1.7 Ft/Yr in Punjab-Haryana, Experts Call for Rationalising ₹1.25 Lakh Cr Subsidies & Crop Diversification →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the news article:

1. The water table in Punjab and Haryana is declining at a rate of 1.7 feet per year.

2. Experts argue that subsidies on electricity and fertilisers encourage crop diversification away from paddy and wheat.

3. A key proposal to encourage diversification is to double the central subsidy for non-paddy crops to Rs 35,000 per hectare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; experts argue that these subsidies DISCOURAGE diversification by making paddy and wheat more profitable. Statement 3 is correct, as proposed by expert Ashok Gulati.

Source: Groundwater Declines 1.7 Ft/Yr in Punjab-Haryana, Experts Call for Rationalising ₹1.25 Lakh Cr Subsidies & Crop Diversification →
Q47.

According to the article, what is the approximate annual cost to maintain India's buffer stock of foodgrains?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Rs 15,000 crore
  • B.Rs 25,000 crore
  • C.Rs 35,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rs 45,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article, quoting NITI Aayog member Ramesh Chand, states that maintaining the buffer stock of nearly 71 million tonnes of foodgrains costs around Rs 35,000 crore annually.

Source: Groundwater Declines 1.7 Ft/Yr in Punjab-Haryana, Experts Call for Rationalising ₹1.25 Lakh Cr Subsidies & Crop Diversification →
Q48.

What is identified as a major institutional bottleneck hindering crop diversification in Punjab, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Overfunding of agricultural universities for alternative crop research.
  • B.Existence of a robust state-level crop insurance scheme.
  • C.Lack of adequate funding for research into alternative crops at institutions like Punjab Agricultural University.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Excessive market linkages and cold storage facilities for vegetables.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that institutions like Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) lack adequate funding for research into alternative crops and new seed varieties, which is critical for enabling farmers to shift from paddy and wheat.

Source: Groundwater Declines 1.7 Ft/Yr in Punjab-Haryana, Experts Call for Rationalising ₹1.25 Lakh Cr Subsidies & Crop Diversification →
Q49.

The enforcement of foreign arbitral awards in India is primarily governed by which part of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Part I
  • B.Part II✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Part III
  • D.Part IV
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals specifically with the enforcement of foreign awards, incorporating the provisions of the New York Convention, 1958. Part I deals with domestic arbitration.

Source: SC Limits 'Public Policy' Challenge to Foreign Arbitral Awards Under Section 48, Arbitration and Conciliation Act →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on foreign arbitral awards:

1. The Court held that Indian courts can review the merits of a foreign award at the enforcement stage if there is a violation of any Indian law.

2. The judgment invoked the principle of 'transnational issue estoppel' to prevent parties from re-litigating issues settled by a foreign seat court.

3. The case involved an award passed by the Singapore International Arbitration Centre (SIAC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Judiciary
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court explicitly held that a 'mere violation of a provision of a local law' does not meet the high threshold for refusing enforcement under the 'public policy' exception. Statement 2 is correct as the Court applied 'transnational issue estoppel'. Statement 3 is correct as the dispute was arbitrated at the SIAC.

Source: SC Limits 'Public Policy' Challenge to Foreign Arbitral Awards Under Section 48, Arbitration and Conciliation Act →
Q51.

What was the approximate amount of damages awarded by the Singapore International Arbitration Centre in the case discussed in the Supreme Court judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs. 5,000 million
  • B.Rs. 8,150 million
  • C.Rs. 11,288 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rs. 15,000 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The arbitral tribunal awarded about Rs. 11,288 million in damages to the investors. The other figures are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: SC Limits 'Public Policy' Challenge to Foreign Arbitral Awards Under Section 48, Arbitration and Conciliation Act →
Q52.

What is the primary significance of the Supreme Court narrowing the 'public policy' exception under Section 48 of the Arbitration Act?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase the litigation workload of Indian courts
  • B.To allow greater scrutiny of foreign awards on procedural grounds
  • C.To strengthen the finality of international arbitration and boost investor confidence✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To mandate that all international disputes must be arbitrated in India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

By setting a high bar for challenging foreign awards, the Supreme Court reinforces the finality and reliability of international arbitration in India. This reduces enforcement delays and signals a pro-arbitration stance, which is crucial for attracting foreign investment.

Source: SC Limits 'Public Policy' Challenge to Foreign Arbitral Awards Under Section 48, Arbitration and Conciliation Act →
Q53.

Which state department issued the guidelines mandating hospitals to report child pregnancies under POCSO Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.State Law Department
  • B.State Health and Family Welfare Department✓ Correct Answer
  • C.State Women and Child Development Department
  • D.State Home Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the guidelines were issued by the director of the state Health and Family Welfare Department. This is the nodal department for healthcare institutions in the state.

Source: Karnataka Mandates Hospitals to Report Child Pregnancies Under POCSO Act 2012, Non-Compliance Risks 1-Year Jail →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnataka guidelines on POCSO cases:

1. The guidelines mandate reporting of pregnancy in girls below 18 years to initiate POCSO proceedings.

2. Failure to report by a doctor attracts a penalty of imprisonment which may extend to three years.

3. The guidelines direct hospitals to immediately call child helpline number 1098 upon obtaining knowledge of a child pregnancy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the penalty is up to one year imprisonment, not three years. Statement 3 is correct as the guidelines mention calling 1098 immediately.

Source: Karnataka Mandates Hospitals to Report Child Pregnancies Under POCSO Act 2012, Non-Compliance Risks 1-Year Jail →
Q55.

What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for doctors who fail to report child pregnancy cases as per the new Karnataka guidelines?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Up to 6 months
  • B.Up to 1 year✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Up to 2 years
  • D.Up to 3 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that failure to report would result in imprisonment for a term of up to one year and a fine. The other options are incorrect distractors.

Source: Karnataka Mandates Hospitals to Report Child Pregnancies Under POCSO Act 2012, Non-Compliance Risks 1-Year Jail →
Q56.

What is the primary objective of the Karnataka government's mandate for hospitals to report child pregnancies?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase hospital revenue from legal cases
  • B.To facilitate initiation of criminal proceedings under the POCSO Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the overall fertility rate in the state
  • D.To transfer all pediatric cases to government hospitals
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core purpose is stated in the first paragraph: reporting is mandated 'to facilitate the initiation of criminal proceedings under the POCSO Act'. The other options are not mentioned or are incorrect inferences.

Source: Karnataka Mandates Hospitals to Report Child Pregnancies Under POCSO Act 2012, Non-Compliance Risks 1-Year Jail →
Q57.

The PLI Scheme for Pharmaceuticals, mentioned in the article, was approved by which Indian constitutional body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Parliament of India
  • B.The Union Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
  • D.The NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The PLI Scheme for Pharmaceuticals was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021...' The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, is the supreme executive decision-making body of the Government of India.

Source: US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma from July 31; India's $9.7 Billion Exports Mainly Generic →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff announcement:

1. The 100% tariff applies to both patented and generic pharmaceutical imports from all countries.

2. The US Department of Commerce cited threats to national security and the economy as the rationale for the tariff.

3. India's Sun Pharma reported global sales of over $1.2 billion from patented products in FY25, with the US market accounting for a majority share.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The tariff is specifically on patented pharmaceuticals and ingredients, and generic drugs are exempt 'at this time'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'The Secretary [of Commerce] found that...imports...threaten to impair the national security and economy.' Statement 3 is correct: The article states Sun Pharma reported global sales of '$1,217 million from patented products in FY25, of which the US market accounted for 85-90%'.

Source: US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma from July 31; India's $9.7 Billion Exports Mainly Generic →
Q59.

According to the article, what was the value of India's pharmaceutical exports to the United States in the year 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$1.2 billion
  • B.$9.7 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$15.0 billion
  • D.$25.8 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes Ajay Srivastava: 'In 2025, India exported $9.7 billion worth of pharmaceuticals to the US...' $1.2 billion refers to Sun Pharma's patented product sales. $25.8 billion is India's global pharma exports.

Source: US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma from July 31; India's $9.7 Billion Exports Mainly Generic →
Q60.

What is the primary strategic objective behind the US imposing tariffs on patented pharmaceuticals, as suggested by trade experts in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To generate significant new tariff revenue for the US Treasury.
  • B.To protect domestic US pharmaceutical companies from all foreign competition.
  • C.To pressure drugmakers to lower prices in the US and shift some manufacturing locally.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To retaliate against specific trade actions taken by India and China.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Trade experts said the US could use tariffs mainly as a pressure tool, not to raise revenue but to push drugmakers to cut prices in the US, shift some manufacturing locally, and to gain greater control over critical pharmaceutical supply chains...' The other options are not supported as the primary objective by the article's content.

Source: US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma from July 31; India's $9.7 Billion Exports Mainly Generic →
Q61.

According to the article, which bank's research arm estimated that prolonged tensions could place ₹13.75 lakh crore of corporate sector revenue at risk?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.State Bank of India (SBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.IDFC FIRST Bank
  • D.Goldman Sachs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The State Bank of India (SBI) Research estimates that prolonged tensions could place Rs 13.75 lakh crore of corporate sector revenue in 18 segments at risk.'

Source: West Asia Conflict May Cut India Inc Profits by 10-15% in FY27, Risk ₹13.75 Lakh Crore Revenue Across 18 Sectors →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the West Asia conflict as per the news article:

1. Corporate earnings could decline by 10-15% in the financial year 2027 (FY27).

2. The conflict is expected to persist for several years, leading to long-term structural changes in supply chains.

3. Sectors like airlines, textiles, paints, fertilizers, and restaurants are expected to be among the worst hit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'corporate earnings could take a significant hit, potentially declining by 10-15% in the financial year 2027 (FY27)'. Statement 2 is incorrect because most experts expect the conflict to be resolved within 2-3 months, not persist for years. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these sectors as 'among the sectors that are expected to be the worst hit'.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Cut India Inc Profits by 10-15% in FY27, Risk ₹13.75 Lakh Crore Revenue Across 18 Sectors →
Q63.

According to SBI Research estimates mentioned in the article, what is the potential revenue loss equivalent to as a percentage of GDP in a severe scenario?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.2% of GDP
  • B.0.4% of GDP
  • C.0.6% of GDP
  • D.0.8% of GDP✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'In a severe scenario, revenue losses may reach Rs 2.75 lakh crore which is equivalent to 0.8% of GDP.' The mild scenario is 0.4% and the baseline is 0.2%.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Cut India Inc Profits by 10-15% in FY27, Risk ₹13.75 Lakh Crore Revenue Across 18 Sectors →
Q64.

What is identified in the article as the primary transmission channel through which the West Asia conflict impacts Indian corporate earnings?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Disruption of Information Technology services
  • B.Decline in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows
  • C.Increase in energy (crude oil) prices and costs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Restrictions on Indian software exports
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The primary transmission channel is energy. Crude prices have surged, pushing up costs...' It further notes West Asia furnishes approximately 60% of India's crude oil imports, making energy costs the key channel.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Cut India Inc Profits by 10-15% in FY27, Risk ₹13.75 Lakh Crore Revenue Across 18 Sectors →
Q65.

Which organization is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) project?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Railway Board
  • B.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL)
  • D.Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India (DFCCIL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, NHSRCL officials provided the progress update. NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle specifically established to implement high-speed rail projects in India, including the MAHSR corridor.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 5-km Tunnel Completed Using NATM, 343 km Viaduct and 434 km Piers Ready →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) project:

1. The recently completed 5-km tunnel passes between Ghansoli and Shilphata.

2. The tunnelling work was completed using the Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) method.

3. The total length of the MAHSR corridor is 508 km, connecting Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM) was used, not TBM. Statement 3 is correct, detailing the project's length and connectivity. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 5-km Tunnel Completed Using NATM, 343 km Viaduct and 434 km Piers Ready →
Q67.

According to the news, how much viaduct construction has been completed for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.280 km
  • B.343 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.434 km
  • D.508 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that '343 km viaduct... have been completed.' 280 km is the stretch with noise barriers, 434 km is the pier work completed, and 508 km is the total project length.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 5-km Tunnel Completed Using NATM, 343 km Viaduct and 434 km Piers Ready →
Q68.

What is a primary advantage of using the New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM), as employed in the bullet train project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It is the fastest tunnelling method available.
  • B.It utilizes the surrounding rock mass for support, offering flexibility.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is specifically designed for underwater tunnels.
  • D.It requires no heavy machinery.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the static GK linkage, NATM's core principle is using the inherent strength of the surrounding rock for support, making it a flexible and often cost-effective method suitable for varying geological conditions, unlike rigid pre-fabricated support systems.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 5-km Tunnel Completed Using NATM, 343 km Viaduct and 434 km Piers Ready →
Q69.

Which U.S. legislative body's approval is mandated by Section 1250A of the NDAA 2024 for a potential withdrawal from NATO?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The U.S. House of Representatives
  • B.The U.S. Senate✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The U.S. Supreme Court
  • D.The National Security Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Section 1250A of the NDAA 2024 requires a two-thirds Senate supermajority or an act of Congress for NATO withdrawal. The Senate is the specific body mentioned for providing the 'supermajority' approval.

Source: U.S. Considers Withdrawal from NATO Under Trump, Europe to Reassess Security Posture Under Section 1250A NDAA 2024 →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. and NATO as discussed in the article:

1. The immediate trigger for President Trump's threat to withdraw from NATO was European allies' failure to meet the 2% GDP defense spending target.

2. Section 1250A of the NDAA 2024 allows the U.S. President to unilaterally withdraw from NATO.

3. A potential U.S. exit from NATO is seen as part of a broader shift towards American global dominance coupled with splendid isolation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the immediate trigger was frustration over allies not sending military assets to assist in the Iran war, specifically to secure the Strait of Hormuz. The defense spending issue is a constant refrain, not the immediate trigger. Statement 2 is incorrect, as Section 1250A prohibits unilateral withdrawal, requiring Congressional/Senate approval. Statement 3 is correct, as the article explicitly mentions this as part of Trump's 'simultaneous pursuit of American global dominance and splendid isolation'.

Source: U.S. Considers Withdrawal from NATO Under Trump, Europe to Reassess Security Posture Under Section 1250A NDAA 2024 →
Q71.

According to the article, for how many years has the U.S. been partnered with Western Europe under NATO's security umbrella as of 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.70 years
  • B.75 years
  • C.77 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.80 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The U.S. appears poised to break with 77 years of partnership with Western European nations under the security umbrella of NATO.' This is the key factual data point provided.

Source: U.S. Considers Withdrawal from NATO Under Trump, Europe to Reassess Security Posture Under Section 1250A NDAA 2024 →
Q72.

What is identified as the primary global implication of a potential U.S. withdrawal from NATO, as per the article's analysis?

MediumUPSC
  • A.An immediate military conflict between Russia and the Baltic states.
  • B.A recalibration of trust and strategic calculus, remaking the rules-based international order.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The automatic dissolution of all other U.S.-led multilateral institutions like the WTO.
  • D.A significant reduction in global oil prices due to secured Strait of Hormuz passage.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that 'the shock of a partner-nation abandoning its commitments worldwide will likely lead to a recalibration of trust and strategic calculus, ultimately remaking the rules-based international order.' This is the core analytical impact presented. The other options are either extreme (automatic dissolution), speculative (oil prices), or not identified as the primary implication (immediate conflict).

Source: U.S. Considers Withdrawal from NATO Under Trump, Europe to Reassess Security Posture Under Section 1250A NDAA 2024 →
Q73.

Which international organization is responsible for monitoring Iran's nuclear program and estimated it could produce 25 kg of weapons-grade uranium in under 10 days?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
  • C.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • D.Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the IAEA providing the estimate about Iran's potential to produce bomb material. The IAEA is the UN's nuclear watchdog responsible for verifying compliance with safeguards agreements under the NPT.

Source: Iran's Nuclear Capability: 500 kg of 60% Enriched Uranium, Potential Bomb in Weeks via Gun-Type Design →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding Iran's nuclear capability as discussed in the article:

1. Iran's stockpile of uranium enriched to 60% represents approximately 85% of the total enrichment effort required to reach weapons-grade 90%.

2. The gun-type nuclear weapon design is more efficient than the implosion-type design, requiring only 15-18 kg of enriched uranium for a 20-kiloton yield.

3. According to expert analysis cited, if Iran has pre-stashed equipment and mastered weaponization technology, it could potentially assemble a nuclear bomb in 3 to 5 weeks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's technical breakdown. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the gun-type design is LESS efficient, requiring 50-60 kg for a 20 kt yield, while the implosion-type is more efficient, requiring 15-18 kg. Statement 3 is correct, directly referencing Prof. Postol's analysis in the article.

Source: Iran's Nuclear Capability: 500 kg of 60% Enriched Uranium, Potential Bomb in Weeks via Gun-Type Design →
Q75.

According to the article, approximately how much uranium enriched to 60% does Iran possess?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.250 kg
  • B.500 kg✓ Correct Answer
  • C.750 kg
  • D.1000 kg
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Iran is expected to have around 500 kg of uranium enriched to 60%.' This is a key data point regarding Iran's nuclear material stockpile.

Source: Iran's Nuclear Capability: 500 kg of 60% Enriched Uranium, Potential Bomb in Weeks via Gun-Type Design →
Q76.

What is a primary strategic implication of Iran's potential ability to build a nuclear weapon using a gun-type design, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It allows Iran to enrich uranium more quickly using fewer centrifuges.
  • B.It enables Iran to deploy a nuclear weapon without requiring prior testing, complicating detection.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It significantly reduces the amount of weapons-grade uranium required for a viable bomb.
  • D.It guarantees successful miniaturization of the warhead for delivery via Iran's existing missiles.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the gun-type design's key strategic caveat is its simplicity, allowing for potential deployment without the need for a test explosion. This makes it harder for the international community to detect weaponization progress, as testing is a major indicator. The other options are incorrect: the design does not speed up enrichment, it requires MORE uranium, and miniaturization remains a separate challenge.

Source: Iran's Nuclear Capability: 500 kg of 60% Enriched Uranium, Potential Bomb in Weeks via Gun-Type Design →
Q77.

Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for administering elections and enforcing the Model Code of Conduct in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Supreme Court of India
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324. It is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the entire process for conducting elections, including enforcing the Model Code of Conduct for political parties and candidates.

Source: Instagram Political Content Used by 37% Indians for News, Meta Recommends Content to 481M Users Amid AI Disinformation →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the use of social media in Indian politics as discussed in the article:

1. According to the Reuters Institute's 2025 Digital News Report, YouTube remains the most preferred source of news for Indians.

2. Instagram's algorithm is designed in a way that if a user seeks a particular type of video, they are shown less of that content to avoid bias.

3. An Amity University research paper found that while 72% of Gen Z respondents consume political content on Instagram, less than a fourth are motivated to engage in political participation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states "55% of Indians preferred YouTube as their news source." Statement 2 is incorrect: The article quotes Maduri Kakoti saying the algorithm shows "more and more" of the same type of content, not less, catering to confirmation bias. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions the Amity University study finding "72% of Gen Z respondents regularly consume political content on Instagram, less than a fourth of them are actually motivated to engage in political participation."

Source: Instagram Political Content Used by 37% Indians for News, Meta Recommends Content to 481M Users Amid AI Disinformation →
Q79.

As per the article, what percentage of Indians now turn to Instagram for news, according to the Reuters Institute for the Study of Journalism's 2025 Digital News Report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.29%
  • B.37%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.45%
  • D.55%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "37% now turn to Instagram — the largest rise in news consumption recorded across any platform." The 55% figure is for YouTube, making it the most preferred source, but the question specifically asks for Instagram's percentage.

Source: Instagram Political Content Used by 37% Indians for News, Meta Recommends Content to 481M Users Amid AI Disinformation →
Q80.

What is identified in the article as a primary challenge arising from the increased use of short-form political content on platforms like Instagram?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It reduces the overall user base of traditional news channels.
  • B.It leads to cherry-picking of facts and seeding of out-of-context false information.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It makes political campaigns prohibitively expensive for smaller parties.
  • D.It results in decreased voter turnout among older demographics.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes political consultant Talha Rashid stating that Instagram's short-form format is a "double-edged sword" because "Short-form videos cherry-pick facts and are often out-of-context, enabling them to easily seed false information." This is identified as a key challenge, distinct from the other options which are not the primary focus of the analysis presented.

Source: Instagram Political Content Used by 37% Indians for News, Meta Recommends Content to 481M Users Amid AI Disinformation →
Q81.

The release of grants to gram panchayats, as mentioned in the news, is based on the recommendations of which constitutional body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Inter-State Council
  • D.Planning Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the release is "as recommended by the 16th Finance Commission." The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, the Inter-State Council addresses inter-state disputes, and the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog.

Source: Finance Commission Grants: ₹619.85 Cr 16th FC Instalment Released to Telangana Gram Panchayats for 2026-27 →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the panchayat grants released to Telangana:

1. The total release of ₹619.85 crore is the second instalment for the financial year 2026-27.

2. The tied grants component is larger than the untied grants component.

3. The State Government is required to provide matching grants equal to the Central allocation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states it is the "first instalment for the current financial year." Statement 2 is correct: Tied grants are ₹371.91 crore, untied are ₹247.94 crore. Statement 3 is correct: The article says "it is the responsibility of the State Government to provide matching grants equal to the Central allocation."

Source: Finance Commission Grants: ₹619.85 Cr 16th FC Instalment Released to Telangana Gram Panchayats for 2026-27 →
Q83.

What is the total allocation to Telangana under the recommendations of the 14th and 15th Finance Commissions, as mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹5,060 crore
  • B.₹9,050 crore
  • C.₹11,111 crore
  • D.₹14,110 crore✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The total allocation to the State under the 14th and 15th Finance Commissions stands at ₹14,110 crore." ₹5,060 crore was released under the 14th FC, ₹9,050 crore under the 15th FC, and ₹11,111 crore had been released before January 2026.

Source: Finance Commission Grants: ₹619.85 Cr 16th FC Instalment Released to Telangana Gram Panchayats for 2026-27 →
Q84.

As per the rules mentioned in the news, what is the primary consequence if a State Government delays the transfer of Central grants to Gram Panchayats?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Central grant is reduced proportionally.
  • B.The subsequent instalment is withheld.
  • C.The State must pay interest at SDL rates.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The funds are reallocated to other states.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies: "In the event of delays, State Governments are required to disburse the funds along with interest calculated at rates applicable to market borrowings or State Development Loans (SDLs)." The other options are not mentioned as consequences in the provided article.

Source: Finance Commission Grants: ₹619.85 Cr 16th FC Instalment Released to Telangana Gram Panchayats for 2026-27 →
Q85.

Which statutory body issued the directive for GPS tracking on sewage tankers in Badrinath?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
  • B.National Green Tribunal (NGT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Uttarakhand Jal Sansthan
  • D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Green Tribunal (NGT), chaired by Justice Prakash Shrivastava, issued the order on March 24, 2026. The NGT is a specialized judicial body for environmental cases.

Source: NGT Orders GPS Tracking for Sewage Tankers in Badrinath to Protect Alaknanda-Ganga System →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the NGT order on sewage management in Badrinath:

1. The NGT directed that septage tankers must be fitted with GPS for real-time monitoring.

2. The order was issued specifically to address pollution in the Bhagirathi river.

3. The Uttarakhand Pollution Control Board (UKPCB) is required to maintain constant vigilance, especially during the Char Dham pilgrimage season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the NGT explicitly said "these tankers should be fitted with GPS." Statement 2 is incorrect; the order addresses pollution in the Alaknanda river, a tributary of the Ganga, not the Bhagirathi. Statement 3 is correct as the NGT directed UKPCB to "maintain constant vigilance in respect of compliance of the environmental norms" during the pilgrimage season.

Source: NGT Orders GPS Tracking for Sewage Tankers in Badrinath to Protect Alaknanda-Ganga System →
Q87.

According to the article, what was the approximate number of visitors to the Char Dham Yatra in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 40 lakh visitors
  • B.Over 51 lakh visitors✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over 60 lakh visitors
  • D.Over 70 lakh visitors
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "In 2025, the yatra witnessed crossing 51 lakh visitors in 2025." The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Source: NGT Orders GPS Tracking for Sewage Tankers in Badrinath to Protect Alaknanda-Ganga System →
Q88.

What is the primary objective of the NGT's directive to install GPS on septage tankers in Badrinath?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To reduce the operational cost of sewage transportation
  • B.To introduce traceability and accountability in the movement of septage✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote the use of advanced technology in municipal services
  • D.To generate data for research on pilgrimage tourism patterns
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the GPS directive is "aimed at introducing traceability and accountability in the movement of septage" to ensure tankers discharge waste only at designated STPs and prevent illegal dumping. The other options are not the primary objectives mentioned.

Source: NGT Orders GPS Tracking for Sewage Tankers in Badrinath to Protect Alaknanda-Ganga System →
Q89.

Which high-level committee, chaired by the Prime Minister, met to address the economic and security challenges posed by the West Asia conflict as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
  • B.Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Security Council (NSC)
  • D.Council of Ministers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired a Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) meeting to direct departments to address problems arising from the war. The CCS is the apex body for national security and strategic affairs.

Source: India's Strategic Energy Response to US-Iran Conflict: Diversifying Sources, Nuclear Power Push, and Supply Chain Resilience →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the implications of the US-Iran conflict discussed in the article:

1. The energy shock triggered by the conflict is expected to dissipate immediately after hostilities cease.

2. The article suggests that India's progress in diversifying energy sources and partners is a sufficient response.

3. The Strait of Hormuz is highlighted as a key chokepoint for global energy security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the energy shock 'will take longer to dissipate' and oil prices will remain high for months. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article argues this effort 'must continue', implying it is not yet sufficient. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Strait of Hormuz and its control being 'key to what lies next'.

Source: India's Strategic Energy Response to US-Iran Conflict: Diversifying Sources, Nuclear Power Push, and Supply Chain Resilience →
Q91.

According to the article, on which date did US President Donald Trump order strikes on Iran, leading to the addressed conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.February 26
  • B.February 28✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 1
  • D.April 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the address was Trump's first 'since ordering strikes on Iran on February 28'. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Source: India's Strategic Energy Response to US-Iran Conflict: Diversifying Sources, Nuclear Power Push, and Supply Chain Resilience →
Q92.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for India needing to prepare its economy despite a potential short conflict timeline?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To immediately reduce all imports from the Gulf region.
  • B.To withstand the prolonged consequences of high oil prices and supply chain repair.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To launch a military mission to secure the Strait of Hormuz.
  • D.To sanction countries involved in the conflict.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that even if the war ends in 2-3 weeks, the energy shock will persist. Oil prices will remain high, and repairing infrastructure and renewing contracts will take months. Therefore, the economy must be prepared for these prolonged effects, not just the conflict itself.

Source: India's Strategic Energy Response to US-Iran Conflict: Diversifying Sources, Nuclear Power Push, and Supply Chain Resilience →
Q93.

Which ministry is responsible for the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act and its amendment, as per the news article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions B.L. Verma, the Minister of State for Social Justice and Empowerment, responding to a question in Parliament regarding the amendment. This ministry is the nodal agency for the welfare of transgender persons in India.

Source: Transgender Persons Act 2026 Amendment: Narrowed Definition & Self-ID Removal May Disrupt Healthcare Access →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 as discussed in the article:

1. The amendment removes the right to self-identification of gender for transgender persons.

2. It introduces a provision making 'compelling' someone to outwardly present a transgender identity a punishable offence.

3. The amendment has been universally welcomed by medical practitioners for providing legal clarity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the amendment removes the right to self-identification. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the amendment includes a section on offences related to 'compelling' outward presentation. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article details significant opposition from health practitioners (like IAAPS and Mariwala Health Initiative), who warn of adverse consequences.

Source: Transgender Persons Act 2026 Amendment: Narrowed Definition & Self-ID Removal May Disrupt Healthcare Access →
Q95.

According to the article, how many mental health practitioners had signed the statement condemning the Transgender Amendment Act by April 1, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 1000
  • B.1062✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1300
  • D.Over 1400
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the statement issued by the Mariwala Health Initiative, as of April 1, 2026, had been signed by 1062 mental health practitioners. The other numbers are close distractors: 'over 1300' refers to IAAPS specialists, and the others are not mentioned.

Source: Transgender Persons Act 2026 Amendment: Narrowed Definition & Self-ID Removal May Disrupt Healthcare Access →
Q96.

What is a primary concern expressed by health practitioners regarding the potential impact of the 2026 amendment on gender-affirmative care?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It will lead to an increase in government funding for transgender healthcare.
  • B.It will standardize treatment protocols across all hospitals in India.
  • C.It may create access barriers, pushing individuals towards unsafe procedures and increasing quackery.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It mandates compulsory psychiatric evaluation before any surgical intervention.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As quoted by Dr. Medha Bhave in the article, the fear of legal action may stop doctors from providing care. This creation of access barriers could force individuals to choose unsafe procedures, thereby increasing the risk of quackery. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Transgender Persons Act 2026 Amendment: Narrowed Definition & Self-ID Removal May Disrupt Healthcare Access →
Q97.

Which country acted as a mediator in the US-Iran negotiations mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Qatar
  • B.Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Saudi Arabia
  • D.United Arab Emirates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US and Iran were engaged in 'Oman-brokered negotiations' and that the Omani Foreign Minister, Al Busaidi, was involved. Oman has a history of neutral diplomacy in the region.

Source: West Asia Conflict Impacts India's LNG Supply, Fertiliser Prices Rise; US-Iran Talks Brokered by Oman in February →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical context discussed in the article:

1. The US-Israel attack on Iran occurred while negotiations brokered by Oman were reportedly making progress.

2. A primary objective for Israel, as stated by Netanyahu, is regime change in Iran to remove the Islamic Revolutionary Guards Corps from power.

3. The immediate economic impact on India is most severe in the Information Technology and pharmaceuticals sectors due to supply chain disruptions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions the attack happened when 'Oman-brokered negotiations' were underway with 'excellent progress'. Statement 2 is correct as the article quotes Netanyahu's dream of 'an Iran not ruled by the Revolutionary Guards'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article identifies fertilisers (due to LNG feedstock), the rupee, and industries like steel and cement as impacted, not IT and pharmaceuticals.

Source: West Asia Conflict Impacts India's LNG Supply, Fertiliser Prices Rise; US-Iran Talks Brokered by Oman in February →
Q99.

According to the article, on which date did the US-Israel attack on Iran take place?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.February 25, 2026
  • B.February 26, 2026
  • C.February 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.March 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The attacks launched on February 28 are completely illegal...'. February 25 and 26 are mentioned as dates when negotiations were progressing and the Omani Foreign Minister sensed trouble, respectively.

Source: West Asia Conflict Impacts India's LNG Supply, Fertiliser Prices Rise; US-Iran Talks Brokered by Oman in February →
Q100.

What is identified as the foremost direct economic impact of the West Asia conflict on India, as per the analysis in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A surge in software export revenues
  • B.Increased costs and scarcity of fertilisers due to LNG supply disruption✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Mass cancellation of tourist visas to Gulf countries
  • D.A sharp decline in foreign direct investment from the US
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'For India, the foremost impact is on fertilisers, which use LNG as a feedstock, with the sowing season beginning soon. Fertiliser prices will be higher.' The other options are not mentioned as primary impacts.

Source: West Asia Conflict Impacts India's LNG Supply, Fertiliser Prices Rise; US-Iran Talks Brokered by Oman in February →
Q101.

The news discusses a judgment related to the rights of transgender persons. Which landmark Supreme Court case first legally recognized transgender people as a 'third gender' and affirmed their right to self-identification?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Shayara Bano vs Union of India (Triple Talaq case)
  • B.Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (Right to Privacy case)
  • C.National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) vs Union of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Navtej Singh Johar vs Union of India (Section 377 case)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the '2014 NALSA judgment' as the case where the Supreme Court recognised the right to self-identify one's gender as an inviolable facet of dignity. This is the foundational case for transgender rights in India.

Source: Rajasthan High Court Deletes Epilogue Critiquing Transgender Persons Act Amendment as 'Mistake' in March 30, 2026 Judgment →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Rajasthan High Court ordered the deletion of the entire epilogue from its March 30, 2026 judgment.

2. The deleted portion of the epilogue had critiqued the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 for being too liberal.

3. The court stated the critical text was included in the epilogue 'by mistake' and was neither intended nor necessary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) 2 and 3 only
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court rejected discarding the whole epilogue; it only deleted specific paragraphs. Statement 2 is incorrect: The epilogue critiqued a proposed amendment for potentially diluting rights, not the original Act for being too liberal. Statement 3 is correct, as directly quoted from the article that the court said the text was included 'by mistake'.

Source: Rajasthan High Court Deletes Epilogue Critiquing Transgender Persons Act Amendment as 'Mistake' in March 30, 2026 Judgment →
Q103.

On which date did the Rajasthan High Court issue the order correcting its judgment by deleting portions of the epilogue?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 28, 2026
  • B.March 30, 2026
  • C.April 1, 2026
  • D.April 2, 2026✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the court said on April 2' and refers to 'The April 2, 2026 order'. March 30 is the date of the original judgment, making April 2 the correct date for the correction order.

Source: Rajasthan High Court Deletes Epilogue Critiquing Transgender Persons Act Amendment as 'Mistake' in March 30, 2026 Judgment →
Q104.

What was the primary constitutional principle that the Rajasthan High Court's original epilogue warned was at risk due to the proposed amendment to the transgender law?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of federalism and state autonomy
  • B.The principle of separation of powers between judiciary and legislature
  • C.The principle of self-identification of one's gender✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The principle of reservation for transgender persons in legislatures
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the epilogue warned that the amendment 'risked converting this right [self-identification] into a contingent, state-mediated entitlement'. It emphasised that self-identification was recognised by the Supreme Court as an inviolable facet of dignity, which the amendment threatened to depart from.

Source: Rajasthan High Court Deletes Epilogue Critiquing Transgender Persons Act Amendment as 'Mistake' in March 30, 2026 Judgment →
Q105.

Which High Court delivered the judgment revising its remarks on the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Madras High Court
  • C.Rajasthan High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Bombay High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Rajasthan High Court modified its judgment delivered on Monday and issued a clarificatory order on Thursday regarding the Transgender Amendment Act.

Source: Rajasthan HC Orders 3% Marks Weightage for Transgender Candidates, Strikes Down OBC Categorization →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High Court judgment:

1. The court struck down a state notification that placed all transgender persons in the OBC category.

2. The court, in its revised order, retained its criticism that the 2026 Amendment Act dilutes constitutional guarantees.

3. The court directed the state to grant a 3% reservation quota for transgender candidates in public employment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the court struck down the Rajasthan government's notification placing all transgender persons in the OBC category. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clearly states the court deleted its remarks criticizing the amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court ordered a 3% additional weightage in marks, not a 3% reservation quota.

Source: Rajasthan HC Orders 3% Marks Weightage for Transgender Candidates, Strikes Down OBC Categorization →
Q107.

What interim relief did the Rajasthan High Court direct for transgender candidates in public employment and education?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A 5% horizontal reservation quota
  • B.A 3% additional weightage in marks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Direct recruitment in all government posts
  • D.A 10% grace marks in qualifying exams
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bench 'directed the state government to grant a three per cent additional weightage in marks for transgender candidates across all reservation categories in public employment and educational institutions, until a comprehensive reservation policy is framed.'

Source: Rajasthan HC Orders 3% Marks Weightage for Transgender Candidates, Strikes Down OBC Categorization →
Q108.

What was the primary reason the Rajasthan High Court gave for striking down the state's notification placing all transgender persons in the OBC category?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It violated the federal structure of the Constitution.
  • B.It exceeded the financial capacity of the state.
  • C.It extinguished pre-existing reservation benefits for SC/ST transgender individuals.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It was not passed by the state legislature.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the court struck down the notification because 'placing all transgender persons into the OBC category effectively extinguished the pre-existing reservation benefits of transgender individuals born into SC or ST communities, forcing them to choose between their gender identity and their caste-based reservation benefit.'

Source: Rajasthan HC Orders 3% Marks Weightage for Transgender Candidates, Strikes Down OBC Categorization →
Q109.

Which Australian regulatory body is responsible for enforcing the social media ban for under-16s, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Australian Communications and Media Authority (ACMA)
  • B.The eSafety Commissioner✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Australian Competition and Consumer Commission (ACCC)
  • D.The Office of the Australian Information Commissioner (OAIC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the 'eSafety regulator' and 'eSafety report' in the context of investigating platforms and reporting on compliance. The eSafety Commissioner is Australia's independent regulator for online safety.

Source: Australia Enforces Social Media Ban For Under-16s, Fines Up To A$49.5 Mn For Platforms After Compliance Report Shows 30% Non-Adherence →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding Australia's social media ban for children:

1. It is the world's first ban on social media for people under 16 years of age.

2. The ban requires platforms to take 'reasonable steps' to prevent underage accounts, with fines up to A$49.5 million for non-compliance.

3. A compliance report found that over 50% of parents reported their under-16 child still had at least one social media account.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Australia's ban is 'the first such ban'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the 'reasonable steps' requirement and the fine of 'up to A$49.5 million'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article specifies the figure is 'nearly one-third' (approximately 30%), not over 50%.

Source: Australia Enforces Social Media Ban For Under-16s, Fines Up To A$49.5 Mn For Platforms After Compliance Report Shows 30% Non-Adherence →
Q111.

According to the Australian government's report in mid-January 2026, how many suspected underage social media accounts had been deactivated by platforms since the ban?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3.2 million
  • B.4.7 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5.1 million
  • D.6.8 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the government reported in mid-January that social media platforms had deactivated 4.7 million suspected underage accounts'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Australia Enforces Social Media Ban For Under-16s, Fines Up To A$49.5 Mn For Platforms After Compliance Report Shows 30% Non-Adherence →
Q112.

What is cited in the article as a key factor likely emboldening Australia to pursue stricter enforcement against social media platforms?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A surge in social media advertising revenue from the region.
  • B.Recent court verdicts in the United States holding tech firms liable for harms to young users.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A significant decrease in global interest from other countries.
  • D.Successful age-verification technology developed domestically.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that 'U.S. trial verdicts' against Meta and Google for safety lapses and designing harmful platforms have 'helped the court of public opinion' and are 'likely emboldening Australia to go after platforms'. This external legal pressure strengthens Australia's regulatory position.

Source: Australia Enforces Social Media Ban For Under-16s, Fines Up To A$49.5 Mn For Platforms After Compliance Report Shows 30% Non-Adherence →
Q113.

The Jharkhand High Court judgment on burn units links the state's obligation to provide healthcare to which fundamental right?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • B.Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25)
  • C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment explicitly states that the right to health under Article 21 is a positive mandate requiring the state to provide specialized medical infrastructure. The Supreme Court has repeatedly read the right to health into Article 21.

Source: Jharkhand HC Declares Burn Injuries a Public Health Crisis, Issues 120-day Deadline for Functional Burn Units Under Article 21 Mandate →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Jharkhand High Court's directions on burn care:

1. The court declared burn injuries as a significant public health crisis in India.

2. It directed the state to set up functional burn units in all district hospitals within 90 days.

3. The court ordered the constitution of a state monitoring committee headed by the Chief Secretary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the deadline for setting up units is 120 days, not 90 days (which is for staff training). Statement 3 is incorrect; the committee is to be headed by the Principal Secretary (Health), not the Chief Secretary.

Source: Jharkhand HC Declares Burn Injuries a Public Health Crisis, Issues 120-day Deadline for Functional Burn Units Under Article 21 Mandate →
Q115.

What is the time limit given by the Jharkhand High Court for the mandatory capacity-building of doctors, nurses, and paramedical staff in burn care?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.60 days
  • B.90 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.120 days
  • D.180 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states a 90-day deadline for mandatory capacity-building of medical staff. The 120-day deadline is specifically for setting up the fully functional burn units themselves.

Source: Jharkhand HC Declares Burn Injuries a Public Health Crisis, Issues 120-day Deadline for Functional Burn Units Under Article 21 Mandate →
Q116.

What was the primary systemic deficiency highlighted by the Jharkhand High Court in its judgment on burn injuries?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of funds for healthcare in the state budget.
  • B.Absence of specialized, time-sensitive medical infrastructure for burn trauma.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Corruption in the procurement of essential medicines.
  • D.Overcrowding in general hospitals due to non-communicable diseases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court observed that the proceedings brought to light a systemic deficiency in providing specialized, time-sensitive medical infrastructure for burn trauma, which it linked to the state's obligation under Article 21. While other options may be related issues, the core deficiency identified was the lack of specialized infrastructure.

Source: Jharkhand HC Declares Burn Injuries a Public Health Crisis, Issues 120-day Deadline for Functional Burn Units Under Article 21 Mandate →
Q117.

Which high-level bilateral commission was co-chaired by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar and Russia's First Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue
  • B.India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India-Russia Joint Commission on Military-Technical Cooperation
  • D.India-Russia Energy Security Working Group
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that various bilateral issues were deliberated at the India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), which was co-chaired by Mr. Manturov and Mr. Jaishankar.

Source: Russia Offers Increased Crude & LNG Supply Amid West Asia Crisis; India-Russia Trade Target $100 Billion by 2030 →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Russia has offered to increase supplies of crude oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG) to the Indian market.

2. The West Asia crisis has led to a complete stoppage of all oil supplies through the Strait of Hormuz.

3. India and Russia have a target to increase their annual bilateral trade to $100 billion by the year 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as confirmed by the Russian readout in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says Iran 'virtually blocked' the Strait of Hormuz, causing strain and disruptions, but not a 'complete stoppage of all oil supplies'. Statement 3 is correct as per the outcomes of the 23rd India-Russia Annual Summit mentioned in the article.

Source: Russia Offers Increased Crude & LNG Supply Amid West Asia Crisis; India-Russia Trade Target $100 Billion by 2030 →
Q119.

According to the analysis of data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry mentioned in the article, what was the value of crude oil India imported from Russia in January 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$1.2 billion
  • B.$1.6 billion
  • C.$1.98 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$2.5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'An analysis by The Hindu of data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry shows that India imported $1.98 billion worth of crude oil from Russia in January 2026.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Russia Offers Increased Crude & LNG Supply Amid West Asia Crisis; India-Russia Trade Target $100 Billion by 2030 →
Q120.

What is a primary strategic objective for India in accepting Russia's offer to increase energy supplies, as inferred from the context of the West Asia crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To completely replace all imports from the Middle East
  • B.To diversify its energy import basket and enhance energy security✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To lower domestic fuel prices immediately for consumers
  • D.To form a military alliance with Russia against Western sanctions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights the West Asia crisis driving volatility and supply disruptions. Accepting Russian offers helps India diversify its sources away from the volatile Strait of Hormuz route, which is a core component of energy security strategy. The other options are extreme or not supported by the article's content.

Source: Russia Offers Increased Crude & LNG Supply Amid West Asia Crisis; India-Russia Trade Target $100 Billion by 2030 →
Q121.

The three-language formula being implemented by CBSE is a key recommendation of which major national policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Policy on Education 1986
  • B.National Education Policy 2020✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Curriculum Framework 2005
  • D.Right to Education Act 2009
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the three-language formula is mandated under the new National Education Policy (NEP). While the three-language concept is older, its implementation from Class 6 as described is a direct mandate of NEP 2020.

Source: CBSE Mandates NEP's 3-Language Formula from Class 6, Introduces 2-Level Math & Science for Class 9 from 2026-27 →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the CBSE reforms announced for 2026-27:

1. The three-language formula will be implemented starting from Class 9.

2. In the two-level system for Mathematics, the marks from the advanced paper will be added to the student's overall aggregate.

3. The first Class 10 board examinations under the new two-level structure will be conducted in 2028.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The three-language formula starts from Class 6, not Class 9. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clearly states performance in the advanced paper will NOT be added to the overall aggregate. Statement 3 is correct: The two-level system begins in 2026-27 for Class 9, and the first board exams for Class 10 will be in 2028.

Source: CBSE Mandates NEP's 3-Language Formula from Class 6, Introduces 2-Level Math & Science for Class 9 from 2026-27 →
Q123.

According to the new CBSE structure, what is the duration and maximum marks for the optional advanced paper in Mathematics or Science?

EasySSC, Teaching
  • A.1 hour, 20 marks
  • B.1 hour, 25 marks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2 hours, 40 marks
  • D.3 hours, 80 marks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the advanced component consists of a separate 25-mark, one-hour paper. The 3-hour, 80-mark paper is for the standard mandatory exam. The other options are distractors based on these numbers.

Source: CBSE Mandates NEP's 3-Language Formula from Class 6, Introduces 2-Level Math & Science for Class 9 from 2026-27 →
Q124.

What is a primary objective behind introducing the two-level (Standard and Advanced) system for Mathematics and Science in CBSE schools?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.To reduce the total number of subjects a student has to study
  • B.To allow students to opt out of Science and Mathematics completely
  • C.To test higher-order thinking skills separately without affecting the aggregate score✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To replace the board examination system with internal assessment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the advanced paper is designed to test higher-order thinking skills and deeper conceptual understanding, and its score is reported separately, not added to the overall aggregate. This allows proficient students to demonstrate advanced skills without the risk of lowering their percentage if they perform poorly, and it does not disadvantage those taking only the standard level.

Source: CBSE Mandates NEP's 3-Language Formula from Class 6, Introduces 2-Level Math & Science for Class 9 from 2026-27 →
Q125.

Which constitutional body had earlier raised questions about the water availability calculations for the Yettinahole project?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Finance Commission
  • C.Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Central Water Commission (CWC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) questioned the VJNL's calculation of water availability for the Yettinahole project. The CAG is India's supreme audit institution under Article 148 of the Constitution.

Source: Yettinahole Water Project: ₹23,251 Cr, 24.01 TMCft Water Diversion to Supply 75 Lakh People in 7 Drought-Prone Karnataka Districts →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the Yettinahole Drinking Water Project:

1. It aims to divert 24.01 TMCft of water from streams in the Western Ghats during the monsoon.

2. The project was first approved by the Karnataka government in the year 2014.

3. As per recent rainfall data, the average water availability from the streams is 18 TMCft.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's design details. Statement 2 is incorrect; the project was approved in July 2012, not 2014 (2014 was a year of cost revision). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions rainfall data since 2017 projects an average availability of 18 TMCft.

Source: Yettinahole Water Project: ₹23,251 Cr, 24.01 TMCft Water Diversion to Supply 75 Lakh People in 7 Drought-Prone Karnataka Districts →
Q127.

According to the article, what is the cumulative expenditure on the Yettinahole project as of the end of February 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹8,323.5 crore
  • B.₹12,912.36 crore
  • C.₹18,205.55 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹23,251.66 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "As of the end of February 2026, the cumulative expenditure stood at ₹18,205.55 crore." The other options are distractors: ₹8,323.5 crore was the original 2012 estimate, ₹12,912.36 crore was the 2014 revised cost, and ₹23,251.66 crore is the latest 2023 revised estimate.

Source: Yettinahole Water Project: ₹23,251 Cr, 24.01 TMCft Water Diversion to Supply 75 Lakh People in 7 Drought-Prone Karnataka Districts →
Q128.

What is the primary stated purpose of the Yettinahole Drinking Water Project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Industrial water supply for new manufacturing zones
  • B.Irrigation for agricultural intensification
  • C.Drinking water supply and filling of tanks in drought-prone areas✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Hydropower generation and flood control
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core objective is stated as: "The project aims to provide drinking water and fill the tanks in the drought-prone districts..." and later reiterates, "This is primarily a drinking water project." While other benefits may occur, the primary purpose is drinking water and tank filling.

Source: Yettinahole Water Project: ₹23,251 Cr, 24.01 TMCft Water Diversion to Supply 75 Lakh People in 7 Drought-Prone Karnataka Districts →
Q129.

The 'Global Burden of Diseases, Injuries, and Risk Factors Study (GBD)' cited in the news is primarily coordinated by which institute?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Health Organization (WHO), Geneva
  • B.Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  • D.National Institutes of Health (NIH)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the analysis is from the Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) Study. The GBD is a flagship research program coordinated by the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME) at the University of Washington.

Source: Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) 2023: 94% Childhood Cancer Deaths in LMICs; India (17,000) & China (16,000) Top →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Lancet study on childhood cancer:

1. Childhood cancer was the eighth leading cause of childhood deaths globally in 2023.

2. The study estimated that 85% of new childhood cancer cases occurred in high-income countries.

3. In nations with a low-middle sociodemographic index, childhood cancer was the eleventh highest contributor to global cancer deaths across all ages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states 85% of new cases occurred in Low and Middle-Income Countries (LMICs), not high-income countries. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned for nations like India. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) 2023: 94% Childhood Cancer Deaths in LMICs; India (17,000) & China (16,000) Top →
Q131.

According to the GBD 2023 analysis cited in the article, approximately how many new cases of childhood cancer were estimated worldwide in 2023?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.244,000
  • B.377,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.410,000
  • D.288,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The analysis of data from the Global Burden of Diseases... also estimated 377,000 new cases of childhood cancer worldwide in 2023." The other options are plausible distractors but incorrect.

Source: Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) 2023: 94% Childhood Cancer Deaths in LMICs; India (17,000) & China (16,000) Top →
Q132.

What is the primary implication highlighted by the study regarding childhood cancer burden in Low and Middle-Income Countries (LMICs)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Genetic factors are the main cause of higher incidence in LMICs.
  • B.The burden is disproportionately high due to healthcare system limitations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Vaccination programs in LMICs have successfully reduced cancer rates.
  • D.Climate change is directly increasing cancer cases in these regions.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that disparities in burden are due to "delays in diagnosis, lack of access to essential cancer treatment, and other health system limitations" in LMICs, not primarily genetics, vaccinations, or climate change.

Source: Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) 2023: 94% Childhood Cancer Deaths in LMICs; India (17,000) & China (16,000) Top →
Q133.

The Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) functions under which government department?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Science and Technology
  • B.Department of Biotechnology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
  • D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, BIRAC functions under the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India. It is a key agency for promoting innovation and entrepreneurship in the biotechnology sector.

Source: BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre Launched at CSIR-CFTRI in Mysuru to Support 26 Start-ups in Food Biotechnology and Bioprocessing →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre at CFTRI has supported 26 start-ups, which have collectively filed 12 patents.

2. The incubation centre focuses only on traditional food processing technologies and not on advanced biotech domains.

3. A hostel facility for training participants is being built with funding from the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states start-ups are working in cutting-edge domains like CRISPR and precision fermentation. Statement 3 is correct as the hostel project is under RKVY.

Source: BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre Launched at CSIR-CFTRI in Mysuru to Support 26 Start-ups in Food Biotechnology and Bioprocessing →
Q135.

How many patents have been filed so far by the companies incubated at the CSIR-CFTRI incubation ecosystem, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.8
  • B.10
  • C.12✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Significantly, the incubated companies have filed 12 patents so far.' This is a precise data point relevant for factual recall in preliminary exams.

Source: BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre Launched at CSIR-CFTRI in Mysuru to Support 26 Start-ups in Food Biotechnology and Bioprocessing →
Q136.

What is the primary objective of establishing the BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre at CFTRI, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide direct financial grants to farmers for purchasing equipment.
  • B.To nurture entrepreneurial talent in food bioprocessing and biotechnology research.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace existing agricultural universities with new research centres.
  • D.To exclusively export processed food products developed by CSIR.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'BIRAC-BioNEST has been developed to nurture entrepreneurial talent in food bioprocessing and biotechnology research.' The other options are either not mentioned or are misinterpretations of the centre's supportive, not replacement or exclusive, role.

Source: BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre Launched at CSIR-CFTRI in Mysuru to Support 26 Start-ups in Food Biotechnology and Bioprocessing →
Q137.

Which organization, mentioned in the article, has been involved in India's nuclear-powered submarine project alongside private firms?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
  • D.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's nuclear-powered submarine project involved both private firms and the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), with help from Russia.

Source: INS Aridhaman (7,000 Tonne) Inducted with 8 K-4 SLBM Capacity, Bolstering India's Nuclear Triad →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding INS Aridhaman:

1. It is India's second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN).

2. It is equipped with vertical launch tubes capable of carrying K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missiles.

3. It has a displacement of 7,000 tonnes, which is larger than its predecessor INS Arihant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: INS Aridhaman is the third SSBN, after INS Arihant and INS Arighaat. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions it is equipped with eight vertical launch tubes for missiles like the K-4. Statement 3 is correct: It is described as a 7,000-tonne vessel, larger than its predecessors.

Source: INS Aridhaman (7,000 Tonne) Inducted with 8 K-4 SLBM Capacity, Bolstering India's Nuclear Triad →
Q139.

As per the article, what is the range of the K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM) that INS Aridhaman can carry?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.750 km
  • B.1,500 km
  • C.3,500 km✓ Correct Answer
  • D.5,000 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the longer-range K-4 nuclear-capable SLBMs can hit targets 3,500 km away. The 750 km range is for the K-15 missiles.

Source: INS Aridhaman (7,000 Tonne) Inducted with 8 K-4 SLBM Capacity, Bolstering India's Nuclear Triad →
Q140.

What is the primary strategic significance of inducting SSBNs like INS Aridhaman into India's naval fleet, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To enhance coastal surveillance and anti-piracy operations.
  • B.To guarantee India's second-strike capability as part of its nuclear triad.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace ageing conventional diesel-electric submarines for cost savings.
  • D.To project power for diplomatic visits and joint naval exercises.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that SSBNs guarantee India's second-strike capability. Should an adversary deliver a first nuclear strike on India's land and air bases, an SSBN can launch a retaliatory nuclear attack, which is central to India's 'no first use' deterrence doctrine.

Source: INS Aridhaman (7,000 Tonne) Inducted with 8 K-4 SLBM Capacity, Bolstering India's Nuclear Triad →
Q141.

Which government think tank released the Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) report cited in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Planning Commission
  • C.Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • D.World Bank
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'NITI Aayog’s Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) report of 2019'. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, which replaced the Planning Commission.

Source: India Faces Water Scarcity Crisis with 1,000 m3 Per Capita by 2050, Jal Jeevan Mission Targets Universal Access Amidst Gender Disparities →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the water crisis in India:

1. According to the article, India holds 18% of the world’s population but only 4% of its freshwater resources.

2. The NITI Aayog's Composite Water Management Index report states that over 95% of Indian households now have access to functional tap water connections.

3. The World Bank defines water scarcity as a situation when annual per capita water availability drops below 1,000 cubic metres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the first line of the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 'almost 95 per cent of Indian households have access to basic drinking water' but clarifies that tap water connections do not automatically mean the water is functional or used for drinking. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the World Bank's definition of water scarcity.

Source: India Faces Water Scarcity Crisis with 1,000 m3 Per Capita by 2050, Jal Jeevan Mission Targets Universal Access Amidst Gender Disparities →
Q143.

According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) data mentioned in the article, what percentage of rural households in India have women aged 15 and above responsible for water collection?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 54%
  • B.Approximately 71%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Approximately 80%
  • D.Approximately 92%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) data, women aged 15 and above are responsible for water collection in around 71 per cent of rural households in India.' The other figures are distractors: 54% is the percentage of rural women spending 35 minutes daily (UNICEF), 80% was access in early 2000s, and 92% is current rural access to basic drinking water.

Source: India Faces Water Scarcity Crisis with 1,000 m3 Per Capita by 2050, Jal Jeevan Mission Targets Universal Access Amidst Gender Disparities →
Q144.

What is a primary reason highlighted in the article for the need for gender-responsive water governance in India?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase the efficiency of large irrigation projects for cash crops like sugarcane.
  • B.To address the invisibility of women as passive victims and recognize their role as active agents in water management.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the financial cost of implementing schemes like the Jal Jeevan Mission.
  • D.To centralize decision-making under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for faster implementation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that narratives around water scarcity often see women 'as invisible or passive victims, whose primary role is to fetch water,' which hides their importance as farmers and managers. It calls for policies that 'incorporate women’s knowledge, experiences, and leadership.' The other options, while related to water governance, are not the primary gendered reason emphasized in the article's analysis.

Source: India Faces Water Scarcity Crisis with 1,000 m3 Per Capita by 2050, Jal Jeevan Mission Targets Universal Access Amidst Gender Disparities →
Q145.

Which institution in India is formally responsible for setting and achieving the inflation target?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.NITI Aayog
  • C.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Securities and Exchange Board of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'Indian policymakers (read Reserve Bank of India)' in the context of aiming for a 4% inflation rate. The RBI, under the Monetary Policy Framework, is the nodal body for inflation targeting in India.

Source: RBI's 4% Inflation Target at Risk: Crude at $141/Barrel & El Niño Threaten FY27 Price Stability →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding India's inflation scenario as discussed in the article:

1. The RBI's comfort zone for inflation ranges between 2% to 6%.

2. A moderate El Niño effect, combined with crude oil prices at $100 per barrel, would likely keep India's inflation within the RBI's comfort zone.

3. The article states that India's inflation rate was close to 6% at the end of the financial year 2025-26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The RBI’s comfort zone ranges between 2% to 6% of inflation'. Statement 2 is correct as inferred from the HSBC table analysis: 'with a moderate El Niño effect, inflation in India will stay within the RBI’s comfort zone... even if crude oil prices stay close to $100 a barrel'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states inflation was 'closer to 2%' at the end of 2025-26, not 6%.

Source: RBI's 4% Inflation Target at Risk: Crude at $141/Barrel & El Niño Threaten FY27 Price Stability →
Q147.

According to the article, what was the spot price of Brent crude oil reported following the US President's speech in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Close to $110 per barrel
  • B.Over $141 per barrel✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Around $90 per barrel
  • D.Approximately $100 per barrel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'following his speech, Brent crude oil prices for future contracts... shot up to almost $110 per barrel. The spot prices reportedly skyrocketed to over $141 per barrel'. The key data point for spot price is 'over $141 per barrel'.

Source: RBI's 4% Inflation Target at Risk: Crude at $141/Barrel & El Niño Threaten FY27 Price Stability →
Q148.

As per the analysis in the article, what is the primary implication if India's inflation rate moves from the RBI's 'green zone' to the 'red zone'?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.The government will increase fiscal stimulus.
  • B.The chances of the RBI raising interest rates go up.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The RBI will directly intervene in the foreign exchange market.
  • D.The Finance Ministry will announce new subsidies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'As the inflation rate moves from the green zone to the red zone, the chances of RBI raising interest rates go up.' The 'green zone' refers to inflation within the RBI's comfort zone (2-6%), and the 'red zone' refers to inflation breaching the upper limit of 6%.

Source: RBI's 4% Inflation Target at Risk: Crude at $141/Barrel & El Niño Threaten FY27 Price Stability →
Q149.

Under which section of the UGC Act, 1956, can an institution be declared a 'deemed to be university'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 12
  • B.Section 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 22
  • D.Section 25
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Education declared NCERT a deemed university under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956. This section empowers the Central Government, on the advice of the UGC, to declare institutions of excellence as deemed universities.

Source: India Joins 60 Nations Calling to Open Strait of Hormuz, Defence Exports Hit ₹38,424 Cr Record →
Q150.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. According to UNCLOS, coastal states like Iran and Oman can suspend transit passage through international straits for security reasons.

2. India's defence exports in FY 2025-26 saw a higher percentage growth contribution from Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) compared to the private sector.

3. The Lancet Global Burden of Disease (GBD) 2023 study found that childhood cancer is the eighth leading cause of death among children globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. UNCLOS Article 44 states coastal states 'shall not hamper' or suspend transit passage. Statement 2 is correct; DPSUs' exports surged by 151%, while private firms grew by 14%. Statement 3 is correct; the article states childhood cancers were the eighth leading cause of death globally.

Source: India Joins 60 Nations Calling to Open Strait of Hormuz, Defence Exports Hit ₹38,424 Cr Record →
Q151.

What was the approximate value of India's defence exports in the Financial Year 2025-26, as reported in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹23,622 crore
  • B.₹30,000 crore
  • C.₹38,424 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹45,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's defence exports reached a record Rs 38,424 crore in FY 2025-26. ₹23,622 crore was the previous year's figure. The other options are close distractors.

Source: India Joins 60 Nations Calling to Open Strait of Hormuz, Defence Exports Hit ₹38,424 Cr Record →
Q152.

What is the primary legal principle invoked by India and other nations regarding the closure of the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Right of innocent passage
  • B.Freedom of navigation and unimpeded transit✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Sovereign right over territorial waters
  • D.Right to collect tolls for passage
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri underlined the principles of 'freedom of navigation' and 'unimpeded transit' at the UK-convened meeting. This is grounded in UNCLOS provisions for international straits. While 'right of innocent passage' applies to territorial seas, 'transit passage' is the specific right for straits used for international navigation.

Source: India Joins 60 Nations Calling to Open Strait of Hormuz, Defence Exports Hit ₹38,424 Cr Record →
Q153.

Which United Nations agency, mentioned in the article, is the global maritime regulator pushing for a safe corridor in the Persian Gulf?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Labour Organization (ILO)
  • B.International Maritime Organization (IMO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
  • D.World Health Organization (WHO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the International Maritime Organization (IMO) is the UN's global maritime regulator and is pushing for a safe maritime corridor. The IMO is responsible for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine pollution.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 20,000 Seafarers Stranded, 1/5 Global Oil Flow Blocked as IMO Proposes Safe Corridor →
Q154.

Consider the following statements regarding the maritime crisis in the Strait of Hormuz as per the article:

1. The stranding of nearly 20,000 seafarers is the first such incident of its scale in a war zone since World War II.

2. The Strait of Hormuz carries approximately half of the world's oil and natural gas supplies during peacetime.

3. The International Seafarers' Welfare and Assistance Network reported that sailors are reaching out through a 24-hour helpline expressing distress.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states this is the first time since WWII that so many sailors are stuck in a war zone. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says the strait carries one-fifth (1/5), not half, of the world's oil and gas. Statement 3 is correct: Simon Grainge of the International Seafarers' Welfare and Assistance Network confirmed this to The New York Times.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 20,000 Seafarers Stranded, 1/5 Global Oil Flow Blocked as IMO Proposes Safe Corridor →
Q155.

According to the article, what has been the approximate surge in Brent crude oil prices since the war began on February 28?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 25%
  • B.Over 50%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over 75%
  • D.Over 100%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'Brent crude has surged 50%+ since the war began' on February 28. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors given the context of a major supply shock.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 20,000 Seafarers Stranded, 1/5 Global Oil Flow Blocked as IMO Proposes Safe Corridor →
Q156.

What is the primary strategic significance of Iran restricting the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It protects Iran's exclusive fishing rights in the Persian Gulf.
  • B.It serves as a form of economic warfare by choking a critical global energy chokepoint.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is a tactical move to enhance Iran's naval exercises in the region.
  • D.It aims to divert commercial traffic to the Suez Canal route.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article frames the crisis within the context of 'Economic Warfare' and states that Iran's control of the strait has 'roiled stock markets, sent oil prices skyrocketing, and threatened to raise the cost of basic goods'. This directly points to using the chokepoint for economic and strategic leverage.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 20,000 Seafarers Stranded, 1/5 Global Oil Flow Blocked as IMO Proposes Safe Corridor →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 3 April 2026?▼

This page contains 156 current affairs questions from 3 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 3 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which Article of the Constitution is the superintendence…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the …
  3. Q3. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court clarify the limit…
  4. Q4. is the primary constitutional principle highlighted by the con…
  5. Q5. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, was pilo…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (A…
  7. Q7. According to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2…
  8. Q8. is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Prov…
  9. Q9. The right to be considered for promotion as a fundamental righ…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the right to promo…
  11. Q11. In the recent Punjab and Haryana High Court case mentioned, wh…
  12. Q12. is the primary legal remedy courts have used to address the vi…
  13. Q13. regulatory body granted the final approval for Emirates NBD to…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI approval f…
  15. Q15. For what approximate deal value did Emirates NBD express inter…
  16. Q16. is a key regulatory implication for RBL Bank following the RBI…
  17. Q17. ministry presided over the commissioning ceremony of INS Aridh…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. INS …
  19. Q19. is the estimated outlay of the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV…
  20. Q20. is the primary strategic significance of inducting INS Aridham…
  21. Q21. quasi-judicial body is the adjudicating authority for corporat…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and…
  23. Q23. According to the article, what was the total amount recovered …
  24. Q24. is a key rationale, as per the Select Committee, for disallowi…
  25. Q25. international convention, mentioned in the article, provides f…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding locations in the n…
  27. Q27. According to the article, what approximate percentage of globa…
  28. Q28. is the primary strategic significance of Iran's blockade of th…
  29. Q29. The INS Aridhaman submarine, as part of India's strategic weap…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding INS Aridhaman: 1.…
  31. Q31. As per the news, what is the approximate range of the K-4 subm…
  32. Q32. is the primary strategic significance of commissioning INS Ari…
  33. Q33. CoBRA, the elite force mentioned as leading camp establishment…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the fall of the Ma…
  35. Q35. For approximately how many years did the Maoists control their…
  36. Q36. was the primary strategic objective of establishing Forward Op…
  37. Q37. parliamentary committee examined the Insolvency and Bankruptcy…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and…
  39. Q39. As of December 2025, what was the approximate amount recovered…
  40. Q40. is a key rationale, as per the Select Committee, for disallowi…
  41. Q41. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, …
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
  43. Q43. According to the article, within how many days was the Transge…
  44. Q44. A major criticism of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Ri…
  45. Q45. expert body, mentioned in the article, is responsible for reco…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
  47. Q47. According to the article, what is the approximate annual cost …
  48. Q48. is identified as a major institutional bottleneck hindering cr…
  49. Q49. The enforcement of foreign arbitral awards in India is primari…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  51. Q51. was the approximate amount of damages awarded by the Singapore…
  52. Q52. is the primary significance of the Supreme Court narrowing the…
  53. Q53. state department issued the guidelines mandating hospitals to …
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnata…
  55. Q55. is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for doctors who…
  56. Q56. is the primary objective of the Karnataka government's mandate…
  57. Q57. The PLI Scheme for Pharmaceuticals, mentioned in the article, …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff anno…
  59. Q59. According to the article, what was the value of India's pharma…
  60. Q60. is the primary strategic objective behind the US imposing tari…
  61. Q61. According to the article, which bank's research arm estimated …
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the …
  63. Q63. According to SBI Research estimates mentioned in the article, …
  64. Q64. is identified in the article as the primary transmission chann…
  65. Q65. organization is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmeda…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  67. Q67. According to the news, how much viaduct construction has been …
  68. Q68. is a primary advantage of using the New Austrian Tunnelling Me…
  69. Q69. U.S. legislative body's approval is mandated by Section 1250A …
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. and NATO …
  71. Q71. According to the article, for how many years has the U.S. been…
  72. Q72. is identified as the primary global implication of a potential…
  73. Q73. international organization is responsible for monitoring Iran'…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding Iran's nuclear cap…
  75. Q75. According to the article, approximately how much uranium enric…
  76. Q76. is a primary strategic implication of Iran's potential ability…
  77. Q77. constitutional body is primarily responsible for administering…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the use of social …
  79. Q79. As per the article, what percentage of Indians now turn to Ins…
  80. Q80. is identified in the article as a primary challenge arising fr…
  81. Q81. The release of grants to gram panchayats, as mentioned in the …
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the panchayat gran…
  83. Q83. is the total allocation to Telangana under the recommendations…
  84. Q84. As per the rules mentioned in the news, what is the primary co…
  85. Q85. statutory body issued the directive for GPS tracking on sewage…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the NGT order on s…
  87. Q87. According to the article, what was the approximate number of v…
  88. Q88. is the primary objective of the NGT's directive to install GPS…
  89. Q89. high-level committee, chaired by the Prime Minister, met to ad…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the implications o…
  91. Q91. According to the article, on which date did US President Donal…
  92. Q92. is the primary reason cited in the article for India needing t…
  93. Q93. ministry is responsible for the Transgender Persons (Protectio…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
  95. Q95. According to the article, how many mental health practitioners…
  96. Q96. is a primary concern expressed by health practitioners regardi…
  97. Q97. country acted as a mediator in the US-Iran negotiations mentio…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical c…
  99. Q99. According to the article, on which date did the US-Israel atta…
  100. Q100. is identified as the foremost direct economic impact of the We…
  101. Q101. The news discusses a judgment related to the rights of transge…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  103. Q103. On which date did the Rajasthan High Court issue the order cor…
  104. Q104. was the primary constitutional principle that the Rajasthan Hi…
  105. Q105. High Court delivered the judgment revising its remarks on the …
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High…
  107. Q107. interim relief did the Rajasthan High Court direct for transge…
  108. Q108. was the primary reason the Rajasthan High Court gave for strik…
  109. Q109. Australian regulatory body is responsible for enforcing the so…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Australia's social…
  111. Q111. According to the Australian government's report in mid-January…
  112. Q112. is cited in the article as a key factor likely emboldening Aus…
  113. Q113. The Jharkhand High Court judgment on burn units links the stat…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Jharkhand High…
  115. Q115. is the time limit given by the Jharkhand High Court for the ma…
  116. Q116. was the primary systemic deficiency highlighted by the Jharkha…
  117. Q117. high-level bilateral commission was co-chaired by External Aff…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Russ…
  119. Q119. According to the analysis of data from the Ministry of Commerc…
  120. Q120. is a primary strategic objective for India in accepting Russia…
  121. Q121. The three-language formula being implemented by CBSE is a key …
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the CBSE reforms a…
  123. Q123. According to the new CBSE structure, what is the duration and …
  124. Q124. is a primary objective behind introducing the two-level (Stand…
  125. Q125. constitutional body had earlier raised questions about the wat…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Yettinahole Dr…
  127. Q127. According to the article, what is the cumulative expenditure o…
  128. Q128. is the primary stated purpose of the Yettinahole Drinking Wate…
  129. Q129. The 'Global Burden of Diseases, Injuries, and Risk Factors Stu…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
  131. Q131. According to the GBD 2023 analysis cited in the article, appro…
  132. Q132. is the primary implication highlighted by the study regarding …
  133. Q133. The Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  135. Q135. many patents have been filed so far by the companies incubated…
  136. Q136. is the primary objective of establishing the BIRAC-BioNEST Inc…
  137. Q137. organization, mentioned in the article, has been involved in I…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding INS Aridhaman: 1.…
  139. Q139. As per the article, what is the range of the K-4 submarine-lau…
  140. Q140. is the primary strategic significance of inducting SSBNs like …
  141. Q141. government think tank released the Composite Water Management …
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the water crisis i…
  143. Q143. According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) data m…
  144. Q144. is a primary reason highlighted in the article for the need fo…
  145. Q145. institution in India is formally responsible for setting and a…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding India's inflation …
  147. Q147. According to the article, what was the spot price of Brent cru…
  148. Q148. As per the analysis in the article, what is the primary implic…
  149. Q149. Under which section of the UGC Act, 1956, can an institution b…
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Acco…
  151. Q151. was the approximate value of India's defence exports in the Fi…
  152. Q152. is the primary legal principle invoked by India and other nati…
  153. Q153. United Nations agency, mentioned in the article, is the global…
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the maritime crisi…
  155. Q155. According to the article, what has been the approximate surge …
  156. Q156. is the primary strategic significance of Iran restricting the …