30 March 2026, Questions & Answers
176 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 176 current affairs questions with answers from 30 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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176 QsThe National Green Hydrogen Mission, mentioned in the context of transitioning urea production, falls under the purview of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The National Green Hydrogen Mission is spearheaded by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). While the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is a key consumer sector, the mission's coordination and overall implementation are led by MNRE.
Consider the following statements regarding urea production and consumption in India:
1. Over 80 per cent of domestic urea is produced using imported natural gas.
2. Urea accounts for nearly 80 per cent of all nitrogenous fertilisers consumed in India.
3. The study cited in the article projects that the levelised cost of green urea will be lower than that of grey urea only after the year 2050.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Over 80 per cent of domestic urea is produced using imported natural gas.' Statement 2 is correct: 'Urea accounts for... nearly 80 per cent of all nitrogenous fertilisers.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states green urea is projected to be 20% cheaper by 2030, not only after 2050.
According to the article, what was the urea subsidy amount for the financial year 2022-23?
- A.Less than ₹500 crore
- B.₹1.65 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹20,000 crore
- D.₹1 trillion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The urea subsidy has ballooned from less than Rs 500 crore in 1980-81 to Rs 1.65 lakh crore in 2022–23.' ₹20,000 crore is the budget for CCUS, and ₹1 trillion is the estimated cumulative benefit over 25 years.
What is the primary objective proposed by the article for redirecting the National Green Hydrogen Mission and the Carbon Capture budget?
- A.To boost exports of green ammonia to global markets
- B.To transition the domestic urea manufacturing sector towards green hydrogen and CCUS✓ Correct Answer
- C.To fund research in non-urea fertilisers for organic farming
- D.To provide direct subsidies to farmers for reducing urea consumption
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Explanation
The article argues that the National Green Hydrogen Mission should shift focus 'towards green urea' and the CCUS programme should 'prioritise the supply of CO2 to urea plants.' The core objective is to use these existing programmes to decarbonise and secure the domestic urea sector.
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) is an environmental treaty falling under the auspices of which United Nations body?
- A.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- B.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- D.United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
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Explanation
The CMS, signed in 1979, is a legally binding global treaty established under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Its secretariat is administered by UNEP, which supports its implementation and the work of the Conference of the Parties.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The WTO's 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) was held in Yaounde, Cameroon, and was chaired by its Minister of Trade.
2. The Supreme Court held that a person converting to Sikhism cannot claim Scheduled Caste status, reiterating the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.
3. India's strategic petroleum reserves, with a total capacity of 5.33 million tonnes, can cover approximately 9.5 days of the country's crude oil needs when full.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as MC14 was held in Yaounde, Cameroon, chaired by Luc Magloire Mbarga Atangana, the Trade Minister. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC ruling specifically pertained to conversion to Christianity, not Sikhism. The 1950 Order includes Sikhs. Statement 3 is correct as per the data on SPR capacity and coverage provided in the article.
As per India's new climate targets for 2035 announced in the news, what is the targeted percentage for the share of non-fossil fuel sources in total electricity generation capacity?
- A.45%
- B.50%
- C.55%
- D.60%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
India has promised to ensure that at least 60 per cent of its total electricity generation capacity would comprise non-fossil fuel sources by 2035. This is an upgrade from the existing 2030 target of 50%, which has already been achieved.
What is a primary implication of the Supreme Court's recent ruling regarding conversion and Scheduled Caste status, as discussed in the news?
- A.It expands the definition of Scheduled Castes to include all religious communities.
- B.It severs the legal identity and protections of SC status from individuals who convert to Christianity.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates the creation of a new panel to review the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.
- D.It allows states to make independent laws granting SC status to converts.
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Explanation
The ruling reinforces that the legal identity as a Scheduled Caste is tied to professing Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism as per the 1950 Order. Therefore, conversion to Christianity ends the social membership to the community and, consequently, the associated legal protections and benefits.
Which institution has directed banks to limit their net open forex exposure to $100 million?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution responsible for monetary policy and regulating the banking system. As per the article, it is the RBI that issued the directive to limit banks' forex exposure.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's recent measure to stem the rupee's slide:
1. The RBI has capped banks' net open foreign exchange exposure at $100 million per day.
2. This measure is expected to provide a permanent solution to the rupee's depreciation.
3. The directive requires banks to comply by April 10, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the RBI capped exposure at $100 million. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the measure is 'only expected to provide temporary relief'. Statement 3 is correct as banks must comply by April 10. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, to what level had the Indian rupee depreciated against the dollar, marking a historic low?
- A.92.81 per dollar
- B.93.59 per dollar
- C.94.81 per dollar✓ Correct Answer
- D.95.00 per dollar
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Explanation
The article states the Indian rupee recently hit historic lows of 94.81 against the dollar. The other options are distractors: 93.59 was the rate after the RBI announcement, and 95 is mentioned as a level it is precariously close to.
What is a primary concern for banks regarding the RBI's new $100 million forex exposure cap?
- A.It will permanently increase their lending capacity.
- B.It may lead to mark-to-market losses if positions are unwound at unfavorable rates.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will automatically strengthen the rupee in offshore markets.
- D.It simplifies their compliance reporting to the RBI.
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Explanation
The article clearly states banks are worried that rapid unwinding of positions to meet the new cap could force them to sell dollars at unfavorable exchange rates, incurring mark-to-market losses. This is a direct financial implication highlighted in the 'Why banks are worried' section.
Which regulatory body is responsible for implementing and regulating the processes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- C.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
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Explanation
The IBBI is the statutory body established under the IBC to oversee and regulate insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies, and information utilities. NCLT is the adjudicating authority, while RBI and SEBI are financial sector regulators.
Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC):
1. Its primary objective, as reiterated by the Finance Minister, is the rescue of viable businesses and not merely debt recovery.
2. As of December 2025, the total amount recovered by creditors through the IBC process exceeded ₹5 lakh crore.
3. The IBC process realises more than 170% of the liquidation value of a company at the time of admission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the recovery was ₹4.11 lakh crore, not exceeding ₹5 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct; the realisation is 171.54% of the liquidation value. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news, what was the total amount recovered by creditors through the IBC process as of December 2025?
- A.₹3.50 lakh crore
- B.₹4.11 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹14.62 lakh crore
- D.₹5.00 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that as of December 2025, the IBC has enabled creditors to recover ₹4.11 lakh crore. ₹14.62 lakh crore is the value of defaults addressed in pre-IBC settlements, making it a key distractor.
What is the key feature introduced by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Amendment) Bill 2026, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Introduction of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) for insolvency proceedings
- B.Provision for strict timelines and a framework for cross-border insolvency✓ Correct Answer
- C.Complete abolition of the liquidation process under IBC
- D.Transfer of all insolvency powers to the Reserve Bank of India
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Explanation
The article states that the Bill passed by Lok Sabha provides for strict timelines, an out-of-court settlement option, and enables the framework for cross-border insolvency processes. The other options are not mentioned or inferred from the content.
The WTO's fourteenth Ministerial Conference (MC14) was chaired by the Trade Minister of which country?
- A.Cameroon✓ Correct Answer
- B.Nigeria
- C.Kenya
- D.South Africa
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Explanation
The article states that Cameroon's Minister of Trade, Luc Magloire Mbarga Atangana, was the Chair of MC14. The conference was held in Yaounde, Cameroon.
Consider the following statements regarding the WTO e-commerce duty moratorium:
1. It was first agreed upon in 1998 and has been extended biennially since then.
2. Its expiry means countries can now impose tariffs on electronic transmissions like digital downloads.
3. The moratorium's lapse also automatically extends the safeguard against non-violation complaints under the TRIPS Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct; the expiry opens the door to imposing tariffs. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states the lapse of the e-commerce moratorium led to the expiry of the TRIPS safeguard, not its extension.
According to the Think Tank GTRI mentioned in the article, what is the estimated annual tariff revenue loss for India due to the e-commerce duty moratorium?
- A.About $100 million
- B.About $250 million
- C.About $500 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.About $1 billion
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that for India, the potential tariff revenue loss could exceed $500 million each year.
What is a primary reason cited by developing countries like India for opposing the permanent extension of the WTO e-commerce duty moratorium?
- A.To protect domestic manufacturing of physical media like CDs and DVDs.
- B.To lock in revenue losses and limit policy space in a rapidly growing digital economy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To encourage foreign direct investment in their technology sectors.
- D.To comply with the demands of their domestic agricultural lobbies.
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Explanation
The article states that developing countries argued a permanent extension would 'lock in revenue losses and limit policy space in a rapidly growing digital economy.' This is the core policy concern highlighted.
Under which Ministry does the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India function?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article mentions the Registrar General and Census Commissioner addressed the press conference regarding Census 2027. The Census is a Union subject under the Ministry of Home Affairs, which oversees the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI).
Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027:
1. The self-enumeration for Census 2027 began on April 1, 2026.
2. The caste enumeration will be conducted during the first phase, known as the Houselisting and Housing Census.
3. The reference date for the Census for snow-bound areas like Ladakh is October 1, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: self-enumeration started on April 1, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states caste enumeration will be in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not the first. Statement 3 is correct; the reference date for snow-bound areas is October 1, 2026. Hence, option C is correct.
As per the news, by when is the first phase (Houselisting) of Census 2027 scheduled to be completed?
- A.Within 15 days between April and May 2026
- B.Within 30 days between April and September 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.By December 31, 2026
- D.By March 31, 2027
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The first phase is scheduled to be completed within a 30-day window between April and September 2026." The other options are distractors not mentioned in the provided content.
What is the primary significance of conducting caste enumeration in Census 2027, as inferred from the news?
- A.To update the National Population Register (NPR) with caste details
- B.To create a framework for implementing a Uniform Civil Code
- C.To gather empirical data for evidence-based social justice and welfare policies✓ Correct Answer
- D.To facilitate direct benefit transfers to specific caste groups
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Explanation
While the article does not explicitly state the 'primary significance', the collection of caste data in a decennial census is a foundational step for creating an empirical database. This data is crucial for informed policymaking regarding reservations, welfare schemes, and understanding socio-economic disparities among various caste groups, which is the core implication.
The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGI), who announced the details of Census 2027, functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGI) is responsible for conducting the Census and the Civil Registration System (CRS). It is an attached office under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027 as announced:
1. It will be conducted in two phases, with the first phase starting on April 1, 2026.
2. Self-enumeration will be mandatory for all citizens, including Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).
3. The methodology for enumerating caste data during the second phase has been finalized and notified.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states self-enumeration will only be available for those who reside in the country, excluding NRIs. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly mentions the caste enumeration methodology has not been finalised yet.
According to the announcement, approximately how many enumerators and supervisors are slated to participate in the first phase of Census 2027?
- A.About 15 lakh
- B.About 25 lakh
- C.About 31 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 40 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that about 31 lakh enumerators and supervisors, and more than one lakh Census functionaries will participate in the process for the first phase of Census 2027. This is a key factual data point.
What is a primary stated feature of the self-enumeration process in Census 2027, as per the announcement?
- A.It requires submission of physical documents for verification.
- B.It generates a 16-digit ID for verification by enumerators.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is available only in Hindi and English languages.
- D.It replaces the need for any physical visit by enumerators.
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Explanation
The article details that the self-enumeration portal will generate a 16-digit ID, which is to be handed over to the visiting enumerator for verification. It also states no documents are required (contradicting option A), is available in 16 languages (contradicting option C), and does not replace the enumerator's visit (contradicting option D).
Which ministry led the Indian delegation at the WTO's 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) for fisheries subsidy negotiations?
- A.Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Commerce Ministry provided the update and that the delegation was led by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal. Trade negotiations, including at the WTO, primarily fall under the purview of the Commerce Ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding India's stance at the WTO fisheries subsidy negotiations:
1. India demanded a permanent exemption from all subsidy disciplines for its fishing sector.
2. India argued for subsidy disciplines to be based on the per capita intensity of subsidies.
3. India highlighted that its fisheries subsidies are among the lowest in the world at about $15 per fisher family annually.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. India demanded a 'permanent carve-out for small-scale and artisanal fishers', not a blanket exemption for the entire sector. Statement 2 is correct as India proposed 'subsidy disciplines based on per capita intensity'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's data.
According to the article, for how many years has India sought a transition period for developing countries in the WTO fisheries subsidy agreement?
- A.15 years
- B.20 years
- C.25 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.30 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states that India has called for a '25-year transition period for developing countries'. The other options are plausible distractors for similar international negotiations.
What is a primary rationale behind India's demand for a lengthy transition period in the WTO fisheries subsidy negotiations?
- A.To build large-scale, distant-water industrial fishing fleets.
- B.To protect the livelihoods of its small-scale and artisanal fisher communities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase its annual subsidy outlay to match developed nations.
- D.To delay the implementation of all environmental agreements.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that India's fisheries sector supports over 9 million fisher families practicing sustainable methods. The transition period and carve-out are demanded to ensure these vulnerable communities are not disproportionately impacted by new rules, aligning with the principle of Special and Differential Treatment.
Which ministry in the Government of India is primarily responsible for managing bilateral relations with Nepal?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Defence
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal agency for conducting India's foreign policy and managing diplomatic relations with all foreign countries, including Nepal. While other ministries have cross-border engagements, overall diplomacy is the MEA's mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Nepal relations as discussed in the editorial:
1. Nepal's new Prime Minister Balen Shah is the country's first leader from the Madhesi community.
2. Approximately 14% of Nepal's population, about 3.5 million people, are dependent on remittances from abroad.
3. In 2024, India's delayed invitation led the then Nepalese PM K.P. Sharma Oli to visit Beijing before Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Shah is Nepal's first Madhesi leader. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 14% of the population (~3.5 million) work abroad, making the country dependent on remittances. Statement 3 is correct as it notes differences delayed New Delhi's invitation to PM Oli in 2024, who eventually visited Beijing first.
According to the editorial, what percentage of Nepal's population works abroad, making the economy heavily reliant on remittances?
- A.10%
- B.12%
- C.14%✓ Correct Answer
- D.16%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that approximately 14% of Nepal's population (about 3.5 million) now works abroad, and the country is dependent on remittances. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is a primary reason cited in the editorial for India to proactively engage Nepal's new Prime Minister Balen Shah?
- A.To counter Nepal's rapidly growing military expenditure.
- B.To formalize a new bilateral defense pact.
- C.To prevent a drift in ties and ensure he does not visit Beijing first, as his predecessor did.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To renegotiate the terms of the Indus Waters Treaty.
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Explanation
The editorial argues that India must move quickly to invite PM Shah to Delhi to prevent a repeat of 2024, when PM Oli visited Beijing first after a delayed Indian invitation. It emphasizes putting 'Neighbours first' to avoid a drift in the relationship. The other options involve issues not discussed in the article.
Which central armed police force was designated as the 'patch force' for cross-state operations against Left Wing Extremism?
- A.Border Security Force (BSF)
- B.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
- D.Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
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Explanation
The article states that after the Dantewada incident, the CRPF was made the 'patch force' which could operate across states and beyond police jurisdictions. The CRPF is India's primary force for internal security and counter-insurgency.
Consider the following statements regarding the fight against Left Wing Extremism (LWE) in India:
1. The years 2006-2009 were identified as the most difficult period in the LWE campaign.
2. Home Minister Amit Shah set a deadline of March 31, 2025, for the eradication of LWE from the country.
3. Under NSA Ajit Doval, a push was given to train local tribal youths in Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand as special forces personnel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions 2006-2009 as the most difficult years. Statement 2 is incorrect; the deadline set by Home Minister Amit Shah is March 31, 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions training of 3000-4000 tribal youths under NSA Ajit Doval's push.
According to the former MHA official, approximately how many local tribal youths were trained as special forces personnel under the push given by National Security Adviser Ajit Doval?
- A.1000-2000
- B.2000-3000
- C.3000-4000✓ Correct Answer
- D.4000-5000
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the former official stating, "Both of us played a direct role in facilitating the training of 3000-4000 special forces personnel." The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What was a key strategic measure taken after the 2010 killing of 76 security personnel in Chhattisgarh to bolster counter-Maoist operations?
- A.Declaration of President's Rule in affected states.
- B.Centrally assisted funding pushed by then Home Minister P. Chidambaram.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Deployment of the Indian Army in core Maoist zones.
- D.Enactment of a new anti-terrorism law specifically for LWE.
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Explanation
The article states that after the 2010 incident, former Home Minister P. Chidambaram pushed through centrally assisted funding for counter-Maoist operations. This funding was used to empower district collectors, fortify police stations, and improve mobility, representing a development-oriented security strategy.
The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, was introduced in which house of Parliament?
- A.Lok Sabha
- B.Rajya Sabha✓ Correct Answer
- C.Both Houses simultaneously
- D.Joint Session
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on March 25, 2026. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of India's Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026:
1. It mandates that all Director General posts in CAPFs shall be filled by deputation from the Indian Police Service.
2. The Bill applies to five CAPFs, including the Central Reserve Police Force and the Border Security Force.
3. It was introduced in response to a Supreme Court directive to increase the number of deputation posts in CAPFs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'all Special Director General (SDG) and Director General posts shall be filled by deputation from the Indian Police Service.' Statement 2 is correct as it lists the five CAPFs including CRPF and BSF. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Bill responds to a Supreme Court directive to reduce deputation posts, not increase them.
According to the Central Armed Police Forces Bill, 2026, what is the minimum percentage of Additional Director General (ADG) posts in CAPFs that must be filled by IPS officers on deputation?
- A.50%
- B.60%
- C.67%✓ Correct Answer
- D.75%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'a minimum of 67% of Additional Director General posts (ADG)... shall be filled by deputation from the Indian Police Service.' The other options are plausible distractors but are not the mandated figure.
What is the primary constitutional and administrative rationale cited in the article for maintaining a significant IPS presence in senior CAPF posts?
- A.To ensure faster promotions for IPS officers compared to other services.
- B.To act as a unifying link between the Union and the States for operational coordination.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the administrative burden on the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- D.To implement the recommendations of the Seventh Central Pay Commission.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that IPS officers, with their selection process, training, and experience, provide a 'broader vision' and are essential for 'smooth relations with the State forces.' It specifically references Sardar Patel's vision of IPS as a 'unifying link between the Union and the States.' The other options are not mentioned as primary rationales.
Which government mission is mentioned in the article as a pathway to decarbonise industries reliant on imported oil and gas?
- A.National Solar Mission
- B.National Green Hydrogen Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture
- D.National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'The National Green Hydrogen Mission offers a pathway to decarbonise industries reliant on imported oil and gas.' This mission falls under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Consider the following statements regarding India's supply chain vulnerabilities as discussed in the article:
1. India imports about 85% of its crude oil and over 50% of its natural gas, making it vulnerable to geopolitical shocks.
2. Domestic production of oilseeds meets nearly 60% of India's demand, reducing dependence on imports.
3. India imports nearly 65-70% of its pharmaceutical intermediates from China despite being a global leader in generic drug exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'India imports about 85% of its crude oil and over 50% of its gas.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states domestic output meets 'barely 44% of demand,' not 60%. Statement 3 is correct: 'India imports nearly 65-70% of its pharmaceutical intermediates from China.'
According to the article, what is India's target for non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by the year 2030?
- A.300 GW
- B.450 GW
- C.500 GW✓ Correct Answer
- D.550 GW
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions: 'India’s progress towards the target of 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030 is noteworthy.' The other options are plausible distractors but are not the official target mentioned in the text.
What is the primary economic risk highlighted by India's high import dependence on crude oil, as per the article?
- A.It leads to a depreciation of the Indian Rupee against all major currencies.
- B.It increases the country's reliance on foreign direct investment for energy projects.
- C.Price spikes can raise input costs, increase logistics expenses, push up consumer prices, and lower GDP growth.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It forces the government to divert funds from social sector schemes to fuel subsidies.
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Explanation
The article directly explains the multi-faceted impact: 'Price spikes transmit quickly across sectors, raising input costs across manufacturing; increasing logistics expenses; and even pushing up consumer prices via diesel and fertilizer linkages... and could even lower Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth by 0.2-0.3 percentage points.' The other options, while possible secondary effects, are not the primary risk explicitly detailed.
Under which schedule of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is the Jungle Cat (Felis chaus) protected in India?
- A.Schedule I
- B.Schedule II✓ Correct Answer
- C.Schedule III
- D.Schedule IV
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in India, Jungle Cats are protected under Schedule II of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Schedules I and II offer higher protection to more endangered species, while III and IV offer lower levels.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jungle Cat (Felis chaus) as per the study mentioned in the article:
1. It is listed as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
2. It primarily inhabits dense forest interiors and avoids human-modified landscapes.
3. Its estimated population in India is over three lakh individuals, with the largest populations in states like Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the IUCN Red List status is 'Least Concern', not 'Endangered'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study finds Jungle Cats avoid dense forests and prefer agro-pastoral/open habitats. Statement 3 is correct as per the study's findings detailed in the article.
According to the new study published in 'Scientific Reports', what is the estimated countrywide population range of Jungle Cats in India?
- A.50,000 - 1,00,000
- B.1,00,000 - 2,00,000
- C.1.57 lakh - 4.59 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.5 lakh - 7 lakh
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Explanation
The article provides the specific estimate from the study: "a countrywide population of over 3 lakh jungle cats, with at least 1.57 lakh and at most 4.59 lakh individuals." The other options are plausible distractors but not the figures mentioned.
What is the primary conservation implication highlighted by the study on Jungle Cats preferring agro-pastoral landscapes?
- A.The need to declare all farmlands as Protected Areas.
- B.The importance of conserving wildlife habitats outside the formal Protected Area network.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The requirement to relocate all Jungle Cats to dense forest sanctuaries.
- D.The success of ex-situ breeding programs for small cat species.
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Explanation
The core finding of the study is that Jungle Cats thrive in agricultural landscapes outside Protected Areas (PAs). This underscores a key policy gap: biodiversity conservation must extend beyond PAs to include human-modified landscapes, which requires specific land-use policies and mitigation measures.
Which of the following international groupings was central to the meeting discussed in the news article?
- A.BRICS
- B.G20
- C.G7✓ Correct Answer
- D.Quad
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Explanation
The article discusses a meeting of foreign ministers of the Group of Seven (G7). BRICS, G20, and Quad are other significant international forums but were not the subject of this specific meeting.
Consider the following statements regarding the G7 Foreign Ministers' meeting discussed in the article:
1. The agenda was dominated by the US-Israeli war against Iran and its global economic consequences.
2. The meeting was held at a mediaeval monastery outside Berlin.
3. India attended the meeting as a full member of the G7.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the meeting was held outside Paris, not Berlin. Statement 3 is incorrect; India attended as a special invitee, not as a full G7 member.
Alongside India, which other countries were mentioned as special invitees to the G7 Foreign Ministers' meeting?
- A.Brazil, Saudi Arabia, South Korea, Ukraine✓ Correct Answer
- B.China, Russia, Australia, Mexico
- C.South Africa, Indonesia, Turkey, Egypt
- D.Argentina, Nigeria, Singapore, Vietnam
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar attended the Paris meeting as a special invitee, alongside counterparts from Brazil, Saudi Arabia, South Korea, and Ukraine.
What was a key implication of India's participation in the G7 Foreign Ministers' meeting, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It signified India's formal entry into the Western military alliance NATO.
- B.It demonstrated India's growing global salience and the greater responsibilities expected from it.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It marked India's shift away from its traditional non-aligned foreign policy stance.
- D.It was primarily focused on securing financial aid for India's infrastructure projects.
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Explanation
The article states that 'India's presence at the Paris meeting was a demonstration of the country's growing global salience — and a reminder of the greater responsibilities that come with it.' It does not mention NATO membership, a policy shift, or financial aid as the primary focus.
Which organization is primarily responsible for maintaining the central pool of buffer stocks of foodgrains like wheat and rice in India?
- A.National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation (NAFED)
- B.Food Corporation of India (FCI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
- D.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
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Explanation
The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the nodal agency established under the Food Corporations Act 1964 for procuring, storing, and distributing foodgrains to maintain the central pool buffer stocks, as mentioned in the context of wheat and rice stocks.
Consider the following statements regarding the potential impact of the Iran war as discussed in the article:
1. India's wheat and rice stocks as of March 1, 2026, are lower than the levels on the same date in the preceding two years.
2. The war has disrupted imports of fertilisers and raw materials for pesticides from Gulf Cooperation Council countries.
3. The article suggests that the existing fertiliser stocks are sufficient to meet the entire requirement for the upcoming Kharif planting season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Wheat stocks (23.6 mt) are higher than the previous two years (13.4 mt and 9.7 mt). Statement 2 is correct: The article explicitly states the war has disrupted imports from GCC countries. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article quotes an executive saying existing stocks "can barely meet the requirement for the first half of the Kharif season."
According to the article, what was the stock of milled rice held by the Food Corporation of India and state agencies on March 1, 2026?
- A.13.4 million tonnes
- B.23.6 million tonnes
- C.36.5 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.40.0 million tonnes
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Explanation
The article states: "Milled rice stocks were even higher at 36.5 mt." The figure 23.6 mt is for wheat, and 13.4 mt is the wheat stock from a previous year.
What is identified as the most significant potential medium-term threat to India's food security from the Iran war, according to the article's analysis?
- A.Immediate shortage of wheat and rice in government godowns
- B.Disruption in the supply chain for fertilisers and pesticides affecting the Kharif crop✓ Correct Answer
- C.A collapse in export demand for Indian agricultural products
- D.Widespread crop failure in the ongoing Rabi harvest due to the conflict
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Explanation
The article concludes there are no immediate food supply pressures but dedicates significant analysis to the "Looming threat" from disrupted fertiliser and pesticide imports, which could impact production in the upcoming Kharif season, posing a medium-term inflation risk.
As per the Indian Constitution, under which list does the subject of 'Information Technology' fall, determining which level of government has primary legislative power?
- A.Union List✓ Correct Answer
- B.State List
- C.Concurrent List
- D.Residuary Powers
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Explanation
The article mentions that a state like Karnataka cannot unilaterally regulate global platforms as 'IT falls under the Centre’s jurisdiction.' This is because 'Information Technology' is in the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule, giving the Parliament exclusive power to make laws on it.
Consider the following statements regarding the Los Angeles court verdict discussed in the article:
1. The jury awarded $6 million in damages after finding Meta and YouTube negligent in their platform design.
2. The verdict upheld the proposed social media ban for children under 16 years as an effective solution.
3. The court's finding was that the harm stemmed primarily from the platforms' business models designed to maximize engagement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the Los Angeles court awarded $6 million. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article argues the verdict 'demolishes' bans, it does not uphold them. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly says the jury found harm stems from the platforms' business model of 'persuasive design' to maximize engagement.
According to the article, what was the approximate number of social media users in India, and what proportion of them are under 18 years of age?
- A.300 million+, one-fourth under 18
- B.460 million+, one-third under 18✓ Correct Answer
- C.500 million+, half under 18
- D.380 million+, one-fifth under 18
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'India’s 460 million-plus social media users, one-third under 18'. The other options are close distractors with incorrect figures.
What is the core argument of the article against implementing social media bans for children, as proposed in Karnataka's budget?
- A.Bans are too expensive for the government to enforce effectively.
- B.Bans address the symptom (user access) but not the root cause (addictive platform design).✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bans violate the fundamental right to free speech guaranteed under Article 19.
- D.Bans will lead to a significant loss of advertising revenue for the state.
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Explanation
The article's central critique is that bans are 'performative' and shift responsibility onto families while 'leaving the root cause untouched.' The root cause identified is the platforms' addictive-by-design business model. The other options, like cost or free speech, are not the primary arguments made in the provided text.
Which ministry is responsible for implementing the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) Secretary, S Krishnan, provided the details of the approvals. MeitY is the nodal ministry for electronics manufacturing policy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent approvals under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme:
1. The government cleared 29 new investment proposals worth ₹7,104 crore.
2. The proposals are expected to create over 14,000 jobs and lead to production worth ₹84,515 crore.
3. With these approvals, the total number of applications approved under the scheme has reached 100.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct as it mentions 14,246 jobs and ₹84,515 crore production. Statement 3 is incorrect; the total approved applications have reached 75, not 100. This is a classic UPSC trap where a close but wrong number is used.
According to the news, what is the total cumulative investment approved under the latest set of 29 proposals for electronics component manufacturing?
- A.₹5,200 crore
- B.₹7,104 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹8,450 crore
- D.₹10,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the 29 approved applications entail a cumulative investment of ₹7,104 crore. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the figures mentioned in the report.
What is a primary objective of clearing investment proposals under schemes like the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme?
- A.To increase government tax revenue in the short term
- B.To promote domestic manufacturing and reduce import dependency✓ Correct Answer
- C.To directly subsidize consumer electronics prices
- D.To regulate the prices of electronic components in the market
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Explanation
Schemes like the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme are strategic industrial policy tools aimed at building domestic capacity (Atmanirbhar Bharat), creating jobs, and reducing reliance on imported components to strengthen the supply chain. The other options are not the primary policy objectives.
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO), which is building roads in Maoist-affected areas of Chhattisgarh, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a road construction force under the Ministry of Defence, established for strategic road infrastructure in border and challenging areas, as mentioned in the article where it works on security-sensitive projects.
Consider the following statements regarding the infrastructure development in Chhattisgarh's Maoist-affected areas:
1. The BRO was tasked with constructing a 130 km road network in Bijapur and Sukma districts in November 2024.
2. The primary objective of building the Tadapala hill road was to promote eco-tourism in the Karegutta Hills region.
3. The improved road infrastructure has enabled faster movement of troops and better logistical support for anti-Naxal operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the idea was to provide sustained logistics support to security forces and block a Maoist route, not primarily for eco-tourism (which is mentioned as a future possibility elsewhere). Statement 3 is correct as per the quote from the Inspector General of Police.
According to the news, how much road work has the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) completed in the Maoist-affected areas of Chhattisgarh over the last 15 months?
- A.50 km
- B.75 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.100 km
- D.130 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the BRO has completed 75 km of road work on challenging terrain over the last 15 months. The 130 km figure is the total length of the planned network.
What is a significant strategic advantage provided by the Bailey bridges built by the BRO in remote areas of Bijapur and Sukma?
- A.They are permanent structures that require no maintenance.
- B.They can be quickly assembled and provide vital logistics support during monsoons.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are specifically designed to carry heavy tourist traffic.
- D.They replace the need for all other forms of road construction.
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Explanation
The article defines a Bailey bridge as a portable truss bridge that can be quickly assembled and moved, and states these bridges played a vital role in logistics for security forces during the monsoon season, ensuring all-weather connectivity.
Which military force's experience with the 'Iron Dome' defence system is cited in the article as being overwhelmed by drone and missile barrages?
- A.Indian Air Force
- B.Pakistan Air Force
- C.Israeli Defence Forces✓ Correct Answer
- D.Iranian Revolutionary Guard
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Israel's Iron Dome being overwhelmed or bypassed by coordinated barrages from Iran. This is used as a lesson for India's own defence planning.
Consider the following statements regarding the defence lessons discussed in the article:
1. Integrating new anti-drone systems with legacy air defence weapons is seen as a cost-effective solution.
2. The article suggests India should move away from acquiring swarm drone capabilities for offensive operations.
3. Passive measures like dispersion and camouflage are highlighted as urgent requirements for force preservation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article discusses integrating legacy systems like L/70 guns with new anti-drone systems. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article advocates for acquiring swarm drones in large numbers for offense. Statement 3 is correct, as multiple officers stress the need for passive measures like dispersion and camouflage.
According to the article, which past military operation involved Pakistan sending swarms of inexpensive drones into Indian territory?
- A.Operation Parakram
- B.Operation Vijay
- C.Operation Meghdoot
- D.Operation Sindoor✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically states that during the hostilities following 'Operation Sindoor' in May last year, Pakistan sent swarms of inexpensive drones. The other options are names of different Indian military operations.
What is a primary strategic lesson for India regarding target selection, as per the discussions mentioned in the article?
- A.Focusing attacks solely on terrorist camps near the border.
- B.Prioritising targets deep inside enemy territory like energy resources and administrative infrastructure.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Concentrating on naval assets in the Indian Ocean region.
- D.Limiting conflicts to high-altitude mountainous regions.
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Explanation
The article contrasts India's past focus on borders/terror camps with the lesson from West Asia, where attacks on energy resources and infrastructure caused significant damage. It states that 'selection of strategic targets will be a key factor in future conflicts'.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the PM-KUSUM scheme?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The PM-KUSUM scheme falls under the domain of renewable energy promotion in agriculture, which is the mandate of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). While other ministries may be consulted, MNRE is the nodal ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM-KUSUM scheme:
1. It was launched in the year 2019 with the objective of promoting solar energy in the agriculture sector.
2. The scheme comprises three components, including the solarisation of grid-connected agricultural pumps under Component C.
3. As of February 2026, the total solar capacity installed under the scheme has exceeded its original target of 34.8 GW.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the scheme was launched in 2019. Statement 2 is correct; Component C is for solarising grid-connected pumps. Statement 3 is incorrect because the installed capacity as of February 2026 was 12,164 MW, which is less than the 34.8 GW (34,800 MW) target.
According to the article, what is the total solar capacity target (in GW) of the PM-KUSUM scheme?
- A.12.164 GW
- B.20.0 GW
- C.34.8 GW✓ Correct Answer
- D.50.0 GW
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the three components of PM-KUSUM together target the addition of 34.8 GW of solar capacity. 12.164 GW is the installed capacity as of February 2026, not the target.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for considering the addition of battery storage to the revamped PM-KUSUM 2.0 scheme?
- A.To reduce the overall capital cost of solar pumps for farmers
- B.To address the mismatch between agricultural power demand and solar generation patterns✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enable the export of surplus solar power to neighbouring countries
- D.To replace existing grid infrastructure with decentralized micro-grids
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Explanation
The article clearly states that agricultural demand is steady through the day while solar generation peaks at noon. This misalignment creates grid management challenges. The proposed battery storage is intended to store surplus solar power from peak generation hours and supply it when demand is high but generation is low.
The 1926 Dasgaon Satyagraha was an attempt to implement a resolution passed by which legislative body?
- A.Imperial Legislative Council
- B.Bombay Legislative Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Legislative Assembly
- D.Madras Legislative Council
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Explanation
The article states the satyagraha was prompted by the Bole Resolution passed by the Bombay Legislative Council in 1923. This council was the legislature for the Bombay Presidency during British rule.
Consider the following statements regarding the Dasgaon Satyagraha of 1926:
1. It was led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and involved the burning of the Manusmriti.
2. It was organized to implement the Bole Resolution allowing Dalits access to public water bodies.
3. It involved about 300 participants and preceded the more famous Mahad Satyagraha of 1927.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Dasgaon Satyagraha was led by Ramchandra Babaji More, not Ambedkar, and the Manusmriti burning happened later in Mahad. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which mentions the Bole Resolution as the catalyst, 300 participants, and that Dasgaon preceded Mahad.
According to the article, how old was Ramchandra Babaji More when he led the Dasgaon Satyagraha in 1926?
- A.21 years old
- B.23 years old✓ Correct Answer
- C.25 years old
- D.28 years old
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Babaji was 23 years old at the time of the Dasgaon satyagraha in 1926. This highlights the youth leadership in early anti-caste movements.
What was the primary significance of the Dasgaon Satyagraha of 1926 in the context of the larger Dalit movement?
- A.It was the first time Dr. Ambedkar used the term 'Babasaheb'.
- B.It provided the organizational experience and confidence for the larger Mahad Satyagraha.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It led to the immediate enactment of the Temple Entry Proclamation.
- D.It resulted in the permanent closure of the Crawford well and lake.
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Explanation
The article explains that the success of the local Dasgaon protest 'steeled Babaji’s resolve' and that he became the chief organiser of the Mahad Satyagraha. This establishes Dasgaon as a crucial preparatory event, building local capacity for the more expansive protest the following year.
The tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to develop Trincomalee as an energy hub was signed between which three countries?
- A.India, Sri Lanka, and China
- B.India, Sri Lanka, and the United Arab Emirates✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sri Lanka, Iran, and Russia
- D.India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a tripartite MoU between India, Sri Lanka, and the UAE was signed in April 2025 to develop Trincomalee as an energy hub. This is a key factual point regarding international cooperation on energy infrastructure.
Consider the following statements regarding Sri Lanka's response to the fuel crisis:
1. It has implemented a QR code-based rationing system with a weekly allowance of 20 litres for three-wheelers.
2. As a supply-side measure, it has successfully negotiated a long-term crude supply deal directly with Russia.
3. The government has advised the private sector to implement a four-day work week, following its own example.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article specifies a weekly allowance of 20 litres for three-wheelers. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says Colombo is 'negotiating with suppliers like Russia', not that a deal has been successfully concluded. Statement 3 is correct: The government implemented a four-day week for its servants and 'advised the private sector to emulate this measure'. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
What quantity of emergency fuel aid did India extend to Sri Lanka according to the article?
- A.25,000 metric tonnes
- B.38,000 metric tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.50,000 metric tonnes
- D.100,000 metric tonnes
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Explanation
The article provides a specific data point: New Delhi extended emergency fuel aid of 38,000 metric tonnes to Sri Lanka. Memorizing such exact figures of international assistance is crucial for Prelims.
What is identified as a primary long-term structural measure Sri Lanka must undertake to address fuel crisis vulnerability, according to the article?
- A.Permanently adopting a four-day work week for all sectors
- B.Increasing diplomatic pressure on West Asian nations to lower oil prices
- C.Expanding its fuel storage facilities, such as the Trincomalee project✓ Correct Answer
- D.Completely switching to electric vehicles within the next decade
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Explanation
The article lists long-term structural measures, with the first being: 'fuel storage facilities have to be increased' and specifically mentions taking forward 'the Trincomalee fuel storage tanks project'. This addresses the core vulnerability of inadequate reserves. The other options are either short-term, not mentioned, or unrealistic extrapolations.
Which Indian state is reported to have the largest share of gold ore resources according to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022?
- A.Rajasthan
- B.Karnataka
- C.Bihar✓ Correct Answer
- D.Jharkhand
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Explanation
The article states that according to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022, the largest resources of gold ore are located in Bihar (43%). Karnataka leads in actual metal content, but Bihar has the highest share of ore resources.
Consider the following statements regarding gold:
1. Gold is highly reactive and easily corroded, making it unsuitable for long-term storage.
2. Gold often occurs in free elemental form in rocks and alluvial deposits.
3. Gold dissolves in an alkaline solution of cyanide, which is used in mining.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gold is described as one of the least reactive chemical elements and is resistant to corrosion. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions gold occurs in free elemental form. Statement 3 is correct: It is stated that gold dissolves in an alkaline solution of cyanide, used in mining.
According to the article, by approximately what percentage had gold prices fallen from their January 2026 peak?
- A.15%
- B.20%
- C.27%✓ Correct Answer
- D.35%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Gold prices on both the domestic and global markets are down around 27% from their January peak." This is a key data point explaining the core news event.
What is identified as a key reason for the lack of safe-haven demand for gold despite the ongoing war in West Asia?
- A.Increased production from new mines
- B.A shift in investor preference to cryptocurrency
- C.High crude oil prices leading to inflation fears and delayed rate cuts✓ Correct Answer
- D.Discovery of large synthetic gold reserves
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Explanation
The article explains that "the key aspect holding back safe-haven demand for gold this time is the sky-high prices of crude oil." High crude prices cause inflation fears, which delay central bank rate cuts, making non-yielding gold less attractive compared to interest-bearing assets.
The decennial Census of India is conducted under the administrative control of which Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
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Explanation
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which conducts the Census, operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static fact for Polity and Governance sections.
Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027:
1. For the first time, couples in a stable live-in relationship will be enumerated as a married couple.
2. The Population Enumeration (Phase 2) will be conducted simultaneously across all states and union territories in February 2027.
3. The option of self-enumeration through a web portal is available only to 'Normal Households' as defined in the Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Population Enumeration in snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand will be conducted in September 2026, not February 2027. Statement 3 is correct as the article states self-enumeration is for 'Normal households' only.
According to the article, for how many days will the self-enumeration portal remain open before the start of house-to-house operations in a State/UT?
- A.7 days
- B.15 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.30 days
- D.45 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the self-enumeration portal will remain open for 15 days just before the start of the 30-day house listing operations. This is a precise data point examiners can target.
What is the primary implication of counting 'stable' live-in couples as married in Census 2027?
- A.It will grant them legal marriage rights automatically.
- B.It will lead to more accurate demographic and social data for policy planning.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will require them to register their relationship with the government.
- D.It will make them eligible for all government marital benefits.
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Explanation
The core implication, as derived from the article, is about data accuracy. The census is a data collection exercise. Including stable live-in unions in the 'married' category ensures demographic statistics reflect actual living arrangements, which is crucial for effective social policy and welfare scheme design.
Which constitutional article, guaranteeing the right to life and personal liberty, is most relevant to the judicial scrutiny of police inaction in tracing missing persons?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. The judiciary has interpreted this right expansively to include the right to live with dignity and protection from harm. Police inaction in tracing missing persons, which could lead to loss of life or liberty, is a direct concern under this article.
Consider the following statements regarding the observations of the Allahabad High Court in the missing persons case:
1. The court noted that police officers often show 'inertia' or 'resistance' in tracing missing persons.
2. The court stated that police can declare a person untraceable if they have reasonable suspicion that the person has left the district.
3. The court directed the state government to frame a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for handling missing person cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly criticized police 'inertia' and 'resistance'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court said police cannot declare a person untraceable unless they have evidence the person is dead or has left the country, not just the district. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the state to frame an SOP for such cases.
According to the data presented to the Allahabad High Court, how many missing person complaints were registered in Uttar Pradesh from January 1, 2024, to January 18, 2026?
- A.Approximately 90,000
- B.Approximately 1.00 lakh
- C.Approximately 1.08 lakh (1,08,300)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 1.20 lakh
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Explanation
The article states that the data provided by the Police Technical Services Headquarters showed that 1,08,300 missing person complaints were registered in the given period. The other options are distractors close to the correct figure.
What was the primary reason the Allahabad High Court warned of disciplinary action against the Superintendent of Police (SP) in missing person cases?
- A.Because the SP is the appointing authority for the Station House Officer (SHO).
- B.Because the SP is the head of the police force in the district and ultimately answerable for law and order.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because the SP directly supervises all investigation officers in missing person cases.
- D.Because the SP is required to file a monthly report on missing persons to the High Court.
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Explanation
The court's order states, 'nobody lower than the superintendent of police of the district is answerable for any offence, wrong, and breach of peace in the entire district.' This underscores the SP's statutory responsibility as the district police chief under the Police Act, 1861.
Which Indian law, mentioned in the article, replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973?
- A.Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
- B.Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Evidence Act
- D.Indian Penal Code
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Explanation
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, as the primary legislation governing criminal procedure in India. It came into effect on July 1, 2024.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment:
1. The court held that evading service of a notice under Section 35(3) of BNSS can be a valid ground for arrest.
2. The judgment applies only to offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding seven years.
3. The case pertained to allegations of cheating involving approximately ₹39 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court ruled evasion of notice is a valid ground for arrest. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 35(3) of BNSS and the judgment specifically concern offences punishable with imprisonment up to seven years, not exceeding seven years. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the case involved cheating allegations and collection of approximately ₹39 lakh.
According to the article, for how many days did the accused evade the police notice before being arrested?
- A.30 days
- B.40 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.50 days
- D.60 days
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the accused dodged service of the notice for over 40 days, and the police made attempts for 40 days before tracing him to Cuddalore. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary legal significance of the Karnataka High Court's interpretation of Section 35(3) of BNSS?
- A.It makes prior notice mandatory for all arrests regardless of the offence.
- B.It establishes that the right to prior notice is conditional on the accused's cooperation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It removes the requirement for police to issue any notice before arrest.
- D.It transfers the power of arrest exclusively to the judiciary.
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Explanation
The core ruling is that the procedural safeguard of prior notice under Section 35(3) BNSS is not an absolute right. It is contingent on the accused not evading service. Deliberate non-cooperation, like changing locations to avoid notice, can itself become a valid ground for arrest, preventing the misuse of the provision.
Under which ministry does the subject of 'Labour and Employment', relevant to the Telangana Gig Workers Bill, fall in the Government of India?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
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Explanation
Labour and Employment is a standalone ministry in the Union Government. The Telangana Bill was presented by the state's Labour and Employment Minister, G. Vivek Venkataswamy, indicating the subject's alignment with this portfolio.
Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana Platform Based Gig Workers Bill, 2026:
1. It mandates aggregators to contribute a fixed 2% of their annual profit to a welfare fund.
2. It establishes a Social Security and Welfare Board with representation for women and persons with disabilities.
3. The Bill introduces a grievance redressal system including platform-level committees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Bill mandates a contribution of 1 to 2% of the transaction value, not a fixed 2% of profit. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which mentions the Board will have representation of women and persons with disabilities. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the law introduces a grievance redressal system creating platform-level committees.
As per the Telangana Platform Based Gig Workers Bill, 2026, what is the mandated contribution range that aggregators must make to the state welfare fund?
- A.0.5% to 1% of transaction value
- B.1% to 2% of transaction value✓ Correct Answer
- C.2% to 3% of annual revenue
- D.A fixed lump sum per worker
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'aggregators — including delivery, ride-hailing and service apps — must contribute 1 to 2% of their transaction value to a State-managed welfare fund.' The other options are incorrect distractors.
What is a primary objective of the grievance redressal mechanism introduced by the Telangana Gig Workers Bill?
- A.To mediate disputes between different aggregator companies
- B.To protect workers from sudden termination or payment stoppages✓ Correct Answer
- C.To set minimum wages for all platform-based workers
- D.To regulate the entry of new aggregators into the state
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Explanation
The article directly states that the grievance redressal system is introduced 'to protect workers from sudden termination or payment stoppages.' While other options might be related to worker welfare, the article specifically identifies this as the purpose of the grievance mechanism.
Which constitutional body audits the Finance Accounts of state governments, as mentioned in the news regarding Telangana's finances?
- A.Finance Commission of India
- B.Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that the Finance Accounts for 2024-25 were 'audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India'. The CAG is the supreme audit institution of India, established under Article 148 of the Constitution, responsible for auditing government receipts and expenditure.
Consider the following statements regarding Telangana's finances in FY 2024-25 as per the news article:
1. The state government maintained the minimum cash balance with RBI without using financial accommodation instruments for 65 days.
2. The state exceeded its sanctioned limits for both Special Drawing Facility (SDF) and Ways and Means Advances (WMA) during the fiscal year.
3. The state's market borrowings during the year amounted to ₹64,000 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The state maintained the minimum balance without support for only 2 days, not 65 days (65 days was the duration for which it used SDF). Statement 2 is correct as the article states 'the State exceeded both [SDF and WMA limits] during the fiscal'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'market borrowings to the tune of ₹64,000 crore'.
According to the Finance Accounts for 2024-25, for how many days did the Telangana government rely on the 'Ways and Means Advances' facility from the RBI to maintain its minimum cash balance?
- A.65 days
- B.123 days
- C.175 days✓ Correct Answer
- D.200 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The Ways and Means Advances helped the government sustain the balance for almost half the year, 175 days'. 65 days refers to SDF usage, and 123 days refers to Overdraft usage.
What is the primary implication of a state government persistently relying on RBI's Overdraft facility, as seen in Telangana's case?
- A.It indicates robust revenue growth and surplus cash management.
- B.It is a normal tool for financing long-term infrastructure projects.
- C.It signals severe fiscal stress and the most expensive form of short-term borrowing.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It helps the state reduce its dependence on market borrowings.
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Explanation
Overdraft is availed after exhausting the SDF and WMA limits. It is the costliest form of RBI accommodation and indicates that the government's cash balance has fallen below zero, representing acute fiscal stress and poor treasury management. It is not used for project financing or as a substitute for market borrowings.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, is primarily administered and regulated by which statutory body?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- C.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
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Explanation
The IBC, 2016, established the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) as the regulator for insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings in India. The RBI regulates monetary policy, SEBI regulates securities markets, and NCLT adjudicates cases.
Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025:
1. It introduces a Creditor-Initiated Insolvency Resolution Process (CIIRP) for select financial institutions.
2. It removes the liquidator's power to admit or reject claims and determine their value.
3. It grants the Committee of Creditors (CoC) the power to appoint or remove the liquidator and supervise the liquidation process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Bill establishes a CIIRP. Statement 2 is correct as it states the Bill removes the liquidator's powers to admit/reject claims and determine value. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill grants the CoC power to appoint/remove and supervise the liquidator. All three facts are directly from the article.
According to the debate in Lok Sabha mentioned in the article, what is the current level of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the banking sector as cited by Anurag Thakur?
- A.1.8%
- B.2.3%✓ Correct Answer
- C.3.5%
- D.4.1%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Anurag Thakur added that NPAs 'are now as low as 2.3 per cent'. This is a direct data point from the news content.
What is a primary criticism raised by opposition members regarding the IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2025, as per the article?
- A.It excessively empowers the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
- B.It lacks provisions for the protection of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It abolishes the Committee of Creditors (CoC) entirely.
- D.It increases the time limit for resolution to 5 years.
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Explanation
The article quotes Congress MP Rahul Kaswan saying 'a minimum level of protection for MSMEs was required in the Bill.' Other options are not supported by the article: the Bill empowers the CoC, does not abolish it, and aims to reduce delays, not increase time limits. Empowerment of NCLT is not mentioned as a criticism.
Which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), specifically mentioned in the Supreme Court ruling, deals with cruelty by a husband or his relatives towards a wife?
- A.Section 304B
- B.Section 498A✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 375
- D.Section 420
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Supreme Court reiterating concerns about the misuse of IPC Section 498A, which specifically deals with 'Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty'. Section 304B deals with dowry death, Section 375 deals with rape, and Section 420 deals with cheating.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on dowry harassment:
1. The Court quashed an FIR filed after a delay of six years, citing lack of evidence.
2. The judgment was delivered by a bench comprising Justices B V Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan.
3. The Court invoked the legal maxim 'actus reus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' to emphasize the importance of timely legal action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SC quashed the FIR due to a 6-year delay and evidentiary gaps. Statement 2 is correct as the bench is explicitly named. Statement 3 is incorrect; the maxim invoked was 'vigilantibus non dormientibus jura subveniunt' (law protects the vigilant), not 'actus reus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' (an act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty).
According to the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the article, what was the approximate delay between the alleged incidents of dowry harassment and the filing of the FIR?
- A.4 years
- B.5 years
- C.6 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.7 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states the FIR was filed on November 15, 2023, based on allegations dating back to 2017, which amounts to a delay of six years. The Court noted this unexplained delay was fatal to the prosecution's case.
What was the Supreme Court's primary rationale, as per the article, for quashing the dowry harassment FIR?
- A.The accused were found innocent after a detailed trial.
- B.The complainant withdrew the case voluntarily.
- C.There was an unexplained long delay and a lack of corroborative evidence.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The offence was considered a minor and compoundable one.
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Explanation
The article details that the Supreme Court found the prosecution's case suffered from serious evidentiary gaps and an unexplained delay of nearly six years. The Court emphasized that 'mere statements' without corroboration and such a delay cannot justify criminal prosecution, making option C correct.
The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- C.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
- D.Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is a critical global oil transit chokepoint.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Iran-US conflict:
1. The US has threatened to target Iran's Kharg Island, which is its main oil export terminal.
2. The Strait of Hormuz handles approximately one-third of the world's oil shipments.
3. The conflict has caused Brent crude oil prices to surge to around $115 per barrel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Kharg Island is Iran's main oil export terminal and was explicitly threatened. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Strait handles roughly one-fifth (20%), not one-third. Statement 3 is correct as Brent crude surged to around $115 per barrel.
According to the article, what is the approximate increase in Brent crude oil prices since the conflict began in late February?
- A.Nearly 40%
- B.Nearly 50%
- C.Nearly 60%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 70%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Brent crude prices have surged to around $115 per barrel, which is nearly 60% higher since the conflict began in late February. This is a key data point for Prelims.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz in the context of global energy security?
- A.It is the primary route for natural gas exports from Russia.
- B.It is a critical chokepoint for a large portion of the world's seaborne oil trade.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is the site of major offshore wind energy projects.
- D.It connects major coal shipping routes from Australia to China.
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz's primary strategic significance lies in its role as the world's most important oil transit chokepoint. The article mentions that roughly one-fifth of global oil shipments pass through it, making its security vital for global energy markets and economic stability.
The appointment of ambassadors to foreign countries falls under the purview of which ministry of the Government of India?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence
- C.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign relations, including the appointment of ambassadors and high commissioners to other countries, as seen with the appointment of Vikram Doraiswami to China.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. US President Donald Trump's official visit to China has been postponed to mid-May 2026.
2. Russian President Vladimir Putin's potential visit to China is scheduled for April 2026, before Trump's visit.
3. The new Indian Ambassador to China, Vikram Doraiswami, is a 1992-batch IFS officer who previously served in Hong Kong and Beijing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Trump's visit is postponed to mid-May. Statement 2 is incorrect; Putin's potential visit is also reported for May 2026, not April. Statement 3 is correct: Doraiswami is a 1992-batch IFS officer who served in Hong Kong and Beijing.
According to the Reuters investigation cited in the article, across which oceans is China conducting a vast undersea mapping and monitoring operation?
- A.Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
- B.Indian and Southern Oceans
- C.Pacific, Indian, and Arctic Oceans✓ Correct Answer
- D.Atlantic, Indian, and Southern Oceans
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Explanation
The Reuters investigation specifically found that China is conducting mapping across the Pacific, Indian, and Arctic oceans. This is a key factual detail from the article highlighting the global scope of China's maritime activities.
What is a primary strategic implication of China's extensive ocean floor mapping program, as discussed in the article?
- A.Enhancing global tourism and cruise routes
- B.Supporting civilian deep-sea mining ventures exclusively
- C.Gaining crucial data for submarine warfare and naval advantage✓ Correct Answer
- D.Primarily aimed at climate change research and ocean temperature monitoring
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Explanation
While the mapping has civilian uses, the article emphasizes its military significance. It quotes US Rear Admiral Mike Brookes stating the data "enables submarine navigation, concealment, and positioning of seabed sensors or weapons," indicating a primary aim of gaining naval warfare advantage.
Which judicial body hears appeals against the awards passed by Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs)?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.District Court
- C.High Court of the respective state✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
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Explanation
As seen in the article, the appeal against the MACT award dated March 31, 2018, was filed before the Punjab and Haryana High Court. High Courts are the typical appellate authorities over tribunals like MACTs within their territorial jurisdiction.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The court awarded ₹60 lakh compensation, emphasizing that a delayed FIR registration invalidates a motor accident claim.
2. The judgment clarified that 'functional disability' is the same as 'physical disability' for compensation assessment.
3. The court held that mere resumption of employment in an accommodated capacity does not equate to restoration of pre-accident earning capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated that a delay in FIR registration cannot be made a ground to discard an otherwise genuine claim. Statement 2 is incorrect. The judgment emphasized that 'functional disability' is distinct from 'physical disability' and must be assessed based on the impact on the claimant's avocation. Statement 3 is correct, as this was the core legal principle established by the court in its March 27 order.
According to the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment, what was the percentage of functional disability suffered by the appellant/claimant?
- A.25%
- B.50%
- C.65%✓ Correct Answer
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article clearly states, 'The appellant suffered disability to the extent of 65 per cent, which is established by the testimony of a doctor.' While the tribunal had recorded a finding of 100% functional disability, the medical evidence and the High Court's assessment confirmed it as 65%.
What was the primary legal significance of the Punjab and Haryana High Court's ruling in the discussed case?
- A.It mandated immediate registration of FIRs for all accident cases.
- B.It established that salary slips proving resumed work are conclusive proof of no loss of earning capacity.
- C.It differentiated between 'resumption of employment' and 'restoration of earning capacity' for compensation calculation.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It directed insurance companies to bear all medical expenses regardless of other schemes like ECHS.
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Explanation
The core legal principle laid down by the court was that 'Mere resumption of employment, in an accommodated capacity, cannot be equated with restoration of earning capacity to its pre-accident level.' This distinction is crucial for assessing 'just compensation' under the Motor Vehicles Act, as it prevents undervaluation of claims based on superficial evidence of employment.
The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), which is planning an AI-assisted complaint system for helpline 1930, functions under which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Communications
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) is the nodal anti-cybercrime agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Consider the following statements regarding the AI initiatives of the Ministry of Home Affairs:
1. The Proactive Monitoring Tool (PMT) is an AI-based tool developed by CDAC Mumbai to screen Child Sexual Exploitative and Abuse Material (CSEAM).
2. The SURAKSHINI initiative aims to shift from an active takedown approach to a preventive content moderation model for CSEAM and NCII.
3. The Immigration, Visa Foreigners Registration and Tracking (IVFRT) system Version 3.0, which will use AI for traveller profiling, commences on April 1, 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as SURAKSHINI aims for a 'preventive content moderation model'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states IVFRT 3.0 commences on April 1, 2026, not 2025.
What is the dedicated helpline number for cybercrime complaints in India, for which the I4C is planning an AI-assisted registration system?
- A.1550
- B.1901
- C.1930✓ Correct Answer
- D.1965
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the '1930 cybercrime helpline' as the number for which the AI-assisted complaint registration system is being planned by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).
What is the primary objective of the proposed SURAKSHINI initiative, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To replace the SAHYOG platform for faster content takedown.
- B.To create a hashbank for automated detection and prevention of CSEAM and NCII content.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To integrate AI tools for predictive policing at international borders.
- D.To develop a real-time suspect scoring model for all bank transactions.
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Explanation
The article states that SURAKSHINI will facilitate 'the creation of a comprehensive hashbank for CSEAM and NCII content', allowing Social Media Intermediaries to proactively detect and prevent uploads, shifting to a preventive model. The other options describe other initiatives mentioned separately in the article.
Under the proposed Telangana Employees Accountability and Monitoring of Parental Support Bill, 2026, who is designated as the authority to adjudicate complaints of neglect filed by senior citizens?
- A.The District Magistrate
- B.The District Collector✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Chief Judicial Magistrate
- D.The Senior Citizen Commission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that under the Bill, senior citizens can file an application before the District Collector, who will be the designated authority for adjudicating cases. The Senior Citizen Commission handles appeals against the Collector's orders.
Consider the following statements regarding lessons drawn by the Indian military from recent conflicts:
1. Acquisition of high-quality swarm drones to disrupt enemy logistics is a key lesson.
2. Passive defense measures like dispersion and underground infrastructure are deemed unnecessary.
3. Iran's use of swarm drones highlights the need for cost-effective Indian counter-drone capability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article lists 'acquisition of high-quality swarm drones' as a first lesson. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that 'passive measures such as dispersion, concealment... underground infrastructure' are necessary. Statement 3 is correct as one officer highlighted Iran's use of swarm drones as underscoring the need for cost-effective Indian counter-drone capability.
According to the 2011 Census data cited in the article, what was the total number of inter-state migrants from West Bengal?
- A.14.52 lakh
- B.24.06 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.74.53 lakh
- D.1.23 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Bengal ranking seventh highest at 24.06 lakh". 14.52 lakh is the number of women migrants from Bengal, 74.53 lakh is the out-migrant population of Bihar, and 1.23 crore is that of Uttar Pradesh.
What is the primary strategic reason cited in the article for India's need to transition from 'grey urea' to 'green urea' production?
- A.To reduce the fiscal burden of the urea subsidy.
- B.To decrease overuse of urea and associated land pollution.
- C.To reduce critical import dependency and enhance energy security.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To comply with international climate change agreements.
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Explanation
While all options are mentioned as benefits, the article's core analysis emphasizes that "nearly 90 per cent of the urea consumed in India is import-dependent" and that the West Asia conflict throws a "spotlight on India’s deep energy insecurity". The economic and security risk of reliance on imported natural gas and urea is presented as the primary driver for the green transition.
Which ministry provided the official data regarding the number of stranded Indian-flagged vessels in the Persian Gulf?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- C.Ministry of Shipping✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the data was provided by Shipping Ministry Special Secretary Rajesh Kumar Sinha. The Shipping Ministry is responsible for maritime transport and port infrastructure in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz and India's energy imports:
1. The Strait of Hormuz handles approximately one-fifth of global crude oil and LNG flows.
2. Over 50% of India's Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) imports transit through the Strait of Hormuz.
3. India's annual LPG consumption is over 33 million tonnes, with an import dependency of 90%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'the chokepoint that usually saw the transit of one-fifth of global oil and LNG flows.' Statement 2 is correct: 'over 50% of its LNG imports transited the Strait.' Statement 3 is incorrect; while India's annual LPG consumption is 'a little over 33 million tonnes,' its import dependency level is 60%, not 90%. 90% refers to the share of LPG imports that come via the Strait.
According to the news, approximately what percentage of India's total LPG consumption is dependent on imports transiting the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.40%
- B.54%✓ Correct Answer
- C.60%
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article states that with 90% of India's LPG imports coming from West Asia via the Strait of Hormuz and an import dependency of 60%, the Strait 'effectively sees the movement of around 54% of India’s LPG consumption.' 90% is the share of imports via the Strait, 60% is overall import dependency, and 40% is the share of crude oil imports via the Strait.
What is the primary strategic implication for India highlighted by the effective closure of the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.A need to increase domestic coal production.
- B.A critical vulnerability in its energy security due to import route dependence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An opportunity to renegotiate long-term gas contracts with Russia.
- D.A requirement to immediately halt all trade with Iran.
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Explanation
The core implication, as detailed in the article, is the exposure of India's strategic vulnerability. With a high dependency on energy imports (60% for LPG) and the majority of those imports (90% of LPG, >50% of LNG, 40% of crude) flowing through a single, geopolitically volatile chokepoint, any disruption poses a direct threat to energy security and economic stability.
Which landmark Supreme Court judgment established the right to self-identification of gender and directed affirmative action for transgender persons?
- A.Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017)
- B.NALSA vs Union of India (2014)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Navtej Singh Johar vs Union of India (2018)
- D.Shakti Vahini vs Union of India (2018)
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Explanation
The NALSA vs Union of India (2014) judgment is explicitly mentioned in the article as the foundational case that recognized transgender persons as a 'third gender', affirmed their fundamental rights, and directed reservation in education and employment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The court granted 3% horizontal reservation to transgender persons in all state appointments.
2. The court criticized the state's 2023 notification for placing transgender persons in the OBC category as an effective affirmative action measure.
3. The court expressed concern that the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 dilutes the right to self-identification recognized in the 2019 Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court granted '3% additional weightage', not '3% horizontal reservation'. Statement 2 is correct as the court called the OBC notification a 'mere façade' and 'eyewash'. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the court's concern that the 2026 Bill proposes to omit Section 4(2) of the 2019 Act, which recognizes self-identification.
What interim measure did the Rajasthan High Court direct for transgender persons in state selection processes?
- A.5% horizontal reservation
- B.3% additional weightage in marks✓ Correct Answer
- C.Inclusion in the EWS category
- D.Direct recruitment in 10% of posts
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Explanation
As per the article, the Rajasthan High Court ordered that 'transgender persons shall be granted 3 per cent additional weightage in the maximum prescribed marks' for selection and admission in state institutions as an interim measure.
What was the primary constitutional reasoning cited by the Rajasthan High Court for its concern over the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026?
- A.It violates the federal structure by encroaching on state subjects.
- B.It risks undermining the right to self-identification, an intrinsic facet of dignity and personal liberty under Articles 14, 15, 16, and 21.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It contradicts the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 39.
- D.It goes against the fundamental duty to promote harmony under Article 51A.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the court's view that 'the right to self-identify one’s gender is an intrinsic facet of dignity, autonomy, and personal liberty under Articles 14, 15, 16 and 21 of the Constitution.' The proposed amendment, by removing self-identification, was seen as diluting this constitutional guarantee.
Which Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) is manufacturing the B28 bullet trainset as per the article?
- A.Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
- B.Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
- C.Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
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Explanation
The article states that the defence PSU BEML (Bharat Earth Movers Limited) was awarded the contract to manufacture the B28 trainset at its Bengaluru rail coach complex. BHEL, BEL, and HAL are other defence PSUs not mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the bullet train projects mentioned in the article:
1. The B28 bullet train has a design speed of 280 kmph but will operate initially at 250 kmph.
2. The tender for the ETCS Level 2 signalling system, required for these trains, has already been awarded.
3. The B35 bullet train project will be undertaken before the B28 project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: B28 indicates a design speed of 280 kmph, with an operational speed of 250 kmph. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the tender for the ETCS Level 2 signalling system has been awarded. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states, "First, we will undertake the B28 project, followed by the B-35."
According to the article, what is the sanctioned length for the new high-speed rail network mentioned in the current budget?
- A.2,500 km
- B.3,000 km
- C.4,000 km✓ Correct Answer
- D.5,000 km
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Explanation
The Ministry of Railways statement in the article specifies: "In the current budget, sanctions have been granted for a network spanning 4,000 km." The other options are plausible distractors but are not the figure mentioned.
What is a primary strategic objective behind developing the indigenous B28 and B35 bullet trainsets as per the article?
- A.To immediately replace all existing passenger trains in the country.
- B.To reduce dependence on foreign technology and promote domestic manufacturing.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To focus exclusively on exporting high-speed trains to other countries.
- D.To phase out the use of railways for freight transport.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes indigenous development, stating the move addresses "challenges in obtaining rolling stock from Japan" and that technology transfers from Japan are being adapted and manufactured indigenously. It also mentions deploying "Indian-manufactured rolling stock" across new routes, highlighting the self-reliance objective. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which organization is responsible for implementing high-speed rail corridor projects in India, as per the news article?
- A.Railway Board
- B.National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
- D.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
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Explanation
The article states that the responsibility for swift implementation of the seven HSR projects has been entrusted to the National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL). NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle for HSR projects in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the High-Speed Rail projects mentioned in the article:
1. The Union Budget 2026-27 proposed the development of seven new high-speed rail corridors.
2. The Standing Committee on Railways advised that land acquisition should be completed after the project sanction to expedite the process.
3. The Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail project faced delays primarily due to land acquisition issues in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Budget 2026-27 proposed seven new corridors. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Committee advised completing land acquisition BEFORE sanctioning projects. Statement 3 is incorrect; the delay was due to land acquisition in Maharashtra, not Gujarat.
According to the article, what is the total land area acquired for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) project?
- A.1200 Hectares
- B.1389.5 Hectares✓ Correct Answer
- C.1500 Hectares
- D.1250 Hectares
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Explanation
The Railway Minister stated on July 6, 2025, that the entire land for the MAHSR project, amounting to 1389.5 Hectares, has been acquired. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary objective behind the Parliamentary Committee's advice to complete land acquisition before project sanction for future High-Speed Rail corridors?
- A.To reduce the total project cost
- B.To ensure time-bound implementation and safeguard financial viability✓ Correct Answer
- C.To involve more state governments in the planning process
- D.To allow for more public consultations on the route alignment
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the Committee's report stating that land acquisition should be completed prior to sanctioning projects "so as to ensure time-bound implementation and safeguard financial viability." This advice stems from past delays impacting project timelines and costs.
Which ministry's official spokesperson provided details about the India-Russia Foreign Office Consultations mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Defence
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes Randhir Jaiswal as the 'Ministry of External Affairs official spokesperson' who commented on the consultations. This ministry handles India's diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The meeting between Indian and Russian officials discussed increasing supplies of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) and Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) to India.
2. India's crude oil imports via the Strait of Hormuz constitute about one-third of its total oil imports.
3. The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per TASS report mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states crude oil imports via the Strait of Hormuz are 'around half of the overall oil imports', not one-third. Statement 3 is the correct geographical description of the Strait of Hormuz.
According to the article, what is India's dependence on imports to meet its crude oil needs?
- A.Over 75%
- B.Over 88%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 92%
- D.Over 95%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'India depends on imports to meet over 88% of its crude oil needs.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What was a primary strategic objective for India in its recent talks with Russia, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To form a military alliance against the West Asia conflict.
- B.To secure increased energy supplies (LNG/LPG) amidst disruptions from the West Asia war.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To negotiate a reduction in tariffs on Indian software exports.
- D.To request Russia's mediation in the US-Israel-Iran war.
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Explanation
The article centers on energy security, noting India faces a shortage due to the West Asia war and the disruption of the Strait of Hormuz. Discussions on increasing LNG and LPG supplies from Russia were a key part of the talks, as reported by TASS and industry sources.
Under which Act did the Enforcement Directorate (ED) facilitate the restitution of assets in the PACL case?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
- B.Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002✓ Correct Answer
- C.Companies Act, 2013
- D.Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the transfer of assets was carried out under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002. While the FEOA was also invoked against some accused, the primary legal provision for the restitution mentioned is PMLA.
Consider the following statements regarding the PACL fraud case:
1. The case stems from a 2014 FIR registered by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
2. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has attached properties worth ₹27,030 crore, of which ₹26,324 crore was attached in the current financial year.
3. The Supreme Court directed the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to set up a committee headed by Justice R.M. Lodha to oversee the sale of PACL’s assets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the case stems from a 2014 FIR registered by the CBI. Statement 2 is correct: The ED mentions total attachments are ₹27,030 crore, with ₹26,324 crore attached in the current financial year. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court directed SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not RBI, to set up the Lodha Committee.
What is the total value of assets that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) has facilitated for restitution to the Justice Lodha Committee in the PACL case, as per the news?
- A.₹12,500 crore
- B.₹15,582 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹27,030 crore
- D.₹48,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states the ED has facilitated the restitution of assets worth about ₹15,582 crore. ₹27,030 crore is the total value of attachments made, and ₹48,000 crore is the amount still unpaid to investors.
What is the primary objective of the Justice R.M. Lodha Committee formed in relation to the PACL case?
- A.To investigate the money laundering trail of the accused
- B.To oversee the sale of PACL's assets and ensure refunds to investors✓ Correct Answer
- C.To prosecute the accused under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act
- D.To recommend changes to the SEBI regulations for Collective Investment Schemes
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Explanation
As per the article, the Supreme Court directed SEBI to set up the committee headed by Justice R.M. Lodha 'to oversee the sale of PACL’s assets and ensure refunds'. The committee's task is liquidation and distribution, not investigation, prosecution, or regulatory recommendation.
The law approving the death penalty for Palestinians was passed by which legislative body of Israel?
- A.The Israeli Cabinet
- B.The Knesset✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Israeli Supreme Court
- D.The Israeli National Security Council
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Israel’s Parliament on Monday passed a law...' Israel's parliament is called the Knesset. It is the unicameral national legislature responsible for enacting laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the new Israeli death penalty law:
1. The law makes death penalty by hanging the default punishment for West Bank Palestinians convicted of murdering Israelis.
2. The law is retroactive and will apply to Palestinian militants held for the October 7, 2023 attacks.
3. The law gives Israeli courts the authority to impose either death penalty or life imprisonment on Israeli citizens convicted of similar offenses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The law makes the death penalty — by hanging — the default punishment for West Bank Palestinians convicted for nationalistic killings.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states 'It is not retro-active and will apply only to future cases' and 'The bill will not apply retroactively to any of the militants Israel currently holds who attacked the country on Oct. 7, 2023.' Statement 3 is correct: 'The law also gives Israeli courts the authority to impose either the death penalty or life imprisonment on its own citizens.'
According to the article, when was the last time Israel executed a person using the death penalty?
- A.1973 (During the Yom Kippur War)
- B.1962 (Adolf Eichmann)✓ Correct Answer
- C.1948 (Founding of the state)
- D.1995 (After the assassination of Yitzhak Rabin)
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Explanation
The article states: 'the country hasn’t put anyone to death since Nazi war criminal Adolf Eichmann in 1962.' This is a key factual data point about Israel's historical stance on capital punishment.
What is a primary legal criticism raised against the new Israeli death penalty law by its opponents, as mentioned in the article?
- A.It violates Israel's Basic Laws on human dignity.
- B.It is discriminatory by design, applying primarily to West Bank Palestinians.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It was passed without a majority vote in the Knesset.
- D.It contradicts specific provisions of the Oslo Accords.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Association of Civil Rights in Israel petitioning the Supreme Court and calling the law 'discriminatory by design.' Expert Amichai Cohen also notes the distinction means 'Jews will not be indicted under this law,' highlighting its discriminatory application between different populations under Israeli jurisdiction.
Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner function?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static GK fact for governance and polity.
Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Census of India:
1. The first phase, Houselisting and Housing Census, is scheduled to begin on April 1, 2026.
2. A self-enumeration portal has been opened with 30 FAQs to guide respondents.
3. According to the FAQs, couples in a stable live-in relationship should be enumerated as a married couple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the portal has 33 FAQs, not 30. Statement 3 is correct as the FAQ explicitly states stable live-in couples should be treated as married. Hence, option C is correct.
How many Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) have been released for the self-enumeration portal of the first phase of Census 2026?
- A.30
- B.33✓ Correct Answer
- C.35
- D.40
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the government has notified 33 questions (FAQs) for the first phase. This is a direct data point for Prelims-style questions.
What is a significant implication of the FAQ stating that stable live-in couples should be treated as married couples for Census enumeration?
- A.It mandates legal marriage registration for all couples.
- B.It reflects a progressive approach to include evolving social structures in official data.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It aims to reduce the total number of households counted.
- D.It prioritizes digital data collection over physical enumeration.
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Explanation
The FAQ's clarification is not a legal mandate but an instruction for data collection. Its primary implication is to make the Census more inclusive and accurate by recognizing non-traditional household compositions, which is crucial for social policy planning.
Which UN body estimated the potential tariff revenue loss for developing countries due to the WTO e-commerce moratorium?
- A.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- B.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a 'UNCTAD research paper in 2019 estimated that developing countries faced a potential tariff revenue loss of $10 billion'. UNCTAD is the UN body focused on trade and development issues.
Consider the following statements regarding the WTO e-commerce moratorium:
1. It was first adopted in 1998 at the WTO's Second Ministerial Conference.
2. It permanently bans customs duties on all goods traded electronically.
3. India has been a consistent supporter of making this moratorium permanent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the moratorium is temporary, renewed roughly every two years, and applies to electronic transmissions, not all electronically traded goods. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states 'India which has long opposed the moratorium'.
According to the UNCTAD 2019 research paper cited in the article, what was the estimated potential tariff revenue loss for developing countries in 2017 due to the e-commerce moratorium?
- A.$5 billion
- B.$10 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$15 billion
- D.$20 billion
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the UNCTAD finding: 'estimated that developing countries faced a potential tariff revenue loss of $10 billion in 2017 from the moratorium.' The other figures are plausible-sounding distractors.
What is a primary reason cited by developing countries like India for opposing the permanent extension of the WTO e-commerce moratorium?
- A.To increase the cost of digital services for their citizens
- B.To deprive them of tariff revenue needed for digital infrastructure✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with demands from domestic Big Tech companies
- D.To simplify their customs administration procedures
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Explanation
The article states that developing nations 'contend its extension would deprive them of tariff revenue to fund infrastructure and close the digital divide.' This is framed as a loss of fiscal resources needed for development, not a desire to increase consumer costs or help domestic tech giants.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 30 March 2026?▼
This page contains 176 current affairs questions from 30 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 30 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q3. According to the article, what was the urea subsidy amount for…
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- Q5. The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) …
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- Q9. institution has directed banks to limit their net open forex e…
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- Q11. According to the article, to what level had the Indian rupee d…
- Q12. is a primary concern for banks regarding the RBI's new $100 mi…
- Q13. regulatory body is responsible for implementing and regulating…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and…
- Q15. According to the news, what was the total amount recovered by …
- Q16. is the key feature introduced by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy…
- Q17. The WTO's fourteenth Ministerial Conference (MC14) was chaired…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the WTO e-commerce…
- Q19. According to the Think Tank GTRI mentioned in the article, wha…
- Q20. is a primary reason cited by developing countries like India f…
- Q21. Under which Ministry does the Office of the Registrar General …
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027: 1. T…
- Q23. As per the news, by when is the first phase (Houselisting) of …
- Q24. is the primary significance of conducting caste enumeration in…
- Q25. The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGI), …
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027 as ann…
- Q27. According to the announcement, approximately how many enumerat…
- Q28. is a primary stated feature of the self-enumeration process in…
- Q29. ministry led the Indian delegation at the WTO's 14th Ministeri…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding India's stance at …
- Q31. According to the article, for how many years has India sought …
- Q32. is a primary rationale behind India's demand for a lengthy tra…
- Q33. ministry in the Government of India is primarily responsible f…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding India-Nepal relati…
- Q35. According to the editorial, what percentage of Nepal's populat…
- Q36. is a primary reason cited in the editorial for India to proact…
- Q37. central armed police force was designated as the 'patch force'…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the fight against …
- Q39. According to the former MHA official, approximately how many l…
- Q40. was a key strategic measure taken after the 2010 killing of 76…
- Q41. The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill,…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed …
- Q43. According to the Central Armed Police Forces Bill, 2026, what …
- Q44. is the primary constitutional and administrative rationale cit…
- Q45. government mission is mentioned in the article as a pathway to…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding India's supply cha…
- Q47. According to the article, what is India's target for non-fossi…
- Q48. is the primary economic risk highlighted by India's high impor…
- Q49. Under which schedule of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Jungle Cat (Fe…
- Q51. According to the new study published in 'Scientific Reports', …
- Q52. is the primary conservation implication highlighted by the stu…
- Q53. of the following international groupings was central to the me…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the G7 Foreign Min…
- Q55. Alongside India, which other countries were mentioned as speci…
- Q56. was a key implication of India's participation in the G7 Forei…
- Q57. organization is primarily responsible for maintaining the cent…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the potential impa…
- Q59. According to the article, what was the stock of milled rice he…
- Q60. is identified as the most significant potential medium-term th…
- Q61. As per the Indian Constitution, under which list does the subj…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Los Angeles co…
- Q63. According to the article, what was the approximate number of s…
- Q64. is the core argument of the article against implementing socia…
- Q65. ministry is responsible for implementing the Electronics Compo…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent approva…
- Q67. According to the news, what is the total cumulative investment…
- Q68. is a primary objective of clearing investment proposals under …
- Q69. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO), which is building roads i…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the infrastructure…
- Q71. According to the news, how much road work has the Border Roads…
- Q72. is a significant strategic advantage provided by the Bailey br…
- Q73. military force's experience with the 'Iron Dome' defence syste…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the defence lesson…
- Q75. According to the article, which past military operation involv…
- Q76. is a primary strategic lesson for India regarding target selec…
- Q77. ministry is the nodal ministry for the PM-KUSUM scheme?
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the PM-KUSUM schem…
- Q79. According to the article, what is the total solar capacity tar…
- Q80. is the primary reason cited in the article for considering the…
- Q81. The 1926 Dasgaon Satyagraha was an attempt to implement a reso…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Dasgaon Satyag…
- Q83. According to the article, how old was Ramchandra Babaji More w…
- Q84. was the primary significance of the Dasgaon Satyagraha of 1926…
- Q85. The tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to develop Tr…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding Sri Lanka's respon…
- Q87. quantity of emergency fuel aid did India extend to Sri Lanka a…
- Q88. is identified as a primary long-term structural measure Sri La…
- Q89. Indian state is reported to have the largest share of gold ore…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding gold: 1. Gold is …
- Q91. According to the article, by approximately what percentage had…
- Q92. is identified as a key reason for the lack of safe-haven deman…
- Q93. The decennial Census of India is conducted under the administr…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027: 1. F…
- Q95. According to the article, for how many days will the self-enum…
- Q96. is the primary implication of counting 'stable' live-in couple…
- Q97. constitutional article, guaranteeing the right to life and per…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the observations o…
- Q99. According to the data presented to the Allahabad High Court, h…
- Q100. was the primary reason the Allahabad High Court warned of disc…
- Q101. Indian law, mentioned in the article, replaced the Code of Cri…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
- Q103. According to the article, for how many days did the accused ev…
- Q104. is the primary legal significance of the Karnataka High Court'…
- Q105. Under which ministry does the subject of 'Labour and Employmen…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana Plat…
- Q107. As per the Telangana Platform Based Gig Workers Bill, 2026, wh…
- Q108. is a primary objective of the grievance redressal mechanism in…
- Q109. constitutional body audits the Finance Accounts of state gover…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana's financ…
- Q111. According to the Finance Accounts for 2024-25, for how many da…
- Q112. is the primary implication of a state government persistently …
- Q113. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, is primarily a…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and…
- Q115. According to the debate in Lok Sabha mentioned in the article,…
- Q116. is a primary criticism raised by opposition members regarding …
- Q117. section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), specifically mentioned…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q119. According to the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the artic…
- Q120. was the Supreme Court's primary rationale, as per the article,…
- Q121. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Iran-US…
- Q123. According to the article, what is the approximate increase in …
- Q124. is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz …
- Q125. The appointment of ambassadors to foreign countries falls unde…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q127. According to the Reuters investigation cited in the article, a…
- Q128. is a primary strategic implication of China's extensive ocean …
- Q129. judicial body hears appeals against the awards passed by Motor…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Har…
- Q131. According to the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment, what …
- Q132. was the primary legal significance of the Punjab and Haryana H…
- Q133. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), which is pla…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the AI initiatives…
- Q135. is the dedicated helpline number for cybercrime complaints in …
- Q136. is the primary objective of the proposed SURAKSHINI initiative…
- Q137. Under the proposed Telangana Employees Accountability and Moni…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding lessons drawn by t…
- Q139. According to the 2011 Census data cited in the article, what w…
- Q140. is the primary strategic reason cited in the article for India…
- Q141. ministry provided the official data regarding the number of st…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q143. According to the news, approximately what percentage of India'…
- Q144. is the primary strategic implication for India highlighted by …
- Q145. landmark Supreme Court judgment established the right to self-…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High…
- Q147. interim measure did the Rajasthan High Court direct for transg…
- Q148. was the primary constitutional reasoning cited by the Rajastha…
- Q149. Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) is manufacturing the B28 bulle…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the bullet train p…
- Q151. According to the article, what is the sanctioned length for th…
- Q152. is a primary strategic objective behind developing the indigen…
- Q153. organization is responsible for implementing high-speed rail c…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the High-Speed Rai…
- Q155. According to the article, what is the total land area acquired…
- Q156. is the primary objective behind the Parliamentary Committee's …
- Q157. ministry's official spokesperson provided details about the In…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q159. According to the article, what is India's dependence on import…
- Q160. was a primary strategic objective for India in its recent talk…
- Q161. Under which Act did the Enforcement Directorate (ED) facilitat…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the PACL fraud cas…
- Q163. is the total value of assets that the Enforcement Directorate …
- Q164. is the primary objective of the Justice R.M. Lodha Committee f…
- Q165. The law approving the death penalty for Palestinians was passe…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the new Israeli de…
- Q167. According to the article, when was the last time Israel execut…
- Q168. is a primary legal criticism raised against the new Israeli de…
- Q169. Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General …
- Q170. Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Census of…
- Q171. many Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) have been released for …
- Q172. is a significant implication of the FAQ stating that stable li…
- Q173. UN body estimated the potential tariff revenue loss for develo…
- Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the WTO e-commerce…
- Q175. According to the UNCTAD 2019 research paper cited in the artic…
- Q176. is a primary reason cited by developing countries like India f…