25 March 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 110 of the Indian Constitution specifically defines what constitutes a Money Bill. The Finance Bill, which contains tax proposals, is a type of Money Bill. Article 112 deals with the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), and Article 265 states that no tax shall be levied except by authority of law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the fiscal deficit for FY27 is projected at 4.3%, which is lower than the 4.4% for the current fiscal. Statement 3 is correct; the article mentions repayment of ₹1.43 lakh crore (including ₹44,650 crore principal) for oil bonds.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the fiscal deficit for FY27 is projected at 4.3% of GDP. The current fiscal year's deficit is 4.4%, making option C a close distractor. The other figures are not mentioned.

Explanation

The Finance Minister argued that the UPA government 'whitewashed' its books by booking loans in the books of oil marketing companies, showing a fiscal deficit of 6.1% instead of the actual 7.9%. This is a specific critique of off-budget financing mechanisms. The other options, while potential general criticisms, are not the core argument presented in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Tata Memorial Centre in Mumbai has been part of over 15-year-long clinical trials and follow-up studies proving the efficacy of a single dose of HPV vaccine in Indian populations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states cervical cancer is the second most common cancer among Indian women, not the first. Statement 2 is correct, directly quoting the article's figures. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions WHO has declared cervical cancer as the first cancer to be eliminated globally.

Explanation

The article clearly states the WHO's elimination target is reducing the cancer rate to fewer than 4 new cases per 100,000 women per year. This is a specific factual target set by the WHO.

Explanation

The article frames the vaccination launch as a decisive step towards eliminating cervical cancer, a disease that is 'easily preventable' yet claims thousands of lives annually. While other options might be secondary benefits, the core public health objective is elimination of the disease itself.

Explanation

Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to specify, after consultation with the Governor, the castes, races or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes in a state or Union Territory. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, is issued under this authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court termed the religion bar 'absolute'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court held 'profess' connotes public declaration, not merely private belief. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states 'for the Scheduled Tribe category, there was no such religion-based exclusion'.

Explanation

Clause 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, states 'no person who professes a religion different from the Hindu, the Sikh or the Buddhist religion shall be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.' Christianity is not included, which was the core issue in the case.

Explanation

The Court ruled that conversion results in 'immediate and complete loss of Scheduled Caste status' and the 'automatic and immediate termination of all eligibility for statutory benefits, protections... which include protections under the SC/ST Act.' The other options contradict the judgment's emphasis on the absolute bar and the specific conditions for reconversion.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bench was disposing of the 'National Highway Authority of India's (NHAI) plea seeking review'. NHAI is the statutory authority responsible for the development and maintenance of national highways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court explicitly stated that 'the grant of solatium and interest cannot be made contingent upon the magnitude of the financial burden.' Statement 2 is incorrect. The Court said interest payable is 'according to the land Acquisition Act, which is 9%, and not the NHAI Act, which has a 5% cap.' Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'pre-March 2018 land acquisition cases cannot be reopened' and 'landowners cannot be permitted to reopen concluded claims which have attained finality.'

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Bench said interest payable to the landowners will be according to the land Acquisition Act, which is 9%, and not the NHAI Act, which has a 5% cap.' Therefore, 9% is the correct rate as per the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, which the Supreme Court applied.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'denying such benefits violated Article 14 (right to equality) of the Constitution' and that Section 3J of the NHAI Act was 'violative of Article 14'. The core argument was that creating two classes of landowners—one entitled to full compensation under the 1894 Act and another denied it under the NHAI Act—is discriminatory.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report was released by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) on World Meteorological Day. UNEP focuses on environmental policy, IPCC assesses scientific literature, and WHO deals with global health.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report states 2025 was the second or third hottest year, not the hottest. Statement 3 is correct as the report included Earth's energy imbalance as a key indicator for the first time.

Explanation

The article provides the exact data point: 2025 was about 1.43 °C above the 1850-1900 average. The other options are close distractors often seen in climate reports.

Explanation

The report specifically states that over one-third of the global workforce (1.2 billion people) faces workplace heat risk annually, leading to health impacts and productivity losses, especially in agriculture and construction. The other options are either opposite to the report's findings or not mentioned.

Explanation

As per the article and standard polity, after Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission. This Commission, not the Election Commission, is specifically tasked with demarcating constituency boundaries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the text of Article 81(2)(a) quoted in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the freeze is based on the 1971 Census, extended till the first census after 2026. Statement 3 is correct as per the text of Article 82. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the government intends to raise the number of Lok Sabha seats by 50% to 816 from the present 543. This expansion is proposed to create 273 new seats reserved for women, keeping the existing 543 seats for men intact.

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights that the proposal, by using outdated 2011 population data for seat allocation, violates Article 81's core mandate of ensuring equal representation based on current population, i.e., 'one person, one vote, one value'. While this could also be part of a basic structure challenge, the direct and primary violation is of this specific principle enshrined in Article 81.

Explanation

Article 110 of the Indian Constitution specifically defines a Money Bill. The Finance Bill, which contains taxation proposals, is classified as a Money Bill and is introduced exclusively in the Lok Sabha as per this provision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill; it can only recommend amendments and must return it to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the fiscal deficit is projected at 4.3% of GDP, not 4.4%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The total capital expenditure proposed for the next fiscal is ₹12.2 lakh crore." The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall of this key macroeconomic figure.

Explanation

The Finance Bill is the legislative instrument that gives effect to the tax proposals of the Budget. Its passage by the Lok Sabha is a crucial step in the parliamentary approval process for the government's financial proposals for the upcoming fiscal year, as mandated by the Constitution.

Explanation

Matters related to immigration, visa issuance, registration of foreigners, and internal security fall under the purview of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The IVFRT scheme is a core project of the MHA to modernize these functions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme was first approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) in 2010, not the Union Cabinet. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is also correct; the article states FTI-TTP enrolment is 'on gratis basis currently available for Indian nationals and OCI cardholders.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation of the... (IVFRT) scheme for a period of five years... with a budget outlay of ₹1,800 crore.' ₹1,011 crore was the initial outlay in 2010.

Explanation

The article quotes the Cabinet stating the continuation is 'a strategic transformation with a vision to promote international mobility through a world-class immigration and visa issuance system.' It also repeatedly links the modernization to meeting 'emerging national security challenges' and managing 'illegal migration.' The other options are not supported as primary objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Home Ministry told Parliament about the custodial death figures. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for police and public order, which includes oversight of custodial matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the SC ruling that SC status is lost upon conversion to any religion other than Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court granted permission for passive euthanasia (withdrawing treatment), not active euthanasia (lethal injection), which remains illegal. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article regarding the ST Order.

Explanation

The article states: 'A total of 170 custodial deaths were reported across the country in the first 74 days (up to March 15)'. The figure 140 was the previous year's total, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article defines active euthanasia as 'the administration of a lethal drug or injection' and passive euthanasia as 'withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining treatment, allowing death to occur naturally'. This is the core legal and ethical distinction upheld by Indian courts.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the IEA was established in 1974 specifically in response to the 1973 oil crisis, where Arab states cut oil output. This is a key static fact about the IEA's origin.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the biggest disruption, worse than the 1970s crises combined. Statement 2 is incorrect; the LNG cut is 140 bcm now, which is larger than the 75 bcm shortfall after the Ukraine invasion. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article regarding the Strait of Hormuz.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the halt of over 20 million barrels per day can be calculated to approximately 20% of global petroleum consumption. The 7% figure pertains to the shortages during the 1973 and 1979 crises.

Explanation

The article details the immediate impact as severe price volatility, with Brent crude prices skyrocketing from $66 to above $100 and peaking near $120 per barrel. This is the direct economic implication of a major supply shock. Other options are either contrary to the facts or represent long-term possibilities, not immediate implications.

Explanation

The UDAN scheme is a flagship aviation connectivity programme under the purview of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, which is responsible for formulating and implementing policies for civil aviation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the key shift is that the subsidy is now directly borne by the government, not through a passenger levy. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 200 helipads with a total investment of ₹3,661 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government has proposed ₹10,043 crore in viability gap funding (VGF) over 10 years to support regional routes. ₹2,577 crore is for O&M support, ₹3,661 crore is for helipads, and ₹12,159 crore is for airport redevelopment.

Explanation

The article highlights that the subsidy was earlier funded through a levy, creating a market-linked mechanism. By directly bearing the subsidy, the government aims to make operating on less profitable Tier-2 and Tier-3 routes more attractive for airlines, thereby improving regional connectivity.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions ISRO in the context of launching NavIC satellites and the failed IRNSS-1H mission. ISRO is the primary space agency of India responsible for satellite development and launch.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'At least four satellites with operational atomic clocks are required for the navigation satellite system to function properly.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the failure date is March 10, 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'ISRO began launching the second generation of satellites for NavIC, known as the NVS series. While it successfully placed NVS-01 in the desired orbit in 2023...'

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'A major setback occurred after the last atomic clock on board the Indian Regional Navigational Satellite System-1F (IRNSS-1F) stopped functioning on March 10...' The published date of the article confirms the year is 2026.

Explanation

The article quotes expert Ananya Ray: "If you are in a war and using someone else's system, they could add errors to the signals or spoof you, making you think you are in the wrong position." This directly highlights the risk of signal manipulation by the foreign provider, which is the core security concern.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has notified the order under the Essential Commodities Act. This act allows the government to regulate the supply and distribution of essential commodities like petroleum products.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the 3-month compliance window. Statement 2 is incorrect; the aim is to reduce LPG import dependency (60%), not Natural Gas dependency (~50%). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions LPG continues if PNG is technically infeasible, with an NOC provided.

Explanation

Petroleum Ministry Joint Secretary Sujata Sharma informed that there are around 60 lakh households that have PNG infrastructure available in their vicinity but continue to use LPG. 1.6 crore is the total domestic PNG connections, 33.3 crore is total domestic LPG connections, and 2.5 lakh is new PNG connections in March.

Explanation

The article repeatedly cites the West Asia crisis impacting LPG imports via the Strait of Hormuz and India's 60% import dependency as the key reasons. While PNG is cleaner, the primary driver stated is energy security and reducing vulnerability of supply, not just environmental benefits or cost reduction.

Explanation

The article cites export data to GCC countries with the source 'Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)'. DGFT, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing foreign trade policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states energy is the 'most important link'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the Strait accounted for 'about 60% of its LNG imports'. Statement 3 is correct as per the Economic Survey 2025-26 data cited. Hence, all three are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "According to a recent release by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), headline CPI inflation stood at around 3.2 per cent in February 2026."

Explanation

The article explains the sequence: First, higher oil prices widen the current account deficit (CAD) by increasing the import bill. Second, this places pressure on the exchange rate (weaker rupee) as demand for foreign currency rises. Third, rising fuel prices contribute to inflation by increasing transportation and production costs.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions QatarEnergy as the state-owned company operating the Ras Laffan LNG facility. Saudi Aramco is Saudi Arabia's oil company, ADNOC is UAE's, and Gazprom is Russia's.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the war made 30% of India's natural gas supply unavailable. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 55-60% of India's LNG imports depend on the strait. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states fertilizer units receive 70%, not 80%, of their average consumption.

Explanation

The article states India imported 27 million tonnes of LNG in 2024-25, of which 11.2 million tonnes (or 41.4%) came from Qatar. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the halt in vessel movements through the Strait of Hormuz created a supply gap, forcing Asian buyers to scout for LNG on the spot market, which led to a surge in Asian LNG prices, making it lucrative for cargoes to divert to Asia.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the DRDO Chairman Dr Samir V Kamat attended the review meeting on defence preparedness. General Anil Chauhan is the Chief of Defence Staff, R.K. Singh is the Defence Secretary, and Rajnath Singh is the Defence Minister.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states Defence Minister Rajnath Singh chaired the review meeting. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the 'West Asia conflict', not 'East Asia'. Statement 3 is correct as officials stated discussions involved the conflict's impact on India's supply chains.

Explanation

The Defence Minister specifically called for formalizing a comprehensive integrated roadmap 'for the next decade', i.e., a 10-year plan. This is a concrete data point for factual recall in prelims-style questions.

Explanation

The article highlights that discussions 'primarily involved discussions on the impact of the West Asia conflict on India’s supply chains'. This identifies supply chain vulnerability due to external conflicts as a key concern, aligning with the goal of achieving 'Atmanirbharta' or self-reliance.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Transgender (Protection of Rights) Act of 2019'. The year 2014 is a key distractor as it is the year of the NALSA judgment, not the Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the amendments were passed in the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article clearly says 'the very community it seeks to legislate was not consulted'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states the bill 'flouts the evidence-based Standards of Care developed by WPATH'.

Explanation

The article directly mentions 'The landmark NALSA judgment of 2014'. The year 2019 is a strong distractor as it is the year the original Act was passed.

Explanation

The article's core criticism is that the amendment 'undoes' previous work by introducing a 'narrow definition of "transgender" (as the recipient of a governmental welfare scheme)'. The other options, like financial burden or compulsory procedures, are not mentioned as primary criticisms.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324 of the Constitution, which vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: SIR was conducted in eight other states and three Union Territories besides West Bengal. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: While final rolls were published in February for other states, the process remained incomplete for West Bengal.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that uncertainty continues for 60.06 lakh electors of West Bengal who were flagged by the SIR process. The other options are close numerical distractors.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's order appointing judicial officers creates a special adjudication mechanism, adding judicial oversight to the decisions made by the statutory authorities (BLOs, EROs) during the SIR. It does not transfer the EC's power or alter its constitutional mandate permanently.

Explanation

The Safe City Project is a women's safety initiative and NATGRID is an intelligence grid for counter-terrorism. Both fall under the domain of internal security and law enforcement, which is the responsibility of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that the DPDPA 2023 'focuses largely on platforms and providers, not on the government's own data systems.' Statement 2 is correct, as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct, as the article notes NATGRID was 'connected to the National Population Register' in early 2026, giving access to demographic data.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'In the first phase (October 2025 onwards), the city began deploying about 3,500 AI-enabled cameras.' The other numbers are close distractors.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that while surveillance tools are expanding, there is 'currently no surveillance law requiring transparency on how the state collects, retains or uses information.' It highlights the gap where laws like DPDPA 2023 do not cover government systems, leading to a lack of proportionality and accountability.

Explanation

The article states the US plan includes 'monitoring by the International Atomic Energy Agency'. The IAEA is the UN body responsible for verifying compliance with nuclear non-proliferation agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per AFP citing Israel's Channel 12. Statement 2 is correct as reported by multiple news agencies citing N12 News. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions proxy groups Hezbollah and the Houthis, not the Taliban or ISIS.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Strait of Hormuz, through which roughly a fifth of the world’s energy supplies normally flows...'. One-fifth is equivalent to 20%.

Explanation

The article directly explains this implication: 'Agreeing to this clause... would effectively require Iran to give up any leverage in the present and future.' Control over the Strait is a key strategic card for Iran.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that biosimilars have to receive a nod from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), India's apex drug regulatory body, before commercialisation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; NAMs, by definition, are non-animal models like organoids and organ-on-chip. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 2024 'Cell' study on a breast cancer-on-chip model.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Biopharma SHAKTI has an outlay of ₹10,000 crore. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explains patent evergreening with the example of trastuzumab, where a new formulation was separately patented, prolonging market exclusivity and delaying the availability of cheaper biosimilars until 2018.

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court's ruling is a reiteration of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. This Order is issued by the President under the powers granted by Article 341 of the Constitution to specify Scheduled Castes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: SC status is lost 'from the moment of conversion'. Statement 2 is correct; the 1950 Order was for Hindus, later amended. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states Christians form 'around 1.5%' of Punjab's population, not over 10%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Christians form a small minority in Punjab — around 1.5% of the population as per the 2011 Census.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The core of the ruling, as stated in the article, is that a person 'loses their Scheduled Caste status from the moment of conversion' and that 'caste-based protections... do not carry over after conversion'. This is the direct legal consequence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has come out with the new Income-tax Rules, 2026. CBDT is the apex body under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, responsible for direct tax administration in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the new PAN requirement is for cash deposits aggregating ₹10 lakh or more in a financial year. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Children's Education Allowance was increased to ₹3,000 per month per child (up to two children), not ₹9,000. The ₹9,000 figure is for the Hostel Expenditure Allowance. Statement 3 is correct: the PAN of the landlord must be furnished only if the aggregate rent paid during the tax year exceeds ₹1 lakh.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'For purchase of motor vehicles, the threshold for quoting PAN has been set at Rs 5 lakh (including motorcycles).' The other options are distractors: ₹1 lakh is for hotel/restaurant bills, ₹10 lakh is for cash deposits/withdrawals, and ₹20 lakh is for property transactions.

Explanation

The article states that a 'single unified challan-cum-statement' will replace separate forms for TDS on property, rent, contractors, and crypto assets. This is aimed at easing compliance and reducing the number of forms, which aligns with the broader goal of the rules to simplify the tax administration process.

Explanation

The GCC is a political and economic alliance of six Arab monarchies: Saudi Arabia, UAE, Kuwait, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman. It was formed as a conservative Arab response to the Islamic Revolution in Iran, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states that Iran's hegemonic ambition endured regardless of the regime, citing examples from the Shah's era (seizing islands, claiming Bahrain). Statement 2 is correct: Iran has 90 million people versus 27 million in GCC states. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the US destruction of the Iraqi state handed Tehran a 'geopolitical windfall,' allowing its influence to stretch to the Mediterranean.

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'Iran’s 90 million people dwarf the 27 million citizens of the GCC states.' This highlights the core demographic asymmetry at the heart of the Gulf's security dilemma.

Explanation

The article's central thesis is structural. Iran is 'too large' and the Arab Gulf states are 'too small' to achieve a stable internal balance. This forces the Arabs to depend on external powers (like the US) for security, making the situation manageable but not solvable, as the underlying imbalance persists.

Explanation

The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President under Article 76 of the Constitution. Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers, Article 143 with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, and Article 148 with the Comptroller and Auditor General.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Plea bargaining was introduced via the 2005 amendment to the CrPC. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly states it is used in less than 1% of cases, not more than 10%. Statement 3 is correct: The article references Cesare Beccaria's principle that certainty is more effective than severity, which underpins the logic of plea bargaining.

Explanation

The article provides a breakdown: over 92,000 cases are pending in the Supreme Court. Over 63 lakh are pending in High Courts, about 4.76 crore in district/subordinate courts, and the total exceeds 5 crore.

Explanation

The central argument of the article is that the massive pendency of cases is a structural crisis. Plea bargaining is proposed as a negotiated justice mechanism to resolve cases more quickly and efficiently, thereby reducing this backlog. The other options are not the primary objectives mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions the Advisory Committee Chairperson wrote to the Social Justice Minister regarding the Bill. The Transgender Persons Act, 2019, also falls under the purview of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, which handles the welfare of marginalized communities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Committee was constituted while hearing the case of Delhi-based transwoman Jane Kaushik. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions provisions compelling medical institutions to report gender-affirming care. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Committee observed that certain acts proposed to be criminalized are already addressed by other laws like the BNSS and Juvenile Justice Act.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the proposed amendment denying self-identification goes against the Supreme Court's decision in the '2014 NALSA v Union of India verdict'. This is a key static fact often asked in prelims.

Explanation

The article specifically notes the Committee's observation that provisions compelling medical institutions to report gender-affirming care to district authorities were a 'complete violation of privacy'. This directly relates to the fundamental right to privacy under Article 21, a key constitutional concern.

Explanation

The article states that the new Income Tax Rules 2026 are issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). CBDT is the apex body responsible for direct tax administration in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the Income Tax Act, 2025 replaces the 1961 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the allowance has been increased to ₹3,000, not ₹5,000. Statement 3 is correct as the new rules mandate stock exchanges to maintain audit trails for 7 years.

Explanation

The article states that the hostel allowance deduction is now ₹9,000 per month per child, a significant increase from the previous limit of ₹300 per month per child.

Explanation

The article explains that the 'Tax Year' replaces both the Financial Year and Assessment Year, creating a simple 12-month period for earning and filing taxes. This aims to reduce complexity and simplify compliance, aligning with the broader goal of the new Act to create a 'clearer and leaner framework'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) invoked the Essential Commodities Act late on March 24, 2026, to institute reforms for expanding the piped gas network.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'in housing areas, the relevant entities would have to grant necessary permission... within three days'. Statement 2 is incorrect: LPG supply ceases 'within three months after the CGDs has formally informed about the applications not being granted', not immediately. Statement 3 is correct as the directive states for public areas, if permission is neither rejected nor granted within timelines, the application would be 'deemed approved'.

Explanation

The article directly quotes senior officials stating that 'India has the potential to add 15 lakh new PNG connection in the next two weeks.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states: 'The Ministry’s push for expanding piped natural gas (PNG) is aimed at easing some of the pressure from liquified petroleum gas (LPG), supplies of which have been affected amidst the ongoing tensions in West Asia.' While other options might be related to energy policy, this specific objective is highlighted in the text.

Explanation

The article states that the term 'Force Majeure' originated in the French civil law (Napoleonic Code) of 1804. While the Indian Contract Act deals with similar concepts, the historical origin as per the news is specifically the Napoleonic Code.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Force Majeure includes events like war, while Act of God is specific to natural events. Statement 2 is correct as Petronet LNG invoked it on March 5, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Strait of Hormuz accounts for 20% of global oil supply, not specifically natural gas supply.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'On March 13, India invoked a ‘Force Majeure’ to redirect gas supplies from non-priority sectors to domestic users...'. March 5 is when Petronet LNG invoked it, February 28 is when the conflict began, and March 25 is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The article's core analysis shows that invocations are due to disruptions at the Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint, affecting 20% of global supply. This directly underscores how geopolitical conflict exposes the fragility of interconnected energy supply chains, a key takeaway for exams.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Assam Science Technology and Environment Council issued the Expression of Interest (EOI) on March 16. This is the nodal agency for the project within the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core objective. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article specifies the satellites will be in Low-Earth Orbit (LEO), not Geostationary Orbit (GEO). Statement 3 is incorrect as the project was announced in the '2025-26 State Budget', not the Union Budget.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Per the brief, qualifying parties can avail the full EOI for a fee of ₹30,000.' This is a specific data point that can be asked in prelims-style questions.

Explanation

The article explains that Chief Minister Sarma argued 'conventional border fencing is inadequate for the State’s *chars*, the seasonally inundated river islands along the Bangladesh border, and that real-time satellite monitoring is the sole practical alternative.' This tests understanding of the geographical challenge driving the technological solution.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission, vesting it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. This is fundamental static GK for understanding the body implementing the home voting facility.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the eligibility age is 85 years and above, not 80. Statement 2 is incorrect as the required benchmark disability is 40%, not 50%. Statement 3 is perfectly correct as per the article's detailed procedure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Approximately 17.4 crore people are eligible to vote in the elections." The other options are close distractors to test precise reading.

Explanation

The article's core theme is enhancing accessibility. It states the facility is to "ease the process of voting and to make it accessible to all people," specifically for "elderly and disabled voters." The other options are either not mentioned (digital systems, cost reduction) or are too broad and not the primary focus.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio waived the requirement of a Congress approval' for the $16.46 billion military sales. The Secretary of State leads the Department of State and handles foreign policy, including foreign military sales.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the CSIS analysis cited. Statement 2 is correct; the article states NIR for tungsten is 'greater than 50%'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the replacement cost for THAAD interceptors used in six days is around $2 billion, not $3 billion.

Explanation

The article specifies: 'The biggest single sale was of lower-tier air missile defence sensor radars to Kuwait for $8 billion'. The $16.46 billion figure is the total for sales to both UAE and Kuwait.

Explanation

The article links high import reliance, particularly on China, to pressure on the Pentagon's ability to replenish weapons stockpiles. This is a strategic supply chain vulnerability, where control over critical mineral supply can be used as leverage in geopolitical conflicts, directly impacting national security and defense readiness.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi High Court recently referred questions of law regarding Section 223 of BNSS to a larger bench. The Supreme Court is not a High Court. Kolkata High Court is not mentioned, and while Kerala High Court judgments are cited by counsel, it is not the referring court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states Section 223 of BNSS deals with examination of the complainant, corresponding to CrPC's Section 200. Statement 2 is correct: The article highlights the first proviso to Section 223(1) as a new provision requiring hearing the accused before cognisance. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Delhi High Court referred the matter precisely because the changed BNSS language may necessitate re-examination of prior SC jurisprudence on cognisance; it did not conclude it remains unchanged.

Explanation

The article mentions the Delhi High Court's referral order was dated March 24, 2026. December 11, 2024 was a hearing date. January 21, 2025 was when the magistrate passed an order. April 25, 2025 was a date listed for recording pre-summoning evidence.

Explanation

The article frames the referred questions around the stage of 'taking cognisance' and whether the examination of the complainant is a step before taking cognisance. The core controversy is the sequence: should the accused be heard before the complainant's examination (as argued by the complainant) or after it (as argued by the petitioner/accused).

Explanation

The article mentions that recognition as a National Sports Federation is granted by the sports ministry. In India, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) is the nodal ministry responsible for the promotion and development of sports, including the recognition of National Sports Federations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly held that Article 17.5 of IOA Rules only allows it to form internal commissions for its own affairs, not to take over independent societies like SSI. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment highlighted the transition from the non-statutory 2011 Code to the statutory 2025 Act.

Explanation

The article states that Rule 18 of the 2025 Rules provides that every national sports body shall amend its by-laws in conformity with the provisions of the Act within six months. This is a specific data point crucial for transition to the new statutory regime.

Explanation

The court highlighted that before the 2025 Act, sports governance was based on the non-statutory (advisory) 2011 Code. The 2025 Act introduces a statutory regime, making compliance legally enforceable. This shift from soft law to hard law is the judgment's core legal significance, as per the article's analysis.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released the new series of national income accounts, shifting the GDP base year. MoSPI is the nodal agency for official statistics in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core concept on V2V. Statement 2 is incorrect because GDP includes only final goods and services; intermediate goods are excluded to avoid double counting. Statement 3 is incorrect as Nor'westers are described as moist and stormy with rainfall, not hot and dry.

Explanation

The article clearly states that V2V systems usually have a range of 300 metres and can detect vehicles within this range. This is a specific factual data point crucial for a potential prelims question.

Explanation

The article's 'Why it matters' section for V2V explicitly states the government is planning this technology "to prevent road accident deaths and reduce traffic," directly linking it to India's top rank in road fatalities. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

As per the article, Social Justice and Empowerment Minister Virendra Kumar replied to the debate on the bill in the Rajya Sabha. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry for policies and legislation related to the welfare of transgender persons in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill seeks to amend the 2019 Act. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the bill provides for graded punishment. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the bill was passed in Lok Sabha on March 24 and in Rajya Sabha on March 25, 2026. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Parliament on Wednesday (March 25, 2026) passed a bill... with Rajya Sabha giving its nod.' It also mentions the Lok Sabha passed it on Tuesday (March 24). Therefore, the Rajya Sabha passage date is March 25, 2026.

Explanation

AAP MP Swati Maliwal stated that 'the provision in the bill criminalising, alluring someone to present as transgender, is vague and risky.' She argued it could target families and support systems. The other options, while part of the bill's context, were not highlighted as the specific criticism by the MP in the article.

Explanation

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The article mentions the bill was introduced by the Minister of State for Home Affairs, confirming MHA's nodal role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill introduces a new Chapter IIIA for a 'Designated Authority'. Statement 2 is correct as per the 'statement of objects and reasons' cited in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the FCRA, 2010 has been amended in 2016, 2018, and 2020.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'At present, approximately 16,000 associations are registered under the Act and receive around ₹22,000 crore annually...' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article's core theme is addressing the 'absence of a comprehensive framework' for asset management when registration is cancelled, surrendered, or ceases. The bill establishes a 'Designated Authority' for this purpose. While curbing misuse is mentioned, the primary legislative gap being filled is the asset management framework.

Explanation

The article states that ALEMA represents nearly 250 of India's 450 aluminium extrusion companies, 'with 90 per cent being MSMEs'. This is a direct static fact from the news content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions a textile company facing a shortage of raw material 'flax' imported from Belgium and France, with consignments stuck. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article specifies the stainless steel challenge is in the 'seamless pipes and tubes division' using LPG, and that they are NOT affected in rolling and melting divisions which use electric furnaces. Statement 3 is correct: The Brewers Association of India cited a 12-15% cost increase and sharp inflation in glass bottles and paper cartons.

Explanation

The article directly quotes Ajay Joshi stating, 'Roughly 35% of globally traded sulphur originates from West Asia'. This is a precise data point crucial for understanding the scale of the supply shock.

Explanation

The analyst explicitly states that the sulphur shortage tightens sulphuric acid supply, which squeezes phosphoric acid, and ultimately hits DAP and MAP fertiliser prices 'right into the Kharif sowing window'. He concludes, 'This is food-security critical, not just a commodity pricing issue.' The other options, while possible, are not the primary impact stressed in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report was released by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). The CAG is the supreme audit institution under Article 148 of the Constitution, responsible for auditing government expenditures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the audit found only 0.10% houses for PwDs against a 5% mandate. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the diversion of ₹143.66 crore to GSFS.

Explanation

The article states: '74% of the houses were completed in time (within 12 months)'. 67% is the overall completion rate against the total target, 21% were delayed up to two years, and 5% were delayed for more than two years.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that DRDAs attributed reasons for incomplete houses to 'migration, financial constraints, and unwillingness to build houses and sanction houses to landless beneficiaries.' The other options are not cited as primary reasons in the report.

Explanation

The article mentions Social Justice and Empowerment Minister Virendra Kumar replying to the debate on the Amendment Bill. This ministry handles policies and legislation related to the welfare of marginalized communities, including transgender persons.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Act provides for graded punishment. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill was passed by voice vote amid noisy protests and demands from the Opposition to send it to a select committee. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Bill seeks to exclude 'different sexual orientations and self-perceived sexual identities'.

Explanation

The Social Justice and Empowerment Minister stated that transgender welfare boards have been set up in over 30 states. This is a direct factual data point from the article.

Explanation

Multiple Opposition MPs, including those from AAP, CPI(M), IUML, NCP-SP, SS-UBT, SP, and DMK, demanded that the Bill be sent to a select committee for stakeholder consultation and review, arguing that 'dignity delayed is dignity denied'.

Explanation

The article states the Bill was introduced by Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, which this Bill seeks to amend, is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), responsible for internal security and regulation of foreign contributions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill mandates prior Central Government approval, not Supreme Court approval. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the FCRA Act, 2010 came into force on May 01, 2011.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'At present, approximately 16,000 associations are registered under the FCRA Act.' This is a direct data point from the statement of objects and reasons of the Bill.

Explanation

Congress member Manish Tewari argued that the Bill enables 'wide and unguided executive control over property', raising serious concerns under Article 300A, which protects against deprivation of property without due authority of law. The article does not mention the other options as primary concerns.

Explanation

The article mentions the meeting was co-chaired by the Defence Secretary of India, indicating the primary oversight falls under the Ministry of Defence, which handles defence cooperation and policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states it was the 18th meeting. Statement 2 is correct as the meeting reviewed and identified these priority areas. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the meeting and the US official's visit occurred amid the West Asia conflict.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 18th India-US Defence Policy Group meeting was held. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The move towards co-development and co-production indicates a deeper, more integrated partnership involving shared technology and manufacturing, moving beyond simple procurement. While it may affect dependencies, the core implication is the collaborative shift.