24 March 2026, Questions & Answers

212 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

212 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  43 min revision

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This page contains 212 current affairs questions with answers from 24 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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24 March 2026, Questions with Answers

212 Qs
Q1.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to specify Scheduled Castes?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 340
  • B.Article 341✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 342
  • D.Article 366
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to specify the castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes. Article 342 is for Scheduled Tribes. This is fundamental static GK for Polity.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds Clause 3 of 1950 Order; SC Status Confined to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists Only →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on Scheduled Caste status:

1. The judgment is based on Clause 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950.

2. It affirms that a person converting to Christianity can still claim benefits under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.

3. The Bench was headed by Justice P.K. Mishra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the judgment is based on the Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order, 1950, not the Scheduled Tribes Order. Statement 2 is incorrect as the judgment explicitly bars converts to Christianity from claiming SC benefits. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds Clause 3 of 1950 Order; SC Status Confined to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists Only →
Q3.

According to the Supreme Court judgment, to which of the following religions is Scheduled Caste status restricted?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Hinduism, Islam, Sikhism
  • B.Hinduism, Sikhism, Buddhism✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism
  • D.Hinduism, Christianity, Sikhism
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court confirmed that only Hindus, Sikhs, and Buddhists can claim to be a member of a Scheduled Caste community. Islam, Christianity, and Jainism are not included.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds Clause 3 of 1950 Order; SC Status Confined to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists Only →
Q4.

What is the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's interpretation of Clause 3 of the 1950 Order?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It allows states to create their own list of Scheduled Castes.
  • B.It makes the loss of SC status upon conversion absolute and exceptionless.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It empowers religious institutions to determine SC eligibility.
  • D.It mandates a review of SC lists every ten years.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the judgment is that Clause 3 imposes an absolute bar. The court stated, "This bar is absolute and admits no exception." A person cannot profess another religion and claim SC membership. The other options are not related to the judgment's central finding.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds Clause 3 of 1950 Order; SC Status Confined to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists Only →
Q5.

Which constitutional body delivered the verdict highlighting systemic issues in the evaluation of women officers in the armed forces?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Armed Forces Tribunal
  • B.Ministry of Defence
  • C.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Military Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The verdict was delivered by a bench of the Supreme Court of India, consisting of Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and Justices Ujjal Bhuyan and N K Singh. The Supreme Court is the highest constitutional court in India.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Permanent Commission & Full Pension for SSC Women Officers, Citing Systemic Bias in ACRs Post-Babita Puniya Verdict →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court verdict on Permanent Commission for women officers:

1. The Court held that the use of old Annual Confidential Reports (ACRs) to evaluate women for PC was unfair as these were written when they were ineligible.

2. The Court introduced a new Minimum Performance Criteria in 2024 to ensure a fair evaluation process for future PC grants.

3. The judgment referenced the landmark Babita Puniya case, which was decided on February 17, 2020.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court ruled the use of old ACRs was 'unfair and arbitrary.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the Minimum Performance Criteria was introduced in 2019, not 2024, and the Court criticized its hasty implementation. Statement 3 is correct as the Babita Puniya ruling date (Feb 17, 2020) is mentioned in the article.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Permanent Commission & Full Pension for SSC Women Officers, Citing Systemic Bias in ACRs Post-Babita Puniya Verdict →
Q7.

According to the article, in which year was the Minimum Performance Criteria for the grant of Permanent Commission to SSC Women Officers introduced for the first time?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2017
  • B.2019✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2020
  • D.2022
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Minimum Performance Criteria was introduced for the first time in 2019.' The Court noted this was implemented hastily without giving women officers a reasonable opportunity to meet the criteria.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Permanent Commission & Full Pension for SSC Women Officers, Citing Systemic Bias in ACRs Post-Babita Puniya Verdict →
Q8.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for deeming the evaluation process for women officers as creating an 'unequal playing field'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of physical training facilities for women officers.
  • B.Use of ACRs graded in an era when women had no long-term career prospects in the military.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.An explicit quota system that limited the number of women eligible for PC.
  • D.The absence of women officers on the evaluation boards themselves.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court's core finding was that Annual Confidential Reports (ACRs) were authored when women officers were considered ineligible for Permanent Commission, leading to casual and middling grades. These outdated ACRs were then used to evaluate them for PC against male officers who were graded with a future in mind, creating systemic bias.

Source: Supreme Court Mandates Permanent Commission & Full Pension for SSC Women Officers, Citing Systemic Bias in ACRs Post-Babita Puniya Verdict →
Q9.

Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court affirm the 'right to die with dignity' in the Harish Rana case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court judgment was based on Article 21, which guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty. The Court has previously interpreted this article to include the right to live with dignity, and this case extended it to include the right to die with dignity.

Source: Supreme Court Allows First Withdrawal of Life Support Under Article 21 'Right to Die with Dignity' Judgment →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Harish Rana case:

1. The Supreme Court judgment allowing withdrawal of treatment was delivered on March 11, 2026.

2. Harish Rana was shifted to AIIMS after the judgment and his nutritional support was gradually withdrawn.

3. The Supreme Court rejected Pinki Virani's plea for euthanasia for Aruna Shanbaug in 2011.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as he was shifted on March 14 and nutritional support was withdrawn. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that the top court rejected Ms. Virani's plea on behalf of Shanbaug.

Source: Supreme Court Allows First Withdrawal of Life Support Under Article 21 'Right to Die with Dignity' Judgment →
Q11.

For how many years was Harish Rana in a coma before the withdrawal of life support?

EasySSC, State PSC
  • A.10 years
  • B.11 years
  • C.12 years
  • D.13 years✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states he had been on life support since August 2013 and died in March 2026, which is approximately 13 years. The text explicitly says 'more than 13 years in coma'.

Source: Supreme Court Allows First Withdrawal of Life Support Under Article 21 'Right to Die with Dignity' Judgment →
Q12.

What was the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's judgment in the Harish Rana case?

HardUPSC
  • A.It mandated active euthanasia for all terminal patients.
  • B.It established a precedent for withdrawing life support under Article 21.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It directed all hospitals to immediately withdraw treatment from coma patients.
  • D.It overruled the earlier Aruna Shanbaug judgment.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment affirmed the 'right to die with dignity' under Article 21 and allowed the first withdrawal of medical treatment in India, creating a legal precedent. It did not mandate active euthanasia or immediate withdrawals, and it built upon, not overruled, the Shanbaug case.

Source: Supreme Court Allows First Withdrawal of Life Support Under Article 21 'Right to Die with Dignity' Judgment →
Q13.

Which of the following is the executive branch of the European Union that signed the trade pact with Australia?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Parliament
  • B.European Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Council of the European Union
  • D.European Court of Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the agreement was signed by European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen. The European Commission is the EU's politically independent executive arm responsible for proposing legislation and implementing decisions.

Source: EU-Australia Finalize Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with 30,600 Metric Ton Meat Quota, Sign New Defence Partnership →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the EU-Australia Free Trade Agreement:

1. It grants Australia a tariff-rate quota of 30,600 metric tons for the export of red meat to the EU.

2. Australian producers will be immediately banned from using the name 'prosecco' on exports to the EU once the pact takes effect.

3. The agreement also includes the start of negotiations for Australia to become an associate member of the Horizon Europe program.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ban on using 'prosecco' will come into effect 10 years after the pact takes effect, not immediately. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the news. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: EU-Australia Finalize Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with 30,600 Metric Ton Meat Quota, Sign New Defence Partnership →
Q15.

As per the EU-Australia FTA, what is the total tariff-rate quota (in metric tons) granted by the EU for Australian red meat?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.25,000 metric tons
  • B.30,600 metric tons✓ Correct Answer
  • C.33,731 metric tons
  • D.40,000 metric tons
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The EU will open two tariff rate quotas of a total of 30,600 metric tons... for Australian red meat." Option C (33,731) is the equivalent in U.S. tons, which is a distractor.

Source: EU-Australia Finalize Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with 30,600 Metric Ton Meat Quota, Sign New Defence Partnership →
Q16.

What is a primary strategic objective for both the EU and Australia in finalizing this Free Trade Agreement, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To exclusively increase trade in manufactured goods
  • B.To reduce their economic reliance on China and diversify trade networks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a military alliance against a common adversary
  • D.To harmonize their domestic agricultural subsidy policies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: "The breakthrough comes as both the EU and Australia seek to diversify their trading networks and reduce their economic reliance on China and exposure to uncertain U.S. tariffs." This is the core strategic driver mentioned.

Source: EU-Australia Finalize Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with 30,600 Metric Ton Meat Quota, Sign New Defence Partnership →
Q17.

As per the Indian Constitution, which commission is responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Finance Commission
  • B.Election Commission of India
  • C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Union Public Service Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body established under the Delimitation Act to redraw constituency boundaries based on the latest Census data. This is directly relevant as the article discusses delimitation being pegged to the 2011 Census.

Source: Govt Proposes Lok Sabha Expansion to 816 MPs, Delinking Women's Reservation Act 2023 from Census & Delimitation →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on Lok Sabha expansion:

1. The proposal suggests increasing Lok Sabha strength to 816 seats, with implementation targeted for the 2029 general elections.

2. The Women's Reservation Act, 2023, would remain linked to the completion of the next Census and delimitation.

3. State-wise seat allocation in the proposed expansion would be based on population data from the 2011 Census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the reconfiguration would come into force in the 2029 Lok Sabha polls. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the Centre is exploring delinking the Act from the Census and delimitation. Statement 3 is correct as delimitation is expected to be pegged to the 2011 Census.

Source: Govt Proposes Lok Sabha Expansion to 816 MPs, Delinking Women's Reservation Act 2023 from Census & Delimitation →
Q19.

According to the proposal discussed in the article, how many Lok Sabha seats would be reserved for women if the total strength is increased to 816?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.181 seats
  • B.273 seats✓ Correct Answer
  • C.300 seats
  • D.333 seats
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the proposed strength of 816 would include 273 seats reserved for women. This is one-third of 816, aligning with the Women's Reservation Act, 2023.

Source: Govt Proposes Lok Sabha Expansion to 816 MPs, Delinking Women's Reservation Act 2023 from Census & Delimitation →
Q20.

What is a primary implication of pegging the delimitation for the proposed Lok Sabha expansion to the 2011 Census, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It accelerates the implementation of the Women's Reservation Act by using the latest population data.
  • B.It maintains the current proportional representation of states, preventing any state from losing seats.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ensures parliamentary representation reflects the most recent demographic changes and migration patterns.
  • D.It mandates a fresh national Census before any change in Lok Sabha composition can occur.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that maintaining current proportions of seats allotted to each state is a key feature. Using the 2011 Census data, rather than a newer one, freezes the seat share each state currently has, avoiding political friction from states that might lose representation based on newer population data.

Source: Govt Proposes Lok Sabha Expansion to 816 MPs, Delinking Women's Reservation Act 2023 from Census & Delimitation →
Q21.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to specify Scheduled Castes?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 340
  • B.Article 341✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 342
  • D.Article 366
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to specify, by public notification, the castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes for a particular state or union territory. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, was issued under this article.

Source: SC Upholds AP HC: Conversion from Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism Leads to Absolute Loss of SC Status Under Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent ruling on SC status and conversion:

1. The ruling is based on the provisions of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.

2. The Court held that a person can profess Christianity and still claim benefits under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act if they hold a valid caste certificate.

3. The case originated from a complaint filed under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 2015.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court based its decision on the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court ruled that a person cannot simultaneously profess Christianity and claim SC status or benefits under the PoA Act. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the case arose from a complaint under the SC/ST (PoA) Act, 2015.

Source: SC Upholds AP HC: Conversion from Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism Leads to Absolute Loss of SC Status Under Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 →
Q23.

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, was amended to include Sikhs and Buddhists. In which years were these amendments made, respectively?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1956 and 1990✓ Correct Answer
  • B.1950 and 1956
  • C.1976 and 1990
  • D.1956 and 1978
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, was amended to include Sikhs in 1956. It was later amended to include Buddhists in 1990. These are key static facts related to the evolution of the legal definition of Scheduled Castes.

Source: SC Upholds AP HC: Conversion from Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism Leads to Absolute Loss of SC Status Under Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 →
Q24.

What was the primary rationale cited by the Andhra Pradesh High Court for denying protection under the SC/ST (PoA) Act to the complainant who was a Christian pastor?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.He did not possess a valid caste certificate.
  • B.The caste system is alien to the religion of Christianity.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The incident did not qualify as an 'atrocity' under the Act.
  • D.He had filed the complaint after a significant delay.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the High Court concluded that 'the caste system is alien to Christianity.' This was the core reasoning for holding that a person who converted to Christianity could not invoke the provisions of the SC/ST (PoA) Act, which is designed to protect members of castes recognized within the specified religions.

Source: SC Upholds AP HC: Conversion from Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism Leads to Absolute Loss of SC Status Under Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 →
Q25.

Which institution publishes the 'State of the Economy' article discussed in the news?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.NITI Aayog
  • C.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National Statistical Office
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 'State of the Economy' article is published by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its monthly bulletin. It provides an analysis of domestic and global macroeconomic developments.

Source: India's Forex Reserves at $709.75 Bn, GDP Growth at 7.6% for 2025-26 as RBI Flags West Asia Conflict Risks →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's 'State of the Economy' article:

1. It highlighted that India's foreign exchange reserves are adequate to cushion against external shocks.

2. It projected a decline in India's GDP growth rate for the financial year 2025-26 compared to the previous year.

3. It identified the ongoing conflict in West Asia and US trade investigations as sources of global uncertainty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states forex reserves ($709.75 bn) provide a cushion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states GDP growth accelerated to 7.6% in 2025-26 from 7.1% a year ago, indicating an increase, not a decline. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions these two factors.

Source: India's Forex Reserves at $709.75 Bn, GDP Growth at 7.6% for 2025-26 as RBI Flags West Asia Conflict Risks →
Q27.

According to the RBI article, what was the level of India's foreign exchange reserves as of March 13, 2026?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.$705.50 billion
  • B.$709.75 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$712.25 billion
  • D.$715.00 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that as of March 13, the country's forex reserves stood at $709.75 billion. This is a precise data point crucial for prelims.

Source: India's Forex Reserves at $709.75 Bn, GDP Growth at 7.6% for 2025-26 as RBI Flags West Asia Conflict Risks →
Q28.

What is the primary significance of India maintaining high foreign exchange reserves, as emphasized in the RBI article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To directly finance the government's fiscal deficit
  • B.To provide a cushion against external economic shocks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase the dividend paid to the government by the RBI
  • D.To reduce the interest rates on domestic loans
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core message is that adequate forex reserves act as a buffer against external shocks, such as those arising from geopolitical conflicts (West Asia) or global trade tensions. This helps stabilize the rupee and manage balance of payments stress, which is their primary macroeconomic function.

Source: India's Forex Reserves at $709.75 Bn, GDP Growth at 7.6% for 2025-26 as RBI Flags West Asia Conflict Risks →
Q29.

Which constitutional body delivered the judgment upholding Permanent Commission for women in the Armed Forces?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.High Court of Delhi
  • B.Armed Forces Tribunal
  • C.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court of India, in a three-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant, delivered the judgment on March 24, 2026. The Supreme Court is the highest constitutional court in India.

Source: SC Upholds Permanent Commission and Pension for Women in Armed Forces, Strikes Down Vacancy Cap and Unequal ACR Grading →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on women officers in the Armed Forces:

1. The Court upheld the right to Permanent Commission but denied consequent pensionary benefits.

2. The judgment found that Annual Confidential Reports (ACRs) of women officers were graded casually, assuming they had no long-term career.

3. The Court held that an annual cap on Permanent Commission vacancies is sacrosanct and immutable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court upheld both Permanent Commission and consequent pensionary benefits. Statement 2 is correct, as the article details the systemic bias in ACR grading. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court explicitly stated that vacancy caps are 'neither sacrosanct nor immutable'.

Source: SC Upholds Permanent Commission and Pension for Women in Armed Forces, Strikes Down Vacancy Cap and Unequal ACR Grading →
Q31.

On which date did the Supreme Court deliver the judgment upholding Permanent Commission for batches of women officers?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 21, 2026
  • B.March 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 27, 2026
  • D.March 30, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court delivered the judgment on Tuesday, March 24, 2026. This is a key factual date for prelims-oriented questions.

Source: SC Upholds Permanent Commission and Pension for Women in Armed Forces, Strikes Down Vacancy Cap and Unequal ACR Grading →
Q32.

What was the primary reason identified by the Supreme Court for the 'unequal playing field' faced by women Short Service Commission Officers (SSCWOs)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of physical training facilities for women.
  • B.A systemic presumption that they had no substantive long-term career.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.An official policy barring women from combat roles.
  • D.Lower educational qualifications required for entry.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the judgment, as stated in the article's title and body, is that the 'systemic and long-held presumption that women officers had no substantive or long-term career' led to casual ACR grading and denied them career-enhancing opportunities, creating an uneven playing field.

Source: SC Upholds Permanent Commission and Pension for Women in Armed Forces, Strikes Down Vacancy Cap and Unequal ACR Grading →
Q33.

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Fundamental Rights (Part III)
  • B.Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)
  • D.The Union (Part V)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code is enshrined in Article 44, which falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution. These principles are non-justiciable but fundamental to governance.

Source: Gujarat UCC Bill 2026 Tabled for Uniform Marriage, Divorce, Succession, and Live-in Registration →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026:

1. It was tabled in the Legislative Assembly a week after a State-appointed panel submitted its final report.

2. The Bill proposes a common legal framework for marriage, divorce, and succession but excludes laws related to adoption.

3. Its provisions will apply uniformly to all residents of Gujarat, including members of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article does not mention exclusion of adoption; it lists marriage, divorce, succession, and live-in relationships. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly states that provisions will NOT apply to members of Scheduled Tribes.

Source: Gujarat UCC Bill 2026 Tabled for Uniform Marriage, Divorce, Succession, and Live-in Registration →
Q35.

According to the article, which state became the first in India to enact a Uniform Civil Code law in February 2024?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Goa
  • B.Uttarakhand✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Madhya Pradesh
  • D.Gujarat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Uttarakhand had introduced the UCC in February 2024, making it the first state to do so. Gujarat is aiming to be the second.

Source: Gujarat UCC Bill 2026 Tabled for Uniform Marriage, Divorce, Succession, and Live-in Registration →
Q36.

What is a key feature of the Gujarat UCC Bill regarding live-in relationships, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It declares all live-in relationships as illegal.
  • B.It provides for their mandatory registration and termination via formal declaration.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It offers financial incentives for registering live-in relationships.
  • D.It grants them the exact same legal status as marriage.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the Bill provides for mandatory registration of live-in relationships and their termination through a formal declaration. It does not mention them being illegal, offering incentives, or granting them the same status as marriage.

Source: Gujarat UCC Bill 2026 Tabled for Uniform Marriage, Divorce, Succession, and Live-in Registration →
Q37.

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established under which Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Companies Act, 2013
  • B.The SEBI Act, 1992✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
  • D.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

SEBI was established as a statutory body in 1992 under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. This is a fundamental static fact about the regulator mentioned in the article.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules for Chairman & Whole-Time Members; Eases FPI Net Settlement to Boost Ease of Doing Business →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent SEBI board decisions:

1. The Chairman and Whole-Time Members are now restricted from trading in all financial instruments, including mutual funds.

2. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) are now permitted to settle all their cash market transactions on a net basis.

3. A charge sheet filed by SEBI will no longer lead to automatic disqualification of a market intermediary under the 'fit and proper' criteria.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Officials are barred from equity trading but mutual fund holdings ARE permitted. Statement 2 is incorrect: FPIs can net-off only outright transactions, not all transactions. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which states a SEBI charge sheet is no longer ground for automatic disqualification.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules for Chairman & Whole-Time Members; Eases FPI Net Settlement to Boost Ease of Doing Business →
Q39.

In which year was the High-Level Committee (HLC) set up by SEBI to review the conflict-of-interest framework, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2023
  • B.2024
  • C.2025✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the High-Level Committee (HLC) was set up by SEBI in March 2025. This is a precise data point from the news.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules for Chairman & Whole-Time Members; Eases FPI Net Settlement to Boost Ease of Doing Business →
Q40.

What is the primary intended benefit of allowing Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to settle cash market transactions on a net basis?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase SEBI's regulatory oversight over FPI transactions
  • B.To reduce the cost of funds and monetary loss for FPIs, especially during index rebalancing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage FPIs to invest only in derivative markets
  • D.To align Indian settlement cycles with those of European markets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, net settlement reduces the finances required for transactions. This directly lowers the cost of funds for FPIs and mitigates monetary loss on days of index rebalancing, thereby enhancing ease of doing business.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules for Chairman & Whole-Time Members; Eases FPI Net Settlement to Boost Ease of Doing Business →
Q41.

Which High Court delivered the judgment rejecting sovereign immunity in the case concerning the 2000 Army truck accident?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Punjab and Haryana High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Supreme Court of India
  • D.Chandigarh High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Punjab and Haryana High Court' recently observed that the rights of citizens cannot be sacrificed and rejected the claim of sovereign immunity. There is no separate 'Chandigarh High Court'.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Rejects Sovereign Immunity in 2000 Army Truck Death, Upholds Preamble's 'We the People' →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment:

1. The Court held that the doctrine of sovereign immunity is legally unsustainable for tortious acts causing harm to individuals.

2. The Court affirmed that the ultimate authority rests with the Parliament, as it represents the sovereign will of the people.

3. The case involved a claim petition dismissed by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal (MACT).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court found invoking sovereign immunity to exonerate the Centre 'legally unsustainable'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court held ultimate authority rests in the Constitution itself, deriving power from 'We the People', not Parliament. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the High Court was hearing an appeal against the MACT's order.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Rejects Sovereign Immunity in 2000 Army Truck Death, Upholds Preamble's 'We the People' →
Q43.

According to the news, on which date did the fatal accident involving the Army truck and the toddler occur?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 20, 2000
  • B.October 15, 2000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 24, 2026
  • D.October 15, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'On October 15, 2000, the child, Rakesh Kumar, aged about 3 years... was hit by a military truck.' March 20, 2026 is the order date, and March 24, 2026 is the publication date.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Rejects Sovereign Immunity in 2000 Army Truck Death, Upholds Preamble's 'We the People' →
Q44.

What was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Punjab and Haryana High Court to reject the claim of sovereign immunity?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The Directive Principles of State Policy
  • B.The Fundamental Duties of citizens
  • C.The words 'We, the People of India' in the Preamble✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The emergency powers under Article 352
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment emphasized that the Constitution derives its legitimacy from the 'sovereign will of the people', as solemnly enshrined in the opening words of the Preamble: 'We, the People of India'. This was the core reasoning to establish constitutional supremacy and limit state immunity.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Rejects Sovereign Immunity in 2000 Army Truck Death, Upholds Preamble's 'We the People' →
Q45.

Which judicial body is the first forum of appeal for armed forces personnel in service matters, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.High Courts
  • C.Armed Forces Tribunal✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Central Administrative Tribunal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that women officers in the Air Force case approached the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) after being denied permanent commission. The AFT is a specialized tribunal established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007, to adjudicate service matters of armed forces personnel.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Permanent Commission, Full Pension for Women Officers, Highlights Systemic Bias in ACRs →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent judgment on women officers in the armed forces:

1. The court ordered that pension arrears be paid from January 1, 2025.

2. The judgment criticized the Navy for disclosing its evaluation criteria to officers in a 'sealed cover'.

3. The bench was led by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states arrears are payable from January 1, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court criticized the Navy for FAILING to disclose its evaluation criteria, and the 'sealed cover' submission was made to the AFT. Statement 3 is correct as the bench was indeed led by CJI Surya Kant.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Permanent Commission, Full Pension for Women Officers, Highlights Systemic Bias in ACRs →
Q47.

According to the Supreme Court's direction, from which date are the pension arrears for the eligible women officers payable?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 1, 2024
  • B.January 1, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 24, 2026
  • D.December 31, 2024
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Their pensions will be fixed accordingly, with arrears payable from January 1, 2025, it said.' The other dates are close distractors not mentioned in the context of arrears.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Permanent Commission, Full Pension for Women Officers, Highlights Systemic Bias in ACRs →
Q48.

What was the primary systemic flaw identified by the Supreme Court in the evaluation of women officers for Permanent Commission?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of physical fitness standards for women.
  • B.Bias in Annual Confidential Reports (ACRs) written when women had no career horizon.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Absence of women on the selection boards.
  • D.Insufficient number of vacancies announced for women officers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court identified that ACRs, written when policy barred women from PC, were graded casually, reserving high marks for male officers. This created a 'systemic pattern' of lower gradings for women 'not due to lack of merit, but due to the absence of any perceived career horizon.' The other options describe potential issues but were not the core systemic flaw highlighted in the judgment.

Source: Supreme Court Orders Permanent Commission, Full Pension for Women Officers, Highlights Systemic Bias in ACRs →
Q49.

Which central investigation agency arrested Asiya Andrabi and her aides in 2018?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
  • D.Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Asiya Andrabi and her aides were arrested in July 2018 by the NIA from a Srinagar prison. The NIA is the central agency mandated to investigate terror-related cases across India.

Source: Delhi Court Awards Life Sentence to Asiya Andrabi Under UAPA for Sedition and Terror Funding →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the Asiya Andrabi case:

1. She was sentenced to life imprisonment under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.

2. Her two aides were awarded 20 years imprisonment each.

3. The court held that being educated women aggravated their liability rather than mitigating it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the aides were awarded 30 years imprisonment, not 20 years. Statement 3 is correct as the judge explicitly stated that the fact of convicts being educated women aggravates liability.

Source: Delhi Court Awards Life Sentence to Asiya Andrabi Under UAPA for Sedition and Terror Funding →
Q51.

For how many years were Asiya Andrabi's two aides sentenced to imprisonment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 years
  • B.25 years
  • C.30 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Life imprisonment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Two of her aides were awarded an imprisonment of 30 years.' The other options are distractors: 20 and 25 years are close but incorrect, while life imprisonment was the sentence for Asiya Andrabi herself.

Source: Delhi Court Awards Life Sentence to Asiya Andrabi Under UAPA for Sedition and Terror Funding →
Q52.

What was the primary reason cited by the judge for imposing a stringent sentence on Asiya Andrabi?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Direct involvement in violent terrorist acts
  • B.Financial embezzlement of government funds
  • C.Spreading secessionist propaganda that endangered India's sovereignty✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Illegal possession of arms and ammunition
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment emphasized that her acts of 'infusing the minds of Kashmiris with the idea that Kashmir is not part of India' and evoking sentiments that could lead to violence constituted a grave threat to integrity and sovereignty, even without direct violence.

Source: Delhi Court Awards Life Sentence to Asiya Andrabi Under UAPA for Sedition and Terror Funding →
Q53.

Under which ministry does the National Council for Transgender Persons (NCTP) function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Council for Transgender Persons (NCTP) is a statutory body constituted under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019. The Act falls under the administrative purview of the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, which is part of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 Introduced to Redefine 'Transgender' and Establish Medical Board Authority →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. It proposes to establish a medical board as the authority for recommending transgender certificates.

2. The Bill was introduced after extensive consultations with the National Council for Transgender Persons.

3. It aims to limit the definition of 'transgender person' to those facing exclusion due to biological reasons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill introduces a medical board as the 'authority'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states community representatives said the NCTP was not consulted, and officials told them consultation was not needed. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill's purpose is stated to protect only those excluded due to 'biological reasons'.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 Introduced to Redefine 'Transgender' and Establish Medical Board Authority →
Q55.

The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, was listed for consideration and passing in the Lok Sabha on which date?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 20, 2026
  • B.March 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 28, 2026
  • D.April 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's title and content explicitly state that the Bill was listed for consideration and passing in the Lok Sabha on March 24, 2026. This date is a key factual detail for prelims-oriented questions.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 Introduced to Redefine 'Transgender' and Establish Medical Board Authority →
Q56.

What is a primary reason cited by the government in the Bill for amending the definition of a 'transgender person'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To align the definition with international standards
  • B.To simplify the certification process for applicants
  • C.To identify 'genuine oppressed persons' for intended benefits✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To expand the scope to include all gender-fluid identities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the government's reasoning from the Bill: the 'existing vague definition' made it 'impossible to identify the genuine oppressed persons to whom the benefits of the Act are intended to reach'. The other options are contrary to the Bill's stated intent, which is to narrow, not expand or simplify, the definition.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 Introduced to Redefine 'Transgender' and Establish Medical Board Authority →
Q57.

The Argo program, mentioned in the article for collecting ocean data, is primarily associated with which international organization?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
  • B.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
  • C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • D.International Oceanographic Commission (IOC)✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

While multiple agencies collaborate, the Argo program is an international effort coordinated under the auspices of the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO, as per standard static GK. The article mentions it is an 'international program'.

Source: Climate Science Credibility Debate: Argo, CERES Data Shows Earth Energy Imbalance at 0.71 W/m² →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in the article:

1. The climate-skeptic paper correctly argued that temperature, being an intensive property, cannot be averaged to calculate ocean heat content.

2. The CERES instruments' EBAF adjustment changes the mean energy flux but does not affect the trend of increasing Earth's Energy Imbalance over time.

3. Validation of Argo float data is done by comparing it with independent estimates from satellites like GRACE and radar altimeters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article rebuts this claim, stating scientists calculate 'thermal energy' (an extensive property), not just average temperature. Statement 2 is correct as per the 'Devil in the difference' section: EBAF adjusts the mean but monthly differences (the trend) remain unchanged. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's explanation of independent verification using GRACE and altimetry satellites.

Source: Climate Science Credibility Debate: Argo, CERES Data Shows Earth Energy Imbalance at 0.71 W/m² →
Q59.

According to the article, what was the value of Earth's energy imbalance (net flux) for the period July 2005 to June 2015, as measured by Argo and used to calibrate CERES data?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.51 W/m²
  • B.0.71 W/m²✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1.0 W/m²
  • D.2.0 W/m²
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "...ensure the global mean net flux for July 2005 to June 2015 is consistent with the value measured by Argo: 0.71 W/m²." The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: Climate Science Credibility Debate: Argo, CERES Data Shows Earth Energy Imbalance at 0.71 W/m² →
Q60.

What is presented in the article as the fundamental 'bedrock of credibility' for climate science against skeptical challenges?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Publication in a prestigious, peer-reviewed journal.
  • B.The academic qualifications and reputations of the scientists involved.
  • C.The performance of independent tests and cross-validation of data from multiple sources.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Overwhelming political and public consensus on the issue.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that the bedrock of credibility is that climate science performs independent tests (like checking Argo against GRACE/altimetry). It explicitly dismisses reliance on peer-review prestige or author credentials as the primary answer. Political consensus is not mentioned as the bedrock.

Source: Climate Science Credibility Debate: Argo, CERES Data Shows Earth Energy Imbalance at 0.71 W/m² →
Q61.

Which national programme in India is responsible for the Nikshay Portal used for TB case notification?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Health Mission
  • B.National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme
  • D.National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Nikshay Portal is the case-based web-based notification system for TB patients, which is an integral component of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), formerly known as the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme.

Source: India Accounts for 25% Global DR-TB Burden (1.3-1.5 Lakh Annual Cases); Nikshay Portal & BPaLM Regimen Key to National Emergency Response →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding Drug-Resistant TB in India:

1. India accounts for almost one-fourth of the global DR-TB burden.

2. The World Health Organization's 2025 report shows a 21% increase in TB incidence in India.

3. The newer BPaLM regimen for DR-TB is an all-oral and shorter-duration treatment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India accounts for almost a quarter of the world's DR-TB burden. Statement 2 is incorrect; the WHO 2025 report shows a 21% decrease (not increase) in TB incidence. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions newer all-oral, shorter regimens such as BPaLM.

Source: India Accounts for 25% Global DR-TB Burden (1.3-1.5 Lakh Annual Cases); Nikshay Portal & BPaLM Regimen Key to National Emergency Response →
Q63.

According to the WHO's Global Tuberculosis Report 2025 cited in the article, what is the estimated range of new Drug-Resistant TB cases emerging annually in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50,000 - 70,000
  • B.80,000 - 1,00,000
  • C.1.3 - 1.5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2 - 2.5 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has an estimated 1.3-1.5 lakh new DR-TB cases emerging annually, as per the WHO's Global Tuberculosis Report, 2025. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: India Accounts for 25% Global DR-TB Burden (1.3-1.5 Lakh Annual Cases); Nikshay Portal & BPaLM Regimen Key to National Emergency Response →
Q64.

What is identified in the article as a primary reason for the rapid spread of Drug-Resistant TB in certain communities?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of international funding for vaccines
  • B.Overuse of antibiotics in veterinary medicine
  • C.Social inequities and lack of protection for vulnerable populations✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Climate change affecting bacterial mutation rates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that 'DR-TB spreads fastest where people have the least protection' and links its spread to social inequities like poverty, food insecurity, overcrowded homes, and stigma, which increase vulnerability and complicate treatment adherence.

Source: India Accounts for 25% Global DR-TB Burden (1.3-1.5 Lakh Annual Cases); Nikshay Portal & BPaLM Regimen Key to National Emergency Response →
Q65.

Which programme in India is primarily responsible for implementing tuberculosis control and elimination efforts?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Health Mission
  • B.National TB Elimination Programme✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
  • D.Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) as the body deploying portable X-rays and scaling up molecular testing for TB. It is the central agency for TB control in India, formerly known as the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP).

Source: WHO Recommends nPOC-NAAT & Tongue Swabs for TB Diagnosis; India's NTEP Deploys AI-Enabled Portable X-Rays →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding tuberculosis diagnostics in India:

1. The World Health Organization recently recommended the use of tongue swab samples for TB testing.

2. Sputum smear microscopy is highly sensitive and can effectively identify drug-resistant TB strains.

3. The indigenous molecular test 'Truenat' was introduced in India's TB programme in the year 2020.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: WHO endorsed tongue swab samples. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states sputum smear microscopy has 'low sensitivity and inability to identify drug-resistance'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Truenat was introduced in 2020.

Source: WHO Recommends nPOC-NAAT & Tongue Swabs for TB Diagnosis; India's NTEP Deploys AI-Enabled Portable X-Rays →
Q67.

According to the article, what proportion of India's TB burden is constituted by extra-pulmonary TB (EP-TB)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Almost one-tenth
  • B.Almost one-fifth
  • C.Almost a quarter✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Almost one-third
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'diagnosing extra-pulmonary TB (EP-TB), which is almost a quarter of India’s TB burden'. This makes option C (Almost a quarter, or ~25%) the correct answer.

Source: WHO Recommends nPOC-NAAT & Tongue Swabs for TB Diagnosis; India's NTEP Deploys AI-Enabled Portable X-Rays →
Q68.

What is a primary advantage of using AI-enabled portable chest X-rays for TB screening in community settings, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They completely replace the need for sputum sample collection.
  • B.They allow for active case-finding by taking diagnostic services into the community via mobile vans.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They are primarily used for confirming drug resistance in TB patients.
  • D.They eliminate the need for any referral services for other lung conditions.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that portable CXR with AI is used in mobile vans for 'active case-finding' to 'take diagnostic services into the community'. It does not replace sputum collection (A), is not for drug resistance confirmation (C), and still requires referrals for other conditions (D).

Source: WHO Recommends nPOC-NAAT & Tongue Swabs for TB Diagnosis; India's NTEP Deploys AI-Enabled Portable X-Rays →
Q69.

Which statutory body, established in 1956, is proposed to be replaced by the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
  • B.University Grants Commission (UGC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
  • D.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the VBSA bill proposes the abolition of the University Grants Commission (UGC), the apex higher education body established in 1956. AICTE is also mentioned as part of Yashpal Committee's recommendation but is not the primary body being replaced in this bill.

Source: Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill 2026 Proposes Replacing UGC, Critics Warn of Centralization →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill:

1. It is a reincarnation of the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) Bill introduced in Parliament in 2018.

2. It proposes an umbrella body called VBSA that supervises three separate Councils for regulation, accreditation, and academic standards.

3. It provides for strong representation of state governments in the running of VBSA, with multiple seats in all councils.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the VBSA bill is actually a reincarnation of the HECI bill introduced in 2018. Statement 2 is correct as it describes the proposed institutional design of an umbrella VBSA supervising three Councils. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article criticizes the bill for giving states only one token and rotating seat in a 15-member VBSA body and no seat in the three councils, thus disregarding the federal structure.

Source: Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill 2026 Proposes Replacing UGC, Critics Warn of Centralization →
Q71.

Which committee, headed by Professor Yashpal, recommended winding up the UGC and AICTE and replacing them with a National Commission for Higher Education and Research (NCHER)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Committee on New Education Policy (2005)
  • B.Committee to Advise on Renovation and Rejuvenation of Higher Education (2009)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Education Commission (1992)
  • D.Committee for Higher Education Reform (2015)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the 'Committee to Advise on Renovation and Rejuvenation of Higher Education' headed by Professor Yashpal in 2009. Its report recommended winding up UGC and AICTE and creating NCHER. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill 2026 Proposes Replacing UGC, Critics Warn of Centralization →
Q72.

According to the critique in the article, what is a primary concern regarding the VBSA Bill's approach to funding higher education?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates increased state funding for all institutions.
  • B.It links regulation tightly to central government funding.
  • C.It delinks regulation from funding without ensuring equity or access.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It proposes a new independent funding authority separate from regulation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the bill 'delinks regulation from funding, but does not say a word about where and how the funding will come from. Nor is there any provision for regulating equity, access and non-discrimination.' This is highlighted as a key flaw, signaling a retreat from the public purpose of higher education.

Source: Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill 2026 Proposes Replacing UGC, Critics Warn of Centralization →
Q73.

Which United Nations specialized agency released the State of Climate Report highlighting the 'heat surplus'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • B.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
  • D.International Energy Agency (IEA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report is from the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO). WMO is the UN's authoritative body on weather and climate. UNEP focuses on environment, IPCC assesses science, and IEA is an autonomous energy agency.

Source: WMO Report: CO2 Levels 50% Above Pre-industrial Era, Earth Energy Equilibrium Upset, Warming Continues Even If Emissions Stop →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the WMO State of Climate Report:

1. The decade that ended last year (2025) was the hottest on record.

2. The concentration of methane and nitrous oxide reached its highest level in the last 800,000 years.

3. Renewable energy surpassed coal as the leading source of electricity globally in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The decade that ended last year was the hottest on record.' Statement 2 is correct: 'methane and nitrous oxide in at least the last 800,000 years.' Statement 3 is correct: 'In 2025, even as renewable energy edged out coal as the leading source of electricity...' Hence, all three statements are accurate.

Source: WMO Report: CO2 Levels 50% Above Pre-industrial Era, Earth Energy Equilibrium Upset, Warming Continues Even If Emissions Stop →
Q75.

According to the WMO report, how much higher is the current atmospheric carbon dioxide level compared to pre-industrial levels?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 25% higher
  • B.About 50% higher✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About 75% higher
  • D.About 100% higher
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is about 50 per cent higher than pre-industrial levels.' This is a precise data point crucial for Prelims. The other percentages are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: WMO Report: CO2 Levels 50% Above Pre-industrial Era, Earth Energy Equilibrium Upset, Warming Continues Even If Emissions Stop →
Q76.

What is the most critical implication of the 'heat surplus' and Earth's energy imbalance highlighted in the WMO report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It means renewable energy growth is insufficient to meet global energy demand.
  • B.It signifies that global emissions have reached a record high despite policy efforts.
  • C.It indicates that even if greenhouse gas emissions stop completely, the planet will continue to warm.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It shows that oceans have become the main repositories of extra energy, affecting marine life.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core finding is: 'But a heat surplus has accumulated in the past six decades. That means that even if GHG emissions were to completely stop anytime soon, the planet will continue to warm.' This locks in future warming, shifting focus from mitigation alone to adaptation. The other options are secondary observations.

Source: WMO Report: CO2 Levels 50% Above Pre-industrial Era, Earth Energy Equilibrium Upset, Warming Continues Even If Emissions Stop →
Q77.

Which regulatory body approved the revamped conflict-of-interest framework and eased FPI transaction norms as per the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) approved these measures at its board meeting. SEBI is the regulator for the securities market in India.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules, Bans Equity Trading for Top Officials and Family, Eases FPI Net Settlement →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI reforms:

1. All SEBI employees, including the chairman, are now completely barred from any investments in mutual funds.

2. The family members of SEBI employees are exempt from all investment restrictions mentioned in the new framework.

3. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) are now allowed to settle all their cash market transactions on a net basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) None of the above✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states mutual fund holdings are 'permitted', not barred. Statement 2 is incorrect as family members are also covered by restrictions (except for curbs on unlisted securities). Statement 3 is incorrect because net settlement is allowed only for 'outright' cash market transactions, not all transactions.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules, Bans Equity Trading for Top Officials and Family, Eases FPI Net Settlement →
Q79.

According to the news, in which month and year did SEBI set up the High-Level Committee (HLC) to review the conflict-of-interest framework?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 2024
  • B.March 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 2026
  • D.December 2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the high-level committee (HLC) was set up by SEBI back in March 2025. This is a precise factual date relevant for prelims.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules, Bans Equity Trading for Top Officials and Family, Eases FPI Net Settlement →
Q80.

What is a primary expected benefit of allowing FPIs to settle cash market transactions on a net basis, as approved by SEBI?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase speculative trading activity in the market
  • B.To reduce the cost of funds for FPIs, especially during index rebalancing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To allow FPIs to influence market prices through large positions
  • D.To shift all FPI transactions to a gross settlement system
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states this change 'is expected to reduce the cost of funds for FPIs, particularly on days when the indices are rebalanced'. The other options are incorrect or contrary to the article's explanation that concerns about market influence are allayed.

Source: SEBI Overhauls Conflict-of-Interest Rules, Bans Equity Trading for Top Officials and Family, Eases FPI Net Settlement →
Q81.

The authors of the article are affiliated with which research institute?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW)
  • D.Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's byline explicitly states: 'The writer is distinguished fellow, TERI and author of... Victor is research associate, TERI'. TERI is a prominent non-profit research institution in the fields of energy, environment, and sustainable development.

Source: Iran War Disrupts Strait of Hormuz, Spiking Oil to $109/Barrel; India Targets 30% Oil Import Cut via EV & Rooftop Solar →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding India's energy import scenario as discussed in the article:

1. India is the world's third-largest importer of crude oil.

2. Over 40 per cent of India's crude oil supply travels through the Strait of Malacca.

3. India's oil and gas imports constitute 25–30 per cent of its total merchandise imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'Being the third-largest importer of crude oil in the world...'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clearly mentions 'Over 40 per cent of India’s oil supply travels through the Strait of Hormuz', not the Strait of Malacca. This is a classic examiner trap swapping one strategic chokepoint for another. Statement 3 is correct: The article says imports 'constitute 25–30 per cent of our total imports.'

Source: Iran War Disrupts Strait of Hormuz, Spiking Oil to $109/Barrel; India Targets 30% Oil Import Cut via EV & Rooftop Solar →
Q83.

According to the article, what is the current price of crude oil per barrel following the disruptions caused by the war?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$65
  • B.$89
  • C.$109✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$125
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'The crude oil price is now $109 per barrel, up from $65 in mid-February.' $65 was the pre-war price, making it a close distractor. $89 and $125 are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned.

Source: Iran War Disrupts Strait of Hormuz, Spiking Oil to $109/Barrel; India Targets 30% Oil Import Cut via EV & Rooftop Solar →
Q84.

What is the primary strategic argument made in the article for achieving India's energy security?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Intensifying diplomatic efforts to secure long-term oil supply contracts with Gulf nations.
  • B.Accelerating domestic exploration to discover new oil and gas reserves.
  • C.Transitioning the economy towards electricity generated from domestic sources to replace imported fossil fuels.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Building strategic petroleum reserves to buffer against short-term supply shocks.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core thesis is that the path to energy security 'runs on electricity'. It argues that accelerating electrification (EVs, induction stoves) and generating that electricity from domestic coal and renewables will reduce dependence on imported oil and gas, thereby enhancing security. The other options are mentioned as failed or secondary approaches in the context of the article.

Source: Iran War Disrupts Strait of Hormuz, Spiking Oil to $109/Barrel; India Targets 30% Oil Import Cut via EV & Rooftop Solar →
Q85.

Which High Court took suo motu cognisance of the Sattankulam custodial deaths case in 2020?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Madras High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Supreme Court of India
  • C.Kerala High Court
  • D.Delhi High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court took suo motu cognisance of the case on June 24, 2020. This is a factual detail from the article and a key example of judicial intervention.

Source: Sattankulam Custodial Deaths: 9 Police Personnel Convicted in 2020 Tamil Nadu Case, Madras HC Initiated Suo Motu Cognisance →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam custodial deaths case:

1. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was the agency that prosecuted the accused police personnel.

2. The father and son were detained for violating COVID-19 lockdown rules, as per the final CBI chargesheet.

3. The judicial magistrate who remanded the victims conducted a proper physical examination before granting remand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the CBI charged and prosecuted the policemen. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CBI chargesheet stated Jayaraj had NOT violated lockdown rules. Statement 3 is false; the article describes the magistrate remanding them with a mere gesture from a balcony without proper examination.

Source: Sattankulam Custodial Deaths: 9 Police Personnel Convicted in 2020 Tamil Nadu Case, Madras HC Initiated Suo Motu Cognisance →
Q87.

How many police personnel were convicted by the sessions court in Madurai in the Sattankulam custodial deaths case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7
  • B.9✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10
  • D.12
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that a sessions court in Madurai convicted all nine surviving accused police personnel. One accused had died during the trial, making the original number charged as ten.

Source: Sattankulam Custodial Deaths: 9 Police Personnel Convicted in 2020 Tamil Nadu Case, Madras HC Initiated Suo Motu Cognisance →
Q88.

What was the primary significance of the Madras High Court's suo motu intervention in the Sattankulam case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To expedite the trial process through fast-track courts
  • B.To ensure an independent investigation by transferring the case to the CBI✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide compensation to the victims' family under a government scheme
  • D.To initiate contempt proceedings against the media for reporting on the case
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The High Court, expressing distrust of the local police, took suo motu cognisance and directed the CB-CID to step in until the CBI formally took over the investigation. This was crucial for ensuring an impartial probe, which is the core implication of suo motu action in such cases.

Source: Sattankulam Custodial Deaths: 9 Police Personnel Convicted in 2020 Tamil Nadu Case, Madras HC Initiated Suo Motu Cognisance →
Q89.

Which Union Ministry is leading the TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan in collaboration with 25 other ministries, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the health ministry has joined hands with 25 other ministries. The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare is also the author of the article. While other ministries collaborate, the lead nodal agency is the Health Ministry.

Source: India's TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 21% Incidence Reduction, 2 Lakh MY Bharat Volunteers & AI-Powered Screening for 20 Crore People →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding India's TB elimination efforts:

1. India's TB incidence reduction since 2015 is nearly twice the global rate of reduction.

2. The National TB Prevalence Survey revealed that a majority of TB patients show typical symptoms, prompting a shift to reactive screening.

3. Over 20 crore people have been screened using AI-enabled handheld X-ray units mounted on Ni-kshay Vahans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states India achieved a 21% reduction in TB incidence, which is nearly twice the global rate. Statement 2 is incorrect: The survey revealed that half (50%) of TB patients do NOT show typical symptoms, prompting a shift to PROACTIVE (not reactive) screening. Statement 3 is correct: The article states more than 20 crore people have been screened using AI-enabled handheld X-ray units on Ni-kshay Vahans.

Source: India's TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 21% Incidence Reduction, 2 Lakh MY Bharat Volunteers & AI-Powered Screening for 20 Crore People →
Q91.

According to the article, what percentage reduction in TB incidence has India achieved since 2015?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18%
  • B.21%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25%
  • D.30%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "India achieved a 21 per cent reduction in TB incidence — nearly twice the global rate." The 25% figure mentioned is the decline in TB mortality, not incidence. The other options are close distractors.

Source: India's TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 21% Incidence Reduction, 2 Lakh MY Bharat Volunteers & AI-Powered Screening for 20 Crore People →
Q92.

What is the primary rationale, as per the article, for shifting towards proactive screening of asymptomatic populations for TB?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of treatment for advanced TB cases.
  • B.To comply with international mandates from the World Health Organization.
  • C.Because silent cases fuel spread, making early diagnosis a civic responsibility.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To increase the number of beneficiaries under the Ayushman Bharat scheme.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the National TB Prevalence Survey revealed half of TB patients are asymptomatic. It then states: "Silent cases fuel spread — one undiagnosed patient can unknowingly pass the infection to others, making early diagnosis not only a clinical necessity but a civic responsibility." This directly outlines the primary rationale for the policy shift. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: India's TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 21% Incidence Reduction, 2 Lakh MY Bharat Volunteers & AI-Powered Screening for 20 Crore People →
Q93.

The strategic trade agreement discussed in the news is primarily between which two countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Japan and China
  • B.United States and Japan✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United States and India
  • D.Japan and Australia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly discusses the summit between Japanese PM Sanae Takaichi and US President Donald Trump, with the centrepiece being the progress on the 2025 US-Japan strategic trade and investment agreement.

Source: Japan-US Summit Advances $550 Billion Strategic Trade Deal, Reaffirms Indo-Pacific Stability →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Japan-US summit discussed in the news:

1. The summit resulted in Japan committing to a $550 billion investment in US infrastructure projects.

2. A key outcome was Japan's agreement to publicly join a US-led naval coalition against Iran in the Strait of Hormuz.

3. The summit reaffirmed the commitment to a 'free and open Indo-Pacific' and the importance of Taiwan's stability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Japan wielding a '$550 billion checkbook' for investments like SMR plants. Statement 2 is incorrect; Japan avoided a public rift and opted for a tactical compromise, not a public agreement to join a coalition. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the summit resulted in a 'reaffirmed commitment' on these issues.

Source: Japan-US Summit Advances $550 Billion Strategic Trade Deal, Reaffirms Indo-Pacific Stability →
Q95.

What is the total capacity of the natural gas and AI-ready power infrastructure in Ohio and Pennsylvania being funded by Japanese investments, as per the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5.5 GW
  • B.7.8 GW
  • C.9.2 GW✓ Correct Answer
  • D.12.0 GW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that Japanese investments are funding '9.2 GW of natural gas and AI-ready power infrastructure in Ohio and Pennsylvania'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Japan-US Summit Advances $550 Billion Strategic Trade Deal, Reaffirms Indo-Pacific Stability →
Q96.

What is the primary strategic objective behind Japan's $550 billion investment in the US economy, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To directly compete with Chinese manufacturing capabilities
  • B.To purchase 'alliance insurance' and ensure Japan is seen as an essential US partner✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce Japan's own fiscal deficit by investing abroad
  • D.To gain voting rights in US Federal Reserve decisions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article frames the investment as a geoeconomic strategy to 'buy alliance insurance'. It ensures the 'America First' doctrine includes Japan as a partner, transforming the alliance relationship and keeping the US engaged in the Pacific through financial stakes.

Source: Japan-US Summit Advances $550 Billion Strategic Trade Deal, Reaffirms Indo-Pacific Stability →
Q97.

The Chandrayaan-4 mission, mentioned in the news, is being planned by which Indian organisation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
  • B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Physical Research Laboratory (PRL)
  • D.European Space Agency (ESA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states "The Chandrayaan-4 mission, which the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has planned for 2028...". IIT and PRL are research collaborators, and ESA is a separate international agency planning its own mission.

Source: IIT Kharagpur-PRL Study in 'Geochimica et Cosmochimica Acta' Explains Moon's 18% TiO2 Basalts, Aiding Chandrayaan-4 2028 Sample Return →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the study on moon's titanium-rich rocks:

1. It was conducted by researchers from IIT-Kharagpur and the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad.

2. The study successfully explained the formation of lunar basalts with up to 18% titanium dioxide using high-pressure lab experiments.

3. The findings are irrelevant to future ISRO missions as they only explain past geological events.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the study's objective was to explain the high titanium content. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states the findings could help inform the landing site decision for Chandrayaan-4, making them highly relevant.

Source: IIT Kharagpur-PRL Study in 'Geochimica et Cosmochimica Acta' Explains Moon's 18% TiO2 Basalts, Aiding Chandrayaan-4 2028 Sample Return →
Q99.

According to the article, what is the maximum percentage of titanium dioxide (TiO2) found in some lunar basalts, as compared to those on Earth?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Up to 2%
  • B.Up to 9%
  • C.Up to 18%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Up to 25%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "While volcanic rocks on the earth rarely contain more than 2% titanium dioxide (TiO2), some lunar basalts ... carry up to 18%." The other options are distractors: 2% is for Earth, 9% and 25% are not mentioned.

Source: IIT Kharagpur-PRL Study in 'Geochimica et Cosmochimica Acta' Explains Moon's 18% TiO2 Basalts, Aiding Chandrayaan-4 2028 Sample Return →
Q100.

What is the primary significance of the IIT-PRL study on titanium-rich lunar rocks for India's space program?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It proposes a new rocket design for heavier payloads.
  • B.It provides geological context to select a landing site for the Chandrayaan-4 sample return mission.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It confirms the presence of water ice in the lunar Shiv Shakti region.
  • D.It develops a new satellite communication protocol for deep space.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the study's findings to the Chandrayaan-4 mission, stating "the study’s findings could help inform that decision" regarding the critical choice of landing site. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: IIT Kharagpur-PRL Study in 'Geochimica et Cosmochimica Acta' Explains Moon's 18% TiO2 Basalts, Aiding Chandrayaan-4 2028 Sample Return →
Q101.

The article cites a study by the International Council on Clean Transportation (ICCT). Which of the following best describes the ICCT's primary area of work?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Promoting international trade agreements
  • B.Providing independent research on clean transportation policies✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Regulating global automotive safety standards
  • D.Funding infrastructure projects in developing nations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The International Council on Clean Transportation (ICCT) is an independent nonprofit organization that provides technical and scientific research to environmental regulators, primarily focusing on clean transportation policies to reduce emissions and improve air quality.

Source: Transport Contributes 20-40% of Delhi's PM2.5, Needs Supply-Side Regulations like ICE Phase-Out and ZEV Mandates →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article on transport and air quality:

1. In Delhi, transport contributes over 50% of PM2.5 pollution only during the peak winter months.

2. The article argues that demand-side subsidies for electric vehicles are a sufficient long-term policy to achieve air quality goals.

3. Supply-Side Regulations (SSRs) like zero-emission vehicle sales mandates are advocated to provide predictable signals for industry investment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states transport's contribution rises to over 50% during peak pollution months. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article critiques demand-side subsidies as insufficient and advocates for a shift to SSRs. Statement 3 is correct as SSRs like ZEV mandates are highlighted for providing strong, predictable investment signals.

Source: Transport Contributes 20-40% of Delhi's PM2.5, Needs Supply-Side Regulations like ICE Phase-Out and ZEV Mandates →
Q103.

According to the health assessment cited in the article, approximately what percentage of PM2.5-related deaths in Delhi are attributed to the transport sector?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15-20%
  • B.20-25%
  • C.30-35%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.40-45%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that health assessments attribute 30-35% of PM2.5-related deaths in Delhi to transport, equivalent to around 13,000 premature deaths annually.

Source: Transport Contributes 20-40% of Delhi's PM2.5, Needs Supply-Side Regulations like ICE Phase-Out and ZEV Mandates →
Q104.

What is the primary limitation of relying solely on demand-side subsidies for electric vehicles, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They are ineffective in creating initial market demand.
  • B.They can strain public finances and provide limited certainty for long-term industry planning.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They primarily benefit high-income groups and exclude the middle class entirely.
  • D.They are illegal under current World Trade Organization rules.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that while subsidies play an early role, they become a blunt and expensive instrument that can strain public finances and offer limited certainty to manufacturers and infrastructure providers about the transition's pace and scale, necessitating a shift to supply-side regulations.

Source: Transport Contributes 20-40% of Delhi's PM2.5, Needs Supply-Side Regulations like ICE Phase-Out and ZEV Mandates →
Q105.

Under which Act does the Election Commission of India derive its power to impose restrictions on exit polls?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Election Commission Act, 1950
  • B.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • C.The Representation of the People Act, 1951✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Constitution of India, Article 324
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the order was issued under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. While Article 324 of the Constitution establishes the ECI, specific regulatory powers for such bans are detailed in the RPA, 1951.

Source: ECI Bans Exit Poll Publication from April 9, 7 AM to April 29, 6:30 PM Under Representation of the People Act, 1951 →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission's order mentioned in the news:

1. The ban on publishing exit polls is effective from the beginning of polls in five States/UTs till the end of polls in those States/UTs.

2. The order also prohibits the display of any election matter, including opinion poll results, in print media during the 48 hours before polling ends.

3. The Chief Electoral Officer of Tamil Nadu issued this order under the powers granted by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 48-hour ban applies to 'electronic media', not 'print media'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the order was issued under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not directly under the Constitution.

Source: ECI Bans Exit Poll Publication from April 9, 7 AM to April 29, 6:30 PM Under Representation of the People Act, 1951 →
Q107.

According to the news, on which date is the polling for the Tamil Nadu Assembly elections scheduled?

MediumSSC, State PSC
  • A.April 9, 2026
  • B.April 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 29, 2026
  • D.March 24, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'polling for Tamil Nadu Assembly elections 2026 will be held on April 23'. April 9 and 29 are the start and end dates of the exit poll ban period, and March 24 is the date of the news report.

Source: ECI Bans Exit Poll Publication from April 9, 7 AM to April 29, 6:30 PM Under Representation of the People Act, 1951 →
Q108.

What is the primary objective behind the Election Commission's ban on exit polls during the election period?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of election coverage for media houses.
  • B.To prevent exit poll results from influencing voters in ongoing or subsequent phases of elections.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage more voters to participate in opinion polls before voting.
  • D.To allow political parties to finalize their campaign strategies based on early trends.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as inferred from the ban's timing (covering multiple election dates), is to maintain a level playing field and ensure voters are not unduly influenced by projected results, which is a standard practice for preserving electoral integrity.

Source: ECI Bans Exit Poll Publication from April 9, 7 AM to April 29, 6:30 PM Under Representation of the People Act, 1951 →
Q109.

Which organization's head of research proposed the need for skill certification for migrant workers, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT)
  • B.National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Sector Skill Council (SSC)
  • D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Debdeep De as the Head of Research, National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). NCVT and SSCs are other bodies under the skill ecosystem, but the proposal came from NSDC research head.

Source: NSDC Proposes Skill Certification & Digital Passport for Migrant Workers to Reduce Rejection Risk Amid India's Demographic Advantage →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposals discussed in the news:

1. A digital 'skill passport' containing verified credentials is proposed for migrant workers.

2. Finishing schools in India should provide training only for deep tech sectors like AI.

3. Joint skill assessment programs, like one with the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, can help align Indian certifications with destination country requirements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a proposed digital card-like 'skill passport'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article suggests finishing schools could provide training for various sectors (e.g., German automobile industry) and languages, not only deep tech. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites the example of a joint assessment program with Saudi Arabia.

Source: NSDC Proposes Skill Certification & Digital Passport for Migrant Workers to Reduce Rejection Risk Amid India's Demographic Advantage →
Q111.

According to the news article, which of the following countries is NOT mentioned as having a migration and mobility agreement with India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.France
  • B.Germany
  • C.Japan✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Denmark
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists France, UK, Germany, Austria, Australia, Italy, and Denmark as countries with which India has signed migration and mobility agreements. Japan is not mentioned in the provided article content.

Source: NSDC Proposes Skill Certification & Digital Passport for Migrant Workers to Reduce Rejection Risk Amid India's Demographic Advantage →
Q112.

What is the primary objective behind proposing standardized skill certification for Indian workers migrating abroad, as discussed in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through taxation of migrant workers
  • B.To promote foreign direct investment in Indian skill development sectors
  • C.To reduce rejection risk and enhance India's reputation as a quality-assured workforce provider✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce fiscal deficit by increasing remittance inflows
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as stated by the NSDC head, is to reduce the risk of rejection of migrant workers by ensuring their skills are certified and verifiable, thereby strengthening employer confidence and enhancing India's reputation. While remittances are a benefit, the primary focus is on certification and reputation.

Source: NSDC Proposes Skill Certification & Digital Passport for Migrant Workers to Reduce Rejection Risk Amid India's Demographic Advantage →
Q113.

Under which Article of the Constitution does the Governor deliver the Customary Address to the State Legislature?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 75
  • B.Article 176✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 200
  • D.Article 213
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 176 of the Constitution mandates that the Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses) at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the beginning of the first session of each year.

Source: TN 16th Assembly (2021-2026): DMK Majority 133/118, NEET Bill Re-adoption, Governor-State Friction →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly:

1. The DMK secured a majority on its own in the 2021 elections, last having done so in 1996.

2. The Assembly re-adopted the NEET exemption Bill in February 2022 after it was returned by the Governor.

3. The Governor, R.N. Ravi, delivered the Customary Address without incident in 2023, 2024, and 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: DMK secured 133 seats (majority mark 118) in 2021, and its last solo majority was in 1996. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill was re-adopted on February 8, 2022. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Governor walked out or did not deliver the address in 2023, 2024, and 2025, as detailed in the article.

Source: TN 16th Assembly (2021-2026): DMK Majority 133/118, NEET Bill Re-adoption, Governor-State Friction →
Q115.

What was the total number of seats secured by the DMK-led Secular Progressive Alliance in the 2021 Tamil Nadu Assembly elections?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.118 seats
  • B.133 seats
  • C.159 seats✓ Correct Answer
  • D.234 seats
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The DMK secured 133 seats... while overall, its Secular Progressive Alliance bagged 159 seats.' 118 is the majority mark, 133 is DMK's own seats, and 234 is the total number of Assembly seats.

Source: TN 16th Assembly (2021-2026): DMK Majority 133/118, NEET Bill Re-adoption, Governor-State Friction →
Q116.

What was a key administrative innovation introduced by the 16th Tamil Nadu Assembly?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Introduction of a separate Defense Budget
  • B.Shift to a fully digital, paperless budget presentation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Mandatory use of only English in official proceedings
  • D.Establishment of a new Upper House (Legislative Council)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that on August 13, 2021, the revised Budget was presented in a paperless format, supported by tablet devices for MLAs. This marked a significant departure from tradition. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: TN 16th Assembly (2021-2026): DMK Majority 133/118, NEET Bill Re-adoption, Governor-State Friction →
Q117.

Which organization publishes the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) and the Global Peace Index (GPI)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
  • B.Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Economic Forum (WEF)
  • D.Transparency International
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), established in 2007, publishes the Global Terrorism Index, Global Peace Index, and Ecological Threat Report. The other organizations are not mentioned in the context of these reports.

Source: Global Terrorism Index 2026: Pakistan Ranks 1st, India Improves to 13th; Sahel Accounts for 50% of Deaths →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2026:

1. Pakistan has been ranked number one for the first time in the 2026 index.

2. The Sahel region accounted for more than half of all deaths from terrorism in 2025.

3. India's rank improved to 12th in the 2026 index from 14th in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Pakistan surpassed Burkina Faso to rank 1st for the first time. Statement 2 is correct: The Sahel accounted for more than half of all deaths in 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect: India's rank improved to 13th, not 12th, in GTI 2026 from 14th in 2025.

Source: Global Terrorism Index 2026: Pakistan Ranks 1st, India Improves to 13th; Sahel Accounts for 50% of Deaths →
Q119.

According to the Global Terrorism Index 2026, how many people were killed in terrorist attacks globally in the year 2025?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.4,582
  • B.5,582✓ Correct Answer
  • C.6,582
  • D.7,582
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact data point: "In 2025, 5,582 people were killed in terrorist attacks across 2,944 incidents." The other options are close distractors.

Source: Global Terrorism Index 2026: Pakistan Ranks 1st, India Improves to 13th; Sahel Accounts for 50% of Deaths →
Q120.

What is a key common feature identified by the GTI 2026 among the world's most persistent terrorism hotspots like the Afghanistan-Pakistan borderlands and the Sahel?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.High population density and urbanization
  • B.Strong central government control and surveillance
  • C.Porous borders and under-governed territory✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Abundance of natural resources and mineral wealth
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that these hotspots "share common features: porous borders, under governed territory, and connected communities that span national boundaries." This highlights the governance and territorial control challenges that allow terrorist groups to operate freely.

Source: Global Terrorism Index 2026: Pakistan Ranks 1st, India Improves to 13th; Sahel Accounts for 50% of Deaths →
Q121.

The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is primarily responsible to which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Urban Development
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NHAI is an autonomous agency under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. It was established under the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988, for the development, maintenance, and management of national highways.

Source: Patna HC Sets Aside Waqf Tribunal Injunction, Rules National Highways Act 1956 Prevails Over Waqf Act 1995 for Land Acquisition →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the Patna High Court judgment on the Bihar Waqf Tribunal order:

1. The court held that the Waqf Tribunal was absolutely without jurisdiction to pass an injunction on land acquisition under the National Highways Act.

2. The court ruled that Section 91 of the Waqf Act, 1995, completely prohibits the acquisition of any Waqf property for public purposes.

3. The judgment relied on the Supreme Court precedent in NHAI vs Sayedabad Tea Company Ltd. (2020) to affirm that highway acquisition laws operate as a complete code.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court held the tribunal acted 'absolutely without jurisdiction'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court clarified Section 91 only ensures notice for compensation, it does not prohibit acquisition. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court relied on the NHAI vs Sayedabad Tea Company Ltd. (2020) Supreme Court ruling.

Source: Patna HC Sets Aside Waqf Tribunal Injunction, Rules National Highways Act 1956 Prevails Over Waqf Act 1995 for Land Acquisition →
Q123.

Under which specific section of the Waqf Act, 1995, did the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) file its miscellaneous appeal in the Patna High Court?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Section 83(5)
  • B.Section 83(9)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 91(1)
  • D.Section 52(3)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The high court was hearing a miscellaneous appeal under Section 83(9) of the Waqf Act, 1995, filed by NHAI.' This is the provision that allows appeals against orders of the Waqf Tribunal to be made to the High Court.

Source: Patna HC Sets Aside Waqf Tribunal Injunction, Rules National Highways Act 1956 Prevails Over Waqf Act 1995 for Land Acquisition →
Q124.

What is the primary legal principle established by the Patna High Court judgment regarding the conflict between the National Highways Act and the Waqf Act?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.That the Waqf Act, being a special law, always overrides general laws like the National Highways Act.
  • B.That in case of conflict, the central legislation (National Highways Act) enacted under the Union List prevails over the state-related Waqf Act.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.That both Acts must be followed simultaneously, requiring dual approval from NHAI and the Waqf Board for any acquisition.
  • D.That such conflicts must always be referred to the Supreme Court for a constitutional interpretation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The high court held that in case of any conflict between the two laws, the National Highways Act– enacted under the Union List would prevail over the Waqf Act.' This establishes the hierarchy of laws based on the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

Source: Patna HC Sets Aside Waqf Tribunal Injunction, Rules National Highways Act 1956 Prevails Over Waqf Act 1995 for Land Acquisition →
Q125.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for moving the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 in the Lok Sabha?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Social Justice and Empowerment Minister Virendra Kumar moved the bill for consideration and passage. This ministry handles policies and legislation for the welfare of marginalized communities, including transgender persons.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 to Redefine Identity Via Medical Board →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. It proposes to issue identity cards to transgender persons based on certification by a district-level medical board.

2. The definition of a transgender person in the bill explicitly includes persons with different sexual orientations.

3. The bill was passed in the Lok Sabha by a voice vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The bill includes a provision for a medical board and district magistrates will issue identity cards. Statement 2 is incorrect: The bill explicitly states a transgender person 'shall not include... persons with different sexual orientations and self-perceived sexual identities'. Statement 3 is correct: The Lok Sabha passed the bill by voice vote on March 24, 2026.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 to Redefine Identity Via Medical Board →
Q127.

On which date was the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 passed by the Lok Sabha?

MediumSSC, Banking
  • A.March 22, 2026
  • B.March 23, 2026
  • C.March 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.March 25, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states 'The Lok Sabha on Tuesday (March 24, 2026) passed the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, by voice vote.' The other dates are close distractors.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 to Redefine Identity Via Medical Board →
Q128.

What is a primary criticism raised by opposition parties against the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It does not provide for any punishment for offences against transgender persons.
  • B.It violates the right to self-determination of identity as upheld in the NALSA judgment.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It mandates compulsory surgical procedures for transgender identity recognition.
  • D.It merges the welfare schemes for transgender persons with those for persons with disabilities.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Opposition MPs like Jyothimani (Congress) and T. Sumathy (DMK) argued that the bill, by introducing a medical board, interferes with the right to self-determination affirmed by the Supreme Court in the NALSA judgment. They called the bill 'draconian' for this reason.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 to Redefine Identity Via Medical Board →
Q129.

Under which Schedule of the Indian Constitution are the provisions related to disqualification on grounds of defection contained?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Seventh Schedule
  • B.Eighth Schedule
  • C.Ninth Schedule
  • D.Tenth Schedule✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Anti-Defection Law is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It specifies the grounds and process for disqualification of elected members.

Source: Telangana HC Issues Notice to Speaker on MLA Danam Nagender's Disqualification Under Tenth Schedule Article 2(1)(a) →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Telangana High Court issued a notice to the Assembly Speaker on a petition challenging the dismissal of a disqualification case against an MLA.

2. The petition argues that the MLA stands disqualified from the date he filed his nomination affidavit for the Lok Sabha elections on a Congress ticket.

3. The Supreme Court case of Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu allows judicial review of a Speaker's order only on grounds of procedural lapses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the High Court issued notices. Statement 2 is correct: the petitioner contended disqualification from the nomination filing date (April 23, 2024). Statement 3 is incorrect: The Kihoto Hollohan case allows review on grounds of constitutional mandate, perversity, natural justice, and malafide, not just procedural lapses.

Source: Telangana HC Issues Notice to Speaker on MLA Danam Nagender's Disqualification Under Tenth Schedule Article 2(1)(a) →
Q131.

According to the petition filed in the Telangana High Court, from which date does the petitioner claim MLA Danam Nagender stands disqualified under the Tenth Schedule?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 11, 2026
  • B.April 23, 2024✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 2025
  • D.February 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The petitioner contended that Nagender stands disqualified... from the date of filing of the nomination affidavit for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, i.e., April 23, 2024.' The other dates relate to the Speaker's order (March 2026) and Supreme Court directions (July 2025, February 2026).

Source: Telangana HC Issues Notice to Speaker on MLA Danam Nagender's Disqualification Under Tenth Schedule Article 2(1)(a) →
Q132.

What is the primary legal ground cited in the petition for challenging the Speaker's order dismissing the disqualification case?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The Speaker violated the principle of natural justice.
  • B.The Speaker's findings were alien to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Speaker exhibited malafide intent due to political pressure.
  • D.The Speaker exceeded the time limit prescribed by the Supreme Court.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'He argued that the findings of the Speaker... were alien to the tenth schedule.' While other grounds like natural justice and malafide are mentioned as possible grounds from the Kihoto Hollohan case, the primary argument in this specific petition is that the Speaker applied irrelevant considerations.

Source: Telangana HC Issues Notice to Speaker on MLA Danam Nagender's Disqualification Under Tenth Schedule Article 2(1)(a) →
Q133.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to specify the list of Scheduled Castes?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 340
  • B.Article 341✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 342
  • D.Article 343
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President, after consultation with the Governor, to specify by public notification the castes, races or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes in a state or UT. This is the legal basis for the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, which was central to the Supreme Court's judgment.

Source: SC Upholds Constitution Order Clause 3, SC Rejects DNT Enumeration in Census, Gujarat Tabled UCC Bill 2026 →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on Scheduled Caste status:

1. The judgment confirmed that only Hindus can be members of a Scheduled Caste community.

2. The Bench invoked Clause 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950.

3. The Court stated that the restriction under the invoked clause was absolute.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court judgment, as per the article, confirmed that only Hindus, Sikhs, and Buddhists can claim SC status, not just Hindus. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Bench invoked Clause 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order, 1950, not the Scheduled Tribes Order. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states "the court said the restriction under the clause was absolute."

Source: SC Upholds Constitution Order Clause 3, SC Rejects DNT Enumeration in Census, Gujarat Tabled UCC Bill 2026 →
Q135.

According to the news, which state government tabled a Uniform Civil Code Bill in its Legislative Assembly in March 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Uttarakhand
  • B.Madhya Pradesh
  • C.Gujarat✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Assam
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The Gujarat government on Tuesday (March 24, 2026) tabled the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill, 2026 in the Legislative Assembly." While Uttarakhand passed a UCC earlier, the news specifically reports the tabling of the Bill in Gujarat.

Source: SC Upholds Constitution Order Clause 3, SC Rejects DNT Enumeration in Census, Gujarat Tabled UCC Bill 2026 →
Q136.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court, as per Chief Justice Surya Kant, for dismissing the petition seeking enumeration of Denotified Tribes in the Census?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Lack of budgetary provisions for such an exercise.
  • B.Administrative difficulty in identifying nomadic communities.
  • C.A perceived effort to divide society by creating more classes.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The matter falls under the exclusive domain of the Parliament.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Chief Justice Surya Kant remarking that there appeared to be a 'calculated' and 'deep-rooted' effort to divide India, adding, 'When we are striving for a casteless society, do you want to create more classes?' This philosophical objection to further categorization was the primary reason highlighted in the news for dismissing the petition.

Source: SC Upholds Constitution Order Clause 3, SC Rejects DNT Enumeration in Census, Gujarat Tabled UCC Bill 2026 →
Q137.

The news mentions the assassination of Ali Larijani, who was the Secretary of which Iranian body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Intelligence
  • B.Revolutionary Guards (IRGC)
  • C.Supreme National Security Council✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Parliament (Majlis)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ali Larijani was the Secretary of Iran's Supreme National Security Council. This is a key institution in Iran's security architecture.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closed: 90% India LNG Imports Hit, Rupee Hits 93.49 Low, Semaglutide Patent Expires March 2026 →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Approximately 90% of India's crude oil imports pass through the Strait of Hormuz.

2. The patent for Semaglutide, used in weight loss drug Wegovy, expired in March 2026.

3. The Indian rupee closed at 93.49 against the US dollar on March 20, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the article states 90% of India's LNG (Liquefied Natural Gas) imports pass through the Strait, not crude oil. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; 93.49 was the intra-day low, but the rupee closed at 93.3483 on that day.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closed: 90% India LNG Imports Hit, Rupee Hits 93.49 Low, Semaglutide Patent Expires March 2026 →
Q139.

According to the news, what was the death toll from the Pakistani airstrike on the Omid Drug Addiction Treatment Hospital in Kabul in March 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.250
  • B.400✓ Correct Answer
  • C.300
  • D.350
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Afghanistan's Deputy Government spokesman said the death toll increased to 400. The number 250 refers to the injured, creating a potential distractor.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closed: 90% India LNG Imports Hit, Rupee Hits 93.49 Low, Semaglutide Patent Expires March 2026 →
Q140.

What is a primary implication of the Semaglutide patent expiry mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will lead to increased investment in cold storage infrastructure across India.
  • B.It is expected to significantly reduce out-of-pocket expenditure for patients on diabetes/weight-loss medication.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will force Novo Nordisk to withdraw all its products from the Indian market.
  • D.It mandates the Indian government to include the drug in the National List of Essential Medicines.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that costs for the lowest dose could drop from ₹11,000 to around ₹1,500. Given that pharmaceuticals make up ~30% of out-of-pocket medical expenditure in India, this price reduction is the direct and primary implication.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closed: 90% India LNG Imports Hit, Rupee Hits 93.49 Low, Semaglutide Patent Expires March 2026 →
Q141.

Which landmark Supreme Court judgment first recognized transgender persons as a 'third gender' and affirmed their right to self-identification?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017)
  • B.National Legal Services Authority vs. Union of India (2014)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India (2018)
  • D.Shayara Bano vs. Union of India (2017)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 2014 NALSA judgment as the landmark case that declared transgender people the 'third gender' and granted the right to self-identification. This is a fundamental static GK point for Polity and Social Justice sections.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 Amendment Bill 2026 Sparks Protests Over Self-Identification Rights →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the criticisms of the Transgender Amendment Bill 2026 mentioned in the article:

1. It is argued that the Bill fundamentally undermines the right to self-identification established by the NALSA judgment.

2. The Bill is praised for including explicit recognition and protections for trans men within its definition.

3. Critics state that the Bill criminalizes the traditional Jamaat system without providing alternative state-supported safeguards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes activists saying the Bill 'robs us of dignity' and questions self-identification. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article argues the Bill excludes trans men, asking 'Who then, are trans men?'. Statement 3 is correct as V Neela Naik states the Centre is 'calling us criminals, demonising the system' and highlights the lack of provisions for reservation, healthcare, and housing.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 Amendment Bill 2026 Sparks Protests Over Self-Identification Rights →
Q143.

According to the article, which state is highlighted as having made progressive advancements for the transgender community, such as eliminating medical examinations for gender determination?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Kerala
  • B.Maharashtra
  • C.Tamil Nadu✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Delhi
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'Tamil Nadu then progressed, eliminating the need for medical examination to be determined trans.' It also credits late CM M. Karunanidhi for the term 'Thirunangai' and mentions the creation of welfare boards and advisory committees in the state.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 Amendment Bill 2026 Sparks Protests Over Self-Identification Rights →
Q144.

What is a primary concern raised by activists regarding the potential impact of the Transgender Amendment Bill 2026 on traditional support systems?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It provides excessive funding to the Jamaat system, creating dependency.
  • B.It integrates the Jamaat system formally into the government's social welfare framework.
  • C.It criminalizes the Jamaat system without offering alternative state-backed protections.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It mandates the Jamaat system to register all its members with the government.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

V Neela Naik, a Jamaat leader, states: 'The Centre though, is now calling us criminals, demonising the system.' She further argues that criminalizing it 'without any provisions to provide reservation in terms of education, proper health insurance, better medical support... and possibilities of housing, is snatching away all attempts at protection.'

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 Amendment Bill 2026 Sparks Protests Over Self-Identification Rights →
Q145.

Under which article of the Indian Constitution do High Courts possess the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, as exercised by the Delhi High Court in this case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 136
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 gives similar power to the Supreme Court. Articles 136 and 142 relate to the Supreme Court's special leave and enforcement powers, respectively.

Source: Delhi HC Upholds Campus Free Speech; Strikes Down Student Suspension in Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University Case →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment discussed in the news:

1. The court held that peaceful expression of ideas can be restricted if they threaten the public order on campus.

2. The judgment emphasized that a university's role is to suppress all forms of dissent to maintain discipline.

3. The case involved the revocation of a student's suspension from Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the judgment restricted curbs based on ideological misalignment, not public order (though Article 19(2) allows it). Statement 2 is the exact opposite of the court's view, which said a university's role is NOT to suppress but to answer dissent. Statement 3 is factually correct as per the article.

Source: Delhi HC Upholds Campus Free Speech; Strikes Down Student Suspension in Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University Case →
Q147.

In the Delhi High Court case, which specific university's action of suspending a student was under judicial review?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Jawaharlal Nehru University
  • B.University of Delhi
  • C.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ambedkar University Delhi
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Delhi High Court revoked the suspension of a student of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University. 'Ambedkar University Delhi' is a common informal name but the official name as per the text is Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University.

Source: Delhi HC Upholds Campus Free Speech; Strikes Down Student Suspension in Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University Case →
Q148.

What is the core constitutional principle that the Delhi High Court judgment primarily reinforces in the context of university campuses?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The right to equality under Article 14
  • B.The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The right to life and personal liberty under Article 21
  • D.The right to constitutional remedies under Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment centers on protecting peaceful expression of ideas, which is the essence of Article 19(1)(a). While other rights may be ancillary, the core issue was the restriction on speech/expression by the university management based on ideological disagreement.

Source: Delhi HC Upholds Campus Free Speech; Strikes Down Student Suspension in Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University Case →
Q149.

Which central agency investigated and prosecuted the UAPA case against Asiya Andrabi?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
  • D.Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the National Investigation Agency (NIA) sought life imprisonment for Asiya Andrabi. The NIA is the designated federal agency for investigating terror-related offenses under laws like UAPA.

Source: Delhi Court Sentences Dukhtaran-e-Millat Chief Asiya Andrabi to Life Under UAPA Sections 20, 38, 39 →
Q150.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Asiya Andrabi was convicted under UAPA Sections 20, 38, and 39.

2. Her associates were sentenced to life imprisonment.

3. The court also convicted them under IPC Section 153A for promoting enmity between different groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which lists UAPA Sections 20, 38, 39. Statement 2 is incorrect; the associates (Sofi Fehmeeda and Nahida Nasreen) were sentenced to 30 years, not life imprisonment. Statement 3 is correct as IPC Section 153A is listed among the charges.

Source: Delhi Court Sentences Dukhtaran-e-Millat Chief Asiya Andrabi to Life Under UAPA Sections 20, 38, 39 →
Q151.

What was the prison sentence awarded to Asiya Andrabi's two associates, Sofi Fehmeeda and Nahida Nasreen, in the same UAPA case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 years imprisonment
  • B.20 years imprisonment
  • C.30 years imprisonment✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Life imprisonment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The court also sentenced two associates of Andrabi — Sofi Fehmeeda and Nahida Nasreen — who were also convicted for 30 years in prison in the same case.'

Source: Delhi Court Sentences Dukhtaran-e-Millat Chief Asiya Andrabi to Life Under UAPA Sections 20, 38, 39 →
Q152.

What was the primary legal rationale cited by the NIA for seeking life imprisonment for Asiya Andrabi?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.She was involved in financial fraud against the state.
  • B.She had waged war against India and conspired against the State.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.She violated international human rights laws.
  • D.She was a fugitive from justice for over a decade.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the NIA's argument: 'saying she had waged war against India and a stern message was required to be sent that conspiring against the State would invite the harshest penalty.' This aligns with the charges under IPC 121A (conspiracy against the State).

Source: Delhi Court Sentences Dukhtaran-e-Millat Chief Asiya Andrabi to Life Under UAPA Sections 20, 38, 39 →
Q153.

Which U.S. congressional advisory body published the report warning about China's open-source AI dominance?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Congressional Budget Office (CBO)
  • B.U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission (USCC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR)
  • D.Government Accountability Office (GAO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report was published by the 'U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission'. This is a congressional commission tasked with monitoring the bilateral relationship.

Source: U.S.-China Commission Warns China's 80% Open-Source AI Model Usage Challenges U.S. Tech Leadership →
Q154.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The report highlights that Chinese open-source AI models dominate global usage due primarily to their superior technical performance.

2. U.S. export restrictions have successfully prevented China from accessing any advanced AI chips since 2022.

3. China has designated 'Embodied AI', including humanoid robotics, as a core future strategic industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Dominance is attributed to 'cheaper cost', not necessarily superior performance. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article notes Washington approved exports of Nvidia's second-most advanced chip in December. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Source: U.S.-China Commission Warns China's 80% Open-Source AI Model Usage Challenges U.S. Tech Leadership →
Q155.

According to the report cited in the article, approximately what percentage of U.S. AI startups are estimated to use Chinese open-source AI models?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 50%
  • B.About 65%
  • C.About 80%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Some estimates suggest that around 80% of U.S. AI startups now use Chinese open-source AI models.' This is a key data point highlighting the scale of adoption.

Source: U.S.-China Commission Warns China's 80% Open-Source AI Model Usage Challenges U.S. Tech Leadership →
Q156.

What is identified in the report as a key factor enabling China to innovate in AI despite U.S. restrictions on advanced computing chips?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Heavy reliance on imported semiconductor technology from other countries.
  • B.A closed, state-controlled AI development ecosystem with no foreign access.
  • C.The open-source ecosystem which provides alternative pathways for model development.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A significant reduction in China's overall AI research and development funding.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report directly states, 'This open ecosystem enables China to innovate close to the frontier despite significant compute constraints' and calls it an 'alternative pathway to AI leadership.' The other options are contrary to the article's narrative.

Source: U.S.-China Commission Warns China's 80% Open-Source AI Model Usage Challenges U.S. Tech Leadership →
Q157.

The three-stage nuclear energy programme of India, involving PHWR, PFBR, and AHWR, is primarily under the purview of which government department?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Science and Technology
  • B.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • D.Ministry of Power
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is the nodal agency responsible for India's nuclear power programme, including research, design, and operation of reactors like PHWR, PFBR, and AHWR.

Source: India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Programme: PHWR to PFBR to AHWR for Thorium-Based Energy Self-Sufficiency by 2030 →
Q158.

Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy programme:

1. The first stage uses Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) fuelled by natural uranium.

2. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) in the second stage uses thorium as its primary fuel.

3. The third stage aims to utilize Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWRs) to breed Uranium-233 from Thorium-232.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The first stage indeed uses uranium-fuelled PHWRs. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PFBR uses plutonium-based mixed oxide fuel, not thorium. Statement 3 is correct: The AHWR in the third stage is designed to use thorium to breed fissile U-233.

Source: India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Programme: PHWR to PFBR to AHWR for Thorium-Based Energy Self-Sufficiency by 2030 →
Q159.

According to the article, what is the estimated share of India's thorium reserves in the global total?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15-20%
  • B.25-30%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.35-40%
  • D.45-50%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India's thorium reserves are estimated at nearly 8.5 lakh tonnes, accounting for nearly 25–30 per cent of global thorium reserves.

Source: India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Programme: PHWR to PFBR to AHWR for Thorium-Based Energy Self-Sufficiency by 2030 →
Q160.

What is the primary strategic reason for India's planned transition from uranium to thorium in its nuclear energy programme?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of electricity generation immediately
  • B.To achieve energy self-sufficiency by utilizing abundant domestic thorium reserves✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with international non-proliferation treaties
  • D.To phase out all Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that India has limited uranium but vast thorium reserves. The three-stage programme is designed to transition to thorium to reduce dependence on imported uranium and achieve long-term energy security and self-sufficiency.

Source: India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Programme: PHWR to PFBR to AHWR for Thorium-Based Energy Self-Sufficiency by 2030 →
Q161.

Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for building and managing India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • B.Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
  • D.Petroleum Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL) is a special purpose vehicle under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It is responsible for constructing and operating the country's strategic crude oil storage facilities.

Source: India's Strategic Petroleum Reserve at 5.3 MMT, Aims for 6.5 MMT Amid West Asia Crisis; Oil Imports Diversified to 41 Countries →
Q162.

Consider the following statements regarding India's energy security as mentioned in the news:

1. India's strategic petroleum reserve capacity has been developed to over 5.3 million metric tonnes in the last 11 years.

2. India currently imports crude oil and LNG from 27 different countries, down from 41 countries previously.

3. The government has constituted seven new empowered groups to manage the impact of the West Asia crisis on supply chains and inflation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India now imports from 41 countries, up from 27 earlier. Statement 3 is correct as the PM informed the House about the formation of seven new empowered groups.

Source: India's Strategic Petroleum Reserve at 5.3 MMT, Aims for 6.5 MMT Amid West Asia Crisis; Oil Imports Diversified to 41 Countries →
Q163.

According to Prime Minister Modi's statement in the Rajya Sabha, what is the current capacity of India's strategic petroleum reserves that has been developed?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.4.2 million metric tonnes
  • B.5.3 million metric tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.6.5 million metric tonnes
  • D.7.8 million metric tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Prime Minister explicitly stated, "In the last 11 years, we have developed over 53 lakh metric tonnes of strategic petroleum reserves..." 53 lakh metric tonnes is equivalent to 5.3 million metric tonnes (MMT). The figure 6.5 MMT is the target capacity being worked towards.

Source: India's Strategic Petroleum Reserve at 5.3 MMT, Aims for 6.5 MMT Amid West Asia Crisis; Oil Imports Diversified to 41 Countries →
Q164.

What was the primary objective of India's diplomatic outreach regarding the West Asia conflict, as highlighted by PM Modi?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To mediate a ceasefire between the warring nations directly.
  • B.To ensure the safe passage of oil and gas vessels and de-escalate the situation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a military coalition to protect shipping lanes in the Persian Gulf.
  • D.To impose economic sanctions on countries blocking the Strait of Hormuz.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Prime Minister stated that through dialogue and diplomacy, India is working for the safe passage of ships and discussed de-escalation and the opening of the Strait of Hormuz. The aim is to bring peace through dialogue and ensure energy supplies reach India.

Source: India's Strategic Petroleum Reserve at 5.3 MMT, Aims for 6.5 MMT Amid West Asia Crisis; Oil Imports Diversified to 41 Countries →
Q165.

Which constitutional body conducted the performance audit of MGNREGS in Karnataka as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India
  • B.Comptroller and Auditor General of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Human Rights Commission
  • D.Finance Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India report'. CAG is the supreme audit institution of India established under Article 148 of the Constitution.

Source: CAG Audit Finds ₹1.19 Cr Irregular Payments & ₹4.21 Cr Using Fake E-Muster Rolls in MGNREGS Implementation in Karnataka →
Q166.

Consider the following statements regarding the CAG audit findings on MGNREGS in Karnataka:

1. The audit found irregular payments aggregating ₹1.19 crore in 653 test-checked housing works.

2. Payments were made using e-muster rolls generated through the official NREGASoft software.

3. The audit period covered the performance of the scheme from 2019-20 to 2023-24.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'payment aggregating 1.19 crore (62 per cent of Rs 1.91 crore) in 653 cases'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the audit found e-muster rolls were 'generated through unauthorised source/software such as http://www.scientysoft.com', not NREGASoft. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the audit covered 'implementation... between 2019-20 and 2023-24'.

Source: CAG Audit Finds ₹1.19 Cr Irregular Payments & ₹4.21 Cr Using Fake E-Muster Rolls in MGNREGS Implementation in Karnataka →
Q167.

According to the CAG report, what was the total expenditure on the 2,560 housing works carried out in the 39 selected gram panchayats?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1.91 crore
  • B.₹4.21 crore
  • C.₹5.04 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹1.19 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The CAG found that 2,560 housing works involving an expenditure of Rs 5.04 crore were carried out in 39 selected gram panchayats (GP).' ₹1.91 crore is the expenditure of the test-checked works, ₹4.21 crore is the wage payment via fake muster rolls, and ₹1.19 crore is the irregular payment amount.

Source: CAG Audit Finds ₹1.19 Cr Irregular Payments & ₹4.21 Cr Using Fake E-Muster Rolls in MGNREGS Implementation in Karnataka →
Q168.

What was one of the primary irregularities flagged by the CAG regarding muster roll generation under MGNREGS?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Muster rolls were generated manually instead of electronically.
  • B.E-muster rolls were generated through unauthorized software instead of NREGASoft.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Muster rolls were not signed by the competent authority.
  • D.Attendance was recorded after the payment was processed.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights: 'the e-muster rolls were not generated through NREGASoft but were found to be generated through unauthorised source/software such as http://www.scientysoft.com'. This bypasses the system's integrity checks and is a key finding of the audit.

Source: CAG Audit Finds ₹1.19 Cr Irregular Payments & ₹4.21 Cr Using Fake E-Muster Rolls in MGNREGS Implementation in Karnataka →
Q169.

Which Union Ministry has collaborated with IICT Mumbai to launch the national AI skilling programme mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) collaborated with IICT Mumbai, Google, and YouTube to launch the programme. This ministry oversees media, broadcasting, and related sectors.

Source: MIB, IICT Mumbai, Google & YouTube Launch 15,000 AI Skilling Scholarships for Creative Sector Under Orange Economy →
Q170.

Consider the following statements regarding the national AI skilling initiative:

1. It offers 15,000 scholarships specifically for students and professionals in the creative sector.

2. The programme is delivered in a single phase focusing exclusively on advanced AI tools.

3. The curriculum for the initiative has been developed in collaboration with Google and YouTube.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 15,000 scholarships for the creative sector. Statement 2 is incorrect because the programme is delivered in two phases (foundational and advanced), not a single phase. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the curriculum was developed with Google and YouTube.

Source: MIB, IICT Mumbai, Google & YouTube Launch 15,000 AI Skilling Scholarships for Creative Sector Under Orange Economy →
Q171.

How many scholarships are being offered under the national AI skilling programme launched by MIB and IICT Mumbai?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10,000
  • B.12,500
  • C.15,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's headline and content clearly state that the programme will offer 15,000 scholarships. The other numbers are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: MIB, IICT Mumbai, Google & YouTube Launch 15,000 AI Skilling Scholarships for Creative Sector Under Orange Economy →
Q172.

What is the primary objective of the national AI skilling programme launched in partnership with Google and YouTube?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase research publications in core AI from Indian institutions.
  • B.To equip learners with practical, job-ready AI skills for the creative economy.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To develop India-specific large language models for government use.
  • D.To provide basic digital literacy training to rural youth.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the initiative aims to 'equip learners with practical AI skills' for creative fields and help them become 'production-ready'. The focus is on job-ready skills for the creative sector, not research, model development, or basic literacy.

Source: MIB, IICT Mumbai, Google & YouTube Launch 15,000 AI Skilling Scholarships for Creative Sector Under Orange Economy →
Q173.

Under which Act are petroleum products like LPG categorized as essential commodities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006
  • B.The Essential Commodities Act, 1955✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980
  • D.The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that petroleum products like LPG are categorised as essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The other acts are related to regulation, black-marketing, or food safety, not the categorization of essential commodities.

Source: MHA Directs States to Secure LPG Supply Chain Under Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q174.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent MHA advisory:

1. It was issued to all Chief Secretaries of state governments on March 18.

2. It directs states to ramp up security for LPG infrastructure but not for personnel.

3. It calls for an awareness campaign to reassure citizens about LPG availability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the advisory was issued on March 18 to all Chief Secretaries. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions strengthening security for both LPG infrastructure and personnel. Statement 3 is correct as the advisory calls for an extensive public awareness campaign. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: MHA Directs States to Secure LPG Supply Chain Under Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q175.

According to the article, which specific order regulates the supply and distribution of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Motor Spirit and High-Speed Diesel (Regulation of Supply and Distribution) Order, 2005
  • B.The Liquefied Petroleum Gas (Regulation of Supply and Distribution) Order, 2000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Kerosene (Restriction on Use and Fixation of Ceiling Price) Order, 1993
  • D.The Essential Commodities (Special Provisions) Order, 2021
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists the specific control orders governing essential petroleum products. For LPG, it mentions the Liquefied Petroleum Gas (Regulation of Supply and Distribution) Order, 2000. The other orders govern Motor Spirit/HSD and Kerosene.

Source: MHA Directs States to Secure LPG Supply Chain Under Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q176.

What is the primary objective behind the MHA's directive to states regarding the LPG supply chain?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through taxation on LPG
  • B.To promote foreign direct investment in the energy sector
  • C.To ensure uninterrupted supply and prevent hoarding amid external geopolitical risks✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce fiscal deficit by rationalizing subsidies on LPG
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The directive is a response to concerns that tensions in West Asia disrupting the Strait of Hormuz could impact fuel shipments. Its objective is to secure the domestic supply chain through monitoring and enforcement against hoarding/black marketing to ensure availability, not revenue, FDI, or subsidy rationalization.

Source: MHA Directs States to Secure LPG Supply Chain Under Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q177.

The Supreme Court's guidelines on passive euthanasia, referenced in the Harish Rana case, were originally established in which landmark judgment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab (1996)
  • B.Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug vs Union of India (2011)
  • C.Common Cause vs Union of India (2018)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.P. Rathinam vs Union of India (1994)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the Supreme Court permitting withdrawal of life support, which operates under the framework established in the 2018 Common Cause judgment. This judgment formally recognized passive euthanasia and the 'right to die with dignity' under Article 21.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia for Coma Patient After 13 Years; Urges Comprehensive Law on Right to Die with Dignity →
Q178.

Consider the following statements regarding the Harish Rana case:

1. The Supreme Court allowed the withdrawal of life support after the patient had been in a coma for over a decade.

2. The Court held that Clinically Assisted Nutrition and Hydration (CANH) does not constitute medical treatment.

3. The bench urged the State Government to enact a comprehensive law on passive euthanasia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the patient was in a coma for 13 years. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly stated that CANH 'constitutes medical treatment'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court urged the 'Centre' (Union Government), not the State Government, to enact a law.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia for Coma Patient After 13 Years; Urges Comprehensive Law on Right to Die with Dignity →
Q179.

For how many years was Harish Rana in a permanent vegetative state before the Supreme Court allowed the withdrawal of life support?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 years
  • B.11 years
  • C.12 years
  • D.13 years✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Harish Rana had been in a coma since 2013 and the order was in 2026, which amounts to 13 years. The other options are close distractors based on the timeline.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia for Coma Patient After 13 Years; Urges Comprehensive Law on Right to Die with Dignity →
Q180.

What was the primary legal rationale cited by the Supreme Court bench for allowing the withdrawal of treatment in the Harish Rana case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the financial burden on the family and the state.
  • B.That continued treatment was not in the patient's 'best interests'.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To set a new precedent for active euthanasia in India.
  • D.That the hospital lacked the infrastructure for long-term care.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Court's judgment stated that the twin legal requirements were met, the second being that it was 'conclusively determined that the continued administration... is no longer in the best interests of the applicant'. This is the core ethical and legal principle applied.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia for Coma Patient After 13 Years; Urges Comprehensive Law on Right to Die with Dignity →
Q181.

Which ministry is currently the designated nodal authority for issuing content blocking orders to social media platforms under Section 69(A) of the IT Act, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the power to issue content blocking orders under Section 69(A) is 'currently only available to the IT Ministry', which is the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The news mentions a proposal to extend this power to other ministries.

Source: IT Ministry May Reduce Content Takedown Timeline to 1 Hour Under IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021 Amendment →
Q182.

Consider the following statements regarding the online content takedown rules discussed in the news:

1. The government has notified amendments reducing the content takedown timeline for social media platforms to 2-3 hours from the previous 24-36 hours.

2. The proposed reduction to a 1-hour timeline applies only to AI-generated content and not to other categories of unlawful material.

3. The compliance track record of social media companies with the 2-3 hour rule will be a key factor in deciding the further reduction to 1 hour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms amendments were notified in February, changing the timeline from 24-36 hours to 2-3 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the requirement 'does not just apply to AI-generated content but a wide range of content'. Statement 3 is correct as a senior official is quoted saying the compliance record will play a crucial role.

Source: IT Ministry May Reduce Content Takedown Timeline to 1 Hour Under IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021 Amendment →
Q183.

According to the recently implemented amendments to the IT Rules 2021 mentioned in the article, within how many hours must social media platforms remove non-consensual intimate imagery?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1 hour
  • B.2 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • C.3 hours
  • D.24 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that platforms 'must now remove non-consensual intimate imagery within two hours, as opposed to 24 hours earlier'. The 1-hour timeline is a proposal, the 3-hour deadline is for other unlawful content, and 24 hours was the old rule.

Source: IT Ministry May Reduce Content Takedown Timeline to 1 Hour Under IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021 Amendment →
Q184.

What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the implementation of the compressed content takedown timelines?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will significantly increase government revenue from fines.
  • B.It may lead to the removal of legitimate satirical or critical content due to over-compliance.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will require massive new infrastructure investment by the government.
  • D.It is expected to drastically reduce the user base of social media platforms in India.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that users have flagged posts 'which were satirical or critical of the government, and not necessarily illegal, have been impacted as companies ramp up their compliance infrastructure'. This points to the risk of over-compliance and the chilling effect on free speech. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: IT Ministry May Reduce Content Takedown Timeline to 1 Hour Under IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021 Amendment →
Q185.

Which organization compiles the HSBC Flash Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) for India, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
  • C.S&P Global✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National Statistical Office (NSO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'S&P Global, the compiler of the index, said on Tuesday.' The RBI compiles other indices like the Consumer Confidence Index, MoSPI and NSO handle official statistics like IIP and GDP, but the HSBC Flash PMI for India is compiled by S&P Global.

Source: HSBC Flash PMI Falls to 56.5 in March 2026, India's Private Sector Growth Hits 3.5-Year Low Amid West Asia War and $121.64/bbl Crude Oil →
Q186.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact discussed in the article:

1. The HSBC flash composite PMI for India fell in March 2026, indicating a contraction in private sector activity compared to the previous month.

2. The slowdown was primarily due to a record rise in international orders, while domestic demand showed a strong upturn.

3. The price of India's crude oil basket in March 2026 averaged $121.64 per barrel, marking a 76% increase from February.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMI fell to 56.5, but any reading above 50 indicates expansion, not contraction. Statement 2 is incorrect. The article states the slowdown reflected a 'softer upturn in domestic demand' while 'international orders rose to the greatest extent.' Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'The price of India’s crude oil basket... average for March at $121.64/bbl, up 76% from February.'

Source: HSBC Flash PMI Falls to 56.5 in March 2026, India's Private Sector Growth Hits 3.5-Year Low Amid West Asia War and $121.64/bbl Crude Oil →
Q187.

According to the article, what was the value of the HSBC flash composite Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) for India's private sector in March 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.56.5✓ Correct Answer
  • B.58.9
  • C.50.0
  • D.55.1
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the HSBC flash composite Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) falling to 56.5 from 58.9 in February.' 58.9 was the February value, 50.0 is the expansion/contraction threshold, and 55.1 is a distractor.

Source: HSBC Flash PMI Falls to 56.5 in March 2026, India's Private Sector Growth Hits 3.5-Year Low Amid West Asia War and $121.64/bbl Crude Oil →
Q188.

As per the article, what was the primary reason cited for the slowdown in India's private sector growth in March 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A sharp decline in foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows
  • B.Tightening of monetary policy by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • C.The impact of the war in West Asia, leading to market instability and higher input costs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Weak monsoon predictions affecting agricultural output and rural demand
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly attributes the slowdown to the West Asia war. It quotes S&P Global: 'Companies indicated that the Middle East war, unstable market conditions and inflationary pressures all dampened growth.' The other options, like FDI, RBI policy, or monsoon, are not mentioned as primary reasons in the provided article content.

Source: HSBC Flash PMI Falls to 56.5 in March 2026, India's Private Sector Growth Hits 3.5-Year Low Amid West Asia War and $121.64/bbl Crude Oil →
Q189.

The Election Commission of India (ECI), which is planning the security deployment for West Bengal polls, is a constitutional body established under which Article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 315
  • B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 335
  • D.Article 352
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. This article vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the ECI. Article 315 deals with Public Service Commissions, Article 335 with claims of SCs/STs to services, and Article 352 with proclamation of Emergency.

Source: ECI Deploys 780 CAPF Companies and 72-Hour Protocol for West Bengal 2026 Assembly Elections in Two Phases →
Q190.

Consider the following statements regarding the ECI's security plan for West Bengal Assembly Elections 2026:

1. A total of 780 companies of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) will be deployed across the state by March 31, 2026.

2. The city of Kolkata is slated to receive the second-highest CAPF deployment after Purba Medinipur district.

3. A 72-hour intensification protocol will be activated to seal borders and prevent the entry of outsiders or illegal inducements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Kolkata gets the highest deployment of 60 companies, while Purba Medinipur gets 48. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 72-hour protocol for border sealing and preventing inducements. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: ECI Deploys 780 CAPF Companies and 72-Hour Protocol for West Bengal 2026 Assembly Elections in Two Phases →
Q191.

According to the news, what is the total number of licensed arms in West Bengal that have been deposited with authorities to prevent misuse during the elections?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.29,775 out of 52,814✓ Correct Answer
  • B.33,450 out of 60,000
  • C.25,000 out of 45,000
  • D.35,200 out of 58,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that out of 52,814 total licensed arms in the region, 29,775 have been deposited with local authorities. The other options are close distractors with different totals and deposited figures.

Source: ECI Deploys 780 CAPF Companies and 72-Hour Protocol for West Bengal 2026 Assembly Elections in Two Phases →
Q192.

What is the primary objective of the Election Commission's 'Six-Point Objective' as mentioned in the security plan?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase voter turnout through awareness campaigns
  • B.To streamline the nomination process for candidates
  • C.To neutralize specific threats to the democratic process and ensure voter safety✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To audit the expenditure of political parties during the campaign
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The ECI's mission, as per the article, focuses on neutralizing six specific threats: violence/intimidation, inducements, proxy voting ('Chappa'), booth jamming, vulnerability mapping, and administrative bias. This directly aims to safeguard the democratic process and voter safety, not increase turnout, streamline nominations, or audit expenditure.

Source: ECI Deploys 780 CAPF Companies and 72-Hour Protocol for West Bengal 2026 Assembly Elections in Two Phases →
Q193.

The restructuring of the foundational stage of education announced in the Delhi Budget aligns with which major national policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Health Policy 2017
  • B.National Education Policy 2020✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Skill Development Mission
  • D.New Industrial Policy 2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the move to include three years of pre-primary education and set a minimum entry age of 6+ for Class 1 aligns Delhi's system more closely with the National Education Policy's (NEP's) emphasis on early childhood education.

Source: Delhi Budget 2026-27: ₹19,148 Cr Education Outlay, ₹475 Cr for School Infrastructure & AI-Driven Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Language Labs →
Q194.

Consider the following statements regarding the education initiatives in the Delhi Budget 2026-27:

1. The Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Language Labs program is an AI-enabled system piloted in 100 government schools.

2. The budget allocates ₹300 crore for new school buildings and ₹175 crore for expanding existing ones.

3. A minimum entry age of 5 years-plus for Class 1 will be enforced from 2028-29.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the allocation is ₹200 crore for new buildings and ₹275 crore for expansion, totaling ₹475 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect; the minimum entry age is 6 years-plus, not 5 years-plus.

Source: Delhi Budget 2026-27: ₹19,148 Cr Education Outlay, ₹475 Cr for School Infrastructure & AI-Driven Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Language Labs →
Q195.

According to the Delhi Budget 2026-27, what is the total allocation for the education sector?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹9,119.2 crore
  • B.₹19,038.9 crore
  • C.₹19,148 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹20,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The Delhi government has allocated Rs 19,148 crore to education in 2026-27." ₹9,119.2 crore was the allocation in 2016-17, and ₹19,038.9 crore was projected for 2025-26.

Source: Delhi Budget 2026-27: ₹19,148 Cr Education Outlay, ₹475 Cr for School Infrastructure & AI-Driven Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Language Labs →
Q196.

What is a primary objective of introducing the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Language Labs in Delhi government schools?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace human teachers with AI instructors
  • B.To strengthen students' listening, speaking, reading, and writing (LSRW) skills✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To exclusively teach foreign languages to all students
  • D.To centralize all school examinations online
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the labs are "an AI-enabled system designed to strengthen students’ listening, speaking, reading, and writing skills." While they offer foreign languages, the core objective is foundational LSRW skills in Indian and foreign languages, not replacing teachers or centralizing exams.

Source: Delhi Budget 2026-27: ₹19,148 Cr Education Outlay, ₹475 Cr for School Infrastructure & AI-Driven Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Language Labs →
Q197.

The intensified TB elimination campaign mentioned in the news falls under which flagship government programme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Health Mission (NHM)
  • B.National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
  • D.Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article discusses India's efforts to eliminate Tuberculosis. The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), formerly RNTCP, is the central government's programme for TB prevention, control, and elimination. The 100-day screening drive is an intensified activity under NTEP.

Source: India Launches 100-day TB Screening Drive Using 2,000 AI X-Ray Devices & ₹1,000 Nutrition Aid in 15 Days →
Q198.

Consider the following statements regarding the TB elimination campaign discussed in the news:

1. The campaign uses AI-enabled handheld X-ray devices to screen children below 14 years of age.

2. The government has mandated that the ₹1,000 nutritional support be provided within one month of TB diagnosis.

3. The screening targets high-risk villages identified based on parameters like TB incidence, anaemia, and population density.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that the AI X-ray screening will be used for vulnerable populations 'barring children below the age of 14 years'. Statement 2 is incorrect. The article specifies the nutritional support must be provided 'within 15 days', not one month. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions high-risk villages are identified based on '30 parameters, such as high TB incidence, prevalence of risk factors such as anaemia or tobacco use, population density...'

Source: India Launches 100-day TB Screening Drive Using 2,000 AI X-Ray Devices & ₹1,000 Nutrition Aid in 15 Days →
Q199.

According to the Global TB Report 2025 data mentioned in the article, what was the estimated number of Tuberculosis cases in India in 2024?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.21.7 lakh
  • B.24.5 lakh
  • C.27.1 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.29.8 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The tuberculosis burden in India has continued to decline — with an estimated 27.1 lakh cases... in 2024, according to the latest available data from the Global TB Report 2025.' The other options are plausible distractors based on previous years' estimates or misremembered data.

Source: India Launches 100-day TB Screening Drive Using 2,000 AI X-Ray Devices & ₹1,000 Nutrition Aid in 15 Days →
Q200.

What is the primary significance of providing ₹1,000 nutritional support within 15 days of TB diagnosis, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the overall cost of the TB treatment programme for the government.
  • B.To prevent most TB deaths which occur in the first two months after diagnosis, especially among the malnourished.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To incentivize more patients to come forward for voluntary testing.
  • D.To replace the need for expensive drug regimens with nutritional therapy.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the 15-day disbursal rule to the clinical reality of TB mortality. It states: 'This is important considering most of the TB deaths, especially in those who are malnourished, take place within the first two months after diagnosis.' Delays in payment had rendered the support ineffective. Thus, the primary objective is timely intervention to reduce early mortality.

Source: India Launches 100-day TB Screening Drive Using 2,000 AI X-Ray Devices & ₹1,000 Nutrition Aid in 15 Days →
Q201.

Which ministry tabled the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, in the Lok Sabha?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the bill was tabled by Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment Virendra Kumar. This ministry is responsible for policies and legislation related to the welfare of marginalized communities, including transgender persons.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, Amid Opposition Walkout Over Identity Rights →
Q202.

Consider the following statements regarding the passage of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. The bill was passed in the Lok Sabha amid unanimous support from all political parties.

2. The opposition demanded that the bill be referred to a standing committee for further scrutiny.

3. The bill seeks to amend the law related to the identity, rights, and welfare of transgender individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article mentions opposition protests and a walkout, indicating lack of unanimous support. Statement 2 is correct as opposition MPs demanded the bill be sent to a standing committee. Statement 3 is correct as the bill's purpose is to amend laws on transgender identity, rights, and welfare.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, Amid Opposition Walkout Over Identity Rights →
Q203.

Which specific legislative bill was passed by the Lok Sabha as discussed in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019
  • B.Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2025
  • C.Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Transgender Welfare and Rights Bill, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill passed is the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026. The 2019 Act is the original law being amended. The other options are distractors with incorrect years or titles not mentioned.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, Amid Opposition Walkout Over Identity Rights →
Q204.

According to opposition criticism in the article, what is a primary concern regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It increases bureaucratic hurdles for transgender persons.
  • B.It removes the right to self-identification for transgender persons.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It imposes heavy fines on employers for discrimination.
  • D.It mandates compulsory medical certification for gender recognition.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Trinamool Congress MP June Maliah stating, 'The most alarming provision is the removal of the right to self-identification...' This highlights the core opposition concern that the bill takes away a fundamental right central to transgender dignity and autonomy.

Source: Lok Sabha Passes Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, Amid Opposition Walkout Over Identity Rights →
Q205.

Which ministry presented the data on custodial deaths to the Parliament?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Minister of State for Home, Nityanand Rai, presented this data in the Lok Sabha. The MHA is the nodal ministry for police and prison administration, which are state subjects under the Constitution.

Source: Custodial Deaths Rise to 170 in 74 Days; Bihar (19), Rajasthan (18), UP (15) Top List, MHA Data Shows →
Q206.

Consider the following statements regarding the data on custodial deaths presented by the MHA:

1. The number of custodial deaths in the first 74 days of 2026 was lower than the total for the financial year 2024-25.

2. According to the data, the state of Gujarat reported a higher number of custodial deaths than Uttar Pradesh in the current year.

3. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is one of the sources of this data as per the Minister's statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: 170 deaths in 74 days of 2026 have already surpassed the 140 deaths in the entire previous year (2024-25). Statement 2 is incorrect: Uttar Pradesh reported 15 deaths, while Gujarat reported 14 deaths in the current year. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions that the data is according to 'state police and NHRC data'.

Source: Custodial Deaths Rise to 170 in 74 Days; Bihar (19), Rajasthan (18), UP (15) Top List, MHA Data Shows →
Q207.

According to the MHA data presented in Parliament, how many custodial deaths were reported in the state of Rajasthan till March 15, 2026?

MediumSSC, State PSC
  • A.13
  • B.9
  • C.18✓ Correct Answer
  • D.14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Rajasthan reported 18 custodial deaths till March 15, 2026. Option A (13) is the figure for 2021-22, Option B (9) is for 2024-25, and Option D (14) is the figure for Gujarat and Maharashtra in 2026.

Source: Custodial Deaths Rise to 170 in 74 Days; Bihar (19), Rajasthan (18), UP (15) Top List, MHA Data Shows →
Q208.

The persistent issue of custodial deaths, as highlighted by the MHA data, is most directly a challenge to which of the following?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The federal structure of the Indian Constitution
  • B.The fundamental right to freedom of trade and commerce
  • C.The fundamental right to life and personal liberty✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The directive principles related to environmental protection
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Custodial deaths represent a severe violation of Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty. While police is a state subject (linked to federalism), the core constitutional violation is of Article 21. The other options are not directly implicated by this specific issue.

Source: Custodial Deaths Rise to 170 in 74 Days; Bihar (19), Rajasthan (18), UP (15) Top List, MHA Data Shows →
Q209.

Which authority constituted the seven Empowered Groups of Secretaries mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
  • B.Cabinet Secretariat✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the seven Empowered Groups (EGs) were constituted by the Cabinet Secretariat. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for facilitating inter-ministerial coordination and government business.

Source: Cabinet Secretariat Sets Up 7 Empowered Groups of Secretaries to Mitigate West Asia Conflict Impact →
Q210.

Consider the following statements regarding the Empowered Groups mentioned in the news:

1. They were formed to monitor the impact of the West Asia conflict.

2. The model for these groups was the Empowered Groups constituted during the Covid-19 pandemic in 2020.

3. The group on 'Supply of Essential Commodities' is convened by the Secretary of the Department of Fertilizers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the EGs are to monitor the West Asia conflict impact. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions these groups are on the lines of the EGs constituted in 2020 for Covid-19. Statement 3 is incorrect; the group on 'Supply of Essential Commodities' is convened by the Consumer Affairs Secretary, not the Fertilizers Secretary.

Source: Cabinet Secretariat Sets Up 7 Empowered Groups of Secretaries to Mitigate West Asia Conflict Impact →
Q211.

How many Empowered Groups of Secretaries have been set up as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5
  • B.6
  • C.7✓ Correct Answer
  • D.8
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's headline and content clearly state that the Centre has set up seven Empowered Groups (EGs) of Secretaries. The other options are close numerical distractors.

Source: Cabinet Secretariat Sets Up 7 Empowered Groups of Secretaries to Mitigate West Asia Conflict Impact →
Q212.

What is the primary objective of forming these Empowered Groups, as inferred from the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase India's military presence in West Asia.
  • B.To formulate a coordinated government strategy to mitigate adverse effects of the West Asia conflict.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To announce a new fiscal stimulus package for the economy.
  • D.To restructure the Cabinet Committee on Security.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the groups were created for a 'whole of Government approach' to 'monitor and assess the impact' and 'take necessary remedial measures to mitigate adverse effects'. The other options are actions not mentioned in the article.

Source: Cabinet Secretariat Sets Up 7 Empowered Groups of Secretaries to Mitigate West Asia Conflict Impact →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 24 March 2026?▼

This page contains 212 current affairs questions from 24 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 24 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empow…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  3. Q3. According to the Supreme Court judgment, to which of the follo…
  4. Q4. is the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's interp…
  5. Q5. constitutional body delivered the verdict highlighting systemi…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  7. Q7. According to the article, in which year was the Minimum Perfor…
  8. Q8. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for deeming …
  9. Q9. Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Harish Rana ca…
  11. Q11. For how many years was Harish Rana in a coma before the withdr…
  12. Q12. was the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's judgm…
  13. Q13. of the following is the executive branch of the European Union…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the EU-Australia F…
  15. Q15. As per the EU-Australia FTA, what is the total tariff-rate quo…
  16. Q16. is a primary strategic objective for both the EU and Australia…
  17. Q17. As per the Indian Constitution, which commission is responsibl…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Lok Sa…
  19. Q19. According to the proposal discussed in the article, how many L…
  20. Q20. is a primary implication of pegging the delimitation for the p…
  21. Q21. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empow…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  23. Q23. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, was amended t…
  24. Q24. was the primary rationale cited by the Andhra Pradesh High Cou…
  25. Q25. institution publishes the 'State of the Economy' article discu…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's 'State o…
  27. Q27. According to the RBI article, what was the level of India's fo…
  28. Q28. is the primary significance of India maintaining high foreign …
  29. Q29. constitutional body delivered the judgment upholding Permanent…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  31. Q31. On which date did the Supreme Court deliver the judgment uphol…
  32. Q32. was the primary reason identified by the Supreme Court for the…
  33. Q33. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned in which part of the…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Unifor…
  35. Q35. According to the article, which state became the first in Indi…
  36. Q36. is a key feature of the Gujarat UCC Bill regarding live-in rel…
  37. Q37. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was establis…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the recent SEBI bo…
  39. Q39. In which year was the High-Level Committee (HLC) set up by SEB…
  40. Q40. is the primary intended benefit of allowing Foreign Portfolio …
  41. Q41. High Court delivered the judgment rejecting sovereign immunity…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Har…
  43. Q43. According to the news, on which date did the fatal accident in…
  44. Q44. was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Punjab and H…
  45. Q45. judicial body is the first forum of appeal for armed forces pe…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  47. Q47. According to the Supreme Court's direction, from which date ar…
  48. Q48. was the primary systemic flaw identified by the Supreme Court …
  49. Q49. central investigation agency arrested Asiya Andrabi and her ai…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Asiya Andrabi …
  51. Q51. For how many years were Asiya Andrabi's two aides sentenced to…
  52. Q52. was the primary reason cited by the judge for imposing a strin…
  53. Q53. Under which ministry does the National Council for Transgender…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
  55. Q55. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill,…
  56. Q56. is a primary reason cited by the government in the Bill for am…
  57. Q57. The Argo program, mentioned in the article for collecting ocea…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
  59. Q59. According to the article, what was the value of Earth's energy…
  60. Q60. is presented in the article as the fundamental 'bedrock of cre…
  61. Q61. national programme in India is responsible for the Nikshay Por…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding Drug-Resistant TB …
  63. Q63. According to the WHO's Global Tuberculosis Report 2025 cited i…
  64. Q64. is identified in the article as a primary reason for the rapid…
  65. Q65. programme in India is primarily responsible for implementing t…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding tuberculosis diagn…
  67. Q67. According to the article, what proportion of India's TB burden…
  68. Q68. is a primary advantage of using AI-enabled portable chest X-ra…
  69. Q69. statutory body, established in 1956, is proposed to be replace…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
  71. Q71. committee, headed by Professor Yashpal, recommended winding up…
  72. Q72. According to the critique in the article, what is a primary co…
  73. Q73. United Nations specialized agency released the State of Climat…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
  75. Q75. According to the WMO report, how much higher is the current at…
  76. Q76. is the most critical implication of the 'heat surplus' and Ear…
  77. Q77. regulatory body approved the revamped conflict-of-interest fra…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI reforms: …
  79. Q79. According to the news, in which month and year did SEBI set up…
  80. Q80. is a primary expected benefit of allowing FPIs to settle cash …
  81. Q81. The authors of the article are affiliated with which research …
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding India's energy imp…
  83. Q83. According to the article, what is the current price of crude o…
  84. Q84. is the primary strategic argument made in the article for achi…
  85. Q85. High Court took suo motu cognisance of the Sattankulam custodi…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam cu…
  87. Q87. many police personnel were convicted by the sessions court in …
  88. Q88. was the primary significance of the Madras High Court's suo mo…
  89. Q89. Union Ministry is leading the TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan in colla…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding India's TB elimina…
  91. Q91. According to the article, what percentage reduction in TB inci…
  92. Q92. is the primary rationale, as per the article, for shifting tow…
  93. Q93. The strategic trade agreement discussed in the news is primari…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Japan-US summi…
  95. Q95. is the total capacity of the natural gas and AI-ready power in…
  96. Q96. is the primary strategic objective behind Japan's $550 billion…
  97. Q97. The Chandrayaan-4 mission, mentioned in the news, is being pla…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the study on moon'…
  99. Q99. According to the article, what is the maximum percentage of ti…
  100. Q100. is the primary significance of the IIT-PRL study on titanium-r…
  101. Q101. The article cites a study by the International Council on Clea…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news article o…
  103. Q103. According to the health assessment cited in the article, appro…
  104. Q104. is the primary limitation of relying solely on demand-side sub…
  105. Q105. Under which Act does the Election Commission of India derive i…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commi…
  107. Q107. According to the news, on which date is the polling for the Ta…
  108. Q108. is the primary objective behind the Election Commission's ban …
  109. Q109. organization's head of research proposed the need for skill ce…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the proposals disc…
  111. Q111. According to the news article, which of the following countrie…
  112. Q112. is the primary objective behind proposing standardized skill c…
  113. Q113. Under which Article of the Constitution does the Governor deli…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Tamil Nad…
  115. Q115. was the total number of seats secured by the DMK-led Secular P…
  116. Q116. was a key administrative innovation introduced by the 16th Tam…
  117. Q117. organization publishes the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) and th…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the Global Terrori…
  119. Q119. According to the Global Terrorism Index 2026, how many people …
  120. Q120. is a key common feature identified by the GTI 2026 among the w…
  121. Q121. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is primarily r…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Patna High Cou…
  123. Q123. Under which specific section of the Waqf Act, 1995, did the Na…
  124. Q124. is the primary legal principle established by the Patna High C…
  125. Q125. Union Ministry is responsible for moving the Transgender Perso…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
  127. Q127. On which date was the Transgender Persons (Protection of Right…
  128. Q128. is a primary criticism raised by opposition parties against th…
  129. Q129. Under which Schedule of the Indian Constitution are the provis…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  131. Q131. According to the petition filed in the Telangana High Court, f…
  132. Q132. is the primary legal ground cited in the petition for challeng…
  133. Q133. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empow…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  135. Q135. According to the news, which state government tabled a Uniform…
  136. Q136. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court, as per Chie…
  137. Q137. The news mentions the assassination of Ali Larijani, who was t…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Appr…
  139. Q139. According to the news, what was the death toll from the Pakist…
  140. Q140. is a primary implication of the Semaglutide patent expiry ment…
  141. Q141. landmark Supreme Court judgment first recognized transgender p…
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the criticisms of …
  143. Q143. According to the article, which state is highlighted as having…
  144. Q144. is a primary concern raised by activists regarding the potenti…
  145. Q145. Under which article of the Indian Constitution do High Courts …
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
  147. Q147. In the Delhi High Court case, which specific university's acti…
  148. Q148. is the core constitutional principle that the Delhi High Court…
  149. Q149. central agency investigated and prosecuted the UAPA case again…
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Asiy…
  151. Q151. was the prison sentence awarded to Asiya Andrabi's two associa…
  152. Q152. was the primary legal rationale cited by the NIA for seeking l…
  153. Q153. U.S. congressional advisory body published the report warning …
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  155. Q155. According to the report cited in the article, approximately wh…
  156. Q156. is identified in the report as a key factor enabling China to …
  157. Q157. The three-stage nuclear energy programme of India, involving P…
  158. Q158. Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear en…
  159. Q159. According to the article, what is the estimated share of India…
  160. Q160. is the primary strategic reason for India's planned transition…
  161. Q161. of the following bodies is primarily responsible for building …
  162. Q162. Consider the following statements regarding India's energy sec…
  163. Q163. According to Prime Minister Modi's statement in the Rajya Sabh…
  164. Q164. was the primary objective of India's diplomatic outreach regar…
  165. Q165. constitutional body conducted the performance audit of MGNREGS…
  166. Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the CAG audit find…
  167. Q167. According to the CAG report, what was the total expenditure on…
  168. Q168. was one of the primary irregularities flagged by the CAG regar…
  169. Q169. Union Ministry has collaborated with IICT Mumbai to launch the…
  170. Q170. Consider the following statements regarding the national AI sk…
  171. Q171. many scholarships are being offered under the national AI skil…
  172. Q172. is the primary objective of the national AI skilling programme…
  173. Q173. Under which Act are petroleum products like LPG categorized as…
  174. Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the recent MHA adv…
  175. Q175. According to the article, which specific order regulates the s…
  176. Q176. is the primary objective behind the MHA's directive to states …
  177. Q177. The Supreme Court's guidelines on passive euthanasia, referenc…
  178. Q178. Consider the following statements regarding the Harish Rana ca…
  179. Q179. For how many years was Harish Rana in a permanent vegetative s…
  180. Q180. was the primary legal rationale cited by the Supreme Court ben…
  181. Q181. ministry is currently the designated nodal authority for issui…
  182. Q182. Consider the following statements regarding the online content…
  183. Q183. According to the recently implemented amendments to the IT Rul…
  184. Q184. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the imple…
  185. Q185. organization compiles the HSBC Flash Purchasing Managers' Inde…
  186. Q186. Consider the following statements regarding the economic impac…
  187. Q187. According to the article, what was the value of the HSBC flash…
  188. Q188. As per the article, what was the primary reason cited for the …
  189. Q189. The Election Commission of India (ECI), which is planning the …
  190. Q190. Consider the following statements regarding the ECI's security…
  191. Q191. According to the news, what is the total number of licensed ar…
  192. Q192. is the primary objective of the Election Commission's 'Six-Poi…
  193. Q193. The restructuring of the foundational stage of education annou…
  194. Q194. Consider the following statements regarding the education init…
  195. Q195. According to the Delhi Budget 2026-27, what is the total alloc…
  196. Q196. is a primary objective of introducing the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam L…
  197. Q197. The intensified TB elimination campaign mentioned in the news …
  198. Q198. Consider the following statements regarding the TB elimination…
  199. Q199. According to the Global TB Report 2025 data mentioned in the a…
  200. Q200. is the primary significance of providing ₹1,000 nutritional su…
  201. Q201. ministry tabled the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights)…
  202. Q202. Consider the following statements regarding the passage of the…
  203. Q203. specific legislative bill was passed by the Lok Sabha as discu…
  204. Q204. According to opposition criticism in the article, what is a pr…
  205. Q205. ministry presented the data on custodial deaths to the Parliam…
  206. Q206. Consider the following statements regarding the data on custod…
  207. Q207. According to the MHA data presented in Parliament, how many cu…
  208. Q208. The persistent issue of custodial deaths, as highlighted by th…
  209. Q209. authority constituted the seven Empowered Groups of Secretarie…
  210. Q210. Consider the following statements regarding the Empowered Grou…
  211. Q211. many Empowered Groups of Secretaries have been set up as per t…
  212. Q212. is the primary objective of forming these Empowered Groups, as…