23 March 2026, Questions & Answers
132 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
132 questions · 0 topics covered · 27 min revision
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This page contains 132 current affairs questions with answers from 23 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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132 QsUnder which Ministry does the administrative responsibility for conducting the Delimitation exercise primarily fall?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
- D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
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Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is constituted under the Delimitation Commission Act. The administrative and legislative responsibility for matters related to the Commission and delimitation falls under the purview of the Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department).
Consider the following statements regarding the government's proposal on Women's Reservation:
1. It proposes to increase Lok Sabha seats by 50% based on the Census 2011 data.
2. The percentage share of each state's representation in the Lok Sabha will be altered to accommodate the increase.
3. A lottery system is proposed to decide which specific constituencies will be reserved for women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 50% seat increase based on Census 2011. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the proportion of seats of all states would remain unchanged to address southern states' fears. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the possibility of a lottery system to decide women's seats.
According to the proposal discussed in the article, what would be the new number of Lok Sabha seats for Uttar Pradesh if the 50% increase is implemented?
- A.100
- B.110
- C.120✓ Correct Answer
- D.130
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Explanation
The article provides a specific example: for Uttar Pradesh, the number of Lok Sabha seats will go up to 120 from the current 80. This is a 50% increase (80 + 40 = 120).
What is a key strategic objective of the government's proposal to use Census 2011 data for delimitation instead of waiting for a newer census?
- A.To expedite the implementation of the Women's Reservation Act before upcoming state elections.✓ Correct Answer
- B.To ensure a more accurate reflection of the current population distribution.
- C.To reduce the total financial cost associated with conducting a fresh delimitation exercise.
- D.To align India's electoral process with international best practices.
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Explanation
The article states the government was exploring delinking the Act from the delayed census to implement it before the Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand Assembly elections. Using existing Census 2011 data is a tactical move to bypass the delay caused by the postponed census and achieve immediate implementation.
Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance Commission established?
- A.Article 265
- B.Article 280✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 352
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
The Finance Commission is established under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its mandate is to recommend the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States.
Consider the following statements regarding issues discussed in the article on fiscal federalism:
1. Cesses and surcharges imposed by the Union government are part of the divisible pool of taxes shared with States.
2. Southern States have expressed concern that using recent population data in allocation formulas may penalize them for population control success.
3. The Supreme Court, in State of Punjab vs Principal Secretary (2023), held that a Governor cannot use inaction to stall the legislative process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as cesses and surcharges are NOT part of the divisible pool, a key point of contention. Statement 2 is correct, as mentioned regarding southern states' grievance. Statement 3 is correct, as the article cites this Supreme Court ruling limiting gubernatorial inaction.
Which Finance Commission is currently deliberating on concerns regarding cesses, surcharges, and population data, as per the article?
- A.Fourteenth Finance Commission
- B.Fifteenth Finance Commission
- C.Sixteenth Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Seventeenth Finance Commission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Sixteenth Finance Commission is currently deliberating and must grapple with these concerns to restore confidence in fiscal federalism.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the 'double-engine sarkar' slogan, as analyzed in the article?
- A.It promotes excessive centralization of administrative power in the Prime Minister's Office.
- B.It implies that development benefits are contingent on political alignment, undermining rule-based federalism.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It encourages states to forego their own revenue sources in favor of central grants.
- D.It violates the constitutional provision for a fixed five-year term for state governments.
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Explanation
The core constitutional problem identified is that the slogan suggests development flows preferentially to aligned states, making it dependent on political goodwill rather than the rule-based, institutional framework envisioned by the Constitution (e.g., Finance Commission under Article 280).
The 'State of the Global Climate 2025' report, which declared a climate emergency, was released by which international organization?
- A.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
- B.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- C.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the report was released by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). The WMO is a UN specialized agency for weather, climate, and water.
Consider the following statements regarding the WMO State of the Global Climate 2025 report:
1. It declared a state of climate emergency and included Earth's energy imbalance as a key indicator for the first time.
2. According to the report, the years 2010-2020 were the hottest decade on record.
3. The report stated that the global mean sea level in 2025 was comparable to the record-high levels observed in 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report states 2015-2025 were the hottest 11 years, not 2010-2020. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the global mean sea level in 2025 was comparable to record-high levels in 2024.
According to the WMO report, what was the approximate global temperature anomaly for the year 2025 compared to the 1850-1900 average?
- A.About 1.2°C above
- B.About 1.43°C above✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 1.6°C above
- D.About 1.8°C above
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 2025 was about 1.43 °C above the 1850-1900 average. This is a precise data point crucial for prelims facts on climate change.
What is the primary implication of the Earth's energy imbalance, as highlighted in the WMO 2025 report?
- A.It leads to increased frequency of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
- B.It causes more heat to be trapped in the Earth system, driving global warming and its impacts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It results in a permanent shift in the Earth's axial tilt, altering seasons.
- D.It directly depletes the ozone layer, increasing UV radiation.
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Explanation
The article explains that rising greenhouse gases upset the energy equilibrium, meaning more incoming solar energy is trapped than outgoing heat escapes. This trapped energy is the fundamental driver of global warming, manifesting as ocean heating, ice melt, and sea-level rise.
Which Indian ministry is primarily engaged in diplomatic efforts for the safe passage of Indian ships through the Strait of Hormuz, as per the article?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
- C.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) has been maintaining constant contact with relevant governments at diplomatic levels to ensure safe transit for Indian vessels.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz and India's energy imports:
1. Over 50% of India's Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) imports transit the Strait of Hormuz.
2. The Strait of Hormuz accounts for more than one-third of global crude oil and LNG flows.
3. India's annual LPG consumption is over 33 million tonnes, with an import dependency of 60%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'over 50% of its LNG imports' transit the strait. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the strait accounts for 'one-fifth' (20%), not one-third, of global flows. Statement 3 is correct as per the data provided in the article.
According to the article, what percentage of India's Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) imports transit through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.40%
- B.60%
- C.75%
- D.90%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'a whopping 90% of its LPG imports transited the Strait'. The other figures are distractors: 40% is for crude oil imports and 60% is India's overall LPG import dependency.
What is the primary implication of the effective closure of the Strait of Hormuz, as discussed in the article?
- A.It forces India to immediately halt all diplomatic relations with Iran.
- B.It creates a major challenge for India's energy security due to high import dependency.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It leads to a significant increase in India's domestic production of crude oil.
- D.It results in the permanent rerouting of all Indian trade via the Cape of Good Hope.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the closure is 'a major headache for India, which depends on imports to meet a bulk of its energy needs,' with specific data on LPG, LNG, and crude oil transit. The other options are extreme or not supported by the article's content.
Which central investigative agency was responsible for probing the Sattankulam custodial deaths case?
- A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
- D.National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) filed the chargesheet in the case on September 25, 2020, and a supplementary chargesheet later. The CBI is the premier central agency for investigating serious crimes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam custodial deaths case:
1. The incident occurred in 2020 during the COVID-19 lockdown in Thoothukudi district, Tamil Nadu.
2. The trial and conviction were conducted by the Supreme Court of India.
3. The Central Bureau of Investigation proved that the victims had violated lockdown rules, leading to their detention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trial was conducted by the First Additional District and Sessions Court in Madurai, not the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is incorrect; the CBI investigation revealed the traders had NOT violated COVID-19 lockdown rules, which was the false charge used to detain them.
As per the news, on which date did the First Additional District and Sessions Court convict the accused policemen in the Sattankulam case?
- A.March 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.September 25, 2020
- C.August 12, 2022
- D.June 19, 2020
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Explanation
The article clearly states the conviction was delivered on Monday, March 23, 2026. September 25, 2020, is the date the CBI filed its chargesheet, and June 19, 2020, is the date of the incident.
What is the primary significance of the court's conviction in the Sattankulam custodial deaths case?
- A.It highlights the effectiveness of COVID-19 lockdown enforcement by police.
- B.It sets a precedent for judicial accountability in cases of police excesses and custodial violence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers the power of police investigations entirely to the Central Bureau of Investigation.
- D.It mandates the use of body cameras for all police personnel in India.
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Explanation
The core significance of the judgment is its strong message on police accountability and upholding human rights (Article 21). It reinforces that state actors are not above the law. The other options are either incorrect or not the primary implication derived from the article.
The proposed 'India-Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC)', mentioned in the context of reducing maritime vulnerabilities, is primarily an initiative related to which domain?
- A.Digital Infrastructure and Connectivity
- B.Maritime Trade and Alternative Routes✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cultural and Educational Exchange
- D.Defense and Military Cooperation
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the IMEC seeks to reduce India's dependence on chokepoints along the Red Sea-Suez Canal route. This places it squarely in the domain of creating alternative trade and connectivity corridors to mitigate maritime risks.
Consider the following statements regarding global maritime chokepoints:
1. The Strait of Malacca is the narrowest at the Phillip Channel, which is about 1.5 nautical miles wide.
2. Over 60% of India's urea imports and 80% of its ammonia and sulphur imports come via the Strait of Hormuz.
3. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is approximately 32 kilometers wide at its narrowest point and handles about 4 million barrels of oil daily.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the Malacca Strait. Statement 2 is correct; the article states over 60% of urea and 80% of ammonia & sulphur imports come from the Gulf, which transit the Hormuz Strait. Statement 3 is correct, with the width and oil volume directly quoted from the article.
According to the article, what is the current capacity of India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) as mentioned?
- A.3.5 million metric tonnes
- B.5.33 million metric tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.1 million metric tonnes
- D.10.0 million metric tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India is looking to increase the capacity of its strategic petroleum reserves, which is currently at 5.33 million metric tonnes. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary strategic concern for India regarding the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It is a major route for China's military naval exercises.
- B.It handles a quarter of global oil and over half of India's critical energy and fertilizer imports.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is the main passage for India's software exports to Europe.
- D.It is the site of ongoing territorial disputes between Oman and Iran.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis establishes that India's vulnerability stems from the Strait of Hormuz being a conduit for ~25% of global oil, ~50% of India's crude, >50% of LNG, and a majority of its fertilizer imports. This direct impact on energy and food security is the primary concern, not military exercises, software, or territorial disputes.
Which apex body in India is responsible for laying down policies and guidelines for disaster management, including fire safety?
- A.National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
- B.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
- D.National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the NDMA lays down specific guidelines to shield healthcare centres from fires. It is the apex body for disaster management policy in India, headed by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements regarding the fire tragedies discussed in the article:
1. A fire in a hospital ICU in Cuttack, Odisha, resulted in 12 fatalities.
2. The National Building Code is formulated and issued by the National Disaster Management Authority.
3. Common violations identified included single entry-exit points and storage of combustible material within premises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article (12 lives in Cuttack hospital). Statement 2 is incorrect; the National Building Code is issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), not the NDMA. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions these as familiar violations.
According to the article, what was the total number of lives lost in the two fire tragedies in Cuttack and Delhi last week?
- A.18
- B.19
- C.20
- D.21✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states 12 lives were lost in Cuttack and 9 in Delhi, making the total 21. This is a direct data point that can be asked in a Prelims-style factual question.
What is identified as the primary systemic failure leading to repeated fire tragedies, as per the editorial analysis?
- A.Lack of modern firefighting equipment in Indian cities.
- B.Absence of any legal framework for building safety.
- C.Failure in the enforcement of existing fire safety codes and regulations.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Inadequate funding for municipal corporations.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'The real problem, however, lies in enforcement.' It mentions that despite the National Building Code and NDMA guidelines, weak enforcement, infrequent fire audits, and illegal alterations by owners are the core issues.
Which US office is authorized under Section 301 to investigate foreign trade practices and impose unilateral tariffs?
- A.US Department of Commerce
- B.Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.US International Trade Commission (USITC)
- D.US Department of the Treasury
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Explanation
As per the article, Section 301 authorizes the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) to investigate foreign trade practices and impose unilateral tariffs based on its determination.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US invoked Section 122 of the Trade Act of 1974 to impose a temporary 10% surcharge on imports, citing a Balance of Payments crisis.
2. The WTO disputes panel in 1999 declared Section 301 of the US Trade Act as illegal under WTO law.
3. India is listed in the Section 301 proceedings initiated in 2026, along with the European Union, China, and Japan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the US invoked Section 122 imposing a 10% surcharge, though it notes the BOP crisis rationale is being challenged. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1999 WTO panel criticized Section 301 as a 'big stick' but refrained from declaring it illegal based on US assurances. Statement 3 is correct: India is listed in both sets of Section 301 proceedings along with the EU, Japan, China, and others.
For what duration was the temporary import surcharge of 10% imposed by the US under Section 122, as mentioned in the article?
- A.February 20 to July 20, 2026
- B.February 24 to July 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 23 to August 23, 2026
- D.Effective immediately for 180 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the 10% temporary surcharge was 'effective February 24 to July 24, 2026'. This is a key factual detail for prelims-style questions.
What is the core argument of the article regarding the appropriate response for India and other developing nations to the US's use of Section 301?
- A.To immediately retaliate with equivalent tariffs on US goods.
- B.To unilaterally withdraw from the World Trade Organization.
- C.To revive multilateral rules through coalition-building to counter US power.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To accept the US's determinations and renegotiate all trade agreements.
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Explanation
The article's concluding argument emphasizes that 'the core challenge... is the need to revive multilateral rules' and that 'there is no substitute for the strength that comes from coalition-building to dilute the U.S.'s raw power advantage.' This is presented as the strategic way forward.
The power to block online content under the Information Technology Act, 2000, is primarily vested in which authority?
- A.The Supreme Court of India
- B.The Central Government✓ Correct Answer
- C.The State Governments
- D.The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
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Explanation
Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, explicitly empowers the Central Government to issue directions for blocking public access to any information online. This authority was discussed in the Shreya Singhal case mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding digital censorship in India:
1. The Supreme Court of India upheld the constitutionality of Section 69A of the IT Act in the Shreya Singhal case.
2. Rule 16 of the 2009 Blocking Rules mandates transparency, requiring blocking orders to be publicly disclosed.
3. The committee constituted under the IT Rules 2009 to review blocking orders is an independent judicial body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Rule 16 requires proceedings to be confidential, not transparent. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the committee is an entirely executive body, not an independent judicial one.
According to the article, how many URLs, posts, and accounts were blocked under IT laws in the year 2014?
- A.470✓ Correct Answer
- B.1,200
- C.5,600
- D.9,800
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Explanation
The article provides a specific data point: "from 2014 to 2021, the number of URLs, posts, and accounts blocked ballooned from 470 to 9,800." Therefore, the figure for 2014 is 470.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised in the article regarding the use of Rule 16 of the 2009 Blocking Rules?
- A.It increases the cost of internet services for consumers.
- B.It undermines the ability to challenge blocking orders in court by withholding reasons.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers the blocking powers from the IT Ministry to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- D.It mandates the use of artificial intelligence for content moderation.
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Explanation
The article argues that invoking Rule 16 to keep blocking orders confidential "undermines [affected parties'] ability to challenge the action in court." This erodes the procedural safeguards (like judicial review) that justified the constitutionality of Section 69A, raising a fundamental rights concern.
The proposed 'National Agri-photovoltaics Mission' is being considered for inclusion under which government scheme?
- A.Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
- B.Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
- D.Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
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Explanation
The article states that recent consultations on PM-KUSUM 2.0 have indicated the government may include agriPV in a proposed 'National Agri-photovoltaics Mission' as a dedicated component. PM-KUSUM is the central scheme for solarising agriculture.
Consider the following statements regarding Agri-photovoltaics (AgriPV):
1. It allows farmers to generate electricity and cultivate crops on the same parcel of land.
2. It is only suitable for cash crops like cotton and sugarcane, not for food crops.
3. Partial shading from panels can reduce evapotranspiration, enhancing water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as AgriPV integrates solar systems with farming on the same land. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article lists various food crops like tomato, onion, ragi, and potato as suitable. Statement 3 is correct as partial shading can reduce evapotranspiration, helping soil retain moisture.
According to the article, what was the budget outlay for the PM-KUSUM scheme in 2026-27?
- A.₹2,500 crore
- B.₹3,500 crore
- C.₹5,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹7,500 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "In the 2026-27 budget, the outlay for the PM-KUSUM scheme nearly doubled to Rs 5,000 crore." The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a primary environmental co-benefit of AgriPV systems mentioned in the article?
- A.Complete elimination of pesticide use
- B.Generation of organic fertilizer as a byproduct
- C.Reduction in evapotranspiration leading to better water efficiency✓ Correct Answer
- D.Increase in local groundwater recharge rates
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Explanation
The article states that partial shading from solar panels can reduce evapotranspiration, allowing soils to retain more moisture and thus enhancing water-use efficiency. The other options, while potentially beneficial, are not cited as direct co-benefits in the provided text.
The news discusses the budget and policy push for traditional medicine systems. Which Union Ministry is the nodal ministry for AYUSH systems in India?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of AYUSH✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'AYUSH Ministry's budget' and refers to it as the ministry promoting AYUSH systems. The Ministry of AYUSH was formed in 2014 to oversee education, research, and propagation of these traditional systems.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in AYUSH as per the article:
1. The AYUSH Ministry's budget for 2026-27 has been announced as ₹4,408 crore, which is nearly double its budget from five years ago.
2. The India-EU Free Trade Agreement mandates that all AYUSH products must undergo fresh testing in European laboratories before they can be sold.
3. The Finance Minister announced the establishment of three new All-India Institutes of Ayurveda, modelled on the lines of AIIMS, to set top standards in traditional medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the FTA 'sets up a system where Indian safety certifications could eventually be accepted in Europe, which means that products approved in India might not need extra testing.' Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the Union Budget 2026-27 mentioned in the article, what is the allocated budget for the AYUSH Ministry?
- A.₹3,250 crore
- B.₹4,008 crore
- C.₹4,408 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹5,200 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) Ministry’s budget... reaching ₹4,408 crore this year.' The other options are plausible distractors but not the correct figure provided.
What is identified as the primary challenge for AYUSH systems to gain credible entry into the global mainstream, as per the article's analysis?
- A.Lack of sufficient government funding and budgetary support.
- B.Insufficient number of trained practitioners and clinics in India.
- C.The need to submit to rigorous, independent, and transparent scientific evaluation.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Resistance from the European Union to include traditional medicine in trade deals.
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Explanation
The article's central argument is that for AYUSH to enter the global mainstream credibly, it must move beyond cultural assertion and provide evidence. It states: 'For Ayurveda and other AYUSH systems to enter the global mainstream credibly, they must submit to rigorous, independent, and transparent scientific evaluation...'
The NSEIX Global Access platform operates from GIFT City under the regulatory framework of which authority?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- C.International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
As per the article, NSEIX Global Access IFSC Ltd. is a fully regulated entity operating from GIFT City under the regulatory framework of the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA). IFSCA is the unified regulator for all financial services in IFSCs like GIFT City.
Consider the following statements regarding the NSEIX Global Access platform:
1. It allows Indian residents to directly invest in stocks listed on foreign exchanges like NYSE and Nasdaq.
2. Investments through this platform are made outside the purview of the RBI's Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
3. Under the India-U.S. tax treaty, capital gains on U.S. equities purchased via this route are taxable only in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the platform enables direct buying of US stocks. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions overseas investments are made under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS). Statement 3 is correct as per the article which states capital gains on U.S. equities are not taxed in the U.S. under the India-U.S. tax treaty and are taxable only in India.
According to the article, what is the annual limit for an individual under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for making overseas investments?
- A.$1.0 lakh per financial year
- B.$2.0 lakh per financial year
- C.$2.5 lakh per financial year✓ Correct Answer
- D.$5.0 lakh per financial year
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) permits individuals to remit up to $2.50 lakh per financial year. The other options are common distractors based on previous limits or other financial thresholds.
What is a primary stated objective of launching the NSEIX Global Access platform for Indian investors?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher Tax Collected at Source (TCS).
- B.To promote investment in domestic Indian startups and SMEs.
- C.To democratize access to international stock exchanges for portfolio diversification.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by attracting foreign portfolio investment into India.
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Explanation
The article mentions that financial experts say the initiative would 'democratise how Indians gain access to international bourses' and that investors would have a 'huge choice to diversify holdings'. While other options might be secondary effects, the core objective is to provide easy and regulated access to global markets for diversification.
The amendment to which policy document was used by the government to ease FDI restrictions from neighboring countries?
- A.Press Note 3 (2026)✓ Correct Answer
- B.FEMA Act, 1999
- C.Consolidated FDI Policy Circular
- D.Foreign Trade Policy 2023
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government eased some FDI rules 'through an amendment to Press Note 3 (2026)'. Press Notes are issued by the DPIIT to communicate changes to the FDI policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-China economic dynamics discussed in the article:
1. India's 2020 FDI restrictions were primarily aimed at preventing Chinese firms from acquiring stakes in Indian companies.
2. The 'China plus one' strategy refers to companies shifting their entire production base out of China to countries like India.
3. The article argues that Chinese FDI could help India reduce its import dependence in sectors like pharmaceuticals and electronics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's first paragraph. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'China plus one' strategy involves partial diversification, not a complete shift. Statement 3 is correct, as the article suggests local production via FDI could reduce import dependence.
In which year did India initially impose restrictions on FDI from countries sharing a land border, as mentioned in the article?
- A.2018
- B.2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.2022
- D.2024
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "In 2020, India imposed restrictions on FDI from countries sharing a land border, primarily to prevent Chinese firms from acquiring stakes in Indian companies." This is a key factual date for prelims.
According to the article, what is a primary macroeconomic reason for China to encourage outward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?
- A.To reduce its massive trade deficit with the United States.
- B.To deploy its excess savings abroad and ease global trade imbalances.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To acquire advanced technology from developed countries like India.
- D.To boost domestic consumption by sending capital overseas.
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Explanation
The article's 'macroeconomic dimension' section states that China's persistent trade surplus reflects excess savings, which must be deployed abroad via exports or capital flows. Outward FDI is presented as a way to ease global imbalances without intensifying trade conflicts.
As per the article, which constitutional body is responsible for announcing election schedules and administering polls in India?
- A.Law Commission of India
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Supreme Court of India
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article mentions the Election Commission announcing the poll schedule for Assembly elections. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324 responsible for administering election processes.
Consider the following statements regarding compulsory voting in India:
1. The Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms favoured the implementation of compulsory voting.
2. The Law Commission, in its 255th report, noted that compulsory voting increases voter turnout by an average of about 7%.
3. Compulsory voting could be seen as violating the fundamental right to freedom of expression under Article 19(1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 2
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Dinesh Goswami Committee did NOT favour compulsory voting, citing practical difficulties. Statement 2 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the Law Commission's 255th report (2015). Statement 3 is correct as the article states compulsory voting could be seen as violating Article 19(1).
According to the Law Commission's 255th report cited in the article, by how much does compulsory voting increase voter turnout on average?
- A.About 5%
- B.About 7%✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 10%
- D.About 12%
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Explanation
The article directly states: "Compulsory voting does result in increased voter turnout by an average of about 7%." This data point is from the Law Commission's 255th Report (2015).
What is the primary constitutional basis for the right to vote in India, as discussed in the article?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 19(1)(a) (Freedom of Speech)
- C.Article 21 (Right to Life)
- D.Article 326 (Elections to the House of the People)✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Article 326 of the Constitution grants every citizen the right to vote..." While other rights have been linked to voting by judicial interpretation, Article 326 is the direct constitutional provision for universal adult suffrage.
The investigation into the Sattankulam custodial deaths case was transferred to which central agency?
- A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
- D.National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
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Explanation
As per the article, the then AIADMK government transferred the probe to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). The CBI filed chargesheets against the accused police personnel.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam custodial deaths case:
1. The Madras High Court took suo motu cognisance of the case and ordered a judicial inquiry.
2. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) chargesheet stated that the victims had violated COVID-19 lockdown rules.
3. The High Court recommended the replication of the 'Magizhchi' police well-being programme in other districts of Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court took suo motu cognisance and ordered a judicial inquiry. Statement 2 is incorrect: The CBI investigation revealed that the traders had NOT violated COVID-19 lockdown rules. Statement 3 is correct: The High Court recommended studying the possibility of replicating the 'Magizhchi' programme launched by Chennai City Police.
According to the article, on which date is the First Additional District and Sessions Court in Madurai scheduled to deliver its verdict in the Sattankulam case?
- A.March 23, 2025
- B.March 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 23, 2026
- D.September 25, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the verdict will be delivered by the First Additional District and Sessions Court in Madurai on March 23, 2026. March 23, 2025, is a distractor. June 23 is the date of a victim's death in 2020. September 25, 2020, is the date of the CBI chargesheet.
What was a significant procedural lapse highlighted by the Kovilpatti Judicial Magistrate's report in the Sattankulam case?
- A.The police cooperated fully with the magistrate's inquiry.
- B.The CCTV footage was preserved and clearly showed the incident.
- C.The police showed indifference and the CCTV footage of the incident day was missing.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The magistrate recommended immediate release of the accused policemen.
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Explanation
The article details that the Judicial Magistrate's report stated the police did not cooperate, showed an indifferent attitude, and that the CCTV footage was calibrated to overwrite daily, resulting in no footage from the day of the incident despite adequate storage.
The International Energy Agency (IEA) is primarily associated with which larger intergovernmental organization?
- A.United Nations (UN)
- B.Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- D.Group of Twenty (G20)
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Explanation
The IEA was established in 1974 as an autonomous body within the framework of the OECD to coordinate energy security policies among industrialized nations, especially in response to oil supply shocks.
Consider the following statements regarding the energy crisis mentioned in the news:
1. The current daily loss of oil supply is stated to be greater than the combined loss from the two major oil shocks of the 1970s.
2. The International Energy Agency (IEA) has set a specific crude price level that will trigger the release of more stockpiled oil.
3. The IEA chief identified reopening the Suez Canal as the most important solution to the crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the current loss is 11 million bpd, exceeding the 10 million bpd combined loss of the 1970s shocks. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says there would NOT be a specific price trigger. Statement 3 is incorrect as the identified chokepoint is the Strait of Hormuz, not the Suez Canal.
According to the news, what was the volume of oil that IEA member nations agreed to release from strategic stockpiles on March 11, 2026?
- A.200 million barrels
- B.300 million barrels
- C.400 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
- D.500 million barrels
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Explanation
The article clearly states that IEA member nations agreed on March 11 to release a record 400 million barrels of oil from strategic stockpiles. This is a factual data point directly from the source text.
What is the primary strategic mechanism being used by IEA member countries, as per the news, to address the spike in global crude prices?
- A.Imposing export bans on member countries
- B.Releasing oil from strategic petroleum reserves✓ Correct Answer
- C.Negotiating directly with oil-producing cartels
- D.Implementing nationwide fuel rationing
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Explanation
The core response detailed in the article is the coordinated release of oil from strategic stockpiles or reserves. IEA members agreed to release 400 million barrels and are consulting on further releases, making this the primary tactical tool being deployed to increase supply and calm prices.
The International Energy Agency (IEA), which coordinated the release of strategic oil reserves in response to the Hormuz crisis, primarily operates under the framework of which larger organization?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- D.Group of Twenty (G20)
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Explanation
The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous agency that was established in 1974 within the framework of the OECD. Its core mandate is to coordinate collective responses to major disruptions in oil supply, which aligns with its action described in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the energy crisis as per the article:
1. The International Energy Agency stated the current crisis causes a greater daily loss of oil than the combined 1973 and 1979 energy shocks.
2. As part of the IEA's response, the United States committed to releasing 182 million barrels from its Strategic Petroleum Reserve.
3. Prior to the conflict, the Strait of Hormuz accounted for about 90% of India's Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article quotes the IEA chief saying the world is losing 11 million barrels per day, more than the 1973 and 1979 shocks combined. Statement 2 is incorrect: The US committed 172 million barrels, not 182 million. The 182 million figure refers to the total IEA release in 2022 after Russia's invasion of Ukraine. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states the strait accounted for a whopping 90% of India's LPG imports prior to the conflict.
According to the article, what was the peak price per barrel reached by benchmark Brent crude oil during the recent crisis?
- A.$100.00
- B.$119.50✓ Correct Answer
- C.$73.00
- D.$140.00
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Explanation
The article states: 'Prices peaked at $119.50 last week as both sides battered each other’s energy installations...' The $100 figure is the average price after the crisis began, $73 is the pre-war price, and $140 is not mentioned.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the International Energy Agency's (IEA) decision to coordinate the release of 400 million barrels of oil from its member countries' reserves?
- A.To permanently lower global oil prices for consumers
- B.To fund renewable energy transition projects in member states
- C.To offset the supply disruption and stabilize global oil markets✓ Correct Answer
- D.To sanction Iran for its blockade of the Strait of Hormuz
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Explanation
The IEA's core mandate, as reflected in the article, is to ensure energy security for its members. Releasing strategic reserves is a direct tool to mitigate the physical supply shock caused by the Hormuz blockade, thereby calming markets and preventing extreme price volatility. The action is a market intervention, not a permanent price control, a funding mechanism, or a sanctions tool.
Under which Article of the Constitution do High Courts have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, as exercised by the Delhi HC in this case?
- A.Article 32
- B.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 142
- D.Article 136
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Explanation
Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. The article explicitly mentions this power, which was the basis for the Delhi HC's mandamus in this case. Article 32 gives similar power to the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The court cited the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) alongside the Indian Constitution.
2. The judgment was based on a petition filed under Section 498A of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023.
3. The court referred to the Supreme Court precedent in the Lata Singh v State of U.P. case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the right is recognized globally by the UDHR. Statement 2 is incorrect; the petition was under Section 528 of the BNSS, not Section 498A. Statement 3 is correct as Lata Singh v State of U.P. is explicitly mentioned as a precedent in the article.
On which date did the couple mentioned in the Delhi HC case solemnize their marriage according to Hindu rites at the Arya Samaj Vivah Sthal Trust?
- A.March 13, 2025
- B.January 22, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.December 15, 2024
- D.March 23, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the couple solemnized their marriage on January 22, 2026, at the Arya Samaj Vivah Sthal Trust. March 13, 2025, is the date of the court order, and March 23, 2026, is the article's publication date.
What is the core legal principle established by the Delhi High Court judgment in this case?
- A.Parents have the ultimate authority over the marriage of their adult children.
- B.The right to marry is an inalienable aspect of life and liberty, and society has no role in the private choice of consenting adults.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Only marriages solemnized in registered religious institutions are legally valid.
- D.Police protection can only be granted in cases involving a valid marriage certificate.
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Explanation
The judgment's essence, as quoted, is that the right to marry is inalienable and guaranteed under the Constitution. It specifically states that society and relatives have no role in such private choices of consenting adults. This principle of autonomy is central to the ruling.
The Mediation Act, 2023, which aims to standardise mediation practice in India, envisages the establishment of which regulatory body?
- A.Arbitration Council of India
- B.Mediation Council of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Legal Services Authority
- D.Central Authority for Dispute Resolution
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Mediation Act, 2023, envisages a Mediation Council of India (MCI) to regulate and standardise mediation practice, including training and accreditation of mediators.
Consider the following statements regarding the challenges and reforms in India's arbitration ecosystem as discussed in the article:
1. The Chief Justice of India, Surya Kant, has identified procedural efficiency and finality as the central issues causing the 'trust deficit' in arbitration.
2. The Draft Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2024, proposes statutory recognition for emergency arbitrators.
3. The Gayatri Balasamy v. ISG Novasoft case was a Constitution Bench decision that recognized a broad appellate power for courts to modify arbitral awards under Section 34.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. CJI Surya Kant identified 'trust' as the central issue, not specifically 'procedural efficiency and finality', which are components of the trust deficit. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the 2024 draft bill. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2025 Constitution Bench decision in Gayatri Balasamy recognized only a narrow power to modify awards under Section 34, not a broad appellate review.
According to Gourab Banerji, what is the average duration, from invocation to enforcement, that an arbitration case typically takes in India?
- A.1 to 2 years
- B.2 to 3 years
- C.4 to 6 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.7 to 8 years
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Explanation
The article directly quotes Gourab Banerji stating, "the average arbitration in India still takes four to six years from invocation to enforcement." This highlights the efficiency challenge within the system.
What is presented as the primary reason for the continued dominance of ad-hoc arbitration over institutional arbitration in India, as per the insights in the article?
- A.Mandatory government policies directing all disputes to ad-hoc forums.
- B.Lower costs and greater procedural flexibility perceived by parties and counsel.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Institutional arbitration centres like IIAC and MCIA lack proper physical infrastructure.
- D.Supreme Court judgments have consistently ruled against the validity of institutional rules.
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Explanation
The article states that ad-hoc arbitration's dominance is "partly historical and partly rational," with parties finding comfort in its flexibility and the ability to avoid institutional fees. It is a perception of cost and control, not a legal mandate or infrastructural lack.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, which is being amended by the 2026 Bill?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
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Explanation
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 falls under the purview of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, which is responsible for the welfare and rights of marginalized communities, including transgender persons.
Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha on March 13, 2026.
2. It seeks to amend Clause (k) of the parent 2019 Act to mandate biomedical interventions for legal recognition.
3. The amendment is widely welcomed by transgender communities for providing clearer criteria for identification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the amendment seeks to replace Clause (k) and mandate surgery. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Bill has triggered 'widespread outrage' among transgender communities, not welcome.
According to the article, in which year was the original Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act passed?
- A.2017
- B.2018
- C.2019✓ Correct Answer
- D.2020
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Explanation
The article repeatedly references the 'Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019' as the parent legislation being amended by the 2026 Bill.
What is a primary criticism levied against the 2026 Amendment Bill as per the article?
- A.It increases the budgetary allocation for transgender welfare schemes.
- B.It replaces the principle of self-determination with mandatory medical surgery for legal recognition.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It expands the definition of transgender to include intersex persons.
- D.It decentralizes the issuance of identity certificates to local authorities.
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Explanation
The article's core criticism is that the amendment 'strips trans persons of autonomy over self-determination' and mandates surgery, moving away from the self-identification principle of the 2019 Act.
The SIPRI report on arms transfers is published by an institute based in which country?
- A.Sweden✓ Correct Answer
- B.Switzerland
- C.United States
- D.United Kingdom
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Explanation
The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), which publishes the Trends in International Arms Transfers report, is based in Stockholm, Sweden. It is an independent international institute focused on research into conflict, armaments, and disarmament.
Consider the following statements regarding the SIPRI Trends in International Arms Transfers report for 2021-2025:
1. Global arms transfers increased by 9.2% compared to the previous five-year period.
2. The United States accounted for 42% of global arms exports, while Russia's share fell by 64%.
3. India was the largest arms importer globally, with its share increasing by 4%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the report states global arms transfers increased by 9.2%. Statement 2 is correct: the US share was 42% and Russia's share fell by 64%. Statement 3 is incorrect; India was the second-largest importer (8.2% share), and its share actually declined by 4%.
According to the SIPRI report (2021-25), what percentage of global arms imports did Ukraine account for?
- A.8.2%
- B.9.7%✓ Correct Answer
- C.6.8%
- D.4.2%
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Explanation
The article states Ukraine was the world's largest major arms recipient in 2021-25, accounting for 9.7% of total global arms imports. Option A (8.2%) is India's share, C (6.8%) is Saudi Arabia's share, and D (4.2%) is Pakistan's share.
What does the decline in India's share of global arms imports, as noted in the SIPRI report, primarily indicate?
- A.A reduction in India's overall defence budget.
- B.A shift in India's strategic alliances away from Russia.
- C.Increasing self-reliance and domestic production of weapons.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A global decrease in the availability of arms for export.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the decline in India's import share "was partly due to India’s increasing self-reliance and domestic production of its own weapons." This aligns with the objectives of the 'Make in India' initiative in the defence sector.
Which nodal agency is responsible for implementing the recently announced RELIEF scheme for exporters?
- A.Export Promotion Council
- B.Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) of India has been designated as the nodal implementing agency for the RELIEF scheme. ECGC provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters.
Consider the following statements regarding the Anavaran-Deforestation Alert System:
1. It is operated by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) using satellite data and machine learning.
2. The system provides location alerts on forest cover loss to states every month.
3. It uses Sentinel-2 satellite images and is integrated with Sentinel-1 Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) data for continuous monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states FSI's Anavaran system uses satellite data and machine learning. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says alerts are issued every 15 days (fortnightly), not monthly. Statement 3 is correct: It mentions the use of Sentinel-2 and integration with Sentinel-1 SAR data.
According to the World Happiness Report 2026, what was India's life evaluation score?
- A.4.250
- B.4.536✓ Correct Answer
- C.4.750
- D.5.000
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: India improved its ranking to 116th in 2026 with a life evaluation score of 4.536. This is a factual recall question typical for Prelims.
What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's recent ruling regarding maternity leave for adoptive mothers?
- A.To increase the total leave duration from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.
- B.To remove the age-based discrimination denying leave to mothers adopting children older than three months.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate paternity leave for fathers adopting children.
- D.To transfer the responsibility of leave payment from employers to the government.
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Explanation
The core of the Supreme Court judgment was striking down the rule that denied maternity leave to women adopting children older than three months, thereby eliminating age-based discrimination. The other options describe potential policy changes not mentioned in the article.
The Haryana Human Rights Commission (HHRC), which took suo motu cognizance in the Gurgaon wall collapse case, is established under which Act?
- A.The Constitution of India
- B.The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
- D.The Disaster Management Act, 2005
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Explanation
State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs) like the HHRC are statutory bodies established under the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. This act also establishes the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
Consider the following statements regarding the Haryana Human Rights Commission's (HHRC) order on the Gurgaon wall collapse:
1. The HHRC took suo motu cognizance of the incident based on media reports.
2. The order stated that the incident was merely an unfortunate workplace accident with no human rights dimensions.
3. The HHRC issued notices to 12 different state authorities, including the Labour Commissioner and Town Planning officials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the HHRC took 'suo motu cognisance of media reports'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The HHRC order explicitly stated the tragic loss 'cannot be viewed merely as workplace accidents' but as 'serious violations of human rights'. Statement 3 is correct: The article lists 12 authorities, including the Labour Commissioner and officials from the Town and Country Planning Department, who were issued notices.
According to the news article, how many workers lost their lives in the wall collapse incident in Gurgaon on March 9, 2026?
- A.5 workers
- B.7 workers✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 workers
- D.15-20 workers
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'seven workers reportedly lost their lives'. The figure '15-20' refers to the total number of labourers working at the site when the collapse occurred, not the number of fatalities.
What is the primary constitutional significance of the HHRC's order in the Gurgaon wall collapse case, as highlighted in the news?
- A.It expands the scope of the Right to Equality (Article 14) to include equal pay for equal work.
- B.It anchors the safety and dignity of workers within the fundamental Right to Life (Article 21).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It reinforces the Right to Freedom of Trade (Article 19) for construction companies.
- D.It invokes the Directive Principles of State Policy to justify government inaction.
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Explanation
The HHRC order explicitly states that 'the right to life, safety and dignity of workers forms an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India.' This interpretation moves worker safety from a regulatory issue to a fundamental right, imposing a higher duty of care on the state.
Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting elections and preparing electoral rolls in India?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Supreme Court of India
- D.Parliament of India
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324. It is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of the entire process for conducting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures, including the preparation of electoral rolls.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about West Bengal's electoral rolls:
1. The Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to establish 19 Appellate Tribunals for voter appeals.
2. Over 60 lakh voter cases were marked as 'under adjudication' in the final electoral roll published on February 28.
3. Voters can file an appeal against exclusion only through the offline method at DM offices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which mentions the March 10 Supreme Court directive leading to the establishment of 19 tribunals. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the final roll published on February 28 left approximately 60 lakh voters marked as 'under adjudication'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions two streamlined methods: online via ECI NET and offline at DM/SDO offices.
According to the article, how many Appellate Tribunals has the Election Commission of India established in West Bengal following the Supreme Court directive?
- A.15
- B.17
- C.19✓ Correct Answer
- D.21
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 'the ECI has formally established 19 Appellate Tribunals across the state' in line with the Supreme Court directive. The other options (15, 17, 21) are close distractors.
What is the primary purpose of establishing the 19 Appellate Tribunals as mentioned in the news article?
- A.To conduct fresh elections in West Bengal
- B.To provide a legal recourse for voters excluded from the supplementary electoral list✓ Correct Answer
- C.To oversee the work of the District Magistrates in voter registration
- D.To investigate allegations of electoral malpractice
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Explanation
The article states these tribunals 'are now the primary legal recourse for anyone whose name has been rejected or remains excluded after the publication of the supplementary list.' Their purpose is judicial review of exclusion decisions, not conducting elections, overseeing DMs, or investigating malpractice.
The 'MahaCrimeOS AI' platform, mentioned in the news, was developed in collaboration with which technology company?
- A.Google
- B.Microsoft✓ Correct Answer
- C.Infosys
- D.TCS
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that MahaCrimeOS AI was launched by Microsoft in collaboration with the Government of Maharashtra and developed using Microsoft's Azure OpenAI Service.
Consider the following statements regarding the use of AI in policing as discussed in the article:
1. AI-generated deepfake videos have been used in Pune to promote fraudulent stock trading platforms using likenesses of prominent figures.
2. The 'MahaCrimeOS AI' platform can accept complaints only in English and Hindi for processing.
3. Pune City Police used an AI-simulated model as technical evidence in the court trial for the Porsche crash case of May 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's details on deepfake scams in Pune. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states MahaCrimeOS AI works 'in multiple languages including Marathi', implying it is not limited to English and Hindi. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the use of an AI-simulated model as technical evidence for the Porsche case.
According to the article, across how many police stations in Maharashtra is the MahaCrimeOS AI platform being made available?
- A.Over 500 stations
- B.Over 800 stations
- C.Over 1100 stations✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 1500 stations
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the MahaCrimeOS AI tool 'is being made available to more than 1100 police stations across Maharashtra.'
What is described as one of the primary functions of the MahaCrimeOS AI platform in the article?
- A.To generate deepfake videos for undercover operations
- B.To automatically issue challans for traffic violations using vehicle-mounted cameras
- C.To automate repetitive tasks and provide intelligent assistance in organizing evidence and suggesting investigation steps✓ Correct Answer
- D.To monitor social media for political propaganda and communal content
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Explanation
The article states the platform works by 'extracting key information with AI, automatically organising it, suggesting investigation steps, linking related cases, and generating draft legal notices.' Its purpose is to speed up and standardize cybercrime investigations, not directly issue challans (which is a separate traffic project) or monitor social media for propaganda.
Which section of the Indian Penal Code, dealing with cheating, was quashed by the Supreme Court in the discussed judgment?
- A.Section 406
- B.Section 420✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 138
- D.Section 124A
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Explanation
The Supreme Court quashed the proceedings under Section 420 IPC (Cheating) against the film producer. Section 406 relates to criminal breach of trust, which was also quashed earlier by the High Court. Section 138 is under the Negotiable Instruments Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on cheating charges in commercial ventures:
1. The Court held that failure of a movie project to generate profits can, by itself, amount to cheating under Section 420 IPC.
2. The Court emphasized that for an offence of cheating, dishonest intention must exist at the time the promise or inducement is made.
3. The Court ruled that dishonour of a post-dated cheque issued to discharge an existing liability is sufficient to presume dishonest intention from the beginning for cheating.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court ruled the opposite: failure to generate profits from a movie cannot, by itself, amount to cheating. Statement 2 is correct, as the judgment reiterates this settled legal principle. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court explicitly stated that dishonour of a post-dated cheque by itself is not sufficient to presume dishonest intention from the beginning.
What was the total amount invested by the complainant in the film producer's project, as mentioned in the Supreme Court case?
- A.Rs 24 lakh
- B.Rs 48 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 72 lakh
- D.Rs 1 crore
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Explanation
According to the article, the investor had advanced nearly Rs 48 lakh in multiple tranches between December 2013 and April 2014. The other options are distractors: Rs 24 lakh was the amount of each of the two dishonoured cheques.
What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's judgment quashing cheating charges against the film producer?
- A.It makes film producers immune from all criminal prosecution.
- B.It establishes that criminal law cannot be used to penalise business failure in inherently speculative ventures.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates that all film investments must be backed by bank guarantees.
- D.It transfers jurisdiction of such cases from criminal courts to consumer forums.
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Explanation
The core ruling is that criminal liability (cheating) requires fraudulent intent from the start, and mere commercial loss in a high-risk business like filmmaking does not constitute a crime. This protects entrepreneurs from criminalization of business risk. The other options are incorrect extrapolations not supported by the judgment.
Under the Companies Act, 2013, what is the mandatory percentage of profits that applicable companies must spend on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?
- A.1% of net profits
- B.2% of average net profits✓ Correct Answer
- C.3% of gross profits
- D.5% of average net profits
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Explanation
Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates that companies meeting specified financial thresholds must spend at least 2% of their average net profits of the preceding three financial years on CSR activities.
Consider the following statements regarding the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026:
1. It seeks to amend both the Companies Act and the Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Act, 2008.
2. The Bill proposes to completely remove the mandatory Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spending clause for companies.
3. The Bill is based on the recommendations of the Company Law Committee's 2022 report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Bill aims to amend the LLP Act, 2008 and the Companies Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Finance Minister clarified the Bill only seeks to amend the criteria of net profits for CSR, not remove the clause. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Bill addresses gaps identified by the Company Law Committee in its 2022 report.
On which date did the Lok Sabha refer the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 to a Joint Parliamentary Committee?
- A.March 21, 2026
- B.March 22, 2026
- C.March 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.March 24, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Lok Sabha referred the Bill on Monday, March 23, 2026. This is a direct factual recall question testing attention to the date mentioned in the news.
What is a primary stated objective of the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 as per the news article?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher corporate taxes
- B.To promote ease of doing business by decriminalising minor offences✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate higher spending on environmental sustainability
- D.To transfer regulatory power from SEBI to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
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Explanation
The article clearly states the Bill aims to facilitate ease of doing business, advance the agenda of decriminalising minor corporate offences, and reduce the compliance burden. The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the provided content.
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
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Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate is a law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, which falls under the Union Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for investigating economic crimes like money laundering.
Consider the following statements regarding the ADAG bank fraud case as per the Supreme Court proceedings:
1. The Supreme Court noted past 'reluctance' and lack of discipline in the probe by CBI and ED.
2. The Special Investigation Team (SIT) was constituted by the Supreme Court on March 23, 2026.
3. The total wrongful loss identified in the case so far amounts to over ₹40,000 crore of public money.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC observed the agencies showed 'reluctance'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SIT was constituted on February 12, 2026, not March 23. Statement 3 is correct as the wrongful loss is ₹40,185.55 crore.
According to the status report submitted in the Supreme Court, what was the total value of assets seized so far in the ADAG bank fraud investigation?
- A.₹10,000 crore
- B.₹15,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹25,000 crore
- D.₹40,185 crore
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Explanation
Solicitor General Tushar Mehta submitted that assets worth ₹15,000 crore had been seized during the investigation. ₹40,185.55 crore is the identified wrongful loss, not the seized assets.
What was the primary concern expressed by the Supreme Court regarding the investigation into the ADAG bank fraud case?
- A.The slow pace of arrests made by the agencies.
- B.The need for higher financial penalties on the accused.
- C.Inspiring public confidence through a fair and independent probe.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Preventing the accused from having a dialogue with banks.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court emphasized that the investigation 'must inspire confidence not only of the court, but of every stakeholder' and that the public must be convinced it was fair and independent. This was its central directive.
Which institution releases the data on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows in India?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the FDI data was released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is India's central bank and is responsible for compiling and publishing balance of payments data, including FDI.
Consider the following statements regarding India's FDI situation as per the article:
1. India witnessed a net FDI inflow in January 2026.
2. Gross FDI inflow in January 2026 was higher than in December 2025.
3. Repatriation of foreign investment refers to investors taking back money previously invested in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article clearly states India saw a net FDI outflow of $1.39 billion in January 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Gross FDI declined by 33% from December 2025 to $5.67 billion. Statement 3 is correct: The article defines repatriation as 'foreign investors taking back money they had previously invested in India'.
According to the RBI data mentioned in the article, what was the value of gross FDI inflow into India in January 2026?
- A.$4.92 billion
- B.$5.67 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$1.39 billion
- D.$79.32 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'In January, gross FDI into India declined to an 11-month low of $5.67 billion'. $4.92 billion is the repatriation figure, $1.39 billion is the net outflow, and $79.32 billion is the gross inflow for April 2025-January 2026 period.
What is a primary reason, as discussed in the article, for the weakness in the Indian rupee over the last year?
- A.Increase in domestic inflation rates
- B.Rise in global crude oil prices
- C.Weakness in FDI flows and FPI outflows✓ Correct Answer
- D.Expansionary fiscal policy by the government
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Explanation
The article directly links rupee depreciation to 'weakness in FDI flows' and the pullout of funds by Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs). It states FPIs pulled out billions, 'leading to the rupee dropping past 92-, 93-, and 94-per-dollar levels'. Other options are not mentioned as primary causes in the article.
Under which Act is the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) constituted?
- A.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
- B.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- D.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
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Explanation
The Child Welfare Committee (CWC) is a statutory body constituted under Section 27 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (JJ Act). Its primary function is to provide care, protection, and rehabilitation for children in need. The POCSO Act deals specifically with sexual offences against children.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Supreme Court was hearing a case where a magistrate in Gurgaon recorded the statement of a 3-year-old POCSO victim in the presence of the accused.
2. The Child Welfare Committee (CWC), while recording the child's statement, allowed the mother to be present as per standard procedure.
3. The Supreme Court directed the District and Sessions Judge, Gurugram, to seek comments from the concerned magistrate and report back.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the magistrate recorded the child's statement with the accused in the room. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the mother was NOT allowed when the CWC was recording the statement. Statement 3 is correct; the Court directed the District and Sessions Judge to obtain the magistrate's comments. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news, how many weeks had passed since the FIR was registered before the Gurgaon Police made arrests in the case?
- A.2 weeks
- B.3 weeks
- C.4 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- D.6 weeks
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Explanation
Senior Advocate Mukul Rohatgi mentioned before the Supreme Court that "not a thing has happened [by way of arrests] in four weeks [since the FIR was registered]". The article also notes arrests were made on a Saturday, following the Court's scrutiny.
What was a primary concern raised by the Supreme Court in this POCSO case, as per the article?
- A.The lack of financial compensation for the victim's family.
- B.The procedural lapses and insensitivity during the evidence collection stage.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The need to increase the punishment under the POCSO Act.
- D.The delay in the appointment of special public prosecutors.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's primary concern, as highlighted by the CJI's remarks and the counsel's arguments, was the series of procedural violations: recording the child's statement before the accused, CWC recording without the parent, and police inaction for weeks. These lapses re-traumatize the child and violate the protective intent of the POCSO Act.
The proposed Bharat-VISTAAR AI tool aims to integrate data from AgriStack and which of the following national research bodies?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
- D.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
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Explanation
As per the article, Bharat-VISTAAR aims to integrate AgriStack portals and Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) data to provide advisory support. ICAR is the apex body for agricultural research in India.
Consider the following statements regarding AI in Indian agriculture:
1. The AI-based pilot for local monsoon onset forecasting during Kharif 2025 reached farmers via SMS.
2. The Digital Agriculture Mission was launched in 2024 with an outlay of over ₹3,000 crore.
3. Kisan e-Mitra, an AI-powered chatbot, operates in over 20 regional languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the pilot reached 3.88 crore farmers via SMS. Statement 2 is incorrect because the outlay is ₹2,817 crore, not over ₹3,000 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect as Kisan e-Mitra operates in 11 languages, not over 20.
As of November last year, how many Farmer IDs had been generated under the AgriStack initiative against a target of 11 crore by 2026-27?
- A.5.21 crore
- B.7.63 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.9.15 crore
- D.10.50 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that over 7.63 crore Farmer IDs have been generated as of November last year. The target is 11 crore by 2026-27, making 7.63 crore the correct current figure.
What is a primary challenge identified for the scaling of AI solutions in Indian agriculture, as per the government's AI Playbook for Agriculture?
- A.Lack of interest from the private sector
- B.Fragmented data ecosystems and limited digital infrastructure✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over-reliance on imported AI technology
- D.Stringent environmental regulations blocking innovation
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Explanation
The article mentions that the AI Playbook, developed with the World Economic Forum, acknowledges fragmented data ecosystems, limited digital infrastructure, affordability barriers, and last-mile delivery challenges as critical constraints. This directly points to option B as the primary challenge.
The management of India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) is under the purview of which ministry?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article mentions India building strategic petroleum reserves. The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), which manages these reserves, operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. This is a key static fact for energy security.
Consider the following statements regarding India's position on the West Asia conflict as mentioned in the article:
1. India has termed attacks on commercial ships and the blockage of the Strait of Hormuz as unacceptable.
2. India imports nearly 60 per cent of its crude oil needs from the West Asia region.
3. Over three lakh Indians have returned home safely since the beginning of the conflict.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi explicitly stated that attacks on commercial ships and blockage of the Strait of Hormuz are unacceptable. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India imports nearly 60% of its LPG needs, not crude oil. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned that over three lakh Indians have returned home safely. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the current capacity of India's strategic petroleum reserves?
- A.Exceeding 40 lakh metric tonnes
- B.Exceeding 53 lakh metric tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.Exceeding 65 lakh metric tonnes
- D.Exceeding 75 lakh metric tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India has built strategic petroleum reserves exceeding 53 lakh metric tonnes, with more capacity under development. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors based on other potential reserve capacities.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for India's deep concern regarding the West Asia conflict?
- A.To secure new defense partnerships in the region.
- B.Due to its significant diaspora, energy dependency, and critical trade routes.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mediate peace talks between the warring nations.
- D.To reduce its reliance on Russian energy imports.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes India's high stakes: around one crore Indians live in the Gulf, the region fulfills a large part of India's energy needs (60% LPG), and it is a key trade route employing many Indians. While diplomacy is a tool, the core concern stems from these tangible national interests.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 325
- C.Article 326
- D.Article 327
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India, the permanent constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, is established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution. This article vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent news about Election Commission transfers:
1. The Election Commission transferred 73 Returning Officers in the state of West Bengal.
2. The transfers were ordered by the Chief Electoral Officer of West Bengal on his own authority.
3. The Election Commission also ordered the deployment of 478 central observers for the elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the State CEO proposed the transfers, but the final order was issued by the Election Commission of India. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the deployment of 478 central observers. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news, from which district were the highest number of Returning Officers (13) transferred?
- A.South 24 Parganas
- B.Purba Medinipur
- C.North 24 Parganas✓ Correct Answer
- D.Murshidabad
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Explanation
The article clearly states that among the transfers, 13 officers are from North 24 Parganas, which is the highest number mentioned for any single district. South 24 Parganas and Purba Medinipur had 10 transfers each.
What is the primary constitutional objective behind the Election Commission's decision to transfer a large number of officials before elections?
- A.To reduce administrative costs
- B.To ensure free and fair elections✓ Correct Answer
- C.To implement a new training program
- D.To comply with state government requests
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Explanation
The Election Commission's core constitutional mandate under Article 324 is to ensure the conduct of free and fair elections. Transferring officials perceived to be partisan or under influence is a key tool to uphold the integrity and impartiality of the electoral process, which is directly stated in the EC's order for these transfers.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 23 March 2026?▼
This page contains 132 current affairs questions from 23 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 23 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. Under which Ministry does the administrative responsibility fo…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the government's p…
- Q3. According to the proposal discussed in the article, what would…
- Q4. is a key strategic objective of the government's proposal to u…
- Q5. Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding issues discussed i…
- Q7. Finance Commission is currently deliberating on concerns regar…
- Q8. is the primary constitutional concern raised by the 'double-en…
- Q9. The 'State of the Global Climate 2025' report, which declared …
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the WMO State of t…
- Q11. According to the WMO report, what was the approximate global t…
- Q12. is the primary implication of the Earth's energy imbalance, as…
- Q13. Indian ministry is primarily engaged in diplomatic efforts for…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q15. According to the article, what percentage of India's Liquefied…
- Q16. is the primary implication of the effective closure of the Str…
- Q17. central investigative agency was responsible for probing the S…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam cu…
- Q19. As per the news, on which date did the First Additional Distri…
- Q20. is the primary significance of the court's conviction in the S…
- Q21. The proposed 'India-Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding global maritime ch…
- Q23. According to the article, what is the current capacity of Indi…
- Q24. is the primary strategic concern for India regarding the Strai…
- Q25. apex body in India is responsible for laying down policies and…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the fire tragedies…
- Q27. According to the article, what was the total number of lives l…
- Q28. is identified as the primary systemic failure leading to repea…
- Q29. US office is authorized under Section 301 to investigate forei…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q31. For what duration was the temporary import surcharge of 10% im…
- Q32. is the core argument of the article regarding the appropriate …
- Q33. The power to block online content under the Information Techno…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding digital censorship…
- Q35. According to the article, how many URLs, posts, and accounts w…
- Q36. is the primary constitutional concern raised in the article re…
- Q37. The proposed 'National Agri-photovoltaics Mission' is being co…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Agri-photovoltaics…
- Q39. According to the article, what was the budget outlay for the P…
- Q40. is a primary environmental co-benefit of AgriPV systems mentio…
- Q41. The news discusses the budget and policy push for traditional …
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent develop…
- Q43. According to the Union Budget 2026-27 mentioned in the article…
- Q44. is identified as the primary challenge for AYUSH systems to ga…
- Q45. The NSEIX Global Access platform operates from GIFT City under…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the NSEIX Global A…
- Q47. According to the article, what is the annual limit for an indi…
- Q48. is a primary stated objective of launching the NSEIX Global Ac…
- Q49. The amendment to which policy document was used by the governm…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the India-China ec…
- Q51. In which year did India initially impose restrictions on FDI f…
- Q52. According to the article, what is a primary macroeconomic reas…
- Q53. As per the article, which constitutional body is responsible f…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding compulsory voting …
- Q55. According to the Law Commission's 255th report cited in the ar…
- Q56. is the primary constitutional basis for the right to vote in I…
- Q57. The investigation into the Sattankulam custodial deaths case w…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Sattankulam cu…
- Q59. According to the article, on which date is the First Additiona…
- Q60. was a significant procedural lapse highlighted by the Kovilpat…
- Q61. The International Energy Agency (IEA) is primarily associated …
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the energy crisis …
- Q63. According to the news, what was the volume of oil that IEA mem…
- Q64. is the primary strategic mechanism being used by IEA member co…
- Q65. The International Energy Agency (IEA), which coordinated the r…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the energy crisis …
- Q67. According to the article, what was the peak price per barrel r…
- Q68. is the primary strategic objective behind the International En…
- Q69. Under which Article of the Constitution do High Courts have th…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
- Q71. On which date did the couple mentioned in the Delhi HC case so…
- Q72. is the core legal principle established by the Delhi High Cour…
- Q73. The Mediation Act, 2023, which aims to standardise mediation p…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges and…
- Q75. According to Gourab Banerji, what is the average duration, fro…
- Q76. is presented as the primary reason for the continued dominance…
- Q77. ministry is primarily responsible for the Transgender Persons …
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
- Q79. According to the article, in which year was the original Trans…
- Q80. is a primary criticism levied against the 2026 Amendment Bill …
- Q81. The SIPRI report on arms transfers is published by an institut…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the SIPRI Trends i…
- Q83. According to the SIPRI report (2021-25), what percentage of gl…
- Q84. does the decline in India's share of global arms imports, as n…
- Q85. nodal agency is responsible for implementing the recently anno…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Anavaran-Defor…
- Q87. According to the World Happiness Report 2026, what was India's…
- Q88. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's recent ruling …
- Q89. The Haryana Human Rights Commission (HHRC), which took suo mot…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the Haryana Human …
- Q91. According to the news article, how many workers lost their liv…
- Q92. is the primary constitutional significance of the HHRC's order…
- Q93. constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting el…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the news about Wes…
- Q95. According to the article, how many Appellate Tribunals has the…
- Q96. is the primary purpose of establishing the 19 Appellate Tribun…
- Q97. The 'MahaCrimeOS AI' platform, mentioned in the news, was deve…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the use of AI in p…
- Q99. According to the article, across how many police stations in M…
- Q100. is described as one of the primary functions of the MahaCrimeO…
- Q101. section of the Indian Penal Code, dealing with cheating, was q…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q103. was the total amount invested by the complainant in the film p…
- Q104. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's judgm…
- Q105. Under the Companies Act, 2013, what is the mandatory percentag…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Corporate Laws…
- Q107. On which date did the Lok Sabha refer the Corporate Laws (Amen…
- Q108. is a primary stated objective of the Corporate Laws (Amendment…
- Q109. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) operates under which Union Mi…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the ADAG bank frau…
- Q111. According to the status report submitted in the Supreme Court,…
- Q112. was the primary concern expressed by the Supreme Court regardi…
- Q113. institution releases the data on Foreign Direct Investment (FD…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding India's FDI situat…
- Q115. According to the RBI data mentioned in the article, what was t…
- Q116. is a primary reason, as discussed in the article, for the weak…
- Q117. Under which Act is the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) constituted?
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q119. According to the news, how many weeks had passed since the FIR…
- Q120. was a primary concern raised by the Supreme Court in this POCS…
- Q121. The proposed Bharat-VISTAAR AI tool aims to integrate data fro…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding AI in Indian agric…
- Q123. As of November last year, how many Farmer IDs had been generat…
- Q124. is a primary challenge identified for the scaling of AI soluti…
- Q125. The management of India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) i…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding India's position o…
- Q127. According to the article, what is the current capacity of Indi…
- Q128. is the primary reason cited in the article for India's deep co…
- Q129. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the recent news ab…
- Q131. According to the news, from which district were the highest nu…
- Q132. is the primary constitutional objective behind the Election Co…