21 March 2026, Questions & Answers
96 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 96 current affairs questions with answers from 21 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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96 QsWhich Indian agency filed the FIR and investigated the case involving the arrest of six Ukrainians and one American national on terror conspiracy charges?
- A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
- D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the National Investigation Agency (NIA) filed the FIR regarding the arrest of the foreign nationals. The NIA is India's premier central agency for investigating terror-related cases across the country.
Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical developments mentioned in the article:
1. The Strait of Hormuz, located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, is a transit route for about one-fifth of global energy supplies.
2. NATO's Article 5, the collective security guarantee, has been invoked multiple times in its history, including during the Iraq War in 2003.
3. India's long-term average oil import dependency on the Strait of Hormuz is around 40%, while its LNG import dependency is 60%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Strait of Hormuz is the transit for a fifth (20%) of global energy supplies. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 5 was invoked only once after the 9/11 attacks (2001), not during the Iraq War. Statement 3 is correct: the article states India's long-term average oil import via Hormuz is 40% and LNG import is 60%. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG imports transit through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.70%
- B.80%
- C.90%✓ Correct Answer
- D.95%
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Explanation
The article provides specific data on India's fuel dependence: "LPG: A staggering 90 per cent for LPG..." This high dependency highlights India's vulnerability to disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz.
What is the primary strategic objective behind Iran's blockade of the Strait of Hormuz, as described in the article?
- A.To gain control over Qatar's Ras Laffan gas facilities
- B.To pressure the US into withdrawing sanctions on Iranian oil
- C.To cripple global energy trade and drive up fuel prices as a wartime tactic✓ Correct Answer
- D.To facilitate the safe passage of its own oil exports amidst US attacks
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Explanation
The article states Iran has 'effectively blocked all trade along this channel – targeting vessels and vowing that not one litre of oil would be exported – driving up global fuel prices.' This indicates the blockade is a strategic wartime measure to inflict economic pain globally, not primarily for its own export safety or to lift sanctions.
The landmark environmental case discussed in the news is primarily associated with which constitutional article?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech)
- C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
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Explanation
The M.C. Mehta case is a landmark where the Supreme Court expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include the right to a wholesome environment, clean air, and water. This linkage forms the bedrock of environmental jurisprudence in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the M.C. Mehta environmental case:
1. It was filed as a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) concerning air pollution in Delhi.
2. The Supreme Court's intervention in the case led to the establishment of the 'precautionary principle' as a rule of law.
3. The case was recently closed by a bench headed by the Chief Justice of India, citing the need to reduce pendency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The case was Writ Petition (Civil) No. 13029 of 1985, a PIL filed by M.C. Mehta regarding air pollution from vehicles and industries in Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect: The case is famous for establishing the 'absolute liability' principle (from the oleum gas leak) and the tool of 'continuing mandamus'. The 'precautionary principle' was notably established in the Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum case. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the bench headed by CJI Surya Kant disposed of the petition on March 12, 2026, to reduce pendency.
As per the article, in which year was the Writ Petition (Civil) No. 13029, which was recently closed by the Supreme Court, originally filed?
- A.1983
- B.1984
- C.1985✓ Correct Answer
- D.1986
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Public Interest Litigation was filed in 1985. It was filed after the oleum gas leak incident of December 1985. The case was kept pending for monitoring for nearly four decades before its closure in 2026.
What was the primary judicial innovation introduced through the Supreme Court's handling of the M.C. Mehta air pollution case?
- A.Introducing the concept of 'Class Action Suits' in India.
- B.Establishing the 'Doctrine of Basic Structure' of the Constitution.
- C.Creating the tool of 'Continuing Mandamus' for sustained oversight.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Initiating the process of 'Video Conferencing' for court hearings.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the case's 'pending for monitoring' status evolved into the novel judicial tool of 'continuing mandamus'. Unlike a standard order that closes a case, this allows a court to keep a case open indefinitely and issue periodic directions to monitor executive compliance, which was used extensively in this PIL.
Which court has restored the PIL concerning the absence of a Section 377-like provision in the BNS?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Delhi High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bombay High Court
- D.Kerala High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Delhi High Court restored the public interest litigation (PIL) on March 20, 2026. The bench comprised Chief Justice D.K. Upadhyaya and Justice Tejas Karia.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) from July 1, 2024.
2. The Supreme Court's 2018 judgment in Navtej Singh Johar case struck down Section 377 of the IPC in its entirety.
3. The petition argues that the absence of a specific provision in the BNS leaves victims of non-consensual unnatural sex without a legal remedy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2018 SC judgment decriminalized only consensual same-sex relations among adults, but Section 377 continued to apply to non-consensual acts, offences against minors, and bestiality. Statement 3 is the core argument of the PIL as mentioned in the article.
On what date did the Delhi High Court originally dispose of the PIL with a direction to the Centre, as mentioned in the article?
- A.March 20, 2026
- B.August 28, 2024✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 1, 2024
- D.March 21, 2026
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Explanation
The article states: 'The direction for consideration and taking a decision on the representation was issued by the court on August 28, 2024.' This is the date when the PIL was initially disposed of. March 20, 2026, is when it was restored.
What is the primary concern raised by the PIL regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)?
- A.It increases the punishment for consensual same-sex relations.
- B.It creates a legal lacuna for prosecuting non-consensual unnatural sex.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It duplicates the provisions of Section 377 of the IPC.
- D.It empowers the police to arbitrarily arrest individuals under vague provisions.
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Explanation
The article's central argument is that the BNS does not contain a provision equivalent to Section 377 of the IPC, which continued to apply to non-consensual acts after the 2018 SC verdict. This omission is highlighted as a 'legal lacuna' leaving victims without a specific criminal remedy.
Which Ministry is the cadre controlling authority for the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs)?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the cadre controlling authority of both CAPFs and the IPS. This is a standard static GK fact related to India's security and administrative structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026:
1. It proposes to reserve all posts in the rank of Director General in CAPFs for IPS officers on deputation.
2. The Bill seeks to implement the directions of the Supreme Court's May 2025 judgment on IPS deputation in CAPFs.
3. The statement of objects and reasons for the Bill cites Article 312 of the Constitution to justify the role of IPS officers in CAPFs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states that all posts in the rank of Special Director General and Director General shall be filled by IPS officers. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill seeks to NEGATE the SC judgment, not implement it. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions that the Bill's statement of objects refers to Article 312, under which IPS is an All India Service.
As per the provisions of the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, what percentage of posts in the rank of Additional Director General (ADG) in CAPFs is proposed to be filled by IPS officers on deputation?
- A.50%
- B.67%✓ Correct Answer
- C.75%
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Bill proposes at least 67% of posts in the rank of Additional Director General shall be filled by IPS officers. The other percentages are distractors: 50% is for Inspector General posts, and 100% is for Special DG/DG posts.
What is the primary rationale provided in the Bill for continuing the deputation of IPS officers to senior ranks in CAPFs?
- A.To reduce the overall administrative burden on the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- B.To ensure effective Union-State coordination during CAPF operations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To improve the technical and investigative skills of CAPF units.
- D.To fast-track the promotions of CAPF cadre officers by bringing in external leadership.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Bill stating that CAPFs perform functions in close coordination with State authorities, and 'in the interest of maintaining Centre-State relationship, the IPS officers are necessary for effective functioning of these forces.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The Supreme Court judgment in Hamsaanandini Nanduri vs Union of India primarily dealt with provisions originally under which labour law?
- A.The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
- B.The Employees' Provident Funds Act, 1952
- C.The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
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Explanation
The article states the petitioner challenged a provision in the Maternity Benefit Act, which has been recently replaced by the Code on Social Security. The case centered on the maternity leave entitlement for adoptive mothers under this specific act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment in Hamsaanandini Nanduri vs Union of India:
1. The Court declared maternity leave for working women as a basic human right.
2. The judgment entitles adoptive mothers to 26 weeks of paid maternity leave.
3. The Court struck down a restriction that limited maternity leave to women adopting children less than one year old.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly says the Court recognised maternity leave as a basic human right. Statement 2 is incorrect because the entitlement is for 12 weeks, not 26 weeks. Statement 3 is incorrect as the struck-down restriction was for children less than three months old, not one year.
According to the Supreme Court judgment discussed, for how many weeks are adoptive mothers now entitled to paid maternity leave?
- A.8 weeks
- B.12 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- C.16 weeks
- D.26 weeks
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Supreme Court ruled adoptive mothers are entitled to 12 weeks of paid maternity leave. The other options are common durations for maternity/paternity leave in other contexts but are not the correct figure from this specific judgment.
What was a key rationale, as per the Supreme Court, for extending maternity benefits to adoptive mothers?
- A.To reduce the financial burden on childcare institutions.
- B.To acknowledge that emotional bonds with a child are nurtured through sustained caregiving, not just biology.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align India's laws with international adoption treaties.
- D.To incentivize higher rates of adoption in the country.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Court saying "the emotional bond with the child has to be consciously nurtured through time, presence and sustained caregiving" and that "It is not biology that constitutes a family... rather, it is the shared meaning, responsibility, and emotional bonds." This is the core philosophical rationale presented in the judgment.
With which Indian ministry did the FAO collaborate to develop protocols for certified Quality Planting Material (QPM) for agroforestry, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the FAO supported the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, Government of India, in developing protocols for certified Quality Planting Material (QPM). This ministry oversees agricultural development, including agroforestry initiatives.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. According to the India State of Forest Report 2023, forest and tree cover spans 25.17% of India's geographical area.
2. The Global Forest Resources Assessment 2020 by the FAO states that forests support the livelihoods of more than 1.8 billion people globally.
3. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) supported programme by the FAO in India focuses on promoting agroforestry models for large-scale commercial farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the FAO 2020 report states forests support over 1.6 billion people, not 1.8 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the GCF programme focuses on small and marginal farmers, women farmers, and tribal communities, not large-scale commercial farmers.
As per the India State of Forest Report cited in the article, what percentage of India's geographical area is covered by forest and tree cover?
- A.23.78%
- B.24.56%
- C.25.17%✓ Correct Answer
- D.26.12%
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Explanation
The article directly mentions that forest and tree cover spans 25.17% of India's geographical area, according to the India State of Forest Report 2023. The other options are plausible distractors based on figures from previous years' reports.
What is the primary objective highlighted for scaling up agroforestry in India, according to the analysis in the article?
- A.To increase government revenue from timber exports
- B.To provide a practical and sustainable livelihood option for small farmers and vulnerable communities✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace traditional agriculture completely with tree-based systems
- D.To meet urban construction demands for wood and timber
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that agroforestry is identified as a key adaptation strategy for small and marginal farmers, women, and tribal communities. The programme undertakes cost-benefit analysis to ensure tree-based farming becomes a practical and sustainable livelihood option for these vulnerable groups.
Which US government department's secretary commented on the potential unsanctioning of Iranian oil?
- A.Department of Defense
- B.Department of State
- C.Department of the Treasury✓ Correct Answer
- D.Department of Energy
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Explanation
US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent made the comments regarding unsanctioning Iranian oil on Fox Business Network, as mentioned in the article. The Treasury Department handles economic and financial sanctions.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US is considering a waiver for Iranian crude oil that is already at sea, similar to a previous move for Russian oil.
2. The Strait of Hormuz accounts for approximately one-third of global oil and LNG flows.
3. India's imports of Russian oil in March 2026 surged to 1.8 million barrels per day from 1 million bpd in February.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Strait of Hormuz accounts for one-fifth (20%), not one-third, of global oil and LNG flows. Statement 3 is correct as per the tanker data from Kpler mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what percentage of global crude oil flows usually passes through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.15%
- B.20%✓ Correct Answer
- C.25%
- D.30%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'accounts for one-fifth of global oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG) flows.' One-fifth is equivalent to 20%.
What was a primary reason for India to halt oil imports from Iran in 2019, as per the article?
- A.A diplomatic dispute over a gas field.
- B.The expiration of a US sanctions waiver for major buyers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.High shipping costs and unfavorable commercial terms.
- D.Indian refineries' inability to process Iranian crude grades.
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Explanation
The article states that India halted imports after May 2019 'after the expiration of the sanctions waiver that the US had provided to major buyers of Iranian oil.' Non-compliance would have made Indian companies vulnerable to US secondary sanctions.
Which public sector shipyard is the primary builder of the stealth frigate 'Taragiri'?
- A.Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE)
- B.Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
- C.Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Taragiri' is the third one built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilding Ltd (MDL). MDL is a leading defense shipyard in Mumbai responsible for major naval projects.
Consider the following statements regarding the stealth frigate 'Taragiri':
1. It is the fourth ship of the Nilgiri-class under Project 17A.
2. It is powered by an Integrated Electric Propulsion (IEP) system.
3. It was delivered to the Indian Navy in November 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as 'Taragiri' is the fourth ship of Nilgiri-class (Project 17A). Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states it is driven by a Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion plant, not IEP. Statement 3 is correct as it was delivered on November 28 last year (2025).
What is the approximate indigenous content percentage of the newly commissioned stealth frigate 'Taragiri'?
- A.Above 60%
- B.Above 75%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Above 85%
- D.Above 90%
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the indigenous content of the ship exceeds 75%. This is a key data point highlighting the success of the 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat' initiative in defense manufacturing.
What is a primary strategic significance of commissioning advanced stealth frigates like 'Taragiri' for the Indian Navy?
- A.To primarily boost tourism and coastal surveillance.
- B.To enhance power projection and sea control capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all aging aircraft carriers in the fleet.
- D.To focus solely on humanitarian and disaster relief operations.
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Explanation
While the ship has a flexible mission profile, the article emphasizes its role as a 'premier hunter of the seas' and a guardian of maritime frontiers. Its advanced weapon suite and stealth features are primarily for high-intensity combat and securing India's strategic interests in the maritime domain.
The enactment of a Uniform Civil Code is a constitutional obligation under which article of the Indian Constitution?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 51A
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Explanation
Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' This is the constitutional basis for the UCC debate.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026:
1. It aims to make Gujarat the second state in India to have a uniform law regulating marriage, divorce, and succession.
2. The Bill outlaws polygamy but does not address the practice of nikah-halala.
3. It mandates registration of marriages and also provides a framework for live-in relationships.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states Gujarat will be the third state, after Goa and Uttarakhand. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article explicitly mentions the Bill outlaws both polygamy and nikah-halala. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of mandates for marriage registration and recognition of live-in relationships.
According to the article, what is the approximate percentage of Gujarat's population comprised of communities like Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and Jains, who would be affected by the extension of the UCC framework?
- A.5%
- B.8%
- C.12%✓ Correct Answer
- D.15%
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Explanation
The article states that these communities 'together constitute approximately 12 per cent of the state’s population.' This is a key demographic data point for understanding the scale of impact.
What is a primary criticism levelled against the drafting process of the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026, as per the article?
- A.It was drafted without any committee input.
- B.It introduces entirely new and untested legal concepts.
- C.It is a 'cut-copy-paste' of existing laws without substantial reform.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It was drafted with excessive foreign influence.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that the Bill 'selectively cut, copied, and pasted existing laws' like the Hindu Marriage Act and Uttarakhand UCC, missing the opportunity for deeper reform of issues like restitution of conjugal rights and simplification of colonial laws.
Under which Union Ministry does the Central Public Health & Environmental Engineering Organisation (CPHEEO) function?
- A.Ministry of Jal Shakti
- B.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The CPHEEO is an organization under the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.' This is a direct static fact from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
1. The Union Cabinet recently approved an extension of the mission till 2028 with an additional outlay of ₹1.51 lakh crore.
2. The Central Public Health & Environmental Engineering Organisation (CPHEEO) will scrutinize all JJM projects, regardless of their cost.
3. The release of central funds under JJM 2.0 is conditional upon states creating Sujal Gaon IDs for digital mapping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; CPHEEO will scrutinize only projects costing ₹100 crore and above. Statement 3 is correct as it is one of the four mandatory compliance requirements mentioned. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the revised total outlay for the Jal Jeevan Mission till 2028?
- A.₹1.51 lakh crore
- B.₹3.59 lakh crore
- C.₹8.70 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹10.21 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article states: 'The scheme will now have an overall outlay of ₹8.70 lakh crore till 2028.' ₹1.51 lakh crore is the additional outlay, and ₹3.59 lakh crore is the Centre's total share. ₹10.21 lakh crore is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the Centre's directive to scrutinize Jal Jeevan Mission projects costing ₹100 crore and above?
- A.To accelerate the pace of project implementation across all states.
- B.To ensure cost rationalization and prevent financial irregularities following Phase 1 escalations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer the complete financial liability of such projects to the state governments.
- D.To replace the Jal Shakti Ministry with CPHEEO as the nodal implementing agency.
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Explanation
The article's context is 'massive cost escalation in Phase 1'. The move to scrutinize high-cost projects by CPHEEO is explicitly a 'cost rationalisation exercise' aimed at preventing similar financial issues before releasing funds.
Which US government department's office issued the 'general license' for the Iranian oil sanctions waiver mentioned in the article?
- A.Department of State
- B.Department of Defense
- C.Department of the Treasury✓ Correct Answer
- D.Department of Commerce
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the 'general license' was issued by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) of the US Department of the Treasury. OFAC is the primary agency responsible for administering and enforcing US economic and trade sanctions.
Consider the following statements regarding the US sanctions waiver on Iranian oil:
1. The waiver applies to all transactions involving Iranian crude oil for a period of one month.
2. The primary objective is to release approximately 140 million barrels of oil to stabilize global prices.
3. The waiver is effective for oil loaded on tankers as of a specific date in March 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the waiver is 'narrowly tailored' and applies only to Iranian crude oil already loaded on vessels (on water) as of a specific time on March 20, 2026, not to all transactions. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: US Treasury Secretary stated the move will bring ~140 million barrels to market, and the general license authorizes transactions for oil loaded as of March 20.
According to the article, what percentage of global oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG) flows normally passes through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.10%
- B.15%
- C.20%✓ Correct Answer
- D.25%
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Explanation
The article states that the Strait of Hormuz 'accounted for one-fifth of global oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG) flows.' One-fifth is equivalent to 20%. This is a key data point highlighting the strategic importance of this maritime chokepoint.
What is described as a key consideration for Indian refiners to potentially resume imports of Iranian crude oil under the temporary US waiver?
- A.The political relations between India and Iran
- B.The availability of sufficient refinery storage capacity in India
- C.The scope and durability of sanctions relief, pricing, and payment mechanisms✓ Correct Answer
- D.The approval from the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
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Explanation
The article quotes an analyst stating that 'Key considerations for Indian refiners to tap into Iranian barrels would primarily include the scope and durability of sanctions relief, pricing structure, and the availability of payment, insurance, and logistics mechanisms.' These are practical commercial and regulatory hurdles that need resolution.
Which Union Ministry's Secretary delivered a lecture on 'Measuring what matters: Strengthening district level data for more informed policy making' as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Dr. Saurabh Garg, Secretary of the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), as the speaker on the topic of district-level data. MoSPI is the nodal agency for official statistics in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Loksatta District Index' report:
1. The report categorizes districts as backward and very backward based on their progress across 16 critical parameters.
2. The Gokhale Institute of Politics and Economics, Pune, is the data partner for the report.
3. The report aims to address development mismatches to help Maharashtra achieve its target of becoming a five trillion-dollar economy by 2047.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states districts were categorized based on progress across social, education, health, infrastructure, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gokhale Institute is the knowledge partner, while the State Statistics Department is the data partner. Statement 3 is correct as the CM linked district-level balance to the goal of a five trillion-dollar economy by 2047.
According to the article, what is the current Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) size of Maharashtra?
- A.₹45 lakh crore
- B.₹48 lakh crore
- C.₹51 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹54 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Maharashtra's GSDP size is at ₹51 lakh crore and is poised to accelerate to ₹54 lakh crore. The other options are close distractors; ₹54 lakh crore is the projected acceleration, not the current size.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the 'Loksatta District Index' report as highlighted in the news?
- A.To increase Maharashtra's share of FDI from 30% to 50%
- B.To ensure regional balance and percolation of development to the grassroots across all districts✓ Correct Answer
- C.To rank Maharashtra as the top state for ease of doing business in India
- D.To solely focus on the development of Mumbai and Pune metropolitan regions
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Explanation
The core objective emphasized by the Chief Minister is achieving 'regional balance' and ensuring development 'percolates to the grassroots'. The report focuses on backward districts and talukas to address mismatches, which is essential for the state's broader trillion-dollar and five-trillion-dollar economy goals. The other options, while related to economic growth, are not the primary focus of this district-level index.
The development of sector-specific industrial parks, as mentioned in the news, is primarily aimed at promoting which of the following?
- A.Agricultural diversification and food processing
- B.Economies of scale and shared infrastructure for targeted industries✓ Correct Answer
- C.Decentralization of political power to district levels
- D.Reducing urban migration by creating jobs in villages
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Explanation
Sector-specific industrial clusters or parks are designed to concentrate similar industries in one area. This creates economies of scale, allows for the development of shared specialized infrastructure (like common effluent treatment plants for pharma), and fosters a pool of skilled labor, thereby enhancing the competitiveness of that sector.
Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's development initiatives as per the article:
1. The state has received investment proposals worth over ₹50 lakh crore in the last nine years.
2. Projects worth ₹15 lakh crore have been implemented through four previous groundbreaking ceremonies.
3. About 55% of the country's total railway network is located in Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states: "Uttar Pradesh has received investment proposals worth more than Rs 50 lakh crore". Statement 2 is correct: "through four ceremonies, projects worth Rs 15 lakh crore have already been implemented". Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions that "About 55 per cent of expressways in the country are in Uttar Pradesh", not the railway network. This is a classic examiner trap swapping 'expressways' for 'railway network'.
According to the article, what is the estimated value of projects to be launched in Uttar Pradesh's upcoming 5th Groundbreaking Ceremony?
- A.₹5.0 lakh crore
- B.₹7.5 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹10.0 lakh crore
- D.₹15.0 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article's headline and opening sentence clearly state that the state is preparing for the fifth groundbreaking ceremony to launch new projects worth "Rs 7.5 lakh crore". ₹15 lakh crore is the value of projects already implemented from previous ceremonies, making it a close distractor.
The Uttar Pradesh government's strategy of removing 'minor criminal provisions across 13 Acts' as mentioned in the article is primarily aimed at:
- A.Increasing state revenue through higher fines and penalties
- B.Simplifying business operations and improving Ease of Doing Business✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing the workload on the state's judiciary and police force
- D.Aligning state laws with the directives of the central government
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Explanation
The article explicitly links this deregulation move to "making business operations simpler". Reducing regulatory hurdles and decriminalizing minor procedural lapses is a key component of improving the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) ranking, which attracts investment. While reducing judicial workload might be a secondary effect, the primary objective is to create a business-friendly environment.
Which High Court delivered the judgment expanding the definition of 'near relative' under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Punjab and Haryana High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madras High Court
- D.Supreme Court of India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Punjab and Haryana High Court held that a mother-in-law qualifies as a 'near relative'. The judgment was delivered by Justice Jagmohan Bansal of that court.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment on organ donation:
1. The court ruled that a mother-in-law is included in the statutory definition of 'near relative' under Section 2(i) of the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994.
2. The court held that the definition using the word 'means' makes the list of near relatives completely rigid and closed for interpretation.
3. The court emphasized that the Act's provision for swap donations under Section 9(3-A) should be interpreted narrowly to prevent any potential misuse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) None of the above✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court did NOT rule that a mother-in-law is included in the statutory definition. It interpreted the definition purposively to include her for swap donations, acknowledging she is not in the original list. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court argued that 'means' does not automatically make the list closed and allowed a purposive interpretation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court emphasized a broad, purpose-driven interpretation of Section 9(3-A) to enable life-saving swaps, not a narrow one.
Under which Section of the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994, are paired kidney swap donations permitted?
- A.Section 2(i)
- B.Section 9(3)
- C.Section 9(3-A)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 7(4)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that Section 9(3-A) and Rule 7(4) of the 2014 Rules permit swap donations only if donors are near relatives of their respective intended recipients. Section 2(i) defines 'near relative'. Section 9(3) deals with donations from non-near relatives.
What was the primary rationale given by the Punjab and Haryana High Court for its purposive interpretation of the 'near relative' definition?
- A.To increase government revenue from transplant procedures
- B.To align with changing family structures and the life-saving objective of the Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the workload of the Authorisation Committees
- D.To override a recent amendment passed by Parliament
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Explanation
The court emphasized that a narrow reading would frustrate the Act's life-saving purpose, especially in the context of modern urban nuclear families with fewer traditional relatives available or fit to donate. The judgment aimed to prevent prolonged suffering and avoidable loss of life over technicalities, as stated in the article.
Which central investigative agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002?
- A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- B.Enforcement Directorate (ED)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- D.Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
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Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the designated agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, to investigate offences of money laundering under the PMLA, 2002. The article mentions ED issuing the provisional attachment order under PMLA.
Consider the following statements regarding the PACL (Pearls Group) case mentioned in the news:
1. The Enforcement Directorate's total attachment in this case now stands at over ₹22,000 crore, its highest in a single case.
2. The investigation by ED stems from an FIR registered by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in the year 2016.
3. The accused entities operated an illegal collective investment scheme by fraudulently mobilizing funds under the guise of developing agricultural land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states ED's attachment is worth over ₹22,000 crore, the highest in a single case. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CBI FIR was registered in 2014, not 2016. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions the scheme fraudulently mobilized funds for agricultural land development.
According to the news, what is the total value of properties provisionally attached by the Enforcement Directorate in its latest order against PACL?
- A.₹22,656.91 crore
- B.₹5,046.91 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹48,000 crore
- D.₹60,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states the ED has issued a provisional order to attach assets valued at Rs 5,046.91 crore. ₹22,656.91 crore is the cumulative attachment so far. ₹48,000 crore is the size of the ponzi scheme, and over ₹60,000 crore is the amount fraudulently mobilized.
What is the primary legal instrument used by the Enforcement Directorate to provisionally attach the properties in the PACL money laundering case?
- A.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- B.The Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
- C.The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
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Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate derives its power to attach proceeds of crime from the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002. The article explicitly mentions the provisional order was issued under PMLA. While CrPC and IPC are involved in the predicate offence, the attachment power specifically comes from PMLA.
Which department in Punjab is the nodal agency for implementing the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme?
- A.Department of Agriculture
- B.Punjab Horticulture Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Rural Development
- D.Department of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Punjab Horticulture Department is the nodal agency for AIF implementation in Punjab. This is a specific fact from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding Punjab's performance under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme:
1. Punjab has the highest number of sanctioned projects and the highest disbursal rate in the country.
2. Punjab is the only state among the top five AIF performers that is governed by a non-NDA party.
3. The AIF scheme provides a credit guarantee through the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Punjab leads in sanctioned projects and has a 96% disbursal rate (highest). Statement 2 is correct as it states Punjab is the only non-NDA state among the top five. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions credit guarantee support is through CGTMSE.
According to the news, what is the interest subvention provided under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme for eligible loans up to ₹2 crore?
- A.2%
- B.3%✓ Correct Answer
- C.4%
- D.5%
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Explanation
The article quotes Ravdeep Kaur of the KPMG team stating, "The scheme provides 3 per cent interest subvention on eligible loans." This is a direct data point from the source.
What is the primary objective of the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To provide direct income support to farmers.
- B.To strengthen post-harvest management infrastructure and build efficient supply chains.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote organic farming and reduce chemical fertilizer use.
- D.To increase the minimum support price for major crops.
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Launched by the Union government in July 2020, the AIF scheme aims to strengthen post-harvest management infrastructure and build efficient supply chains across the agriculture and horticulture sectors." The other options, while related to agriculture, are not the stated primary objective of AIF.
Under which Act is the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) constituted?
- A.The Constitution of India
- B.The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- D.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
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Explanation
The NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. It is not a constitutional body. Its powers and functions are derived from this Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent NHRC directive on custodial death autopsies:
1. It mandates a board of at least three doctors, all from the same institution.
2. It requires doctors to have a postgraduate degree in forensic medicine.
3. It mandates that doctors must have at least five years of experience in post-mortem examinations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the NHRC directive mandates doctors preferably from three different institutions to avoid pressure. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: doctors must hold a PG degree in forensic medicine and have at least five years of experience in post-mortem examination.
According to the NHRC directive discussed in the news, what is the minimum number of years of experience required for doctors conducting autopsies in custodial death cases?
- A.3 years
- B.5 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.7 years
- D.10 years
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Explanation
The NHRC directive explicitly mandates that "All doctors doing post-mortem must be holding a postgraduate degree in forensic medicine and must have at least an experience of five years in the specialty of post-mortem examination."
What is the primary objective behind the NHRC's directive to form autopsy boards with doctors from different institutions for custodial deaths?
- A.To reduce the cost of conducting autopsies.
- B.To speed up the autopsy reporting process.
- C.To provide necessary checks and balances and ensure objective forensic evidence.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To centralize all custodial death investigations under the NHRC.
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Explanation
As highlighted by the forensic expert in the article, forming a team from three different institutions provides 'cross-institutional oversight' and 'necessary checks and balances.' This aims to prevent influence from senior colleagues within a single institution, ensuring the autopsy report serves as objective, definitive evidence to prove or disprove custodial torture allegations.
The biogas plant in Indore, highlighted in the news, is a successful example of which type of partnership model?
- A.Fully Government-owned Enterprise
- B.Public-Private Partnership (PPP)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cooperative Society Model
- D.Foreign Direct Investment Venture
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the plant was set up and is operated in 'PPP mode' between the Indore Municipal Corporation and Everenviro Resource Management Private Limited. This model shares risks and resources between public and private entities.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indore biogas project:
1. The plant processes 500 tonnes of wet waste daily to produce Compressed Bio Gas (CBG).
2. All the CBG produced is used exclusively to fuel the city's public bus fleet.
3. The initiative has helped reduce the city's dependence on fossil fuels by 16%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states that 50% of the gas fuels buses and the remaining 50% is for domestic purposes. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned by the Project Manager. Hence, option C is correct.
What is the daily production capacity of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) from the Indore wet waste processing plant, as mentioned in the article?
- A.15 tonnes per day
- B.18 tonnes per day
- C.21 tonnes per day✓ Correct Answer
- D.25 tonnes per day
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Explanation
The Project Manager, Chandra Prakash Meena, is quoted stating the plant produces 'nearly 21 tonnes of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) per day'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
According to the article, what is a significant broader implication of Indore's biogas success story in the context of global energy security?
- A.It demonstrates a path to complete energy independence from solar power.
- B.It provides a model for reducing dependency on imported crude oil by creating domestic alternative fuel.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It primarily aims to increase the revenue of the Municipal Corporation through waste tariffs.
- D.Its main goal is to phase out all private vehicles in the city.
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Explanation
The article connects the project to the geopolitical context of oil security threats in the Gulf, exploring 'how alternative supply reduces dependency on imports'. The other options are either not mentioned (solar independence, phasing out private vehicles) or are secondary benefits (revenue increase).
The article discusses using AI to support students with disabilities in educational institutions. Which major legislation in India mandates inclusive education for persons with disabilities?
- A.The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017
- B.The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016✓ Correct Answer
- C.The National Education Policy, 2020
- D.The Rehabilitation Council of India Act, 1992
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Explanation
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 is the comprehensive law that specifically mandates inclusive education, non-discrimination, and accessibility in all educational institutions for persons with disabilities, making it directly relevant to the article's context.
Consider the following statements regarding the use of AI to support students with disabilities as discussed in the article:
1. AI tools can help visually impaired students by providing descriptions of images and transcribing dictated responses.
2. A primary advantage of AI is its complete immunity to cultural biases, ensuring fair assessment for all students.
3. A significant concern raised is the potential for data collection by AI tools to lead to unwanted surveillance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article provides examples of AI describing images for a visually impaired student and helping with dictation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states AI systems could be stereotypical and biased due to their training data. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies data collection and surveillance as a key risk.
According to the article, what is a persistent difficulty that instructors have faced in teaching students with disabilities, even before the advent of AI?
- A.Enabling full classroom participation for such students✓ Correct Answer
- B.Finding qualified special education teachers
- C.Securing government funding for assistive devices
- D.Designing separate examination papers
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'one of the persistent difficulties has been enabling such students to participate fully in the classroom.' It gives the example of a visually impaired student relying on a scribe, which was slower and less accurate.
What does the article suggest as a crucial step for ensuring AI tools are used effectively and ethically to support students with disabilities in HEIs?
- A.Banning the use of all generative AI tools in academic settings
- B.Co-designing curricula and tools with disabled students and instructors✓ Correct Answer
- C.Making AI tools exclusively available to postgraduate students
- D.Relying solely on international AI software providers
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Explanation
The article strongly advocates for a participatory approach, stating 'curricula and syllabi need to be co-designed with disabled students and instructors so that lived experiences can shape more effective learning.' This is presented as a key requirement for ethical and effective implementation.
The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), mentioned in the context of digital arrest, functions under which Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Communications
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Explanation
As per the article, the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) has been instituted as an attached office to the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its mandate is to coordinate a comprehensive, national response to cybercrime complaints.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on 'digital arrest' and appellate tribunals:
1. The term 'digital arrest' has been explicitly defined under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
2. The appellate tribunals for West Bengal's SIR appeals were set up by the Election Commission on the recommendations of the Calcutta High Court Chief Justice.
3. As per the BNSS 2023, all forms of arrest require physical custody and an arrest memo.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states 'digital arrest' has NOT been explicitly defined in any law, including the IT Act. Statement 2 is correct: the EC set up tribunals acting on Supreme Court orders and recommendations of Calcutta HC Chief Justice. Statement 3 is correct: the BNSS retains emphasis on embodied due process requiring physical custody and a memo.
According to the article, what was the approximate per capita availability of freshwater in India in the year 2021?
- A.1,816 cubic metres
- B.1,486 cubic metres✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,000 cubic metres
- D.2,000 cubic metres
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Per capita availability dropped from 1,816 cubic metres in 2001 to roughly 1,486 in 2021.' The figure 1,816 cubic metres is for 2001, and 1,000 cubic metres is the projected scarcity threshold by 2050.
What is the primary constitutional or legal basis cited in the article for the establishment of tribunals in India, such as the appellate tribunals for West Bengal?
- A.Directives of the Election Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1951
- B.Articles 323A and 323B inserted into the Constitution✓ Correct Answer
- C.The inherent powers of the Supreme Court under Article 142
- D.Provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021
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Explanation
The 'Do You Know' section under the tribunal news states: 'After the insertion of Articles 323A and 323B, several tribunals... were set up.' While the specific tribunals were set up by the ECI on SC orders, the broader constitutional framework for creating tribunals in India is provided by these articles.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the article, connects which two bodies of water?
- A.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
- B.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
- D.The South China Sea and the Indian Ocean
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Explanation
As per standard geography, the Strait of Hormuz is the narrow passage that links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. This strategic location makes it vital for global oil shipments.
Consider the following statements regarding the developments mentioned in the article:
1. The conflict has led to the destruction of over 12 million tons of Qatar's annual LNG export capacity.
2. The United States Navy is uniquely well-equipped with 'brown water' capabilities to dominate the coastal zone of the Strait of Hormuz.
3. Attacks on Iran's South Pars gas facilities have impacted its domestic supply and exports to Iraq.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'More than 12 million tons of annual LNG export capacity... was wiped out'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states 'the US Navy... may not readily possess the 'brown water' capabilities necessary'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the attack destroyed capacity that 'supplies Iran's domestic needs and those of Iraq'.
According to the article, what percentage of Qatar's total LNG export capacity was wiped out due to the attack on the Ras Laffan complex?
- A.10%
- B.15%✓ Correct Answer
- C.20%
- D.25%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 'More than 12 million tons of annual LNG export capacity — 15% of Qatar's total – was wiped out'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is identified as a primary challenge in securing merchant shipping through the Strait of Hormuz, even with naval escorts?
- A.Lack of international legal agreements for escort operations.
- B.The overwhelming numerical superiority of Iran's conventional navy.
- C.The threat from asymmetric forces using drones, missiles, and fast boats in coastal terrain.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Severe weather conditions that make navigation in the strait hazardous.
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Explanation
The article explains that the coastal areas have islands and inlets from which guerrillas with missiles, drones, and fast boats could operate, making naval escort insufficient. It contrasts this with the US Navy's strength in 'blue water' (open ocean) but lack of 'brown water' capabilities for such coastal zones.
Which ministry, in collaboration with the National Biodiversity Authority, submitted India's first National Report on the Nagoya Protocol?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
As stated in the article, the First National Report was submitted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in collaboration with the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA). This ministry is the nodal agency for environmental policies and international conventions like the CBD.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol:
1. It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and deals with Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS).
2. It was adopted in 2003 and seeks to protect biodiversity from genetically modified organisms.
3. Under its framework, biodiversity-rich countries provide access to biological resources, and user agencies share benefits with local communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the CBD and deals with ABS. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010 and entered into force in 2014. The protocol dealing with biosafety of GMOs is the Cartagena Protocol (2003). Statement 3 is correct: As per the article, the Nagoya Protocol mechanism requires provider countries to give access and user agencies to share benefits.
According to the article, what period does India's first National Report on the Nagoya Protocol cover?
- A.From 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2024
- B.From 1 November 2017 to 31 December 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.From 1 April 2002 to 31 March 2026
- D.From 1 October 2010 to 31 September 2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the report covers the period from 1 November 2017 to 31 December of last year (i.e., 2025). The other options are incorrect dates not mentioned in the content.
What is the primary objective of the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing?
- A.To ensure the safe handling and transport of genetically modified organisms.
- B.To provide a legal framework for equitable sharing of benefits from the use of genetic resources.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To set global targets for biodiversity conservation, like the Aichi Targets.
- D.To regulate international trade in endangered species of wild fauna and flora.
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Explanation
As described in the article, the Nagoya Protocol specifically deals with the commercial utilization of biological and genetic resources and ensures fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use. Option A describes the Cartagena Protocol. Option C describes broader CBD goals. Option D describes the CITES agreement.
The 2019 advisory opinion that the UK's separation of the Chagos Archipelago from Mauritius was illegal was issued by which international body?
- A.International Criminal Court (ICC)
- B.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
- D.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) ruled in 2019 that the UK's original separation of the Chagos Archipelago from Mauritius was illegal. The ICJ is the UN's principal judicial organ for settling disputes between states.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Iran's attempted strike on Diego Garcia, at a range of 4,000 km, was carried out using its newly disclosed Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missiles (IRBMs).
2. Diego Garcia is strategically significant because it is located less than 1,000 km from the Strait of Hormuz, allowing quick deployment to the Persian Gulf.
3. In May 2025, the UK transferred sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius and simultaneously leased back Diego Garcia for a period of 50 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Iran launched IRBMs at Diego Garcia 4,000 km away. Statement 2 is incorrect; Diego Garcia is about 3,000 km from the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait (Red Sea), not the Strait of Hormuz, and is not within 1,000 km of it. Statement 3 is incorrect; the leaseback period was for 99 years, not 50 years.
According to the article, what is the range bracket for Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missiles (IRBMs) that Iran deployed?
- A.1,000 - 3,000 km
- B.2,000 - 4,000 km
- C.3,000 - 5,500 km✓ Correct Answer
- D.5,500 km and above
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that IRBMs have a range of 3,000-5,500 km, bridging the gap between MRBMs (1,000-3,000 km) and ICBMs (exceeding 5,500 km). This is the key technical detail confirming Iran's escalated capability.
What was a primary strategic implication of Iran's attempted missile strike on Diego Garcia, as highlighted in the analysis?
- A.It successfully degraded the US Space Force tracking infrastructure on the island.
- B.It demonstrated Iran's capability and intent to strike targets far beyond the West Asian region.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It forced the immediate closure of the US-UK base and relocation of assets to Guam.
- D.It led to a unanimous UN Security Council resolution condemning the UK's lease agreement.
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Explanation
The core strategic implication, as repeatedly stated, is that the attack revealed Iran's possession of longer-range missiles (IRBMs) and signaled its willingness to escalate the conflict geographically, targeting US interests in the Indian Ocean. The attack was unsuccessful, so it did not degrade infrastructure or close the base, and no UNSC resolution is mentioned.
Which international organization confirmed the damage to the Natanz nuclear site and reported on the radiation levels?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
- D.World Health Organization (WHO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) confirmed damage to the site and reported no immediate increase in off-site radiation. The IAEA is the global nuclear watchdog responsible for monitoring nuclear facilities.
Consider the following statements regarding the Natanz nuclear facility:
1. The Fuel Enrichment Plant (FEP) at Natanz is an underground facility designed to house thousands of centrifuges.
2. The Pilot Fuel Enrichment Plant (PFEP) at Natanz was enriching uranium to a level above 90%, suitable for nuclear weapons.
3. According to the IAEA, there has been no immediate increase in off-site radiation following the recent attack on Natanz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The FEP is a vast underground facility designed for 50,000 centrifuges. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PFEP enriched uranium up to 60%, not above 90% (weapons-grade). Statement 3 is correct: The IAEA reported no immediate increase in off-site radiation. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the maximum level of uranium enrichment achieved at the Pilot Fuel Enrichment Plant (PFEP) in Natanz?
- A.Up to 5%
- B.Up to 20%
- C.Up to 60%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Up to 90%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The PFEP had two interconnected full-size cascades... and enriched uranium to up to 60%.' Enrichment to 90%+ is considered weapons-grade, which was not achieved at Natanz as per this report.
What is a primary radiological risk highlighted in the article when a nuclear enrichment facility like Natanz is attacked?
- A.Release of inert gases that cause global warming
- B.Leakage of stable, non-radioactive metal dust
- C.Escape of radioactive substances like uranium hexafluoride gas and dust✓ Correct Answer
- D.Generation of loud sonic booms that damage buildings
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Explanation
The article explains that nuclear facilities store radioactive substances, including uranium in gaseous form (uranium hexafluoride - UF6) and dust. An attack can damage the containment mechanisms, allowing these harmful radioactive materials to escape into the environment, posing health risks.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 21 March 2026?▼
This page contains 96 current affairs questions from 21 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 21 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
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Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical d…
- Q3. According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG impor…
- Q4. is the primary strategic objective behind Iran's blockade of t…
- Q5. The landmark environmental case discussed in the news is prima…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the M.C. Mehta env…
- Q7. As per the article, in which year was the Writ Petition (Civil…
- Q8. was the primary judicial innovation introduced through the Sup…
- Q9. court has restored the PIL concerning the absence of a Section…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q11. On what date did the Delhi High Court originally dispose of th…
- Q12. is the primary concern raised by the PIL regarding the Bharati…
- Q13. Ministry is the cadre controlling authority for the Central Ar…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed …
- Q15. As per the provisions of the Central Armed Police Forces (Gene…
- Q16. is the primary rationale provided in the Bill for continuing t…
- Q17. The Supreme Court judgment in Hamsaanandini Nanduri vs Union o…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q19. According to the Supreme Court judgment discussed, for how man…
- Q20. was a key rationale, as per the Supreme Court, for extending m…
- Q21. With which Indian ministry did the FAO collaborate to develop …
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q23. As per the India State of Forest Report cited in the article, …
- Q24. is the primary objective highlighted for scaling up agroforest…
- Q25. US government department's secretary commented on the potentia…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q27. According to the article, what percentage of global crude oil …
- Q28. was a primary reason for India to halt oil imports from Iran i…
- Q29. public sector shipyard is the primary builder of the stealth f…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the stealth frigat…
- Q31. is the approximate indigenous content percentage of the newly …
- Q32. is a primary strategic significance of commissioning advanced …
- Q33. The enactment of a Uniform Civil Code is a constitutional obli…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Unifor…
- Q35. According to the article, what is the approximate percentage o…
- Q36. is a primary criticism levelled against the drafting process o…
- Q37. Under which Union Ministry does the Central Public Health & En…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mis…
- Q39. According to the article, what is the revised total outlay for…
- Q40. is the primary objective of the Centre's directive to scrutini…
- Q41. US government department's office issued the 'general license'…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the US sanctions w…
- Q43. According to the article, what percentage of global oil and li…
- Q44. is described as a key consideration for Indian refiners to pot…
- Q45. Union Ministry's Secretary delivered a lecture on 'Measuring w…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Loksatta Dist…
- Q47. According to the article, what is the current Gross State Dome…
- Q48. is the primary strategic objective behind the 'Loksatta Distri…
- Q49. The development of sector-specific industrial parks, as mentio…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's de…
- Q51. According to the article, what is the estimated value of proje…
- Q52. The Uttar Pradesh government's strategy of removing 'minor cri…
- Q53. High Court delivered the judgment expanding the definition of …
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Punjab …
- Q55. Under which Section of the Transplantation of Human Organs and…
- Q56. was the primary rationale given by the Punjab and Haryana High…
- Q57. central investigative agency is primarily responsible for enfo…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the PACL (Pearls G…
- Q59. According to the news, what is the total value of properties p…
- Q60. is the primary legal instrument used by the Enforcement Direct…
- Q61. department in Punjab is the nodal agency for implementing the …
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding Punjab's performan…
- Q63. According to the news, what is the interest subvention provide…
- Q64. is the primary objective of the Agriculture Infrastructure Fun…
- Q65. Under which Act is the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent NHRC di…
- Q67. According to the NHRC directive discussed in the news, what is…
- Q68. is the primary objective behind the NHRC's directive to form a…
- Q69. The biogas plant in Indore, highlighted in the news, is a succ…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Indore biogas …
- Q71. is the daily production capacity of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) f…
- Q72. According to the article, what is a significant broader implic…
- Q73. The article discusses using AI to support students with disabi…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the use of AI to s…
- Q75. According to the article, what is a persistent difficulty that…
- Q76. does the article suggest as a crucial step for ensuring AI too…
- Q77. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), mentioned in…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news on 'digit…
- Q79. According to the article, what was the approximate per capita …
- Q80. is the primary constitutional or legal basis cited in the arti…
- Q81. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the a…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the developments m…
- Q83. According to the article, what percentage of Qatar's total LNG…
- Q84. is identified as a primary challenge in securing merchant ship…
- Q85. ministry, in collaboration with the National Biodiversity Auth…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protoco…
- Q87. According to the article, what period does India's first Natio…
- Q88. is the primary objective of the Nagoya Protocol on Access and …
- Q89. The 2019 advisory opinion that the UK's separation of the Chag…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Iran…
- Q91. According to the article, what is the range bracket for Interm…
- Q92. was a primary strategic implication of Iran's attempted missil…
- Q93. international organization confirmed the damage to the Natanz …
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Natanz nuclear…
- Q95. According to the article, what was the maximum level of uraniu…
- Q96. is a primary radiological risk highlighted in the article when…