16 March 2026, Questions & Answers

96 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

96 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  20 min revision

Start Interactive Quiz →

This page contains 96 current affairs questions with answers from 16 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

Use this page for:

  • Daily revision
  • Prelims preparation
  • Quick self-assessment
  • Mains answer enrichment

Want to test yourself first? Try the interactive quiz before checking answers.

Take the 16 March 2026 Quiz →

16 March 2026, Questions with Answers

96 Qs
Q1.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme Court read the 'Right to Die with Dignity'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in cases like Gian Kaur (1996) and Common Cause (2018), has interpreted that the right to live with human dignity under Article 21 encompasses the right to die with dignity, permitting passive euthanasia under strict guidelines.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia Under Article 21, Upholds 'Common Cause Guidelines' for Treatment Withdrawal →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the right to die with dignity in India:

1. In the Gian Kaur case (1996), the Supreme Court held that Article 21 includes the right to die.

2. The Aruna Shanbaug case (2011) led to the first recognition of passive euthanasia by the Supreme Court.

3. The Common Cause vs Union of India case (2018) was decided by a Constitution Bench and provided comprehensive guidelines for passive euthanasia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In Gian Kaur (1996), the SC held that Article 21 includes the right to live with dignity but specifically opined that it does NOT include the right to die. Statement 2 is correct as the Aruna Shanbaug case (2011) first recognized passive euthanasia. Statement 3 is correct as the Common Cause case (2018) was a landmark Constitution Bench judgment that laid down detailed guidelines.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia Under Article 21, Upholds 'Common Cause Guidelines' for Treatment Withdrawal →
Q3.

The Supreme Court's recent ruling allowing the withdrawal of life support was in the case of a patient who was in a Persistent Vegetative State (PVS) for how many years?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 years
  • B.10 years
  • C.13 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Harish Rana's parents and doctors devoted 13 years to tending to him after his accident in 2013, with no improvement seen, before moving the Supreme Court to withdraw life support.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia Under Article 21, Upholds 'Common Cause Guidelines' for Treatment Withdrawal →
Q4.

As per the Supreme Court's 'Common Cause guidelines', what are the two core principles that must be satisfied for the withdrawal of medical treatment?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The treatment must be expensive, and the family must consent.
  • B.The patient must be terminally ill, and a living will must exist.
  • C.The intervention must qualify as 'medical treatment', and its withdrawal must be in the patient's 'best interest'.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Two doctors must recommend it, and a hospital committee must approve it.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Common Cause guidelines rest on two core principles: first, the intervention must qualify as 'medical treatment' (e.g., CANH was held to be one), and second, its withdrawal must be strictly in the patient's 'best interest', assessed by stakeholders like kin and medical boards.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia Under Article 21, Upholds 'Common Cause Guidelines' for Treatment Withdrawal →
Q5.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the procedure for removal of the Chief Election Commissioner specified?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 148
  • C.Article 76
  • D.Article 124
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324(5) of the Constitution specifies that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This is the core provision discussed in the article.

Source: Chief Election Commissioner Impeachment Motion Filed Under Judges Inquiry Act: Key Provisions of Article 324 (5) Explained →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner:

1. A motion for removal must be signed by at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha.

2. The removal process is governed by the provisions of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

3. The Constitution mandates that the CEC can be removed only on the recommendation of other Election Commissioners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Section 3 of the Judges (Inquiry) Act mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is correct as the removal process follows the Judges (Inquiry) Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; Article 324(5) states that other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the CEC, not the other way around. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Chief Election Commissioner Impeachment Motion Filed Under Judges Inquiry Act: Key Provisions of Article 324 (5) Explained →
Q7.

As per the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, who are the members of the Selection Committee for appointing CEC and ECs?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, Chief Justice of India
  • B.Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, Union Cabinet Minister✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India, Leader of the largest party in Lok Sabha
  • D.Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 2023 Act establishes a selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister. This replaced the Chief Justice of India with a Cabinet Minister, contrary to the Supreme Court's ruling in the Anoop Baranwal case.

Source: Chief Election Commissioner Impeachment Motion Filed Under Judges Inquiry Act: Key Provisions of Article 324 (5) Explained →
Q8.

What is the primary constitutional safeguard for the independence of the Chief Election Commissioner as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Fixed tenure of six years
  • B.Salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
  • C.Removal process identical to that of a Supreme Court Judge✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Appointment by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central theme is Article 324(5), which states that the CEC shall not be removed except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This high threshold for removal is a key constitutional safeguard for the CEC's independence, making it a difficult political process. The other options, while relevant, are not the primary focus of the impeachment news.

Source: Chief Election Commissioner Impeachment Motion Filed Under Judges Inquiry Act: Key Provisions of Article 324 (5) Explained →
Q9.

Which act was invoked by the government to prioritise gas allocation for households and transport, impacting fertiliser producers, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Fertiliser (Control) Order, 1985
  • B.The Essential Commodities Act, 1955✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Energy Conservation Act, 2001
  • D.The National Food Security Act, 2013
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government invoked the Essential Commodities Act to prioritise gas allocation. This Act empowers the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities.

Source: India's 55% Urea Import Dependence Exposed, Proposes $1Bn Fund & NBS for Urea Under Essential Commodities Act →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding India's fertiliser sector as per the article:

1. India's effective import dependence for urea, considering both direct imports and imported gas feedstock, is about 55%.

2. The Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme currently covers all major fertilisers including urea.

3. The article proposes establishing a dedicated fertiliser investment fund of $1 billion to acquire equity stakes in global mining projects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions India's effective urea import dependence goes up to about 55% once both direct urea imports and imported gas feedstock are considered. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article suggests bringing urea under the NBS framework, implying it is currently not covered. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly proposes a $1 billion fund for this purpose.

Source: India's 55% Urea Import Dependence Exposed, Proposes $1Bn Fund & NBS for Urea Under Essential Commodities Act →
Q11.

According to the article, what was the budgeted figure for India's fertiliser subsidy bill for the financial year 2026-27 (FY27)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1.5 lakh crore
  • B.₹1.7 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2.0 lakh crore
  • D.₹2.2 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that if the crisis continues, the fertiliser subsidy bill in FY27 could cross Rs 2 lakh crore, against a budgeted figure of Rs 1.7 lakh crore. The other options are close distractors based on the potential increase mentioned.

Source: India's 55% Urea Import Dependence Exposed, Proposes $1Bn Fund & NBS for Urea Under Essential Commodities Act →
Q12.

What is the primary objective of the policy reforms suggested in the article for the fertiliser sector?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through higher fertiliser taxes
  • B.To reduce India's dependence on imported crude oil and LPG
  • C.To ensure long-term food security by reducing vulnerability to global supply shocks✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote organic farming by eliminating chemical fertiliser subsidies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that India's food security hinges on fertiliser security. The proposed reforms (diversification, investment fund, subsidy restructuring) aim to reduce the sector's vulnerability to geopolitical disruptions and price volatility, thereby securing food production.

Source: India's 55% Urea Import Dependence Exposed, Proposes $1Bn Fund & NBS for Urea Under Essential Commodities Act →
Q13.

Which ministry/department is responsible for releasing India's GDP estimates and revising the base year?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency responsible for the collection, compilation, and dissemination of official statistics in India, including the calculation of GDP and national income accounts.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Projects FY 2025-26 Real Growth at 7.6% →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding India's revised GDP series with base year 2022-23:

1. It uses administrative data from GST and the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) to improve timeliness and accuracy.

2. It relies on the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as a single deflator for all sectors to calculate real GDP.

3. It incorporates the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) to better estimate the informal sector's contribution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the use of GST data and PFMS for more timely tracking. Statement 2 is incorrect: The revised series uses over 600 granular, item-level deflators, not a single CPI aggregate. Statement 3 is correct: The new framework uses ASUSE data to better capture the informal sector.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Projects FY 2025-26 Real Growth at 7.6% →
Q15.

According to the second advance estimates released by MoSPI, what is the projected real GDP growth rate for India for the financial year 2025-26 under the revised base year?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.7.1%
  • B.7.6%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.7.8%
  • D.8.6%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Under the revised base year, real GDP growth for FY 2025-26 is projected at 7.6 per cent". 7.1% was the growth recorded in FY 2024-25. 7.8% is the Q3 growth rate, and 8.6% is the nominal GDP growth projection.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Projects FY 2025-26 Real Growth at 7.6% →
Q16.

What is a key implication of revising the GDP base year to a more recent year, as discussed in the article regarding fiscal indicators?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It directly reduces government borrowing by increasing tax revenues.
  • B.It can mechanically lower the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio through the 'denominator effect'.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It automatically leads to a credit rating upgrade by international agencies.
  • D.It shifts the calculation of GDP from the production to the expenditure method.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains the 'denominator effect': if GDP (the denominator) is revised upward due to rebasing or better measurement, fiscal ratios like deficit-to-GDP and debt-to-GDP fall, even if the actual deficit or debt (the numerator) remains unchanged. This is a statistical effect, not a result of policy change.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Projects FY 2025-26 Real Growth at 7.6% →
Q17.

Which Union Ministry introduced the Transgender Protection (Amendment) Bill 2026 in Parliament?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment Virendra Kumar introduced the bill. This ministry is the nodal agency for the welfare of transgender persons and the implementation of the 2019 Act.

Source: Transgender Protection (Amendment) Bill 2026 Seeks to Replace Self-Identification with Medical Board Certification →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Protection (Amendment) Bill 2026:

1. It proposes to do away with the right to self-identification of gender as enshrined in the 2019 Act.

2. It mandates the formation of a medical board for issuing transgender identity certificates.

3. It increases the punishment for offences like forcing a transgender person into bonded labour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill removes Section 4(2) of the 2019 Act which guaranteed self-identification. Statement 2 is correct: It calls for a medical board headed by a Chief Medical Officer to recommend certification. Statement 3 is correct: The Bill expands punishment clauses; for example, forcing an adult into begging/servitude attracts 5-10 years RI.

Source: Transgender Protection (Amendment) Bill 2026 Seeks to Replace Self-Identification with Medical Board Certification →
Q19.

According to the National Portal for Transgender Persons, approximately how many Transgender Certificate and Identity Cards have been issued under the 2019 Act?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 15,000
  • B.Approximately 25,000
  • C.Approximately 32,400✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Approximately 45,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that "32,424 such cards have been issued to date" according to the National Portal for Transgender Persons. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: Transgender Protection (Amendment) Bill 2026 Seeks to Replace Self-Identification with Medical Board Certification →
Q20.

What is a primary criticism raised by activists against the proposed medical board mechanism in the 2026 Amendment Bill?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It will lead to excessive government expenditure on medical infrastructure.
  • B.It will make it difficult for transgender persons to prove their identity due to societal transphobia in medical settings.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will conflict with the mandates of the National Medical Commission.
  • D.It will decentralize the certification process, causing delays.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, activist Anil Ukarande explained that requiring medical documents and facing a board would be very difficult for transgender persons "given the deep transphobia which still exists in society." This is a direct impact on access and dignity, not just an administrative or cost issue.

Source: Transgender Protection (Amendment) Bill 2026 Seeks to Replace Self-Identification with Medical Board Certification →
Q21.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Ayushman Bharat is India's flagship public health insurance scheme, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This ministry formulates policies and implements programs related to health and family welfare across the country.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY Covered 68 Lakh Cancer Treatments Worth ₹13,000 Cr Since 2018, Study Proposes ₹25 Lakh Revolving Ceiling →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the FinCan study on Ayushman Bharat's cancer coverage:

1. The study projected that early detection through screening could save about ₹1,500 crore annually and result in 1,560 additional survivors per year.

2. It found that the scheme's current annual allocation for cancer care matches the estimated full cost of delivering the Standard of Care.

3. The study recommended integrating diagnostic coverage into the scheme, as diagnostics currently account for a major share of total cancer care costs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; there is a huge gap (₹7,700 crore allocation vs. ₹33,000 crore estimated cost). Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states diagnostics account for just 3% of total costs, not a major share. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY Covered 68 Lakh Cancer Treatments Worth ₹13,000 Cr Since 2018, Study Proposes ₹25 Lakh Revolving Ceiling →
Q23.

According to the FinCan study cited in the article, what is the estimated annual cost required to deliver the full five-year Standard of Care for cancer in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹7,700 crore
  • B.₹13,000 crore
  • C.₹25,000 crore
  • D.₹33,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The FinCan study demonstrated that delivering the full five-year Standard of Care for cancer would require an estimated ₹33,000 crore annually. ₹7,700 crore is the current AB-PMJAY allocation, ₹13,000 crore is the total worth of treatments covered since 2018, and ₹25,000 crore is not mentioned in this context.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY Covered 68 Lakh Cancer Treatments Worth ₹13,000 Cr Since 2018, Study Proposes ₹25 Lakh Revolving Ceiling →
Q24.

What is a key objective of the proposed 'revolving ceiling' reform for cancer coverage under Ayushman Bharat, as per the study?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To uniformly distribute the insurance cover across all disease categories equally.
  • B.To allow patients to use more funds in high-cost treatment years and ensure continuity of care.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the overall financial burden on the government by capping lifetime benefits.
  • D.To replace the existing health infrastructure with new day care cancer centres.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study proposed a five-year 'revolving ceiling' of ₹25 lakh per family to replace the ₹5 lakh annual cap. This approach is designed to allow flexibility, letting patients utilize more funds in intensive initial years of treatment and less in later years, thereby preventing financial interruption in continuous care.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY Covered 68 Lakh Cancer Treatments Worth ₹13,000 Cr Since 2018, Study Proposes ₹25 Lakh Revolving Ceiling →
Q25.

The 'PM-Surya Ghar Yojana', mentioned in the context of boosting rooftop solar, falls under the purview of which ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Power
  • B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The PM-Surya Ghar Yojana is a scheme for installing rooftop solar panels, which is a renewable energy initiative. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for all policies and programmes related to renewable energy sources in India.

Source: IEEFA Report: E-Cooking 37% Cheaper than LPG, India's $26.4 Billion Import Bill & PM-Surya Ghar Yojana for Grid Stability →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings on electric cooking (e-cooking) in India:

1. According to an IEEFA study, e-cooking is cheaper than both non-subsidised LPG and the subsidised LPG provided under the PM Ujjwala Yojana.

2. Induction cooktops are significantly more energy-efficient than LPG burners, transferring about 85% of energy to the cooking vessel.

3. A major challenge for mass adoption of e-cooking is its potential to exacerbate the evening peak demand on India's power grid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states e-cooking is 37% cheaper than non-subsidised LPG, but only the heavily subsidised PMUY pricing undercuts it. Statement 2 is correct as per the data in the article. Statement 3 is correct, as managing grid peak demand is identified as a central challenge for mass e-cooking adoption.

Source: IEEFA Report: E-Cooking 37% Cheaper than LPG, India's $26.4 Billion Import Bill & PM-Surya Ghar Yojana for Grid Stability →
Q27.

According to the article, what was India's estimated annual import bill for cooking gas (LPG) in the financial year 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$18.2 billion
  • B.$22.0 billion
  • C.$26.4 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$30.1 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The Institute for Energy Economics and Financial Analysis (IEEFA) estimates that the combined import bill hit $26.4 billion in FY24–25." The other options are plausible distractors based on older data or approximations.

Source: IEEFA Report: E-Cooking 37% Cheaper than LPG, India's $26.4 Billion Import Bill & PM-Surya Ghar Yojana for Grid Stability →
Q28.

What is the primary strategic rationale, as per the article, for India to shift from LPG-based cooking to electric cooking at a large scale?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To immediately reduce the fiscal burden of subsidies on the government exchequer.
  • B.To enhance energy security by reducing dependence on imported fuel routed through volatile global chokepoints.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To create a massive new domestic manufacturing market for induction cooktops and stoves.
  • D.To comply with international climate agreements and reduce carbon emissions from households.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

While other options are potential benefits, the article's core strategic argument centers on sovereignty and energy security. It highlights the $26.4 billion import bill and the supply chain's exposure to the Strait of Hormuz, concluding that moving to domestically generated electricity is "not just energy policy, that's sovereignty."

Source: IEEFA Report: E-Cooking 37% Cheaper than LPG, India's $26.4 Billion Import Bill & PM-Surya Ghar Yojana for Grid Stability →
Q29.

Under which international treaty is declaring 'no quarter' classified as a war crime in both international and non-international armed conflicts?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The Hague Regulations (1907)
  • B.The Geneva Conventions (1949)
  • C.The Rome Statute (1998)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The United Nations Charter (1945)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Rome Statute (1998) under Article 8 classifies 'declaring that no quarter will be given' as a war crime in both international and non-international armed conflicts. The Hague Regulations forbid it, and Geneva Protocol I prohibits it, but the Rome Statute is the one that explicitly categorizes it as a prosecutable war crime.

Source: "No Quarter" Declared War Crime Under Hague Convention Article 23(d), Geneva Protocol I, and Rome Statute Article 8 →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the prohibition of 'no quarter' in International Humanitarian Law:

1. It is prohibited under Article 23(d) of The Hague Regulations of 1907.

2. Additional Protocol I to the Geneva Conventions states it is prohibited to order that there shall be no survivors.

3. The principle of reciprocity in IHL means that if one side declares 'no quarter', it automatically strips legal protections from its own captured soldiers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is correct as it quotes Article 40 of Additional Protocol I. Statement 3 is correct as experts in the article explain that IHL functions on reciprocity, and such a declaration effectively strips protections from one's own soldiers. Hence, all three statements are accurate.

Source: "No Quarter" Declared War Crime Under Hague Convention Article 23(d), Geneva Protocol I, and Rome Statute Article 8 →
Q31.

According to the article, which specific article of the Hague Regulations (1907) explicitly forbids declaring that no quarter will be given?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 20
  • B.Article 21
  • C.Article 22
  • D.Article 23(d)✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'The Hague Regulations (1907): Article 23(d) explicitly forbids declaring that no quarter will be given.' The other options are distractors.

Source: "No Quarter" Declared War Crime Under Hague Convention Article 23(d), Geneva Protocol I, and Rome Statute Article 8 →
Q32.

What is the primary danger, as explained by experts in the article, when a political leader uses 'no quarter' rhetoric during armed conflict?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It immediately triggers sanctions from the United Nations Security Council.
  • B.It creates a 'command climate' where front-line troops may interpret it as permission to bypass IHL, increasing the likelihood of atrocities.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It leads to an automatic withdrawal of all humanitarian aid from the conflict zone.
  • D.It invalidates all existing bilateral treaties between the warring nations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that such rhetoric creates a 'command climate' where soldiers may 'switch off their moral and legal compass' and interpret metaphors as literal permissions to bypass the Geneva Conventions, making atrocities more likely. The other options are consequences not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: "No Quarter" Declared War Crime Under Hague Convention Article 23(d), Geneva Protocol I, and Rome Statute Article 8 →
Q33.

Which statutory body's guidelines allow Indian educational institutions to add supernumerary seats for foreign students, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
  • B.University Grants Commission (UGC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Education
  • D.National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'UGC’s guidelines allowing educational institutions to add up to 25% supernumerary seats... for foreign students' is a key policy enabler. While AICTE is also mentioned for providing a structured pathway, the specific guideline on supernumerary seats is attributed to UGC.

Source: India Sees 44% Rise in Foreign Student Visas to 56,538 in 2024 on Scale, Affordability & UGC Supernumerary Seats Policy →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the trend of foreign students choosing India for higher education:

1. The number of foreign student visas issued by India saw a consistent annual increase from 2022 to 2024.

2. A key factor attracting students is India's 'single-city education model' offering uniform opportunities.

3. The University Grants Commission permits institutions to create supernumerary seats specifically for foreign students, capped at a certain percentage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The data shows an increase from 39,202 (2022) to 49,437 (2023) to 56,538 (2024). Statement 2 is incorrect and is the trap; the article emphasizes that 'India doesn’t run on a single-city education model'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which mentions UGC's guideline allowing up to 25% supernumerary seats.

Source: India Sees 44% Rise in Foreign Student Visas to 56,538 in 2024 on Scale, Affordability & UGC Supernumerary Seats Policy →
Q35.

According to the article, what was the approximate percentage increase in the number of foreign nationals entering India on a Student Visa from 2022 to 2024?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.30%
  • B.44%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.50%
  • D.60%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Registering a 44% rise in two years, this data points towards a sustained global preference...' The two-year period referenced is from 2022 (39,202) to 2024 (56,538).

Source: India Sees 44% Rise in Foreign Student Visas to 56,538 in 2024 on Scale, Affordability & UGC Supernumerary Seats Policy →
Q36.

What is described in the article as a primary factor enabling Indian institutions to systematically scale their intake of international students?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A significant reduction in tuition fees for foreign nationals.
  • B.A policy shift from ad-hoc expectations to a structured capacity approach with clear guidelines.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The establishment of new campuses exclusively for international students in metropolitan cities.
  • D.Mandatory partnerships between Indian universities and foreign educational bodies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that 'The system is transitioning from ad-hoc expectations to a structured capacity approach,' specifically citing UGC's supernumerary seat guidelines and AICTE's approval framework. This structured policy clarity builds trust and allows institutions to invest in support systems for international students.

Source: India Sees 44% Rise in Foreign Student Visas to 56,538 in 2024 on Scale, Affordability & UGC Supernumerary Seats Policy →
Q37.

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is established under which Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  • B.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
  • C.The Consumer Protection Act, 1986✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Companies Act, 2013
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCDRC is the apex body set up under Section 58 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, to adjudicate consumer disputes where the value exceeds Rs 10 crore, as mentioned in the article's context.

Source: NCDRC Orders Axis Bank to Pay Rs 3.19 Crore for Refusing Demonetised Cash Deposits Under Section 2(1)(g) of Consumer Protection Act →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the NCDRC ruling on Axis Bank:

1. The Commission held that Axis Bank's refusal to accept demonetised currency deposits constituted a 'deficiency in service'.

2. The bank was ordered to pay Rs 3.19 crore along with simple interest at 9% per annum from the date of the complaint.

3. The Commission ruled that the act of depositing money into one's own bank account during demonetisation was a commercial activity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the NCDRC explicitly called it 'deficiency in service' under Section 2(1)(g). Statement 2 is incorrect because the interest is 6% per annum from December 30, 2016, rising to 9% only in case of delay. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Commission held the opposite - that it was NOT a commercial activity but a regulatory act.

Source: NCDRC Orders Axis Bank to Pay Rs 3.19 Crore for Refusing Demonetised Cash Deposits Under Section 2(1)(g) of Consumer Protection Act →
Q39.

What was the total amount Axis Bank was directed to pay to Procure Logistics Services by the NCDRC?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 1.19 crore
  • B.Rs 2.19 crore
  • C.Rs 3.19 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rs 4.19 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the NCDRC directed Axis Bank to pay Rs 3.19 crore (specifically Rs 3,19,58,500) to the logistics company as compensation for the refused deposits.

Source: NCDRC Orders Axis Bank to Pay Rs 3.19 Crore for Refusing Demonetised Cash Deposits Under Section 2(1)(g) of Consumer Protection Act →
Q40.

What was the primary legal ground on which the NCDRC rejected Axis Bank's argument that the complainant was not a 'consumer'?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.The company was engaging in international trade.
  • B.Depositing money into its own account was a regulatory act, not a commercial service.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The bank had already charged excessive service fees.
  • D.The company was registered under the Companies Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCDRC held that during demonetisation, depositing one's own money into a KYC-compliant account was a mandatory regulatory act required under government policy, not a commercial activity intended to generate profit. Hence, the company qualified as a 'consumer' under the Consumer Protection Act.

Source: NCDRC Orders Axis Bank to Pay Rs 3.19 Crore for Refusing Demonetised Cash Deposits Under Section 2(1)(g) of Consumer Protection Act →
Q41.

Under which Article of the Constitution do High Courts have the power to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights, as exercised by the Calcutta High Court in this case?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 142
  • D.Article 136
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 226 of the Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 gives this power specifically to the Supreme Court. Article 142 relates to the Supreme Court's decree/order enforcement power, and Article 136 deals with special leave to appeal.

Source: Calcutta HC Orders SIT Re-probe of 13-Year-Old's Murder Citing IPC 363/302, POCSO Act Violations & Political Influence →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court's order in the Murshidabad minor murder case:

1. The Court ordered the formation of a Special Investigation Team (SIT) headed by a senior IPS officer.

2. The Court noted that the victim's mobile phone was recovered but call detail records were not analyzed.

3. The Court invoked the principle that 'justice must not only be done, but must also be seen to be done'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court ordered a 5-member SIT headed by IPS Dr Pranav Kumar. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states the victim's mobile phone was NOT recovered, which was one of the investigation lapses. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly quotes this legal maxim.

Source: Calcutta HC Orders SIT Re-probe of 13-Year-Old's Murder Citing IPC 363/302, POCSO Act Violations & Political Influence →
Q43.

According to the news article, what was the age of the victim in the Murshidabad murder case for which the Calcutta High Court ordered an SIT probe?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.11 years
  • B.13 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15 years
  • D.17 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the victim was a 13-year-old girl. This is a key factual detail, and the POCSO Act is invoked specifically because the victim is a minor. The other options are plausible distractors for a crime against a child.

Source: Calcutta HC Orders SIT Re-probe of 13-Year-Old's Murder Citing IPC 363/302, POCSO Act Violations & Political Influence →
Q44.

What was the primary reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for ordering a fresh investigation by an SIT into the minor's murder case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Lack of evidence against the accused
  • B.Delay in filing the chargesheet by the police
  • C.Serious lacunae and half-hearted investigation allegedly influenced by political clout✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Request by the accused for a fair trial
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's order was primarily based on finding serious gaps in the investigation and the allegation that the father of the main accused was a politically influential local leader, which could have affected the probe's impartiality. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Calcutta HC Orders SIT Re-probe of 13-Year-Old's Murder Citing IPC 363/302, POCSO Act Violations & Political Influence →
Q45.

Which international convention specifically outlines the rights and duties of neutral powers in naval war, as referenced in the article for providing port facilities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War (1949)
  • B.Hague Convention Concerning the Rights and Duties of Neutral Powers in Naval War (1907)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
  • D.Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (1969)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that India and Sri Lanka provided asylum to Iranian ships on humanitarian grounds under the provisions of the Hague Convention Concerning the Rights and Duties of Neutral Powers in Naval War (1907).

Source: US Sinks Iranian Frigate IRIS Dena in Sri Lankan EEZ, Tests International Law of Naval Warfare →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the legal dimensions of the IRIS Dena incident:

1. The attack occurred within Sri Lanka's territorial waters, making it a clear violation of international law.

2. The United States justified the attack by citing the Newport Manual on the Law of Naval Warfare.

3. Article 301 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) prohibits the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity of any state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The attack was within Sri Lanka's EEZ (40 nm off Galle), not its territorial waters (12 nm). Statement 2 is correct: The US cited the Newport Manual (Chapter 4.1.2.1). Statement 3 is correct: Article 301 of UNCLOS is quoted in the article as prohibiting force.

Source: US Sinks Iranian Frigate IRIS Dena in Sri Lankan EEZ, Tests International Law of Naval Warfare →
Q47.

Approximately how many Iranian sailors were killed in the sinking of the IRIS Dena by the USS Charlotte, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around 50
  • B.Around 75
  • C.Around 87✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 100
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "The attack caused the deaths of around 87 Iranian sailors and wounded many others." The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.

Source: US Sinks Iranian Frigate IRIS Dena in Sri Lankan EEZ, Tests International Law of Naval Warfare →
Q48.

What is the primary legal significance of Sri Lanka and India providing port access to the Iranian ships IRIS Bushehr and IRIS Lavan, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It constituted a formal declaration of war against the United States.
  • B.It violated their obligations as neutral states under the Hague Convention (1907).
  • C.It demonstrated the application of humanitarian provisions under international treaties without violating neutrality.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It was a strategic move to align with Iran against the Quad alliance.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clarifies that providing port facilities temporarily on humanitarian grounds, as per the Hague Convention (1907), does not constitute a violation of neutrality. This action was based on treaties like the Second Geneva Convention for rescuing the shipwrecked.

Source: US Sinks Iranian Frigate IRIS Dena in Sri Lankan EEZ, Tests International Law of Naval Warfare →
Q49.

Which constitutional article empowers the Election Commission of India with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 356
  • C.Article 352
  • D.Article 368
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State legislatures, the office of the President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. This is the source of the EC's authority to take actions like transferring officials.

Source: Election Commission Removes West Bengal Chief Secretary & Home Secretary Post-Assembly Polls Notification →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission's recent action:

1. The Election Commission removed the Chief Secretary and the Director General of Police of West Bengal.

2. The removed officers were barred from any election-related position until the conclusion of the polls.

3. The action was taken a week before the announcement of the Assembly election schedule.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the EC removed the Chief Secretary and the Home Secretary, not the DGP. Statement 2 is correct as per the EC's letter stating the officers 'shall not be posted in any election-related position'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the action was taken hours after announcing the election dates, not a week before.

Source: Election Commission Removes West Bengal Chief Secretary & Home Secretary Post-Assembly Polls Notification →
Q51.

By what time on March 16, 2026, did the Election Commission demand a compliance report regarding the joining of the new officers?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.12:00 PM
  • B.1:00 PM
  • C.3:00 PM✓ Correct Answer
  • D.5:00 PM
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the EC directed that 'a compliance report... be sent by 3 pm on March 16 (Monday)'. This specific deadline is a factual data point examiners can test.

Source: Election Commission Removes West Bengal Chief Secretary & Home Secretary Post-Assembly Polls Notification →
Q52.

What is the primary constitutional rationale behind the Election Commission's power to transfer state officials during elections?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To implement the directives of the Union Home Ministry
  • B.To ensure a neutral and impartial administrative machinery for free and fair elections✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the administrative burden on the state government during the poll process
  • D.To assert the central government's authority over state administrations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core constitutional duty of the Election Commission under Article 324 is to conduct free and fair elections. Transferring officials perceived as partisan is an exercise of this power to create a level playing field and prevent the misuse of the state machinery, which is essential for electoral integrity.

Source: Election Commission Removes West Bengal Chief Secretary & Home Secretary Post-Assembly Polls Notification →
Q53.

The 'Black Sea Grain Initiative', mentioned as a model for the proposed Strait of Hormuz arrangement, was primarily facilitated by which two entities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations and Turkey✓ Correct Answer
  • B.European Union and NATO
  • C.United States and Ukraine
  • D.Russia and Turkey
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the Black Sea Grain Initiative was 'facilitated by the U.N. and Turkey' to ensure safe export from Ukraine's ports. This is a key static fact about that landmark agreement.

Source: EU-UN Black Sea-Type Initiative Proposed for Strait of Hormuz After Iran Closure Impacts 20% Global Oil & Fertilizer Supply →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about the Strait of Hormuz:

1. The strait has been closed by Iran following a conflict that began after strikes by Israel and the United States.

2. Over 50% of the oil passing through the Strait of Hormuz is destined for European markets.

3. One proposed option to secure the strait is to expand the mandate of the EU's 'Aspides' security mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states 85% is destined for Asia, not Europe. Statement 3 is correct, as expanding the 'Aspides' mission is mentioned as an option. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: EU-UN Black Sea-Type Initiative Proposed for Strait of Hormuz After Iran Closure Impacts 20% Global Oil & Fertilizer Supply →
Q55.

According to EU diplomat Kaja Kallas, what percentage of the oil transiting the Strait of Hormuz is destined for Asia?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.65%
  • B.75%
  • C.85%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.95%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Ms. Kallas pointed out that 85% of the oil that goes through the Strait of Hormuz is destined for Asia'. This is a precise data point from the source.

Source: EU-UN Black Sea-Type Initiative Proposed for Strait of Hormuz After Iran Closure Impacts 20% Global Oil & Fertilizer Supply →
Q56.

What is a primary reason, cited in the article, for urgently seeking to reopen the Strait of Hormuz beyond the immediate oil crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce shipping insurance premiums globally
  • B.To prevent a crisis in fertilizer production and potential food shortages✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To allow for increased naval exercises by NATO allies
  • D.To facilitate the export of Iranian natural gas to Europe
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the strait's closure to impacts on fertilizer production and warns of 'food shortages next year if the Strait isn’t opened up'. This highlights the cascading effect on global food security, a key implication.

Source: EU-UN Black Sea-Type Initiative Proposed for Strait of Hormuz After Iran Closure Impacts 20% Global Oil & Fertilizer Supply →
Q57.

Which Union Ministry is involved in the dialogue with Ladakhi bodies through the High Powered Committee (HPC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Apex Body Leh (ABL) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) have been in talks with the Union Ministry of Home Affairs as part of the High Powered Committee.

Source: Ladakh Demands Statehood & Sixth Schedule Safeguards Amid Protests & Stalled HPC Talks →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ladakh protests:

1. The protests are led by the Apex Body Leh (ABL) and the Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA).

2. One of the key demands is the creation of separate parliamentary constituencies for Leh and Kargil.

3. The Leh Autonomous Hill Development Council is currently in its third year of its term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the demands include 'creation of separate parliamentary constituencies'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Leh Council's term concluded on Nov 1, 2025, while the Kargil Council is in its third year.

Source: Ladakh Demands Statehood & Sixth Schedule Safeguards Amid Protests & Stalled HPC Talks →
Q59.

As per the article, when did the five-year term of the Autonomous Hill Council in Leh conclude?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.September 24, 2025
  • B.November 1, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 16, 2026
  • D.The article does not specify a date
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the five-year term of the council in Leh concluded on November 1, 2025'. September 24, 2025, is the date of police firing mentioned earlier, and March 16, 2026, is the article's publication date.

Source: Ladakh Demands Statehood & Sixth Schedule Safeguards Amid Protests & Stalled HPC Talks →
Q60.

What is described as a primary cause for the 'void' and anxiety in Ladakh's political representation, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The lack of a Chief Minister in the Union Territory
  • B.The expiration of the Leh Hill Council term and no fresh elections announced✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The absence of any Member of Parliament from the region
  • D.The merger of Ladakh with Jammu & Kashmir
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes a leader saying the gap in representation 'has left a void' and links it directly to the concluded term of the Leh Hill Council and the lack of announcement for fresh elections, alongside Ladakh's status as a UT without a legislature.

Source: Ladakh Demands Statehood & Sixth Schedule Safeguards Amid Protests & Stalled HPC Talks →
Q61.

The landmark judgment 'National Legal Services Authority vs Union of India' (NALSA) is related to the rights of which community?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Sex Workers
  • B.Transgender Persons✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Persons with Disabilities
  • D.Religious Minorities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NALSA vs Union of India (2014) is the landmark Supreme Court judgment that recognized transgender persons as a 'third gender' and affirmed their fundamental rights to self-identify their gender.

Source: Transgender Persons Act Amendment Bill 2026 Restricts Definition to Hijra, Kinner Communities and Congenital Variations →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. It proposes to amend Section 2(k) of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.

2. It restricts the definition of 'transgender person' to only those belonging to historically recognized socio-cultural communities.

3. Its underlying logic is aligned with the constitutional doctrine of self-identification established in the NALSA judgment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill seeks to amend Section 2(k). Statement 2 is incorrect because the proposed definition also includes persons born with congenital variations in sex characteristics, not only socio-cultural communities. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states the amendment's logic 'sits uneasily' with the NALSA doctrine, favoring biological determinism over self-identification.

Source: Transgender Persons Act Amendment Bill 2026 Restricts Definition to Hijra, Kinner Communities and Congenital Variations →
Q63.

In which year did the Supreme Court of India deliver the landmark NALSA vs Union of India judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2010
  • B.2014✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2019
  • D.2022
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the constitutional engagement with gender identity reached a transformative moment in 'National Legal Services Authority vs Union of India' (2014). This is a key static fact for Prelims.

Source: Transgender Persons Act Amendment Bill 2026 Restricts Definition to Hijra, Kinner Communities and Congenital Variations →
Q64.

What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the article regarding the Transgender Persons Act Amendment Bill, 2026?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It increases the financial burden on the exchequer.
  • B.It violates the principle of federalism by encroaching on state subjects.
  • C.It risks undermining the fundamental right to self-identification recognized by the Supreme Court.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It conflicts with India's international obligations under the Paris Agreement.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the amendment, by moving to a biologically deterministic definition, contradicts the NALSA judgment which grounded gender identity in self-perception and personal autonomy under Articles 14, 15, 19, and 21. The other options are not discussed in the article.

Source: Transgender Persons Act Amendment Bill 2026 Restricts Definition to Hijra, Kinner Communities and Congenital Variations →
Q65.

Which specific Act, mentioned in the article, was invoked against the convicts in the Una Dalit flogging case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
  • B.The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013
  • D.The Right to Information Act, 2005
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the convicts were charged under Section 3(1)(10) of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. This Act is specifically designed to prevent atrocities against SC/ST communities, making it directly relevant to this case of caste-based violence.

Source: 2016 Una Dalit Flogging Case: Sessions Court Convicts 5 Under IPC & SC/ST Act, Acquits 35 →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2016 Una Dalit flogging case verdict:

1. The Sessions Court convicted all 41 accused persons involved in the case.

2. The convicted individuals were charged under IPC sections related to voluntarily causing hurt and criminal intimidation.

3. The incident occurred on July 11, 2016, in Mota Samadhiyala village, Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states 5 were convicted and 35 acquitted out of 41 accused. Statement 2 is correct as the convicts were charged under IPC Sections 323 (voluntarily causing hurt), 324 (hurt by dangerous weapons), and 506(2) (criminal intimidation). Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions the date and location of the incident.

Source: 2016 Una Dalit Flogging Case: Sessions Court Convicts 5 Under IPC & SC/ST Act, Acquits 35 →
Q67.

According to the news article, how many accused policemen from the Una police station were acquitted by the Sessions Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1
  • B.2
  • C.3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.4
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that four policemen were facing trial, one died during the trial, and the other three have been acquitted. Therefore, the number of policeman acquitted is three.

Source: 2016 Una Dalit Flogging Case: Sessions Court Convicts 5 Under IPC & SC/ST Act, Acquits 35 →
Q68.

What was the primary legal consequence for the five convicted individuals in the Una Dalit flogging case, as per the court's order mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They were sentenced to life imprisonment under the SC/ST Act.
  • B.They were convicted under specific sections of the IPC and the SC/ST Act, with sentencing scheduled for a later date.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They were fined and released on probation as first-time offenders.
  • D.They were acquitted of all charges due to lack of evidence.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the court convicted the five individuals under IPC Sections 323, 324, 504, 506(2) and Section 3(1)(10) of the SC/ST Act. It further states that the hearing to determine their sentence was posted for the next day (Tuesday). The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: 2016 Una Dalit Flogging Case: Sessions Court Convicts 5 Under IPC & SC/ST Act, Acquits 35 →
Q69.

The Parliamentary Standing Committee report mentioned in the news pertains to which Ministry/Department?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Rural Development
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the 'Standing Committee on Consumer, Food and Public Distribution'. This committee oversees the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, which is the nodal ministry for the National Food Security Act (NFSA).

Source: NFSA Coverage Relies on 2011 Census Data; 80.56 Crore Beneficiaries Covered Against 81.35 Crore Target →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:

1. It provides coverage to up to 75% of the urban population and up to 50% of the rural population.

2. Section 9 of the Act deals with the coverage of population under the Targeted Public Distribution System.

3. The intended coverage of 81.35 crore persons is based on the population estimates of the 2011 Census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The NFSA provides coverage to up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population, not vice-versa. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which mentions Section 9 deals with TPDS coverage. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the 81.35 crore figure is according to Census 2011.

Source: NFSA Coverage Relies on 2011 Census Data; 80.56 Crore Beneficiaries Covered Against 81.35 Crore Target →
Q71.

According to the Parliamentary Committee report, how many eligible persons are yet to be identified and included under the NFSA scheme?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.56 crore
  • B.0.79 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1.35 crore
  • D.5.6 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the scheme covers about 80.56 crore beneficiaries against the intended coverage of 81.35 crore, indicating that around 0.79 crore eligible persons are yet to be identified. This is a direct data point from the report.

Source: NFSA Coverage Relies on 2011 Census Data; 80.56 Crore Beneficiaries Covered Against 81.35 Crore Target →
Q72.

What is the primary concern raised by the Parliamentary Committee regarding the NFSA's implementation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The subsidy amounts for food grains are too low.
  • B.The use of 2011 Census data may exclude newly eligible households.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Act does not cover coarse cereals.
  • D.The Fair Price Shop network is insufficient.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The committee's core concern, as stated in the article, is that 'continued reliance on 2011 Census data for determining NFSA coverage may lead to exclusion of newly eligible and vulnerable households due to population growth, migration and socio-economic changes.' The other options, while may be issues, are not the primary concern highlighted in this report.

Source: NFSA Coverage Relies on 2011 Census Data; 80.56 Crore Beneficiaries Covered Against 81.35 Crore Target →
Q73.

The International Energy Agency (IEA), which coordinated the emergency oil stock release, was established after which major global event?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The 1973 Oil Crisis✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The 2008 Financial Crisis
  • C.The end of the Cold War in 1991
  • D.The 2011 Fukushima nuclear disaster
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the IEA was 'formed in 1974 after the oil crisis.' The 1973 oil embargo by OPEC nations triggered this crisis, leading to the creation of the IEA to coordinate energy security among consuming nations.

Source: IEA Releases Over 400 Mn Barrels from Emergency Stocks to Counter Iran War Supply Disruption →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the IEA-coordinated emergency oil stock release:

1. The total volume of oil being released is over 400 million barrels.

2. Stocks from Asia and Oceania will be available by the end of March 2026.

3. The bulk of the pledged reserves are from member countries in the Americas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'More than 400 million barrels of oil...will begin flowing soon.' Statement 2 is incorrect: Stocks from Asia/Oceania are 'available immediately,' not by end-March. Statement 3 is correct: 'The bulk of the pledged reserves - 195.8 million barrels - are from member countries in the Americas.'

Source: IEA Releases Over 400 Mn Barrels from Emergency Stocks to Counter Iran War Supply Disruption →
Q75.

According to the IEA statement, what percentage of the planned emergency oil release is in the form of crude oil?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.62%
  • B.72%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.82%
  • D.92%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The IEA statement said that 72% of planned releases are in the form of crude oil and 28% are oil products.' The other options are distractors close to the correct figure.

Source: IEA Releases Over 400 Mn Barrels from Emergency Stocks to Counter Iran War Supply Disruption →
Q76.

What is the primary objective of the IEA-coordinated release of emergency oil stocks mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To permanently replace oil supplies lost due to the Iran war
  • B.To combat a spike in crude oil prices caused by supply disruptions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the strategic stockpile holdings of member countries
  • D.To fund renewable energy projects in developing nations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the release is 'aimed at combating a spike in oil prices caused by disruptions to around a fifth of global oil and gas supply along the Strait of Hormuz.' It is a temporary market-stabilizing measure, not a permanent replacement, stockpile reduction, or funding mechanism.

Source: IEA Releases Over 400 Mn Barrels from Emergency Stocks to Counter Iran War Supply Disruption →
Q77.

Which government body in India is responsible for petroleum sector analysis, as referenced by the article's author?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • B.Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
  • D.Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's author is identified as a former Additional Director of the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC), under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. PPAC is the nodal agency for data collection, analysis, and planning for the petroleum sector in India.

Source: Geopolitical Risks Surge Brent Crude to $118/Barrel, Impacting 20% Global Oil Supply via Strait of Hormuz →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the dynamics of global oil prices as discussed in the article:

1. Geopolitical shocks typically lead to an immediate market overreaction followed by gradual stabilisation as trade routes adjust.

2. The financialization of oil, through trading of futures and derivatives, means prices can reflect investor expectations and portfolio behaviour rather than immediate physical scarcity.

3. Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) are now deployed solely to address physical supply interruptions and have no role in countering psychological market volatility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's historical analysis. Statement 2 is correct as the article explains that oil is traded as a financial asset, and prices reflect expectations. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states SPRs are 'now deployed to counter psychological volatility in the market', citing the G-7's 400 million barrel release aimed at stabilizing sentiment.

Source: Geopolitical Risks Surge Brent Crude to $118/Barrel, Impacting 20% Global Oil Supply via Strait of Hormuz →
Q79.

According to the article, what approximate percentage of global oil consumption is transported through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Roughly 10%
  • B.Around 15%
  • C.Around 20%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Nearly 25%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Around a fifth of global oil consumption is transported through the Strait of Hormuz.' A 'fifth' translates to 20%. The option 'Roughly 10%' is a distractor, as that figure applies to the Bab el-Mandeb and Suez corridor.

Source: Geopolitical Risks Surge Brent Crude to $118/Barrel, Impacting 20% Global Oil Supply via Strait of Hormuz →
Q80.

What is the primary implication of the evolving oil market structure, as described in the article, for major oil-importing economies like India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Energy security is now solely dependent on building larger physical stockpiles of crude oil.
  • B.Energy security requires resilience against only supply disruptions, not financial shocks.
  • C.Energy security now integrates managing political, financial, and logistical risks alongside physical access.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Energy security has become less important due to the global transition to renewable energy.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that the evolving structure 'complicates the notion of energy security. It now requires resilience not only against supply disruptions but also against financial and logistical shocks.' This directly points to an integrated approach. Options A and B are incomplete, focusing only on one aspect. Option D is contrary to the article's point that oil's strategic relevance persists despite the energy transition.

Source: Geopolitical Risks Surge Brent Crude to $118/Barrel, Impacting 20% Global Oil Supply via Strait of Hormuz →
Q81.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for integrated water governance and stewardship in India, as highlighted in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the consolidation of water governance under the Ministry of Jal Shakti in 2019 marked a shift toward integrated stewardship. This ministry handles all aspects of water resource management, river development, and drinking water.

Source: India Aligns Water Vision 2047 & Belém Adaptation Indicators Focusing on WASH, Climate-Resilient Water Systems →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Belém Adaptation Indicators discussed in the article:

1. They were adopted at COP30, held in Belém, Brazil.

2. They are a set of 59 indicators under the UAE Framework for Global Climate Resilience.

3. For the first time, they integrate climate-resilient water, sanitation, and hygiene (WASH) systems into global climate accountability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as COP30 was held in Belém, Brazil in November 2025. Statement 2 is correct as the indicators are part of the UAE Framework for Global Climate Resilience. Statement 3 is correct as the article states this integration marks a decisive shift in adaptation understanding.

Source: India Aligns Water Vision 2047 & Belém Adaptation Indicators Focusing on WASH, Climate-Resilient Water Systems →
Q83.

According to the article, by what year is the target set for establishing universal multi-hazard early warning systems?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2025
  • B.2027✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2030
  • D.2035
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'universal multi-hazard early warning systems by 2027' as one of the key targets under the Belém Adaptation Indicators' risk governance cluster. 2030 is the target for updated national vulnerability assessments, and 2035 is mentioned regarding adaptation finance.

Source: India Aligns Water Vision 2047 & Belém Adaptation Indicators Focusing on WASH, Climate-Resilient Water Systems →
Q84.

What is the primary significance of the Belém Adaptation Indicators for India's domestic water management, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.They mandate India to create new water ministries.
  • B.They provide a measurable dashboard to align existing missions like Water Vision 2047 and NAQUIM.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They require India to stop all groundwater extraction immediately.
  • D.They shift focus solely to building new water infrastructure.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'Belém calls for convergence, not reinvention.' It states India's domestic water reforms (Water Vision 2047, NAQUIM, Jal Shakti) provide a foundation, and the indicators offer a framework to integrate climate stress testing into these existing missions. The focus is on system resilience, not just new infrastructure.

Source: India Aligns Water Vision 2047 & Belém Adaptation Indicators Focusing on WASH, Climate-Resilient Water Systems →
Q85.

The study on the Dharali flash flood was published by scientists from which Indian organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
  • B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Geological Survey of India (GSI)
  • D.India Meteorological Department (IMD)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study was conducted by researchers from the Regional (West) and National Remote Sensing Centres of ISRO and published in NPJ Natural Hazards. ISRO is India's national space agency.

Source: ISRO Study Links Dharali Flash Flood to Ice-Patch Collapse, Highlights Under-Recognized Cryo-Hydrological Hazard in Himalayas →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the ISRO study on the Dharali flash flood:

1. The study concluded that the flood was triggered by a Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) from a nearby lake.

2. The research highlights that exposed ice patches on retreating glaciers are a direct indicator of increased flood likelihood.

3. The study recommends that satellite monitoring should focus only on large glacial lakes for early warnings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The study found the flood was triggered by the collapse of an exposed ice patch on the Srikanta glacier, not by a GLOF. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's conclusion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the study argues monitoring should extend beyond GLOFs to include smaller instabilities like exposed ice patches.

Source: ISRO Study Links Dharali Flash Flood to Ice-Patch Collapse, Highlights Under-Recognized Cryo-Hydrological Hazard in Himalayas →
Q87.

According to the article, what was the approximate height range (in meters above sea level) of Dharali village where the flash flood occurred?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,500-1,800 m
  • B.2,200-2,400 m
  • C.2,650-2,700 m✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3,000-3,200 m
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that Dharali village is 'located at a height of 2,650-2,700 m along the Bhagirathi river.' The other options are distractors based on common altitude ranges for Himalayan villages.

Source: ISRO Study Links Dharali Flash Flood to Ice-Patch Collapse, Highlights Under-Recognized Cryo-Hydrological Hazard in Himalayas →
Q88.

What is the primary geomorphological feature identified in the ISRO study as being critically sensitive to cryospheric instability and ice-patch collapse?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Glacial moraines
  • B.River terraces
  • C.Nivation hollows✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Cirque basins
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that 'nivation hollows' are identified as 'geomorphologically sensitive zones for cryospheric instability.' These are areas of snow accumulation and erosion on steep slopes, which the study found were the site of the ice-patch collapse that triggered the Dharali flood.

Source: ISRO Study Links Dharali Flash Flood to Ice-Patch Collapse, Highlights Under-Recognized Cryo-Hydrological Hazard in Himalayas →
Q89.

Which intergovernmental organization announced its largest-ever emergency stockpile drawdown alongside the US sanctions waiver, as per the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
  • B.International Energy Agency (IEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the International Energy Agency (IEA) simultaneously announced its largest-ever emergency stockpile drawdown. The IEA is the correct body responsible for coordinating such releases among member countries during supply crises.

Source: US Grants 30-Day Sanctions Waiver for Russian Oil, IEA Draws Largest Emergency Stockpile Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The US sanctions waiver on Russian oil was initially granted exclusively to India.

2. The closure of the Strait of Hormuz caused global crude oil prices to fall below $70 per barrel.

3. The primary reason cited for the US waiver was to increase political pressure on Russia to end the war in Ukraine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the waiver initially applied to India alone. Statement 2 is incorrect because prices surged from around $70 to above $110, not fell below $70. Statement 3 is incorrect; the primary reason was to stabilize energy markets facing a shock, not to increase pressure on Russia (in fact, Europe argued it reduced pressure).

Source: US Grants 30-Day Sanctions Waiver for Russian Oil, IEA Draws Largest Emergency Stockpile Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis →
Q91.

Approximately what percentage of the world's oil transits through the Strait of Hormuz, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 10%
  • B.Roughly 20%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nearly 30%
  • D.Over 40%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Strait of Hormuz is 'the chokepoint through which roughly 20 per cent of the world’s oil transits'. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the specific figure provided in the text.

Source: US Grants 30-Day Sanctions Waiver for Russian Oil, IEA Draws Largest Emergency Stockpile Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis →
Q92.

What was a major point of concern for European countries regarding the US decision to waive sanctions on Russian oil, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It would lead to a decrease in Europe's own oil imports from Russia.
  • B.It would weaken the global position of the International Energy Agency.
  • C.It would replenish Russia's financial resources for the war in Ukraine.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It would cause a permanent increase in global oil prices.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article notes that 'Europe has reacted with alarm, warning that eased sanctions replenish the Kremlin’s war chest and release the political pressure on Moscow to end the war in Ukraine.' This directly captures Europe's primary concern about the waiver's impact on the conflict.

Source: US Grants 30-Day Sanctions Waiver for Russian Oil, IEA Draws Largest Emergency Stockpile Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis →
Q93.

Which ministry publishes data on the number of Indian nationals residing overseas, as referenced in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'According to the Ministry of External Affairs, there are nearly 8.9 million overseas Indians in the Gulf Cooperation Council countries alone.' This ministry handles diaspora-related affairs and tracks overseas Indian populations.

Source: Iran-Israel War Threatens India's Remittances, CAD to Widen Beyond $67 Billion as Capital Flows Plunge →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact of conflicts as discussed in the article:

1. The Russia-Ukraine war primarily affected India's merchandise trade account, widening the trade deficit to $265.3 billion in 2022-23.

2. The ongoing US-Israel versus Iran conflict poses a significant risk to India's invisibles account surplus, primarily due to its potential impact on software exports.

3. Net capital inflows to India fell sharply from $89.8 billion in 2023-24 to $18 million in 2024-25, increasing external sector vulnerability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the war's impact was 'mainly on the merchandise trade account' and the deficit widened to $265.3 bn. Statement 2 is incorrect; the risk to the invisibles account is due to potential disruption of remittances from Gulf expatriates, not software exports. Statement 3 is correct as per the data provided in the article.

Source: Iran-Israel War Threatens India's Remittances, CAD to Widen Beyond $67 Billion as Capital Flows Plunge →
Q95.

According to the article, what was the share of the six Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries in India's gross remittances of $118.7 billion received in 2023-24?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.27.5%
  • B.37.9%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.45.2%
  • D.51.8%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Reserve Bank of India data shows these six countries having a combined 37.9% share in the gross remittances of $118.7 billion received by the country in 2023-24.' The other options are plausible distractors but incorrect.

Source: Iran-Israel War Threatens India's Remittances, CAD to Widen Beyond $67 Billion as Capital Flows Plunge →
Q96.

What is identified as the 'real vulnerability for India' in the context of the ongoing US-Israel versus Iran conflict, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A sharp decline in Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) in equity markets.
  • B.Disruption of fertiliser imports crucial for the upcoming kharif season.
  • C.Potential contraction of Gulf economies leading to a return of Indian workers and a dent in remittance inflows.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Immediate spike in food prices due to supply chain disruptions from the Strait of Hormuz closure.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's section titled 'The real vulnerability for India' explains that the conflict's ramifications 'could extend beyond [merchandise trade], to even the invisibles account.' It details that if the war drags on, pushing West Asian economies into contraction and forcing large-scale return of Indian workers, it would 'significantly dent India’s invisibles account surpluses.'

Source: Iran-Israel War Threatens India's Remittances, CAD to Widen Beyond $67 Billion as Capital Flows Plunge →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 16 March 2026?▼

This page contains 96 current affairs questions from 16 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 16 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of t…
  3. Q3. The Supreme Court's recent ruling allowing the withdrawal of l…
  4. Q4. As per the Supreme Court's 'Common Cause guidelines', what are…
  5. Q5. Under which Article of the Constitution is the procedure for r…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the…
  7. Q7. As per the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Comm…
  8. Q8. is the primary constitutional safeguard for the independence o…
  9. Q9. act was invoked by the government to prioritise gas allocation…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding India's fertiliser…
  11. Q11. According to the article, what was the budgeted figure for Ind…
  12. Q12. is the primary objective of the policy reforms suggested in th…
  13. Q13. ministry/department is responsible for releasing India's GDP e…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India's revised GD…
  15. Q15. According to the second advance estimates released by MoSPI, w…
  16. Q16. is a key implication of revising the GDP base year to a more r…
  17. Q17. Union Ministry introduced the Transgender Protection (Amendmen…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pr…
  19. Q19. According to the National Portal for Transgender Persons, appr…
  20. Q20. is a primary criticism raised by activists against the propose…
  21. Q21. ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of th…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
  23. Q23. According to the FinCan study cited in the article, what is th…
  24. Q24. is a key objective of the proposed 'revolving ceiling' reform …
  25. Q25. The 'PM-Surya Ghar Yojana', mentioned in the context of boosti…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the findings on el…
  27. Q27. According to the article, what was India's estimated annual im…
  28. Q28. is the primary strategic rationale, as per the article, for In…
  29. Q29. Under which international treaty is declaring 'no quarter' cla…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the prohibition of…
  31. Q31. According to the article, which specific article of the Hague …
  32. Q32. is the primary danger, as explained by experts in the article,…
  33. Q33. statutory body's guidelines allow Indian educational instituti…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the trend of forei…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what was the approximate percentage …
  36. Q36. is described in the article as a primary factor enabling India…
  37. Q37. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the NCDRC ruling o…
  39. Q39. was the total amount Axis Bank was directed to pay to Procure …
  40. Q40. was the primary legal ground on which the NCDRC rejected Axis …
  41. Q41. Under which Article of the Constitution do High Courts have th…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
  43. Q43. According to the news article, what was the age of the victim …
  44. Q44. was the primary reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for or…
  45. Q45. international convention specifically outlines the rights and …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the legal dimensio…
  47. Q47. Approximately how many Iranian sailors were killed in the sink…
  48. Q48. is the primary legal significance of Sri Lanka and India provi…
  49. Q49. constitutional article empowers the Election Commission of Ind…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commi…
  51. Q51. By what time on March 16, 2026, did the Election Commission de…
  52. Q52. is the primary constitutional rationale behind the Election Co…
  53. Q53. The 'Black Sea Grain Initiative', mentioned as a model for the…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the news about the…
  55. Q55. According to EU diplomat Kaja Kallas, what percentage of the o…
  56. Q56. is a primary reason, cited in the article, for urgently seekin…
  57. Q57. Union Ministry is involved in the dialogue with Ladakhi bodies…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Ladakh protest…
  59. Q59. As per the article, when did the five-year term of the Autonom…
  60. Q60. is described as a primary cause for the 'void' and anxiety in …
  61. Q61. The landmark judgment 'National Legal Services Authority vs Un…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
  63. Q63. In which year did the Supreme Court of India deliver the landm…
  64. Q64. is the primary constitutional concern raised by the article re…
  65. Q65. specific Act, mentioned in the article, was invoked against th…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the 2016 Una Dalit…
  67. Q67. According to the news article, how many accused policemen from…
  68. Q68. was the primary legal consequence for the five convicted indiv…
  69. Q69. The Parliamentary Standing Committee report mentioned in the n…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the National Food …
  71. Q71. According to the Parliamentary Committee report, how many elig…
  72. Q72. is the primary concern raised by the Parliamentary Committee r…
  73. Q73. The International Energy Agency (IEA), which coordinated the e…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the IEA-coordinate…
  75. Q75. According to the IEA statement, what percentage of the planned…
  76. Q76. is the primary objective of the IEA-coordinated release of eme…
  77. Q77. government body in India is responsible for petroleum sector a…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the dynamics of gl…
  79. Q79. According to the article, what approximate percentage of globa…
  80. Q80. is the primary implication of the evolving oil market structur…
  81. Q81. ministry is primarily responsible for integrated water governa…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Belém Adaptati…
  83. Q83. According to the article, by what year is the target set for e…
  84. Q84. is the primary significance of the Belém Adaptation Indicators…
  85. Q85. The study on the Dharali flash flood was published by scientis…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the ISRO study on …
  87. Q87. According to the article, what was the approximate height rang…
  88. Q88. is the primary geomorphological feature identified in the ISRO…
  89. Q89. intergovernmental organization announced its largest-ever emer…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  91. Q91. Approximately what percentage of the world's oil transits thro…
  92. Q92. was a major point of concern for European countries regarding …
  93. Q93. ministry publishes data on the number of Indian nationals resi…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the economic impac…
  95. Q95. According to the article, what was the share of the six Gulf C…
  96. Q96. is identified as the 'real vulnerability for India' in the con…