12 March 2026, Questions & Answers

128 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

128 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  26 min revision

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This page contains 128 current affairs questions with answers from 12 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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12 March 2026, Questions with Answers

128 Qs
Q1.

Which constitutional article forms the basis for the 'right to die with dignity' as recognized by the Supreme Court in the Harish Rana case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court has interpreted the 'Right to Life and Personal Liberty' under Article 21 of the Constitution to include the right to live with human dignity. In landmark judgments like Common Cause (2018) and now Harish Rana, the Court has held that this dignity includes the right to die with dignity in specific circumstances of terminal illness or irreversible vegetative state.

Source: Supreme Court Permits First Passive Euthanasia for 32-Year-Old Harish Rana Under Article 21 Right to Dignity →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling in the Harish Rana case:

1. It is the first Indian court order permitting passive euthanasia.

2. The Court waived the mandatory 30-day reconsideration period before withdrawing treatment.

3. The judgment was based on the legal framework established in the Gian Kaur case (1996).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the 'first ever Indian court order approving passive euthanasia'. Statement 2 is correct as the court 'waived the usual 30-day reconsideration period'. Statement 3 is incorrect; while Gian Kaur (1996) is a historical precedent, the immediate and detailed legal framework applied was established by the Constitution Bench in Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), which the article cites extensively.

Source: Supreme Court Permits First Passive Euthanasia for 32-Year-Old Harish Rana Under Article 21 Right to Dignity →
Q3.

For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state before the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 years
  • B.11 years
  • C.12 years
  • D.13 years✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Harish Rana has been in a vegetative state 'since 2013'. The ruling was in March 2026. Calculating from 2013 to 2026 gives a period of 13 years. This tests attention to chronological detail often asked in prelims.

Source: Supreme Court Permits First Passive Euthanasia for 32-Year-Old Harish Rana Under Article 21 Right to Dignity →
Q4.

What was the key legal distinction made by the Supreme Court that allowed the withdrawal of treatment for Harish Rana?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Equating artificial feeding with basic sustenance provided by family.
  • B.Classifying Clinically Assisted Nutrition and Hydration (CANH) as a medical treatment.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Declaring that all patients in a coma have a right to refuse treatment.
  • D.Overruling the Delhi High Court's finding that he was not terminally ill.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that artificial nutrition delivered via a PEG tube is not ordinary feeding but 'a technologically mediated medical intervention'. This classification was 'decisive for the legal analysis' because under the Common Cause framework, only medical treatment can be withdrawn when it becomes futile. If it were considered basic sustenance, doctors would have no legal basis to stop it.

Source: Supreme Court Permits First Passive Euthanasia for 32-Year-Old Harish Rana Under Article 21 Right to Dignity →
Q5.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the Supreme Court recognize the 'right to die with dignity'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in the Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) case, interpreted that the right to live with human dignity under Article 21 includes the right to die with dignity. This forms the constitutional basis for passive euthanasia in India.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia in Harish Rana Case, Clarifies Article 21 Right to Die with Dignity (Common Cause vs UoI, 2018) →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding euthanasia in India:

1. The Supreme Court in the Common Cause case (2018) recognized the right to die with dignity as part of Article 21.

2. Active euthanasia, which involves administering a substance to cause death, is legally permitted in India.

3. The recent Harish Rana case (2026) involved a patient who had been in a Persistent Vegetative State for 13 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Common Cause (2018) judgment is the landmark case establishing this right. Statement 2 is incorrect because active euthanasia remains illegal in India; only passive euthanasia is permitted under guidelines. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia in Harish Rana Case, Clarifies Article 21 Right to Die with Dignity (Common Cause vs UoI, 2018) →
Q7.

For how many years had Harish Rana been in a Persistent Vegetative State (PVS) before the Supreme Court's judgment in 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 years
  • B.13 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15 years
  • D.18 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Harish Rana had been in a Persistent Vegetative State for 13 years following a fall at the age of 19. This factual duration is a key detail from the case.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia in Harish Rana Case, Clarifies Article 21 Right to Die with Dignity (Common Cause vs UoI, 2018) →
Q8.

What is the primary constitutional principle that the Supreme Court's euthanasia jurisprudence seeks to balance?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The state's duty to preserve life versus the individual's right to property.
  • B.The freedom of religion versus the right to equality.
  • C.The individual's right to autonomy and dignity versus the state's interest in preserving life.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The directive principles of state policy versus fundamental rights.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the Court's reasoning, as discussed in the article, is balancing the individual's autonomy and right to die with dignity (under Article 21) against the traditional state obligation to preserve life. The Court held that indefinite preservation of biological existence without consciousness may not protect dignity.

Source: SC Permits Passive Euthanasia in Harish Rana Case, Clarifies Article 21 Right to Die with Dignity (Common Cause vs UoI, 2018) →
Q9.

Which constitutional article forms the basis for the Supreme Court's judgments on the right to a dignified death, including passive euthanasia?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court has interpreted the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution to include the right to die with dignity, which is the foundational principle for its judgments on passive euthanasia, as seen in the Common Cause case.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Clinically Administered Nutrition, Directs Centre to Frame Passive Euthanasia Law →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding passive euthanasia in India:

1. The Supreme Court first allowed passive euthanasia in the Aruna Shanbaug case.

2. The concept of 'Living Wills' was introduced by the Supreme Court in its 2018 Common Cause judgment.

3. The withdrawal of Clinically Administered Nutrition (CAN) is now considered a permissible act under the passive euthanasia framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court rejected active euthanasia in the Aruna Shanbaug case; passive euthanasia was first formally allowed in the 2018 Common Cause case. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct, as the latest SC verdict specifically allowed the withdrawal of CAN, overruling the earlier view that it was not a medical intervention.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Clinically Administered Nutrition, Directs Centre to Frame Passive Euthanasia Law →
Q11.

In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark 'Common Cause v Union of India' judgment that first recognized the legality of passive euthanasia in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2015
  • B.2017
  • C.2018✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2020
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As explicitly stated in the article, the landmark verdict in Common Cause v Union of India was delivered in 2018. This judgment recognized the legality of passive euthanasia and introduced the concept of living wills.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Clinically Administered Nutrition, Directs Centre to Frame Passive Euthanasia Law →
Q12.

What is the primary rationale cited by the Supreme Court for directing the Centre to frame legislation on passive euthanasia after its latest verdict?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To override the authority of the Medical Boards.
  • B.To expedite the process of withdrawing treatment in all hospitals.
  • C.To address procedural complexities and prevent potential abuse of the process.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To make active euthanasia legal under certain conditions.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that experts pointed out passive euthanasia can be prone to abuse, with living wills being manipulated. Therefore, the Supreme Court asked the Centre to frame legislation. The core objective is to create a clear, legally robust framework that simplifies the cumbersome procedure while incorporating safeguards against misuse.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Clinically Administered Nutrition, Directs Centre to Frame Passive Euthanasia Law →
Q13.

Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act is a 'dying declaration' made admissible as evidence?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 24
  • B.Section 27
  • C.Section 32✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Section 45
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As highlighted in the Supreme Court's judgment, a dying declaration is admissible under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This section provides an exception to the hearsay rule for statements made by a deceased person concerning the cause of their death.

Source: Supreme Court Critiques 'Sham Investigation', Acquits Couple in Fire Death Case Citing Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations in the recent fire death case:

1. The Court held that a conviction can be based solely on a dying declaration if it inspires confidence and is free from tutoring.

2. The Court criticized the investigation as 'overzealous' and driven by public perceptions, which it termed as 'fatal to prosecution'.

3. The Court mandated that a dying declaration must always be recorded in the presence of a Magistrate to be considered reliable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Judicial Services
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes the Court stating 'conviction can be based solely on the dying declaration' if credible. Statement 2 is correct as the Court noted 'overzealous investigation is as fatal to prosecution' and criticized framing cases on public perceptions. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court suggested a dying declaration 'should ideally be recorded in the presence of a Doctor', not a Magistrate, making it not mandatory.

Source: Supreme Court Critiques 'Sham Investigation', Acquits Couple in Fire Death Case Citing Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act →
Q15.

In the Supreme Court case discussed, what was the final outcome for the accused son and daughter-in-law?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Conviction upheld by the Supreme Court
  • B.Acquittal by the Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Case sent back to the Trial Court for retrial
  • D.Sentence reduced from murder to culpable homicide
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court 'dismissed an appeal' challenging the High Court's acquittal and affirmed the acquittal, stating 'the High Court was perfectly correct in acquitting the accused.'

Source: Supreme Court Critiques 'Sham Investigation', Acquits Couple in Fire Death Case Citing Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act →
Q16.

What is the primary legal principle underscored by the Supreme Court's criticism of investigations based on 'public perceptions and personal predilections'?

MediumUPSC, Judicial Services
  • A.The principle of collective justice outweighing individual rights.
  • B.The principle that media trials can aid in delivering swift justice.
  • C.The principle of 'proof beyond reasonable doubt' and adherence to due process.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The principle of allowing community sentiment to guide criminal investigations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court's critique emphasizes that criminal justice must be based on concrete evidence and proper procedure, not on public sentiment or bias. This upholds the foundational legal principle of proving guilt 'beyond reasonable doubt' through fair process, as opposed to the other options which contradict the judgment's essence.

Source: Supreme Court Critiques 'Sham Investigation', Acquits Couple in Fire Death Case Citing Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act →
Q17.

Which law enforcement agency is primarily responsible for investigating offences under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.Enforcement Directorate (ED)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • D.Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, responsible for enforcing the PMLA. While CBI investigates the predicate offences, the ED investigates the money laundering aspect.

Source: Karnataka HC Stays ED Proceedings Under PMLA After Death of Sole Accused in 2017 Predicate Offence →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnataka High Court order on PMLA:

1. The court stayed ED proceedings against a man whose grandmother was the sole accused in a predicate offence.

2. The court held that the death of an accused automatically extinguishes the 'proceeds of crime' under PMLA.

3. The ED initiated the PMLA case based on a 2017 cheating case registered at the Ulsoor Gate police station.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the HC stayed ED proceedings against Anirudh Gupta. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court questioned the legal basis but did not make a final ruling that proceeds are extinguished. Statement 3 is correct as the ED's case was based on the 2017 UGPS case.

Source: Karnataka HC Stays ED Proceedings Under PMLA After Death of Sole Accused in 2017 Predicate Offence →
Q19.

In which year was the predicate offence (cheating case) at the center of the Karnataka HC's PMLA ruling originally registered?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2015
  • B.2016
  • C.2017✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2018
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ED initiated proceedings based on a case registered at Ulsoor Gate police station (UGPS) in 2017 against the petitioner's grandmother. This is the predicate offence year.

Source: Karnataka HC Stays ED Proceedings Under PMLA After Death of Sole Accused in 2017 Predicate Offence →
Q20.

What is the core legal principle questioned by the Karnataka High Court in its interim order on the PMLA case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Whether the ED has the power to summon individuals without an FIR.
  • B.Whether 'proceeds of crime' can be pursued when the 'predicate offence' is closed due to the death of the sole accused.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Whether state police can investigate PMLA cases concurrently with the ED.
  • D.Whether the definition of 'scheduled offence' under PMLA includes the offence of cheating.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central theme is the court's deliberation on whether the ED can legally act under PMLA when the underlying criminal case (predicate offence) has abated because the only accused person has died. This is the fundamental legal question highlighted in the court's order and the arguments from both sides.

Source: Karnataka HC Stays ED Proceedings Under PMLA After Death of Sole Accused in 2017 Predicate Offence →
Q21.

Which ministry has been directed by the Supreme Court to formulate the no-fault compensation policy for Covid vaccine injuries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically directed the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to expeditiously formulate and publish the no-fault compensation framework, as it is the nodal ministry for the vaccination drive and public health.

Source: SC Directs Centre to Formulate No-Fault Compensation for Covid Vaccine Injuries Under Article 21 →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on Covid vaccine compensation:

1. The Court directed the establishment of a new expert medical board to investigate vaccine-related deaths.

2. The judgment invoked the legal principle of 'no-fault liability', which is also recognized in laws concerning motor vehicle accidents.

3. The Court ruled that the State has a positive constitutional obligation under Article 21 to provide compensation for grave outcomes from state-led vaccination drives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court refused to set up a separate expert board, stating that existing AEFI committees were adequate. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment notes 'no-fault liability' is recognized in Indian law for motor vehicle accidents. Statement 3 is correct as the Court ruled the State's obligation under Article 21 extends to providing fair compensation for outcomes of public health interventions.

Source: SC Directs Centre to Formulate No-Fault Compensation for Covid Vaccine Injuries Under Article 21 →
Q23.

As cited by the Union government in the Supreme Court, what was the reported rate of certain clotting disorders per one lakh vaccine doses in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.001✓ Correct Answer
  • B.0.01
  • C.0.1
  • D.1.0
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the government cited a reporting rate of 'just 0.001 per one lakh doses in India for certain clotting disorders'. The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.

Source: SC Directs Centre to Formulate No-Fault Compensation for Covid Vaccine Injuries Under Article 21 →
Q24.

What was the primary constitutional rationale used by the Supreme Court to reject the government's suggestion that families approach civil courts for vaccine injury claims?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It would violate the right to freedom of trade under Article 19(1)(g).
  • B.It would impose an onerous burden on families and risk unequal access to relief, undermining Article 14.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It would conflict with the federal structure of governance under Article 246.
  • D.It would infringe upon the right to privacy, a part of Article 21.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court held that forcing citizens into individual legal battles would impose an onerous burden and risk inconsistent outcomes and unequal access to relief, which undermines the guarantee of equality under Article 14 of the Constitution. The other articles, while important, were not the primary rationale cited in this specific context.

Source: SC Directs Centre to Formulate No-Fault Compensation for Covid Vaccine Injuries Under Article 21 →
Q25.

Which government department issued the 1993 circular and the 2004 clarification regarding the creamy layer criterion for OBCs?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B.Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.National Commission for Backward Classes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) issued the Official Memorandum (OM) in September 1993 and the clarification letter on October 14, 2004, regarding the creamy layer criterion for OBCs.

Source: Supreme Court Rules Income Not Sole Criterion for OBC Creamy Layer, Strikes Down 2004 DoPT Letter for 'Hostile Discrimination' →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's verdict on the OBC creamy layer criterion:

1. The Court ruled that income can be the sole criterion for determining the creamy layer status among OBCs.

2. The judgment struck down a 2004 DoPT letter that created a distinction between government and private sector employees.

3. The Court held that unequal treatment of similarly placed OBC candidates violates Articles 14, 15, and 16 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court ruled income cannot be the sole criterion. Statement 2 is correct as the 2004 DoPT letter was struck down for creating hostile discrimination. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment emphasized that such discrimination violates the equality doctrine under Articles 14, 15, and 16.

Source: Supreme Court Rules Income Not Sole Criterion for OBC Creamy Layer, Strikes Down 2004 DoPT Letter for 'Hostile Discrimination' →
Q27.

What is the current annual income limit for determining the creamy layer status among OBCs, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 1 lakh
  • B.Rs 2.5 lakh
  • C.Rs 5 lakh
  • D.Rs 8 lakh✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the income limit for those not in the government sector was Rs 1 lakh in 1993, was revised over time, and since 2017, this income limit is Rs 8 lakh per annum.

Source: Supreme Court Rules Income Not Sole Criterion for OBC Creamy Layer, Strikes Down 2004 DoPT Letter for 'Hostile Discrimination' →
Q28.

What was the primary constitutional rationale given by the Supreme Court for striking down the 2004 DoPT clarification on the creamy layer?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It violated the federal structure of the Constitution.
  • B.It amounted to hostile discrimination and unequal treatment of similarly placed persons.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It was issued without consulting the Finance Ministry.
  • D.It conflicted with the recommendations of the Mandal Commission.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court held that the 2004 letter resulted in hostile discrimination between wards of government servants and those of PSU/private sector employees, treating equals unequally, thereby violating the equality doctrine under Articles 14, 15, and 16.

Source: Supreme Court Rules Income Not Sole Criterion for OBC Creamy Layer, Strikes Down 2004 DoPT Letter for 'Hostile Discrimination' →
Q29.

As per the news, which constitutional article has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the 'right to die with dignity'?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the distinction for permitting withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment flows from Article 21, the 'right to life', which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to live with dignity. This forms the legal basis for passive euthanasia.

Source: West Asia Crisis Spurs 50% Surge in India's Russian Oil Imports; SC Permits Passive Euthanasia; Black Rain in Iran Raises Health Alarm →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court's 2026 judgment on passive euthanasia was its first application of the framework established in the 2018 Common Cause vs Union of India case.

2. 'Black rain' in Tehran was caused by volcanic eruptions releasing ash and sulfur into the atmosphere.

3. India's crude oil imports from Russia surged to 1.5 million barrels per day in early March 2026 after the Strait of Hormuz was closed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the 'first application' of the passive euthanasia framework. Statement 2 is incorrect; black rain was caused by Israeli airstrikes on oil facilities, not volcanoes. Statement 3 is correct as per the data from trade sources and Kpler.

Source: West Asia Crisis Spurs 50% Surge in India's Russian Oil Imports; SC Permits Passive Euthanasia; Black Rain in Iran Raises Health Alarm →
Q31.

According to the article, approximately what fraction of global liquid petroleum consumption is handled by the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.One-tenth
  • B.One-fifth✓ Correct Answer
  • C.One-fourth
  • D.One-third
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 'Do You Know' section explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'handles approximately one-fifth of global liquid petroleum consumption'. This is a critical static GK fact linked to global energy security.

Source: West Asia Crisis Spurs 50% Surge in India's Russian Oil Imports; SC Permits Passive Euthanasia; Black Rain in Iran Raises Health Alarm →
Q32.

What was a primary immediate consequence for India's energy imports due to the disruption in the Strait of Hormuz, as discussed in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A shift to renewable energy sources within India.
  • B.A significant increase in oil imports from Russia.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A decrease in overall domestic fuel consumption.
  • D.The immediate activation of strategic petroleum reserves.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core analysis shows that with West Asian supplies halted, India's Russian oil imports surged by 50% to 1.5 million barrels per day. This was the primary and immediate market adjustment, highlighting India's import dependency and diplomatic pragmatism.

Source: West Asia Crisis Spurs 50% Surge in India's Russian Oil Imports; SC Permits Passive Euthanasia; Black Rain in Iran Raises Health Alarm →
Q33.

Which institution is responsible for India's medium-term inflation targeting framework, as mentioned in the article discussing the threat to low inflation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that inflation has settled below the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) medium-term target of 4%. The RBI, through its Monetary Policy Committee, is mandated to maintain inflation within a target band, currently 2%-6%.

Source: Global Oil Shock at $100/Barrel Threatens India's Goldilocks Era; Rupee May Weaken to 98.5, CAD Exceed 3.1% →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the potential impacts of elevated global crude oil prices on the Indian economy, as discussed in the article:

1. It could lead to the Current Account Deficit (CAD) exceeding 3.1% of GDP.

2. It poses a significant upside risk to the government's targeted fiscal deficit of 4.3% of GDP for 2026-27.

3. It would unambiguously lead to an increase in the repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DSP Mutual Fund analysis shows CAD could rise higher than 3.1% of GDP if oil prices rise beyond $120/barrel. Statement 2 is correct: UBS analysis sees an upside risk of 30 bps to the fiscal deficit if oil prices remain elevated. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article discusses inflation risks but does not state that a repo rate hike is certain; the RBI's response would depend on a complex assessment of growth-inflation dynamics.

Source: Global Oil Shock at $100/Barrel Threatens India's Goldilocks Era; Rupee May Weaken to 98.5, CAD Exceed 3.1% →
Q35.

According to the analysis by QuantEco Research cited in the article, to what level could the Indian rupee potentially weaken against the US dollar if crude oil averages $100 per barrel in 2026-27?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.92.0
  • B.95.5
  • C.98.5✓ Correct Answer
  • D.100.0
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "if oil averages $100/barrel in 2026-27, the rupee could weaken to as much as 98.5-per-dollar, their analysis found." The other options are close distractors: 92 was the breach level earlier in the month, and 100 is a psychological round figure mentioned as a possibility in the narrative.

Source: Global Oil Shock at $100/Barrel Threatens India's Goldilocks Era; Rupee May Weaken to 98.5, CAD Exceed 3.1% →
Q36.

What is the primary reason, as highlighted in the article, that a global energy shock poses a particular threat to India's economy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.India's reliance on coal for the majority of its electricity generation.
  • B.India's high dependence on imports to meet its crude oil requirements.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India's commitment to net-zero emissions by 2070 limiting fossil fuel use.
  • D.India's strategic petroleum reserves being nearly empty.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article opens by stating, "India has always been at the mercy of the world’s energy producers on account of the country having to import a vast majority of its fuel needs." This import dependency is the fundamental vulnerability that transmits global price shocks directly to India's macroeconomic indicators like CAD, inflation, and currency value.

Source: Global Oil Shock at $100/Barrel Threatens India's Goldilocks Era; Rupee May Weaken to 98.5, CAD Exceed 3.1% →
Q37.

Which US government body is responsible for conducting the Section 301 investigation mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.US Department of Commerce
  • B.United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US International Trade Commission (USITC)
  • D.Office of the US Trade Representative
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the United States Trade Representative (USTR) initiated the investigation and USTR Jamieson Greer commented on it. The USTR is the lead agency for US trade policy and Section 301 investigations.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe Against India Over $58 Billion Trade Surplus, Targeting Solar & Petrochemicals →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the US Section 301 probe:

1. The investigation was initiated under Section 122 of the US Trade Act of 1974.

2. India's trade surplus with the US was $58 billion in the year 2025.

3. The probe targets India specifically for excess capacity in the solar module sector, which is nearly triple the annual domestic demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The probe was initiated under Section 301(b), not Section 122. Section 122 tariffs are expiring. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the USTR cited India's solar module capacity being triple domestic demand.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe Against India Over $58 Billion Trade Surplus, Targeting Solar & Petrochemicals →
Q39.

According to the news, what was the value of India's trade surplus with the United States in the year 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$48 Billion
  • B.$58 Billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$68 Billion
  • D.$78 Billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states, "India had a trade surplus of $58 billion with the US in 2025." The other options are close distractors.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe Against India Over $58 Billion Trade Surplus, Targeting Solar & Petrochemicals →
Q40.

What is the primary rationale cited by the USTR for launching the Section 301 investigations against India and other countries?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To address intellectual property rights violations.
  • B.To counter structural excess capacity and over-production in manufacturing sectors.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To punish countries for not aligning with US foreign policy.
  • D.To renegotiate terms of existing free trade agreements.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core premise is that the USTR is investigating "structural excess capacity and over-production." It quotes the USTR saying the probe focuses on economies exhibiting this through large trade surpluses or unused capacity. The other options are not mentioned as the primary reason.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe Against India Over $58 Billion Trade Surplus, Targeting Solar & Petrochemicals →
Q41.

Which ministry advised State Pollution Control Boards to permit the use of biomass and coal as alternate fuels during the LPG crisis, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'MoEFCC (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change) has advised State Pollution Control Boards to permit... the use of biomass... and coal as alternate fuels.' This is a static fact directly from the news.

Source: India Diversifies Fuel Sources, Invokes Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Disruption Impacting 55% LPG Supply →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the measures taken to address the LPG supply crisis:

1. The government invoked the Essential Commodities Act to prioritize LPG supplies to households.

2. The minimum gap between cylinder bookings for urban households was increased from 21 days to 45 days.

3. A three-member committee comprising executive directors from IOCL, HPCL, and BPCL was constituted on March 9, 2026, to regulate commercial LPG allocation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the invocation of the Essential Commodities Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the gap for urban households was increased to 25 days (not 45 days; 45 days is for rural/remote areas). Statement 3 is correct as per the minister's statement in Parliament. Hence, option B is correct.

Source: India Diversifies Fuel Sources, Invokes Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Disruption Impacting 55% LPG Supply →
Q43.

According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consumption volumes became unavailable due to the disruption in the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.45%
  • B.55%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.60%
  • D.90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'This effectively means that roughly 55% of India’s LPG consumption volumes are currently unavailable.' The 60% figure is import dependency, and 90% is the share of imports coming via the Strait. The 55% is the calculated impact on total consumption.

Source: India Diversifies Fuel Sources, Invokes Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Disruption Impacting 55% LPG Supply →
Q44.

What is the primary reason cited by the Petroleum Minister for regulating commercial LPG supply instead of leaving it deregulated during the crisis?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To increase government revenue from commercial sales
  • B.To penalize the hospitality sector for high consumption
  • C.To prevent hoarding, diversion, and black marketing in a supply-constrained environment✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To permanently shift commercial users to alternative fuels like coal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The minister explicitly stated that commercial LPG is sold in a deregulated market without controls, which in a supply crisis 'creates a direct and uncontrolled pathway for hoarding, diversion, and resale at inflated prices.' Regulation was thus a 'responsible course' to ensure supplies reach genuine users. The article clarifies it was 'not to penalise the hospitality sector'.

Source: India Diversifies Fuel Sources, Invokes Essential Commodities Act Amid Strait of Hormuz Disruption Impacting 55% LPG Supply →
Q45.

Which of the following is NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), as mentioned in the UNSC resolution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Bahrain
  • B.Kuwait
  • C.Oman
  • D.Jordan✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) consists of six Arab states: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. Jordan, while mentioned in the resolution as an affected country, is not a GCC member. It is a separate Arab kingdom.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution 2817 Condemning Iran's Attacks on GCC Nations and Jordan →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding UNSC Resolution 2817 mentioned in the news:

1. It was adopted with 13 votes in favour and 2 votes against.

2. It condemned Iran's attacks against Gulf Cooperation Council countries and Jordan.

3. It was co-sponsored by India along with over 130 nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The resolution was adopted with 13 votes in favour, none against, and 2 abstentions (China and Russia). Statement 2 is correct as the resolution condemned Iran's attacks on GCC nations and Jordan. Statement 3 is correct as India co-sponsored the Bahrain-led resolution along with over 130 nations.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution 2817 Condemning Iran's Attacks on GCC Nations and Jordan →
Q47.

According to the news article, how many votes did the rival draft resolution submitted by Russia receive in favour at the UNSC?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Two
  • B.Four✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nine
  • D.Thirteen
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the draft resolution submitted by Russia received four votes in favour (from China, Russia, Pakistan, and Somalia). It failed to be adopted as it did not get the required nine favourable votes.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution 2817 Condemning Iran's Attacks on GCC Nations and Jordan →
Q48.

What was a primary objective of UNSC Resolution 2817, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To impose economic sanctions on Iran for its nuclear program.
  • B.To demand Iran's immediate cessation of attacks on GCC countries and Jordan.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To authorize a military intervention to ensure freedom of navigation in the Strait of Hormuz.
  • D.To establish a UN peacekeeping mission in the Gulf region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The resolution's core demand, as stated in the article, was the "immediate cessation of all attacks by Iran against the GCC countries and Jordan." While it condemned threats to close the Strait of Hormuz, it did not authorize military force or establish a peacekeeping mission. Economic sanctions for Iran's nuclear program are not mentioned in this context.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution 2817 Condemning Iran's Attacks on GCC Nations and Jordan →
Q49.

Under which articles of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Articles 32 and 226✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Articles 14 and 21
  • C.Articles 124 and 217
  • D.Articles 245 and 246
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

PILs are filed under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies in the Supreme Court) and Article 226 (power of High Courts to issue writs). The MC Mehta case is a classic example of environmental PIL adjudicated by the Supreme Court.

Source: SC Closes 1985 MC Mehta PIL, Orders New Suo Motu Case on NCR Air Pollution →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court order on the MC Mehta case:

1. The Supreme Court formally closed the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) filed by environmentalist M C Mehta in 1985.

2. The Court directed that all pending applications be transferred to the National Green Tribunal (NGT) for further hearing.

3. The Court ordered the registry to file a fresh suo motu case on issues pertaining to air pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court directed pending applications to be allotted separate writ petition numbers within the Supreme Court, not transferred to NGT. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the registry was directed to register suo motu proceedings on NCR air pollution.

Source: SC Closes 1985 MC Mehta PIL, Orders New Suo Motu Case on NCR Air Pollution →
Q51.

In which year was the environmental PIL filed by M C Mehta, which the Supreme Court has now formally closed?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1975
  • B.1980
  • C.1985✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1990
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the PIL was filed by environmentalist M C Mehta in 1985. This is a key factual detail for Prelims.

Source: SC Closes 1985 MC Mehta PIL, Orders New Suo Motu Case on NCR Air Pollution →
Q52.

What was the primary judicial rationale cited by the Supreme Court for closing the 40-year-old MC Mehta PIL?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To reduce the workload of the Supreme Court Registry.
  • B.To dispel the public impression of 'massive pendency' of decade-old cases.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because all environmental issues raised in the PIL had been resolved.
  • D.To transfer the matter to a specialized environmental tribunal.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the CJI noted that retaining the 1985 case gave the false impression it remained undecided for 40 years, when in reality only recent applications were pending. The closure was aimed at tackling this 'impression of massive pendency'.

Source: SC Closes 1985 MC Mehta PIL, Orders New Suo Motu Case on NCR Air Pollution →
Q53.

As per the draft guidelines discussed in the news, which government ministry released the procedural framework for passive euthanasia in 2024?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Health Ministry released the set of draft guidelines in 2024. This ministry is the nodal body for public health policies and medical procedures in India.

Source: Supreme Court Permits Passive Euthanasia: Draft Guidelines 2024 by Health Ministry Outline Two-Tier Medical Board Process →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for passive euthanasia as per the 2024 draft guidelines:

1. The decision to withdraw treatment requires consensus from a primary medical board within the treating hospital.

2. The secondary medical board must include a doctor nominated by the Chief Medical Officer of the district and must give its decision within one week.

3. The approval of a magistrate is mandatory before the withdrawal of life-supporting treatment can proceed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the primary board's consensus is required. Statement 2 is incorrect because the secondary board must decide within 48 hours, not one week. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states hospitals must inform magistrates, but their approval is not required.

Source: Supreme Court Permits Passive Euthanasia: Draft Guidelines 2024 by Health Ministry Outline Two-Tier Medical Board Process →
Q55.

According to the news, within how many hours must the secondary medical board take a decision on a request to withdraw life-support?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24 hours
  • B.48 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • C.72 hours
  • D.96 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the secondary medical board, constituted with a CMO-nominated doctor, has to take a decision within 48 hours. This is a precise procedural timeline from the draft guidelines.

Source: Supreme Court Permits Passive Euthanasia: Draft Guidelines 2024 by Health Ministry Outline Two-Tier Medical Board Process →
Q56.

What is identified as a primary practical hurdle in implementing the passive euthanasia guidelines across India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of legislative backing from Parliament.
  • B.Difficulty in finding sufficiently experienced doctors for the medical boards.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Opposition from major religious institutions.
  • D.High cost of the medical review process for patients.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes an expert stating it is difficult to find doctors with the required level of expertise and experience in all hospitals for both the primary and secondary boards. This is highlighted as a key implementation challenge, alongside the slow process of states creating nomination lists.

Source: Supreme Court Permits Passive Euthanasia: Draft Guidelines 2024 by Health Ministry Outline Two-Tier Medical Board Process →
Q57.

Which Union Ministry released the draft guidelines for the procedure of withdrawing life-supporting care in 2024?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Union Health Ministry' released the set of draft guidelines in 2024 based on the Supreme Court's directives. This ministry is responsible for public health policy in India.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Life Support; Draft Guidelines (2024) Outline 48-Hour Secondary Board Decision →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for passive euthanasia in India as per the draft guidelines:

1. The decision to withdraw treatment requires the approval of a local magistrate.

2. The secondary medical board must take its decision within a period of 48 hours.

3. States like Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka have commenced creating lists of nominated doctors for the secondary board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states hospitals must inform magistrates, but their approval 'is not required'. Statement 2 is correct as the secondary board 'has to take a decision within 48 hours'. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these states as having commenced the nomination process.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Life Support; Draft Guidelines (2024) Outline 48-Hour Secondary Board Decision →
Q59.

As per the 2024 draft guidelines, within how many hours must the secondary medical board take a decision on a request to withdraw life-supporting care?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24 hours
  • B.48 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • C.72 hours
  • D.96 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the secondary medical board, consisting of a CMO-nominated doctor and two experts, 'has to take a decision within 48 hours'. This is a key procedural timeline in the guidelines.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Life Support; Draft Guidelines (2024) Outline 48-Hour Secondary Board Decision →
Q60.

What is a primary function of a 'living will' or advance medical directive as discussed in the context of withdrawing life support?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To appoint a legal heir for property distribution.
  • B.To specify medical treatment preferences when a patient loses decision-making capacity.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To serve as a will for donating organs after death.
  • D.To authorize a family member to make financial decisions.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article defines a living will as a legal document that allows terminal patients to choose the measures they would or would not like when they 'no longer have the capacity to decide'. Its core function is to record treatment preferences in advance, not for property, organ donation, or finance.

Source: Supreme Court Allows Withdrawal of Life Support; Draft Guidelines (2024) Outline 48-Hour Secondary Board Decision →
Q61.

Which government body is primarily responsible for conducting the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.National Statistical Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The NSO subsumed the functions of the former National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).

Source: Unemployment Rate Averaged 5.2% (CWS) for 10 Months to Jan 2026; Youth Unemployment at 10.2% (2023-24) vs 7.7% in 2011-12 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding unemployment data mentioned in the article:

1. The unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status) for the 10 months before January 2026 averaged 5.2%.

2. The youth unemployment rate (usual status) was lower in 2023-24 than it was in 2011-12.

3. The unemployment rate according to PLFS declined during the COVID-19 year of 2020-21.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; youth unemployment rose from 7.7% (2011-12) to 10.2% (2023-24). Statement 3 is correct as the article notes the unique decline in unemployment during the COVID-19 contraction.

Source: Unemployment Rate Averaged 5.2% (CWS) for 10 Months to Jan 2026; Youth Unemployment at 10.2% (2023-24) vs 7.7% in 2011-12 →
Q63.

According to the article, what was the youth unemployment rate (usual status) in India for the year 2011-12?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.3.7%
  • B.5.2%
  • C.7.7%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.10.2%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the youth unemployment rate (usual status) in 2011-12 was 7.7%. 3.7% is the overall unemployment rate for 2011-12, 5.2% is the recent average, and 10.2% is the youth unemployment rate for 2023-24.

Source: Unemployment Rate Averaged 5.2% (CWS) for 10 Months to Jan 2026; Youth Unemployment at 10.2% (2023-24) vs 7.7% in 2011-12 →
Q64.

What is the primary criticism leveled against the Economic Survey in the context of this article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It overestimates the GDP growth rate for the agricultural sector.
  • B.It fails to treat unemployment data with the same importance as inflation data.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It incorrectly attributes low inflation solely to monetary policy.
  • D.It proposes insufficient policy measures for job creation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument is that the Economic Survey presents a long time series for inflation to highlight its decline but does not afford similar treatment to unemployment data, which would reveal its high historic levels. While other points are mentioned, this selective presentation is the central critique.

Source: Unemployment Rate Averaged 5.2% (CWS) for 10 Months to Jan 2026; Youth Unemployment at 10.2% (2023-24) vs 7.7% in 2011-12 →
Q65.

The article mentions a specific principle of the UN Charter that prohibits the use of force against a state's territorial integrity. Under which ministry/department does India's permanent mission to the United Nations primarily function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Defence
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

India's permanent mission to the United Nations is part of its diplomatic corps, which is managed and overseen by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The MEA handles all foreign relations and international diplomacy.

Source: US Unilateral Actions Challenge UN Charter Article 2(A) Sovereignty: Impact on India's Chabahar, INSTC, and Global South Leadership →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in the article:

1. The author claims the US attack on Iran is a decisive and new shift in its foreign policy approach.

2. The article cites the UN Charter's Article 2(A) as the legal provision that prohibits unilateral military intervention.

3. It is argued that external attacks can strengthen an unpopular domestic regime through a 'rally round the flag' effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the author argues the opposite - that the attack is part of an old pattern, not a departure. Statement 2 is correct; the article explicitly mentions Article 2(A) of the UN Charter. Statement 3 is correct; the article analyses the 'rally round the flag' phenomenon in detail.

Source: US Unilateral Actions Challenge UN Charter Article 2(A) Sovereignty: Impact on India's Chabahar, INSTC, and Global South Leadership →
Q67.

According to the article, approximately how many interventions has the United States undertaken, which form the pattern it discusses?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around 50
  • B.Around 100✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Around 150
  • D.Around 200
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "There have been around 100 such interventions by the US..." and then lists examples like Iran (1953) and Chile (1973). The other options are plausible-sounding but incorrect distractors.

Source: US Unilateral Actions Challenge UN Charter Article 2(A) Sovereignty: Impact on India's Chabahar, INSTC, and Global South Leadership →
Q68.

What is a key strategic reason cited in the article for India's vital interest in maintaining relations with Iran, despite the US-Iran conflict?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Access to Iran's nuclear technology
  • B.Countering Chinese influence in the South China Sea
  • C.Connectivity to Afghanistan and Central Asia via Chabahar port and INSTC✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Securing a permanent seat in the UN Security Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that "The International North–South Transport Corridor and the Chabahar port are important for connectivity with Afghanistan, Central Asia, and the wider Eurasian region." This is presented as a core Indian strategic interest. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: US Unilateral Actions Challenge UN Charter Article 2(A) Sovereignty: Impact on India's Chabahar, INSTC, and Global South Leadership →
Q69.

Which US government department is centrally involved in the conflict with Anthropic over AI use, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defense
  • B.Department of Commerce
  • C.Department of War✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Homeland Security
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the US Secretary of War, Pete Hegseth, and the Department of War (DoW) as the government entity designating Anthropic as a 'supply chain risk'. This is the specific nomenclature used in the provided content.

Source: US Dept of War Labels AI Firm Anthropic 'Supply Chain Risk' Over Red Lines on Mass Surveillance and Autonomous Weapons →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the standoff between Anthropic and the US Department of War:

1. Anthropic's red lines include prohibitions on mass domestic surveillance and fully autonomous weapons.

2. The Department of War's designation of Anthropic as a 'supply chain risk' is a common tool previously used against other American tech companies.

3. OpenAI, a rival of Anthropic, has accepted a permissive contract for military-use cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states these are the two red lines Anthropic insists on. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says this label was 'previously reserved for US adversaries, and never before applied to an American company'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: US Dept of War Labels AI Firm Anthropic 'Supply Chain Risk' Over Red Lines on Mass Surveillance and Autonomous Weapons →
Q71.

According to the article, the AI models developed by Anthropic, which were reportedly used in US operations in Venezuela and Iran, belong to which family?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.GPT
  • B.Gemini
  • C.Claude✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Llama
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'Claude, its family of language models' in reference to Anthropic's AI being used in operations in Venezuela and Iran. The other options are AI models from different companies (GPT from OpenAI, Gemini from Google, Llama from Meta).

Source: US Dept of War Labels AI Firm Anthropic 'Supply Chain Risk' Over Red Lines on Mass Surveillance and Autonomous Weapons →
Q72.

What is the primary significance of the US Department of War's action against Anthropic, as highlighted in the analysis?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It showcases the superior safety standards of American AI companies.
  • B.It sets a precedent for using national security tools against domestic companies to control frontier technology.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It proves that autonomous weapons are already being deployed at scale.
  • D.It demonstrates the failure of international AI regulation treaties.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's analysis emphasizes that this episode 'established a precedent' where tools for foreign adversaries are repurposed against a domestic company. It frames the conflict as being about who sets the terms for the future of powerful general-purpose AI, establishing state control as a key theme.

Source: US Dept of War Labels AI Firm Anthropic 'Supply Chain Risk' Over Red Lines on Mass Surveillance and Autonomous Weapons →
Q73.

Which government body recently approved changes to the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) guidelines for Land Border Countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Union Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Union Cabinet approved changes in the guidelines on investments from countries sharing a land border with India. While the Ministry of Commerce and Industry implements FDI policy, the Cabinet is the apex decision-making body for such significant policy approvals.

Source: FDI Policy Revised: Non-Controlling LBC Investment Up To 10% Via Automatic Route, 60-Day Decision For Key Sectors →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent changes in India's FDI policy:

1. Investors with non-controlling beneficial ownership of up to 10% from Land Border Countries (LBCs) will now be allowed under the government approval route.

2. Proposals for LBC investments in sectors like capital goods will be processed and decided within 60 days.

3. The changes are a reversal of the April 2020 amendments that were directed primarily towards China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the 10% non-controlling LBC investment is allowed under the 'automatic route', not the 'government approval route'. Statement 2 is correct as explicitly mentioned. Statement 3 is correct: The 2020 amendments tightened rules for LBCs, and the recent changes ease some of those restrictions.

Source: FDI Policy Revised: Non-Controlling LBC Investment Up To 10% Via Automatic Route, 60-Day Decision For Key Sectors →
Q75.

According to the article, what was the value of India's imports from China in the financial year 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$70 billion
  • B.$100.2 billion
  • C.$113.4 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$18 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that imports from China surged to $113.4 billion in 2024-25. $70 billion was the figure for 2018-19, and $18 billion refers to the capital inflows in 2024-25, not imports.

Source: FDI Policy Revised: Non-Controlling LBC Investment Up To 10% Via Automatic Route, 60-Day Decision For Key Sectors →
Q76.

What is a primary economic rationale, as per the article, for India easing FDI norms for Land Border Countries like China?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall trade deficit with all nations
  • B.To facilitate greater integration with global supply chains and access technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with directives from international financial institutions
  • D.To promote agricultural exports through foreign partnerships
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the policy changes are designed to encourage FDI flows, ease access to newer technologies, and facilitate greater integration with global supply chains, especially to gain from the 'China+1' strategy. This is the core economic rationale mentioned, amidst falling capital inflows.

Source: FDI Policy Revised: Non-Controlling LBC Investment Up To 10% Via Automatic Route, 60-Day Decision For Key Sectors →
Q77.

The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an autonomous organization under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  • C.Ministry of Culture
  • D.Ministry of Human Resource Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NCERT functions as an autonomous organization under the Union Ministry of Education. It was established to assist and advise the government on policies for school education.

Source: SC Directs NCERT to Form Domain Experts Committee, Disassociate TDT Headed by Michel Danino Over Class 8 Textbook Chapter →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court order on NCERT textbooks:

1. The Court directed dissociation from the textbook development team headed by Prof. Michel Danino.

2. The Court ordered that the revised chapter must be published for the 2025-2026 academic session.

3. The Court suggested the domain experts committee may include a former senior judge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC directed dissociation from the TDT. Statement 2 is incorrect; the revised chapter is for the 2026-2027 session, not 2025-2026. Statement 3 is correct as the bench suggested the committee may include a former senior judge.

Source: SC Directs NCERT to Form Domain Experts Committee, Disassociate TDT Headed by Michel Danino Over Class 8 Textbook Chapter →
Q79.

For which academic session did the NCERT affidavit state the revised textbook chapter would be incorporated?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2024-2025
  • B.2025-2026
  • C.2026-2027✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2027-2028
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCERT affidavit, as mentioned in the article, stated that 'the revised chapter shall be incorporated in the forthcoming academic session 2026-2027.'

Source: SC Directs NCERT to Form Domain Experts Committee, Disassociate TDT Headed by Michel Danino Over Class 8 Textbook Chapter →
Q80.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for directing dissociation from the NCERT textbook development team?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To reduce government expenditure on textbook development.
  • B.To ensure the team members lacked reasonable knowledge or deliberately misrepresented facts about the Indian judiciary.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer the textbook development responsibility entirely to the state governments.
  • D.To promote the use of digital textbooks over printed ones.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The bench stated that the team members 'either do not have reasonable informed knowledge about the Indian judiciary and/ or they deliberately and knowingly misrepresented the facts...' This was the core reason for the dissociation order to protect students of impressionable age.

Source: SC Directs NCERT to Form Domain Experts Committee, Disassociate TDT Headed by Michel Danino Over Class 8 Textbook Chapter →
Q81.

Which government organization is primarily responsible for conducting the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Statistical Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which is part of the National Statistical Office (NSO). The NSO is the nodal agency for official statistics in India. While MoSPI is the administrative ministry, the actual survey work is done by the NSSO/NSO.

Source: Bihar's Rural MPCE Growth Hits 10.3% CAGR, Poverty Falls from 41.3% to 4.4% Under Nitish Kumar →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic performance of Bihar and West Bengal based on the article:

1. Bihar's rural nominal MPCE grew at a higher CAGR than the all-India rural figure between 2011-12 and 2023-24.

2. West Bengal's urban nominal MPCE growth rate was higher than Bihar's urban nominal MPCE growth rate over the same period.

3. Bihar's poverty rate in 2023-24, as per the Rangarajan poverty line, was lower than that of West Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bihar's rural nominal MPCE CAGR was 10.3%, higher than India's 9.1%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Bihar's urban nominal MPCE grew at 10.7%, while West Bengal's grew at only 6.9%. Statement 3 is correct: Bihar's poverty rate was 4.4%, lower than West Bengal's 6.0% in 2023-24.

Source: Bihar's Rural MPCE Growth Hits 10.3% CAGR, Poverty Falls from 41.3% to 4.4% Under Nitish Kumar →
Q83.

According to the article, what was Bihar's rural monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in nominal terms for 2023-24?

EasySSC, Banking
  • A.Rs 1,086
  • B.Rs 1,211
  • C.Rs 3,366
  • D.Rs 3,531✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Bihar's rural nominal MPCE rose from Rs 1,086 (2011-12) to Rs 3,531 (2023-24). Rs 1,086 is the 2011-12 figure for Bihar. Rs 1,211 is West Bengal's 2011-12 rural MPCE. Rs 3,366 is West Bengal's 2023-24 rural MPCE.

Source: Bihar's Rural MPCE Growth Hits 10.3% CAGR, Poverty Falls from 41.3% to 4.4% Under Nitish Kumar →
Q84.

What is the primary implication highlighted by the comparison of Bihar's and West Bengal's economic performance in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It demonstrates that West Bengal has consistently outperformed Bihar on all development indicators.
  • B.It shows that political stability and governance continuity may correlate with improved development outcomes.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It proves that nominal growth figures are more reliable than real growth figures for state comparisons.
  • D.It indicates that urban growth is always more significant than rural growth for poverty reduction.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the changes occurred during a long period of political stability under Nitish Kumar and suggests this aligns with a significant transformation. While it cautions against simple causation, the comparison is used to highlight this correlation. The other options are contradicted by the data: West Bengal did not outperform Bihar; real figures are emphasized as clearer; and Bihar's pro-poor urban growth is noted but not presented as a universal rule.

Source: Bihar's Rural MPCE Growth Hits 10.3% CAGR, Poverty Falls from 41.3% to 4.4% Under Nitish Kumar →
Q85.

Under which Union Ministry does the Vibrant Villages Programme, India's response to border village development, operate?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Vibrant Villages Programme builds on the existing Border Area Development Programme (BADP) under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. This ministry handles internal security and border management.

Source: China Builds 628 Xiaokang Villages Along LAC, 72% in NE; India Responds with Vibrant Villages Programme for 663 Border Villages →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chinese Xiaokang villages along the LAC:

1. They are part of a project to construct about 600 villages across China's northern borders.

2. Over 70% of these villages are located opposite the Indian state of Sikkim.

3. These settlements are considered a strategic challenge as many are in areas contested between India and China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 'Xiaokang project of about 600 odd villages'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 72% are in northeastern states and 90% of those are opposite Arunachal Pradesh, not Sikkim. Statement 3 is correct as Lt Gen Ghai stated these villages are 'definitely a challenge' and in contested areas.

Source: China Builds 628 Xiaokang Villages Along LAC, 72% in NE; India Responds with Vibrant Villages Programme for 663 Border Villages →
Q87.

According to the news, what percentage of the 628 Xiaokang villages constructed by China are located in the northeastern states opposite India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.58%
  • B.65%
  • C.72%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'almost 72% of these 628 villages are across the northeastern states.' The 90% figure is a distractor, referring to the percentage of those northeastern villages that are opposite Arunachal Pradesh specifically.

Source: China Builds 628 Xiaokang Villages Along LAC, 72% in NE; India Responds with Vibrant Villages Programme for 663 Border Villages →
Q88.

What is the primary strategic concern for India regarding China's construction of Xiaokang villages along the LAC, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They lead to increased cultural exchange and tourism.
  • B.They are purely civilian settlements with no security implications.
  • C.They represent dual-use infrastructure that can assert Chinese territorial claims.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They are temporary structures for seasonal habitation by nomads.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains the villages are 'dual-use infrastructure — can be used both for civil and military purposes' and are seen 'as a way to assert Chinese claims over certain areas along the LAC.' This is identified as the core defense and strategic concern.

Source: China Builds 628 Xiaokang Villages Along LAC, 72% in NE; India Responds with Vibrant Villages Programme for 663 Border Villages →
Q89.

Which US government body formally initiated the Section 301 investigation mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.US Department of Commerce
  • B.United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US International Trade Commission
  • D.Office of the US Trade Representative
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'United States Trade Representative (USTR)' said it formally initiated the investigations. The Office of the USTR is its administrative unit, but the official body is the USTR.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Probe into India, 15 Others Citing $58 Billion Trade Surplus and Excess Capacity →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the US Section 301 investigation:

1. It was launched after the US Supreme Court upheld the legality of tariffs under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA).

2. The investigation targets India citing its bilateral trade deficit with the United States.

3. One of the sectors cited for excess capacity in India is solar module manufacturing, which is nearly triple the annual domestic demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court declared IEEPA tariffs illegal, not upheld them. Statement 2 is incorrect as the probe cites India's trade surplus ($58 billion), not a deficit. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of India's solar module capacity.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Probe into India, 15 Others Citing $58 Billion Trade Surplus and Excess Capacity →
Q91.

According to the news, what was the value of India's bilateral trade surplus in goods with the United States in 2025, as cited in the Section 301 investigation?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$48 billion
  • B.$58 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$68 billion
  • D.$78 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'in 2025, India had a bilateral trade surplus with the United States of $58 billion'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Probe into India, 15 Others Citing $58 Billion Trade Surplus and Excess Capacity →
Q92.

What is the primary rationale cited by the US for launching the Section 301 investigation against India and other countries?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To address intellectual property rights violations.
  • B.To counter currency manipulation practices.
  • C.To challenge structural excess capacity and overproduction in manufacturing.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To enforce stricter labor and environmental standards.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument from the USTR is about 'structural excess capacity and overproduction'. It repeatedly mentions this phrase, linking it to trade surpluses and underutilized capacity, unlike the other options which are common US trade concerns but not mentioned here.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Probe into India, 15 Others Citing $58 Billion Trade Surplus and Excess Capacity →
Q93.

Which intergovernmental organization coordinated the release of 400 million barrels of oil from strategic stockpiles as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
  • B.International Energy Agency (IEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Trade Organization (WTO)
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the International Energy Agency (IEA) agreed to release a record 400 million barrels of oil from strategic stockpiles. The IEA is the body responsible for coordinating such emergency responses among its member countries to ensure global energy security.

Source: IEA Releases Record 400 Mn Barrels Oil From 1.2 Bn Strategic Stockpile As Brent Crude Hits $100 Amid Iran Attacks →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in global oil markets:

1. The price of Brent crude oil spiked to over $100 per barrel following attacks on shipping in the Strait of Hormuz.

2. The International Energy Agency (IEA) released 182.7 million barrels of oil from its strategic stockpiles in response to the crisis.

3. Japan announced it would release around 80 million barrels from its reserves independently, even before formal IEA approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions Brent crude spiked over $100 a barrel after Iranian attacks. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IEA released a record 400 million barrels, not 182.7 million (which was the amount released in 2022). Statement 3 is correct as the article quotes Japan's Prime Minister saying they would act first and release reserves as early as the 16th of the month.

Source: IEA Releases Record 400 Mn Barrels Oil From 1.2 Bn Strategic Stockpile As Brent Crude Hits $100 Amid Iran Attacks →
Q95.

According to the news article, what was the contribution of the United States to the IEA's coordinated release of strategic oil stocks?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.80 million barrels
  • B.120 million barrels
  • C.172 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • D.400 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the United States contributed 172 million barrels to the IEA's coordinated release of 400 million barrels. US Energy Secretary Chris Wright is quoted confirming this contribution. The 400 million barrels is the total IEA release, and 80 million barrels is Japan's planned independent release.

Source: IEA Releases Record 400 Mn Barrels Oil From 1.2 Bn Strategic Stockpile As Brent Crude Hits $100 Amid Iran Attacks →
Q96.

What is the primary strategic objective of the International Energy Agency's coordinated release of emergency oil stocks, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To permanently lower global oil prices for consumers
  • B.To combat the spike in global crude prices and ensure market stability amid supply disruptions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the market share of OPEC countries
  • D.To fund renewable energy transition projects in member countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the IEA agreed to the release "to combat the spike in global crude prices amid the Middle East war." The primary objective of such coordinated releases from Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) is to temporarily stabilize oil markets during sudden supply shocks, not to enact permanent price changes or fund other projects.

Source: IEA Releases Record 400 Mn Barrels Oil From 1.2 Bn Strategic Stockpile As Brent Crude Hits $100 Amid Iran Attacks →
Q97.

Which US government office is responsible for launching the Section 301 trade investigations mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The White House Chief of Staff
  • B.The US Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Department of Commerce
  • D.The US International Trade Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'US Trade Representative Jamieson Greer' announced the investigations. The USTR is the executive agency responsible for developing and coordinating US international trade policy.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Trade Probes Against 16 Nations Including India, China, EU Over Excess Industrial Capacity →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the US trade probes discussed in the article:

1. The investigations were launched after the US Supreme Court upheld the legality of President Trump's previous global tariff program.

2. One of the probes focuses on alleged excess industrial capacity in 16 major trading partners, including India and the European Union.

3. The temporary 10% tariff imposed after the court ruling is authorized under Section 122 of the Trade Act of 1974.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court 'tore down' or struck down the previous tariff program, it did not uphold it. Statement 2 is correct as per the article listing 16 partners. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 10% tariff for 150 days was imposed under Section 122.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Trade Probes Against 16 Nations Including India, China, EU Over Excess Industrial Capacity →
Q99.

According to the article, how many major trading partners are subject to the US investigation into excess industrial capacity?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.12
  • B.14
  • C.16✓ Correct Answer
  • D.18
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the investigation is into 'excess industrial capacity in 16 major trading partners'. The list provided includes India, China, EU, Japan, South Korea, Mexico, Taiwan, Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, Cambodia, Singapore, Indonesia, Bangladesh, Switzerland, and Norway.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Trade Probes Against 16 Nations Including India, China, EU Over Excess Industrial Capacity →
Q100.

What is a primary strategic objective of the Trump administration in launching the new Section 301 trade investigations, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To permanently eliminate all tariffs on Chinese goods.
  • B.To rebuild credible tariff pressure and maintain leverage in trade negotiations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To withdraw from the World Trade Organization (WTO).
  • D.To increase foreign aid to developing nations for capacity building.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the probes offer 'an avenue to rebuild a credible tariff threat against trading partners to keep them negotiating'. The context is restoring leverage lost after the Supreme Court decision, not eliminating tariffs, leaving the WTO, or providing aid.

Source: US Launches Section 301 Trade Probes Against 16 Nations Including India, China, EU Over Excess Industrial Capacity →
Q101.

Which statutory body's order was partially quashed by the Allahabad High Court in the recent RTI case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
  • B.Central Information Commission (CIC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Election Commission of India (ECI)
  • D.National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Allahabad High Court quashed the orders passed by the CIC to the extent they directed the supply of photocopies of answer sheets. The CIC is the apex body under the RTI Act for appeals.

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Exam Marks Not Private Under RTI Act, 2005, Limits Answer Sheet Access →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment on RTI and exam information:

1. The Court ruled that marks obtained in a public examination are confidential private information.

2. The Court upheld the Central Information Commission's direction to provide photocopies of other candidates' answer sheets.

3. The Court held that a candidate has no vested right to obtain photocopies of another candidate's answer sheet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court ruled marks are NOT confidential private information. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Court QUASHED the CIC's direction for photocopies. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article: 'There is no vested right in an applicant to obtain the photocopies of answer sheets of another candidate'.

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Exam Marks Not Private Under RTI Act, 2005, Limits Answer Sheet Access →
Q103.

On which date did the Allahabad High Court bench of Justices Ajit Kumar and Swarupama Chaturvedi pass the judgment in the RTI case concerning exam marks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 12, 2026
  • B.February 26, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 15, 2026
  • D.December 1, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the judgment was passed on February 26, 2026. March 12, 2026, is the article's publication date, making it a close distractor.

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Exam Marks Not Private Under RTI Act, 2005, Limits Answer Sheet Access →
Q104.

What was the primary reason cited by the Allahabad High Court for not allowing photocopies of other candidates' answer sheets under RTI?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the administrative burden on the examination authority.
  • B.To protect the names and signatures of the examiners.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To prevent the leakage of question papers for future exams.
  • D.To uphold the copyright of the examination content.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'On the question of photocopies of the answer sheets, it may involve checking of answer sheets, signatures of examiners, etc. and therefore, it may not be appropriate to disclose the names, signatures of the examiners.'

Source: Allahabad HC Rules Exam Marks Not Private Under RTI Act, 2005, Limits Answer Sheet Access →
Q105.

Which High Court delivered the ruling on the reinstatement of the suspended DSP?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Punjab and Haryana High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Chandigarh High Court
  • D.Himachal Pradesh High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Punjab and Haryana High Court, with Justice Jagmohan Bansal hearing the plea, ordered the reinstatement. This is a direct factual extraction from the news.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Reinstates Suspended DSP: Landmark Ruling on 'Indefinite Suspension' Violating Service Rules →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The DSP was suspended in connection with a case under the Prevention of Corruption Act and the NDPS Act.

2. The High Court ordered his reinstatement because he was declared an approver and the trial against him had concluded.

3. The court directed the police authority to reinstate the petitioner within four weeks from the date of its order.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the reinstatement was ordered due to indefinite suspension, not because the trial concluded (the trial is still pending). Statement 3 is incorrect; the deadline was 'within two weeks', not four weeks.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Reinstates Suspended DSP: Landmark Ruling on 'Indefinite Suspension' Violating Service Rules →
Q107.

For how long was the DSP kept under suspension before the High Court's intervention, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 1 year
  • B.Over 2 years
  • C.Over 3 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 4 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the petitioner was under suspension for 'more than three years' and the suspension order was dated July 22, 2022. The court order in February 2026 confirms this duration.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Reinstates Suspended DSP: Landmark Ruling on 'Indefinite Suspension' Violating Service Rules →
Q108.

What was the primary legal principle invoked by the Punjab and Haryana High Court to order the reinstatement?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of double jeopardy.
  • B.The principle that suspension cannot be indefinite without a concluded inquiry.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The principle of autrefois acquit.
  • D.The principle of sovereign immunity.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's order explicitly states, 'It is settled law that no employee can be kept under suspension for an indefinite period.' It criticized the authority for not appointing an inquiry officer and concluding proceedings, which is the core of the ruling.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Reinstates Suspended DSP: Landmark Ruling on 'Indefinite Suspension' Violating Service Rules →
Q109.

The Strait of Hormuz separates which of the following countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iran and Saudi Arabia
  • B.Iran and the United Arab Emirates✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Iraq and Kuwait
  • D.Qatar and Bahrain
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the strait connects Iran to the north from Oman and UAE to the south. While Oman is also to the south, the UAE is explicitly mentioned and is a primary littoral state alongside Iran.

Source: Iran Closes Strait of Hormuz, Choking 20% of Global Oil Supply (20 Million Barrels/Day) Amid US-Israel Conflict →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz:

1. It is the world's busiest oil transit route, carrying over 23 million barrels of oil per day.

2. At its narrowest point, it is approximately 33 kilometres wide.

3. Major oil producers like Saudi Arabia and the UAE have pipelines that can completely bypass it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the Strait of Hormuz carries 20 million barrels per day, while the Strait of Malacca carries over 23 million. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions bypass pipelines account for 'only a fraction' of the capacity, not a complete bypass.

Source: Iran Closes Strait of Hormuz, Choking 20% of Global Oil Supply (20 Million Barrels/Day) Amid US-Israel Conflict →
Q111.

According to the article, what percentage of global oil and gas supply typically passes through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.About one-tenth (10%)
  • B.About one-fifth (20%)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About one-third (33%)
  • D.About one-half (50%)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'caters to a fifth of global oil and gas' and that 'the world’s 20% of crude and petroleum products pass' through it.

Source: Iran Closes Strait of Hormuz, Choking 20% of Global Oil Supply (20 Million Barrels/Day) Amid US-Israel Conflict →
Q112.

What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz as highlighted in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It is a major route for global container shipping and manufactured goods.
  • B.It serves as a critical chokepoint for a large share of the world's seaborne oil and LNG exports.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is the main naval passage for military vessels operating in the Arabian Sea.
  • D.It is an important fishing ground and source of livelihood for coastal communities.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core focus is on the strait's role in transporting 20 million barrels of oil daily (20% of global supply) and LNG, making it a vital energy chokepoint. Its closure directly impacts global oil markets, which is the central theme.

Source: Iran Closes Strait of Hormuz, Choking 20% of Global Oil Supply (20 Million Barrels/Day) Amid US-Israel Conflict →
Q113.

The concept of nationalism as an 'invented tradition' is primarily associated with which historian?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Benedict Anderson
  • B.Ernest Gellner
  • C.Eric Hobsbawm✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Partha Chatterjee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, British historian Eric Hobsbawm, in his Introduction to 'The Invention of Tradition' (1983), used the term 'invented tradition' to describe practices like national anthems and flags that inculcate values by implying continuity with the past.

Source: Nationalism as 'Invented Tradition': Gellner, Hobsbawm, Chatterjee, Tagore, and Hyder's Perspectives on Modernity and Identity →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding perspectives on nationalism discussed in the article:

1. Ernest Gellner considered nationalism a necessity for modern industrial society.

2. Partha Chatterjee argued that Indian nationalism was an entirely original discourse with no Western influence.

3. Benedict Anderson defined the nation as an 'imagined community'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Gellner's view, mentioned in the article, links nationalism to the needs of a modern industrial society. Statement 2 is incorrect; Chatterjee termed it a 'derivative discourse' that used Western ideas of rationality to fight colonialism. Statement 3 is correct, as Anderson's famous concept is cited in the article.

Source: Nationalism as 'Invented Tradition': Gellner, Hobsbawm, Chatterjee, Tagore, and Hyder's Perspectives on Modernity and Identity →
Q115.

According to the article, in which year did Eric Hobsbawm publish 'The Invention of Tradition', which introduced the concept of 'invented tradition'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1975
  • B.1983✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1991
  • D.1986
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Eric Hobsbawm introduced the term 'invented tradition' in his Introduction to 'The Invention of Tradition', published in 1983.

Source: Nationalism as 'Invented Tradition': Gellner, Hobsbawm, Chatterjee, Tagore, and Hyder's Perspectives on Modernity and Identity →
Q116.

In Rabindranath Tagore's novel 'Home and the World', what distinguishes Nikhilesh's view of nationalism from Sandip's?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Nikhilesh supports violent revolution, while Sandip advocates non-violence.
  • B.Nikhilesh has an inclusive, Gandhian view, while Sandip's is aggressive and contemptuous of the masses.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nikhilesh rejects Swadeshi entirely, while Sandip is its sole proponent.
  • D.Nikhilesh believes in Western imperialism, while Sandip fights for complete cultural isolation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that Sandip's nationalism is inspired by the West and characterized by provocative rhetoric and contempt for the masses. In contrast, Nikhilesh is a Gandhi-like figure with a more inclusive view, considerate of ordinary people affected by boycotts and devoted to communal harmony.

Source: Nationalism as 'Invented Tradition': Gellner, Hobsbawm, Chatterjee, Tagore, and Hyder's Perspectives on Modernity and Identity →
Q117.

The International Energy Agency (IEA), which coordinated the release of strategic oil reserves, is headquartered in which city?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Washington D.C.
  • B.Paris✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Geneva
  • D.London
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based organization. This is a key static fact about the IEA's location.

Source: IEA's 400 Mn Barrel Reserve Release Fails to Calm Markets Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Halting 20 Mn BPD Flow →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about oil prices and strategic reserves:

1. The International Energy Agency's member countries are required to maintain emergency oil reserves equivalent to at least 90 days of their net imports.

2. The record release of 400 million barrels of oil from strategic reserves was sufficient to replace the normal daily flow through the Strait of Hormuz for over two months.

3. The maximum rate at which the United States can draw oil from its strategic petroleum reserves is 4.4 million barrels per day.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of the IEA's 90-day reserve mandate. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 400 million barrels equal about 20 days of the Strait's normal flow (20 million bpd), not over two months. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly stated regarding the US drawdown limit. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: IEA's 400 Mn Barrel Reserve Release Fails to Calm Markets Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Halting 20 Mn BPD Flow →
Q119.

According to the article, what was the approximate daily volume of oil that passed through the Strait of Hormuz before the conflict began?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 million barrels
  • B.15 million barrels
  • C.More than 20 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • D.30 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Before the war, the strait carried more than 20 million barrels a day, roughly one-fifth of the world's supply.' The other options are incorrect distractors.

Source: IEA's 400 Mn Barrel Reserve Release Fails to Calm Markets Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Halting 20 Mn BPD Flow →
Q120.

What is the primary reason, as discussed in the article, for the failure of the strategic reserve release to lower oil prices significantly?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.The released oil was of poor quality and unsuitable for most refineries.
  • B.The volume released was insufficient to replace the continuous supply disrupted by the closure of a key maritime chokepoint.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Member countries of the IEA failed to agree on a coordinated release schedule.
  • D.Global demand for oil fell simultaneously, negating the impact of the release.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core analysis in the article emphasizes that the 400 million barrel release only equals about 20 days of the normal flow through the blocked Strait of Hormuz. It highlights that 'no amount of storage can replace 20 million barrels per day of continuous flow,' pointing to the fundamental limitation of stockpiles versus ongoing supply.

Source: IEA's 400 Mn Barrel Reserve Release Fails to Calm Markets Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Halting 20 Mn BPD Flow →
Q121.

Which of the following is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council with veto power, as mentioned in the context of the resolution vote?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Germany
  • C.China✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Japan
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China and Russia, both permanent members (P5) of the UNSC with veto power, abstained from voting on the resolution. India is a non-permanent member, while Germany and Japan are not permanent members.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution Condemning Iran Attacks on GCC Countries and Jordan →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the UNSC resolution mentioned in the news:

1. The resolution was adopted with 13 votes in favor and none against.

2. The resolution specifically condemned Iran's threats to close the Strait of Malacca.

3. India was among the 135 countries that co-sponsored the Bahrain-led resolution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'adopted... with 13 votes in favour, none against'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the resolution condemned threats regarding the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca. Statement 3 is correct: 'India cosponsored the Bahrain-led resolution along with 135 countries'.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution Condemning Iran Attacks on GCC Countries and Jordan →
Q123.

How many countries co-sponsored the UNSC resolution condemning Iran's attacks, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.125 countries
  • B.135 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.150 countries
  • D.193 countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'India cosponsored the Bahrain-led resolution along with 135 countries'. The other options are distractors: 193 is the total number of UN member states, while 125 and 150 are close but incorrect figures.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution Condemning Iran Attacks on GCC Countries and Jordan →
Q124.

What was a primary objective of the UNSC resolution as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To impose economic sanctions on Iran.
  • B.To demand the immediate cessation of all attacks by Iran against GCC countries and Jordan.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To authorize the use of military force by a coalition of nations.
  • D.To refer the matter to the International Court of Justice.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the resolution 'demanded the immediate cessation of all attacks by Tehran'. While the resolution condemns threats and supports navigational rights, its core demand is for Iran to stop its attacks, not to impose sanctions, authorize force, or refer to the ICJ.

Source: India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution Condemning Iran Attacks on GCC Countries and Jordan →
Q125.

Which ministry/department is responsible for releasing the official Consumer Price Index (CPI) data in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reserve Bank of India
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for compiling and releasing macroeconomic data like the CPI, as mentioned in the article. The RBI uses this data for policy formulation.

Source: Headline CPI Inflation Rises to 3.21% in Feb 2026 Under New Series (2024 Base), Core Inflation Stable at 3.4% →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI) data for February 2026 as mentioned in the article:

1. The headline CPI inflation rose to 3.21%, which is above the Reserve Bank of India's medium-term target.

2. The inflation for 'electricity, gas and other fuels' category showed a significant increase due to the geopolitical conflict in March.

3. The data for February is the second inflation print under the updated CPI series which has a base year of 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states CPI inflation at 3.21% remains under the RBI's medium-term target of 4%. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article explicitly says the February data showed 'no impact of the war' on domestic fuel affordability, with inflation for that category at a minimal 0.14%. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Source: Headline CPI Inflation Rises to 3.21% in Feb 2026 Under New Series (2024 Base), Core Inflation Stable at 3.4% →
Q127.

According to the article, what was the year-on-year inflation rate for silver jewellery in February 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.48%
  • B.100%
  • C.161%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.200%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that the rise in inflation in February was driven by the continued rise in prices of silver jewellery (161%). Gold inflation was 48%, which is a close distractor.

Source: Headline CPI Inflation Rises to 3.21% in Feb 2026 Under New Series (2024 Base), Core Inflation Stable at 3.4% →
Q128.

As per the analysis in the article, what is the primary reason economists expect the March 2026 inflation data to be different from February's?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A significant change in the base year calculation
  • B.The full effect of increased excise duties on tobacco
  • C.The initial impact of the US-Israel-Iran conflict on global fuel prices✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A sharp decline in food prices due to seasonal factors
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights that the February data does not reflect the impact of the geopolitical conflict that escalated in March, which caused global crude oil prices to surge. Economists quoted expect March inflation to reflect this impact through higher fuel prices, making option C correct.

Source: Headline CPI Inflation Rises to 3.21% in Feb 2026 Under New Series (2024 Base), Core Inflation Stable at 3.4% →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 12 March 2026?▼

This page contains 128 current affairs questions from 12 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 12 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

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  23. Q23. As cited by the Union government in the Supreme Court, what wa…
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  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
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  28. Q28. was the primary constitutional rationale given by the Supreme …
  29. Q29. As per the news, which constitutional article has been interpr…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  31. Q31. According to the article, approximately what fraction of globa…
  32. Q32. was a primary immediate consequence for India's energy imports…
  33. Q33. institution is responsible for India's medium-term inflation t…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the potential impa…
  35. Q35. According to the analysis by QuantEco Research cited in the ar…
  36. Q36. is the primary reason, as highlighted in the article, that a g…
  37. Q37. US government body is responsible for conducting the Section 3…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the US Section 301…
  39. Q39. According to the news, what was the value of India's trade sur…
  40. Q40. is the primary rationale cited by the USTR for launching the S…
  41. Q41. ministry advised State Pollution Control Boards to permit the …
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the measures taken…
  43. Q43. According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consu…
  44. Q44. is the primary reason cited by the Petroleum Minister for regu…
  45. Q45. of the following is NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Counc…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding UNSC Resolution 28…
  47. Q47. According to the news article, how many votes did the rival dr…
  48. Q48. was a primary objective of UNSC Resolution 2817, as per the ne…
  49. Q49. Under which articles of the Indian Constitution can a Public I…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  51. Q51. In which year was the environmental PIL filed by M C Mehta, wh…
  52. Q52. was the primary judicial rationale cited by the Supreme Court …
  53. Q53. As per the draft guidelines discussed in the news, which gover…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for …
  55. Q55. According to the news, within how many hours must the secondar…
  56. Q56. is identified as a primary practical hurdle in implementing th…
  57. Q57. Union Ministry released the draft guidelines for the procedure…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for …
  59. Q59. As per the 2024 draft guidelines, within how many hours must t…
  60. Q60. is a primary function of a 'living will' or advance medical di…
  61. Q61. government body is primarily responsible for conducting the Pe…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding unemployment data …
  63. Q63. According to the article, what was the youth unemployment rate…
  64. Q64. is the primary criticism leveled against the Economic Survey i…
  65. Q65. The article mentions a specific principle of the UN Charter th…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
  67. Q67. According to the article, approximately how many interventions…
  68. Q68. is a key strategic reason cited in the article for India's vit…
  69. Q69. US government department is centrally involved in the conflict…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the standoff betwe…
  71. Q71. According to the article, the AI models developed by Anthropic…
  72. Q72. is the primary significance of the US Department of War's acti…
  73. Q73. government body recently approved changes to the Foreign Direc…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the recent changes…
  75. Q75. According to the article, what was the value of India's import…
  76. Q76. is a primary economic rationale, as per the article, for India…
  77. Q77. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCE…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  79. Q79. For which academic session did the NCERT affidavit state the r…
  80. Q80. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for directin…
  81. Q81. government organization is primarily responsible for conductin…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the economic perfo…
  83. Q83. According to the article, what was Bihar's rural monthly per c…
  84. Q84. is the primary implication highlighted by the comparison of Bi…
  85. Q85. Under which Union Ministry does the Vibrant Villages Programme…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Chinese Xiaoka…
  87. Q87. According to the news, what percentage of the 628 Xiaokang vil…
  88. Q88. is the primary strategic concern for India regarding China's c…
  89. Q89. US government body formally initiated the Section 301 investig…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the US Section 301…
  91. Q91. According to the news, what was the value of India's bilateral…
  92. Q92. is the primary rationale cited by the US for launching the Sec…
  93. Q93. intergovernmental organization coordinated the release of 400 …
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the recent develop…
  95. Q95. According to the news article, what was the contribution of th…
  96. Q96. is the primary strategic objective of the International Energy…
  97. Q97. US government office is responsible for launching the Section …
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the US trade probe…
  99. Q99. According to the article, how many major trading partners are …
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  101. Q101. statutory body's order was partially quashed by the Allahabad …
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  103. Q103. On which date did the Allahabad High Court bench of Justices A…
  104. Q104. was the primary reason cited by the Allahabad High Court for n…
  105. Q105. High Court delivered the ruling on the reinstatement of the su…
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  107. Q107. For how long was the DSP kept under suspension before the High…
  108. Q108. was the primary legal principle invoked by the Punjab and Hary…
  109. Q109. The Strait of Hormuz separates which of the following countries?
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
  111. Q111. According to the article, what percentage of global oil and ga…
  112. Q112. is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz …
  113. Q113. The concept of nationalism as an 'invented tradition' is prima…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding perspectives on na…
  115. Q115. According to the article, in which year did Eric Hobsbawm publ…
  116. Q116. In Rabindranath Tagore's novel 'Home and the World', what dist…
  117. Q117. The International Energy Agency (IEA), which coordinated the r…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news about oil…
  119. Q119. According to the article, what was the approximate daily volum…
  120. Q120. is the primary reason, as discussed in the article, for the fa…
  121. Q121. of the following is a permanent member of the United Nations S…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the UNSC resolutio…
  123. Q123. many countries co-sponsored the UNSC resolution condemning Ira…
  124. Q124. was a primary objective of the UNSC resolution as described in…
  125. Q125. ministry/department is responsible for releasing the official …
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price…
  127. Q127. According to the article, what was the year-on-year inflation …
  128. Q128. As per the analysis in the article, what is the primary reason…