11 March 2026, Questions & Answers
108 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 108 current affairs questions with answers from 11 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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108 QsThe Supreme Court's directive to admit the patient to its palliative care department was issued to which institution?
- A.Safdarjung Hospital, Delhi
- B.All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research (PGIMER), Chandigarh
- D.Christian Medical College (CMC), Vellore
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Explanation
As per the article, the Supreme Court asked 'AIIMS Delhi' to admit the patient to its palliative care department for supervised withdrawal of treatment. This is a specific institution mentioned in the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on passive euthanasia:
1. The Court applied the legal framework established in the 2018 'Common Cause' judgment for the first time.
2. Withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment is permitted only after assessment and certification by a single medical board.
3. The Court waived the usual 30-day consideration period as all stakeholders, including the medical boards and the patient's family, were unanimous.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the 'first application' of the passive euthanasia framework from the Common Cause case. Statement 2 is incorrect because the framework requires assessment by two boards: a Primary and a Secondary Medical Board. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the bench waived the 30-day period noting that 'all the stakeholders were unanimous'.
For how many years had Harish Rana been in a persistent vegetative state before the Supreme Court's order?
- A.Over 10 years
- B.Over 13 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 15 years
- D.Over 8 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Harish Rana 'has been in a persistent vegetative state for over 13 years after suffering head injuries from a fall in 2013.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary constitutional basis for permitting passive euthanasia (withdrawal of life support) in India, as highlighted in the news?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression)
- C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
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Explanation
The article explains that the distinction for passive euthanasia 'flows from Article 21, which the Supreme Court has interpreted the "right to life" to include the right to live with dignity.' This forms the legal bedrock for allowing the withdrawal of futile medical intervention.
The Supreme Court judgment dealt with the creamy layer criteria defined in an Office Memorandum (OM). Which government department typically issues such OMs on matters related to civil services and reservations?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the nodal agency for policies related to civil services, recruitment, and reservation guidelines, including the issuance of relevant Office Memorandums.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the OBC creamy layer:
1. The Court ruled that the creamy layer status must consider the parent's category of post (Group A, B, C, D) and not just income.
2. The judgment upheld the validity of the clarificatory letter dated October 14, 2004, which included salary income for determining the creamy layer.
3. The Court stated that treating children of PSU/private employees differently from government employees' children for reservation would amount to hostile discrimination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC emphasized considering the 'status' and 'category of post'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court dismissed the Centre's appeals and did not uphold the 2004 letter; it found the letter created discrimination. Statement 3 is correct as the Court explicitly called this differential treatment 'hostile discrimination'.
As per the article, what was the date of the Office Memorandum (OM) issued by the Government of India that specified criteria for identifying the creamy layer among OBCs?
- A.October 14, 2004
- B.September 8, 1993✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 11, 2026
- D.August 15, 1992
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the dispute centered around the 'September 8, 1993 Office Memorandum (OM) issued by the Government of India'. October 14, 2004, is the date of the subsequent clarificatory letter, and March 11, 2026, is the news publication date.
What is the primary constitutional principle the Supreme Court invoked to strike down the income-only test for the OBC creamy layer?
- A.The principle of Federalism under Article 246
- B.The doctrine of Basic Structure of the Constitution
- C.The equality doctrine under Articles 14, 15, and 16✓ Correct Answer
- D.The directive principle for welfare state under Article 38
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Explanation
The judgment explicitly states that creating artificial distinctions between equals 'would amount to equals being treated unequally, thereby attracting the rigour of the equality doctrine under Articles 14, 15 and 16'. This is the core constitutional principle applied to prevent hostile discrimination.
Which constitutional articles, cited by the Supreme Court bench, form the primary basis for directing the Centre to frame a no-fault compensation policy for vaccine injuries?
- A.Article 21 and Article 32
- B.Article 14 and Article 19
- C.Article 41 and Article 47✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 38 and Article 39
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Explanation
The judgment explicitly references Article 41 (public assistance in cases of sickness) and Article 47 (duty to improve public health) from the Directive Principles of State Policy to underline the state's constitutional obligation. Articles 21 and 32 relate to life/personal liberty and remedies for enforcing rights, which were not the core cited basis here.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on COVID-19 vaccine injury compensation:
1. The Court directed the continuation of AEFI surveillance and public disclosure of data as per its May 2022 order in the Jacob Puliyel case.
2. The judgment is based on the premise that the regulatory approval process for COVID-19 vaccines was unlawful and deficient.
3. The Court rejected the plea for a separate court-appointed expert body, citing existing mechanisms for scientific assessment of AEFI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Court directed that the existing AEFI monitoring mechanism continue and data be placed in the public domain, referencing its May 2, 2022 order. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court explicitly stated it does NOT proceed on the premise that the regulatory approval process was unlawful or deficient. Statement 3 is correct: The bench rejected the prayer for a separate court-appointed expert body in view of existing scientific assessment mechanisms.
According to the article, how many cases of alleged vaccine-related deaths were raised in the various petitions before the Supreme Court?
- A.Five cases
- B.Seven cases
- C.Nine cases✓ Correct Answer
- D.Twelve cases
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Overall, nine cases of alleged vaccine-related deaths were raised in the various petitions before the SC.' The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's direction for a 'no-fault' compensation policy in the context of vaccine injuries?
- A.It shifts the burden of proving negligence from the affected individual to the vaccine manufacturer.
- B.It allows compensation without the claimant needing to prove fault or negligence of the state or manufacturer.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates automatic financial payment for any medical event occurring after vaccination, regardless of cause.
- D.It makes the state liable for criminal negligence in administering the vaccination program.
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Explanation
The core of a 'no-fault' compensation policy, as directed by the SC, is to provide relief without requiring affected families to undergo the onerous legal burden of proving negligence or liability (fault). This is distinct from automatically paying for any event (option C) or assigning criminal liability (option D).
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme Court held the 'Right to Die with Dignity' to be a fundamental right?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
In the landmark Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) case, a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the 'Right to Die with Dignity' is an integral part of the 'Right to Life' under Article 21.
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of passive euthanasia law in India:
1. The Supreme Court first recognized passive euthanasia as legally permissible in the Aruna Shanbaug case (2011).
2. In the Common Cause case (2018), the Court declared the 'Right to Die with Dignity' a fundamental right under Article 21 and laid down guidelines for 'Living Will'.
3. The Supreme Court's 2023 modifications to the guidelines removed the need for approval from any medical board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Aruna Shanbaug case (2011) was the first judicial recognition of passive euthanasia. Statement 2 is correct: The Common Cause case (2018) constitutionally anchored the right and introduced the 'Living Will' framework. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 modifications simplified the process by introducing timelines and limiting the magistrate's role, but they did not remove the requirement for approval from Primary and Secondary Medical Boards.
Since which year has Harish Rana, the subject of the Supreme Court's 2026 passive euthanasia ruling, been in a Persistent Vegetative State (PVS)?
- A.2009
- B.2011
- C.2013✓ Correct Answer
- D.2015
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Explanation
According to the article, Harish Rana suffered severe head injuries due to a fall in Chandigarh in August 2013 and has been in a Persistent Vegetative State since then.
What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's clarification regarding the constitution of Secondary Medical Boards in its recent judgment on passive euthanasia?
- A.To transfer the decision-making power entirely to the judiciary.
- B.To ensure the process is primarily a medical one, reducing the need for families to approach courts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate that only the Chief Medical Officer of a state can approve passive euthanasia.
- D.To eliminate the role of the Primary Medical Board in the certification process.
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Explanation
As explained by advocate Rashmi Nandakumar in the article, the Court clarified that District CMOs must empanel doctors so that Secondary Medical Boards can be constituted promptly. This aims to make the established medical-board process workable, ensuring that families are not compelled to seek judicial intervention in every case, unless there is a disagreement between medical boards.
As per the Constitution of India, the removal process of the Chief Election Commissioner is the same as that of which other constitutional functionary?
- A.The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
- B.A Judge of the Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
- D.The Attorney General of India
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Explanation
Article 324(5) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This high threshold ensures the independence of the Election Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Essential Commodities Act was invoked to divert natural gas supplies, giving 100% priority to domestic PNG, CNG, and LPG production.
2. The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway between Iran and Oman that connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
3. The government has set a 60-day deadline for processing investment proposals from land-border sharing countries in all sectors, including semiconductors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the MoPNG order mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is the correct geographical description of the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states that the 60-day deadline and easing of curbs apply to specified sectors like capital goods, while restrictions are retained for strategic sectors like semiconductors.
What is the additional allocation approved by the Union Cabinet for the Jal Jeevan Mission, as per the news?
- A.₹1.01 lakh crore
- B.₹1.51 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2.08 lakh crore
- D.₹3.59 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Cabinet approved an additional allocation of Rs 1.51 lakh crore for the Jal Jeevan Mission till 2028. ₹2.08 lakh crore was the earlier allocation in 2019, and ₹3.59 lakh crore is the total central outlay including the new allocation.
What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for advocating a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in the context of the recent plea heard?
- A.To simplify the legal system and reduce the number of laws.
- B.To ensure equality in inheritance laws and avoid creating a legal void.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote national integration by having a single identity law.
- D.To implement the recommendations of the 22nd Law Commission.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court, while hearing a plea on discriminatory Muslim personal law provisions, stated that a UCC is the 'most effective answer' to usher in equality in inheritance laws. The Court added that striking down personal law provisions would create an 'unnecessary void', making it prudent to defer to the legislature to implement Article 44.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme Court derived the 'right to die with dignity'?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
The Supreme Court, in its judgments on euthanasia including the 2018 landmark ruling, has interpreted the 'Right to Life and Personal Liberty' under Article 21 to include the right to die with dignity under specific, safeguarded circumstances.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's verdict in the Harish Rana case:
1. The bench permitted the withdrawal of life support, citing the family's plea as an act of surrender.
2. The judgment is based on the precedent set by a 2018 Supreme Court ruling by a five-judge Constitution Bench.
3. The court emphasized that the decision was about 'choosing death' for the patient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated the family's decision was NOT an 'act of surrender' but one of 'profound compassion and courage'. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the plea cited the 2018 five-judge bench ruling. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court clearly said "This decision is not about choosing death" but about not artificially prolonging life.
For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state before the Supreme Court delivered its verdict in 2026?
- A.10 years
- B.11 years
- C.12 years
- D.13 years✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that Harish Rana suffered severe head injuries in August 2013 and had been in a vegetative state for the last 13 years at the time of the Supreme Court hearing in 2026.
What is the core legal distinction highlighted by the Supreme Court in permitting passive euthanasia in this case?
- A.It is about actively administering treatment to end suffering.
- B.It is about the state's duty to preserve life at all costs.
- C.It is about not artificially prolonging life when treatment offers no meaningful improvement.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is about allowing families to make medical decisions without judicial oversight.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's reasoning, as quoted in the article, clarifies that the decision is "one of not artificially prolonging life. It is the decision to withdraw life-sustaining treatment when that treatment no longer heals, restores or meaningfully improves life." This is the defining principle of passive euthanasia as opposed to active intervention.
The IndiaAI Mission is implemented by an independent business division under which Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Science and Technology
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Education
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Explanation
As per the article, the IndiaAI Mission is implemented by 'IndiaAI', an independent business division under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry handles policies related to IT, electronics, and internet governance.
Consider the following statements regarding the IndiaAI Mission:
1. It has an outlay of ₹10,372 crore and was launched in March 2024.
2. Its 'Compute Pillar' provides high-end GPUs to startups and researchers at a subsidized rate of ₹100 per hour.
3. One of its pillars, 'IndiaAI FutureSkills', is designed to build AI-skilled professionals across educational levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the subsidized rate under the Compute Pillar is ₹65 per hour, not ₹100. Statement 3 is correct as 'IndiaAI FutureSkills' aims to build AI-skilled professionals from undergraduates to PhD students.
According to the article, what is the longer-term target for India's GPU computing capacity to stay competitive with global AI leaders?
- A.50,000 GPUs
- B.1 lakh GPUs
- C.1.5 lakh GPUs
- D.2 lakh GPUs✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states India's 'longer-term target of 2 lakh GPUs to stay competitive with the world’s AI leaders.' The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the context of the long-term target.
What is the primary strategic rationale for India's push to build 'sovereign AI' as discussed in the article?
- A.To become the world's largest exporter of AI software
- B.To ensure its governance, defense, and economic models remain under its own jurisdiction✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all foreign technology in government systems by 2030
- D.To win international awards for AI innovation
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Explanation
The article defines sovereign AI as the capacity to create AI using a nation's own resources, which would ensure that its 'governance, defence, and economic models are fully under its own jurisdiction.' This is presented as a strategic hedge against dependency and a global 'compute divide.' The other options are not the core rationale presented.
Which constitutional body tabled the audit report on the Namami Gange Programme in the Uttarakhand Assembly?
- A.National Green Tribunal (NGT)
- B.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- C.Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)✓ Correct Answer
- D.National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)
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Explanation
The article states the report was tabled by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). CAG is the supreme audit institution of India under Article 148. NGT is an environmental court, CPCB is a pollution control body, and NMCG is the implementing agency.
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG audit of Namami Gange in Uttarakhand:
1. The audit found a 32-fold increase in coliform bacteria in the Ganga between Devprayag and Haridwar.
2. All Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) inspected were compliant with the norms of the National Green Tribunal.
3. District Ganga Committees prepared river basin management plans for all districts through which the Ganga flows in Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the audit found most STPs did NOT comply with NGT norms. Statement 3 is incorrect as the audit found District Ganga Committees did NOT prepare any district-level river basin management plans.
According to the CAG audit, what percentage of the inspected Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) were discharging untreated sewage into the Ganga and its tributaries?
- A.12%
- B.21%
- C.32%✓ Correct Answer
- D.34%
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Explanation
The article states that during joint inspection of 37 STPs, 12 were discharging untreated sewage. This constitutes approximately 32% (12/37). 21% is a distractor referring to the number of symbolic STPs (21), and 34% refers to physical progress under natural landscape.
What was a major reason cited in the CAG audit for the increase in coliform bacteria in the river Ganga?
- A.Increased industrial effluents from factories
- B.Release of untreated sewage into the river✓ Correct Answer
- C.Agricultural runoff containing pesticides
- D.Reduced water flow due to hydropower projects
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "A major reason for coliform bacteria to increase in a river is the release of untreated sewage." While other options are potential sources of pollution, the audit specifically identifies untreated sewage discharge as the key factor for the coliform spike.
The strategic Siliguri Corridor, mentioned in the news, is located in which Indian state?
- A.Assam
- B.Sikkim
- C.West Bengal✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bihar
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Siliguri Corridor is a 'strategically vital strip of land in West Bengal'. This is a key geographical fact for mapping and security-related questions.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Doklam plateau, site of a 2017 standoff, is adjacent to the Chumbi Valley.
2. Over 70% of China's Xiaokang villages along the LAC are located opposite India's northern state of Ladakh.
3. The Siliguri Corridor is approximately 60 km wide and 22 km long.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; 72% of villages are opposite northeastern states, with 90% of those opposite Arunachal Pradesh, not Ladakh. Statement 3 is incorrect; the dimensions are 22 km wide and 60 km long, not the reverse.
According to Lt. Gen. Ghai, what percentage of China's Xiaokang villages along the LAC are located opposite the state of Arunachal Pradesh?
- A.72%
- B.80%
- C.90%✓ Correct Answer
- D.95%
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Explanation
The article specifies that 'almost 90% are opposite the state of Arunachal Pradesh.' The 72% figure refers to villages opposite all northeastern states. This distinction is a classic data-based trap.
What is the primary strategic purpose of India developing 'dual-use' infrastructure projects like the Se La tunnel and Bogibeel bridge in the Northeast, as per the article?
- A.To boost tourism and regional trade exclusively.
- B.To reduce logistics vulnerability and enhance military force induction capability.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate the resettlement of populations from the Siliguri Corridor.
- D.To provide alternative routes for river transport on the Brahmaputra.
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Explanation
Lt. Gen. Ghai explicitly states these are 'dual-use assets that reduce logistics vulnerability and enhance our ability to induct forces, fortifying the Siliguri Corridor.' While they aid development, their primary strategic objective in this context is security-related.
Which regulatory body issued the draft guidelines concerning the sale of third-party financial products mentioned in the news?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued draft amendment directions on February 11, 2026, for 'Advertising, Marketing and Sales of Financial Products and Services by Regulated Entities'. RBI is the primary regulator for commercial banks in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Public Sector Banks' earnings:
1. The total commission earned by PSBs from selling third-party products from FY21 to FY25 was approximately ₹30,000 crore.
2. State Bank of India accounted for more than half of the total commission income earned by all PSBs over the five-year period.
3. The Reserve Bank of India's draft guidelines to address mis-selling are proposed to come into effect from April 1, 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states PSBs earned 'almost Rs 30,000 crore' (the exact figure is ₹28,647 crore). Statement 2 is correct: SBI accounted for 59% of the commissions, which is more than half. Statement 3 is incorrect: The RBI's draft guidelines are proposed to come into effect from April 1, 2026, not 2025.
According to the data provided to the Rajya Sabha, what was the commission income earned by Public Sector Banks from third-party product sales in the financial year 2024-25 (FY25)?
- A.₹5,944 crore
- B.₹6,528 crore
- C.₹7,714 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹4,734 crore
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Explanation
The article provides the year-wise breakdown: ₹3,728 crore (FY21), ₹4,734 crore (FY22), ₹5,944 crore (FY23), ₹6,528 crore (FY24), and ₹7,714 crore in FY25. The other options are commission amounts from earlier years.
What is the primary objective of the RBI's draft guidelines on the sale of financial products, as mentioned in the news article?
- A.To increase the commission income of public sector banks
- B.To ensure bank policies do not create incentives for mis-selling✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate banks to sell more third-party insurance products
- D.To reduce the regulatory compliance burden on banks
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Explanation
The article quotes the Minister of State for Finance stating that the RBI's draft directions contain instructions to ensure that banks' policies and practices 'neither create incentives for mis-selling nor encourage employees to push the sale of products.' The other options contradict the article's context, which is about curbing, not promoting, such sales.
Maj-Gen Kaiser Rashid Chowdhury, who recently visited India, is the Director-General of which Bangladeshi agency?
- A.National Security Intelligence (NSI)
- B.Rapid Action Battalion (RAB)
- C.Directorate General of Forces Intelligence (DGFI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bangladesh Police Special Branch
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Major-General Kaiser Rashid Chowdhury is the Director-General of Bangladesh's top defense intelligence agency, the Directorate General of Forces Intelligence (DGFI).
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Bangladeshi intelligence chief's visit to Delhi occurred between March 1 and March 3, 2026.
2. He held meetings with the chiefs of India's Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Defence Intelligence Agency (DIA).
3. The visit aimed to discuss intelligence-sharing and security partnership, particularly concerning anti-India activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; he met Parag Jain (chief of RAW) and Lt Gen R S Raman (Director-General of Military Intelligence), not IB and DIA chiefs. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
In which Indian state were the two Bangladeshi nationals, accused in the Sharif Osman Bin Hadi murder case, recently arrested?
- A.Bihar
- B.Assam
- C.West Bengal✓ Correct Answer
- D.Tripura
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Explanation
The article states that the two accused, Rahul and Alamgir Hossain, were apprehended from Bongaon in West Bengal's North 24 Parganas district by the state's Special Task Force (STF).
What is the primary significance of the recent visit by Bangladesh's DGFI chief to India, as per the article?
- A.To negotiate a new bilateral trade agreement.
- B.To establish security cooperation and intelligence-sharing with the new Bangladeshi government.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To discuss the sharing of river water resources.
- D.To finalize a defense procurement deal.
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Explanation
The article's core focus is on the security dimension. It states that detailed discussions were held on intelligence-sharing and security partnership, as India is keen to partner with the new government to counter anti-India activities. This was the primary objective of the visit.
Which institution was directed by the Supreme Court to provide palliative care for the implementation of passive euthanasia in this case?
- A.Safdarjung Hospital, Delhi
- B.All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research (PGIMER), Chandigarh
- D.National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bengaluru
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Explanation
The Supreme Court specifically directed AIIMS, Delhi to admit the patient to its palliative care department to carry out the withdrawal of treatment. This is a factual point from the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent ruling on passive euthanasia:
1. It is the first time the Supreme Court has permitted passive euthanasia in India.
2. The court waived the standard 30-day reconsideration period as all stakeholders were unanimous.
3. The patient was on mechanical life support, which was the basis for the permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is a 'first-of-its-kind ruling'. Statement 2 is correct as the court waived the 30-day period. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Delhi High Court had earlier dismissed the plea precisely because the patient was NOT on mechanical life support, a fact mentioned in the article.
For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state before the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling?
- A.10 years
- B.11 years
- C.12 years
- D.13 years✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states the patient suffered injuries in August 2013 and the ruling was in March 2026, which amounts to approximately 13 years. This is a direct data point from the news.
What was a key procedural change made by the Supreme Court's five-judge bench in 2023 regarding passive euthanasia guidelines?
- A.It introduced the concept of 'living will' for the first time.
- B.It made the process more stringent by increasing judicial oversight.
- C.It made the process less stringent by introducing timelines and limiting judicial magistrate's role.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It completely abolished the need for approval from a medical board.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 2023 modification by a five-judge bench was to make the withdrawal process 'less stringent and more workable', with changes including 'introducing timelines for each board to make its decision and limiting the role of the judicial magistrate'. This tests understanding of the evolution of the legal framework.
The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) operates as an autonomous body under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
- C.Ministry of Culture
- D.Ministry of Human Resource Development
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Explanation
NCERT is an autonomous organization that assists and advises the Government of India, specifically the Ministry of Education (formerly the Ministry of Human Resource Development), on policies for school education.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on the NCERT textbook chapter:
1. The Court directed that the rewritten chapter must be published for the 2025-26 academic session.
2. The Court ordered the formation of a committee of domain experts which must include a former senior judge.
3. The Court clarified that its directions are intended to prevent any objective criticism of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court directed the chapter to be incorporated in the 2026-27 academic session, not 2025-26. Statement 2 is correct: The Court asked the Centre to constitute a committee preferably including one former senior judge. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Court specifically stated its directions are NOT intended to prevent objective and legitimate criticism.
For which class was the controversial NCERT textbook chapter on 'corruption in the judiciary' intended?
- A.Class 6
- B.Class 7
- C.Class 8✓ Correct Answer
- D.Class 9
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the chapter was in the NCERT Class 8 textbook. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.
What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for directing the blacklisting of the NCERT textbook experts?
- A.For including factual errors about historical events.
- B.For failing to get approval from the National Syllabus Committee.
- C.For associating them with content deemed inappropriate for school curriculum concerning the judiciary.✓ Correct Answer
- D.For violating copyright laws in textbook preparation.
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Explanation
The Court stated it saw 'no reason' why such persons should be associated with curriculum appraisal for children, indicating the content about the judiciary was the core issue. The procedural lapse of not placing it before the full NSTC was noted by NCERT but was not the Court's primary stated reason for the blacklisting order.
Which constitutional body, led by the Chief Election Commissioner, conducted the three-day poll review visit to West Bengal?
- A.The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
- B.The Finance Commission of India
- C.The Election Commission of India (ECI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'full bench of the EC' comprising CEC Gyanesh Kumar and Deputy Election Commissioners reviewing preparedness. The Election Commission is the constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for conducting elections.
Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission's announcements for West Bengal polls:
1. The EC has mandated 100% webcasting across all polling stations for the first time in the state.
2. The final electoral roll after the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) was published on February 28, in accordance with the Representation of the People Act.
3. All cases of voter eligibility adjudication from the SIR exercise have been completed before the announcement of the election dates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the CEC announced 100% webcasting. Statement 2 is correct as the final list was published on February 28 per the Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; the CEC stated that cases were referred to judicial officers and did not confirm completion before polls.
According to the news, approximately how many polling stations in West Bengal will have 100% webcasting during the upcoming Assembly elections?
- A.Approximately 50,000
- B.Approximately 65,000
- C.Approximately 80,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 1,00,000
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Explanation
The article states that West Bengal would see 100% webcasting across all its 'approximately 80,000 polling stations'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary constitutional basis cited by the Election Commission for referring pending voter eligibility cases to judicial officers for adjudication?
- A.Article 324, which deals with the powers of the Election Commission.
- B.Article 326, which provides for elections on the basis of adult suffrage.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law.
- D.Article 21, which protects life and personal liberty.
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Explanation
The CEC explicitly stated that judicial officers are 'taking decisions on the eligibility of electors in line with Article 326'. This article is the constitutional anchor for determining who is eligible to vote as an adult citizen.
The Supreme Court's approval for passive euthanasia in the case of Harish Rana is fundamentally linked to which constitutional article?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
The Supreme Court has interpreted the 'right to life and personal liberty' under Article 21 to include the 'right to die with dignity'. This forms the constitutional basis for permitting passive euthanasia in specific cases.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on passive euthanasia for Harish Rana:
1. The patient has been in a persistent vegetative state for over a decade.
2. The Supreme Court's decision is based on the principles established in the Gian Kaur case.
3. The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi, will provide palliative care focusing on hastening the patient's end.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the patient has been in a vegetative state for 13 years. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article references the Aruna Shanbaug case, not Gian Kaur. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly states palliative care at AIIMS will not hasten death but allow a natural end.
For how many years had Harish Rana been in a persistent vegetative state before the Supreme Court's decision on passive euthanasia?
- A.10 years
- B.11 years
- C.12 years
- D.13 years✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that Harish Rana, a Ghaziabad resident, has been in a persistent vegetative state for 13 years. All other options are close but incorrect distractors.
According to the former AIIMS expert quoted in the article, what is the core principle guiding the palliative care approach for Harish Rana?
- A.To actively hasten the end of life through medical intervention.
- B.To prolong life indefinitely using all available intensive care support.
- C.To allow a natural end by neither hastening nor unnecessarily prolonging death.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To conduct frequent medical investigations to monitor the underlying condition.
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Explanation
The article quotes Dr. Sushma Bhatnagar stating, "We will not prolong death and we will not hasten death." This is the defining principle of the palliative care approach in this context, distinct from active euthanasia or aggressive life support.
The Sudha Gopalakrishnan Brain Centre (SGBC), noted for its pioneering brain atlas project, is located at which premier Indian institute?
- A.Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru
- B.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras, Chennai✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bengaluru
- D.All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Sudha Gopalakrishnan Brain Centre (SGBC) is located at IIT Madras. While Kris Gopalakrishnan also supports a Centre for Brain Research at IISc Bengaluru, the SGBC project discussed is specifically at IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sudha Gopalakrishnan Brain Centre (SGBC) project:
1. It aims to create cellular-level brain maps across ages, ethnicities, and disease conditions.
2. The project is entirely funded by the Government of India's Department of Biotechnology.
3. Its first dataset released in 2024 contained three-dimensional digital reconstructions of five foetal brains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the plan is to create cellular-level brain maps 'of people across ages, population groups, ethnicities, and disease conditions.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies the project is 'a unique case of a philanthropy-led initiative,' with the bulk of funding from private sources (Pratiksha Trust) and only seed money from the government. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the centre released its first dataset of 'three-dimensional digital reconstructions of five foetal brains' in 2024.
According to the article, what approximate total amount has philanthropist Kris Gopalakrishnan invested into various ventures in Indian science, primarily brain research?
- A.Approximately Rs 30 crore
- B.Approximately Rs 200 crore
- C.Approximately Rs 500 crore
- D.Approximately Rs 800 crore✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Gopalakrishnan has so far pumped in about Rs 800 crore into various ventures in Indian science, primarily into brain research at IISc, IIT Madras and a few other institutions.' The Rs 30 crore figure refers to the government seed funding, not Gopalakrishnan's total investment.
What is described as a primary motivation for Kris Gopalakrishnan's significant investment in brain research, as per the article?
- A.To develop commercial medical devices for global markets
- B.To support his alma mater, IIT Madras, exclusively
- C.To advance computing models and address age-related neural disorders✓ Correct Answer
- D.To compete with existing brain mapping projects in the United States
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Explanation
The article quotes Gopalakrishnan's two reasons: 'Improved understanding of brains is what has led to recent breakthroughs in computing... I was convinced that newer and better models of computing would come up if we understood the brain even better. At the same time, I wanted to support something that was socially relevant... More and more people would be affected by age-related disorders such as dementia, Alzheimer's and Parkinson's.' This combines the goals of advancing computing and addressing social health issues.
According to the article, which agency is the nodal body for rehabilitating slums located on Delhi government land?
- A.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
- B.Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Land and Development Office (L&DO)
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
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Explanation
The article clearly states that for slums located on land owned by the Delhi government, the nodal agency is the Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board (DUSIB), which comes under the Urban Development Department. DDA is nodal for central government lands.
Consider the following statements regarding Delhi's slum rehabilitation policy:
1. The current policy prioritizes in-situ rehabilitation within a radius of 5 km.
2. Under the current policy, a slum dweller has to pay between Rs 1.12 lakh to Rs 1.41 lakh for a 25 sq m house.
3. The new policy revision proposes to extend the cut-off date for slum existence to January 1, 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the current policy prioritizes in-situ rehabilitation within a 5 km radius. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the payment range for a 25 sq m house. Statement 3 is incorrect because the proposed extension is for the cut-off date of the 'dwelling unit' (to Jan 1, 2025), not for the 'slum existence' (which remains pre-Jan 1, 2006).
According to the article, how many in-situ slum rehabilitation projects have been completed in Delhi over the past decade?
- A.One
- B.Two✓ Correct Answer
- C.Three
- D.Four
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that only two in-situ projects have been completed over the past decade: in Ashok Vihar and Kalkaji, with a total capacity of around 4,700 flats.
What is the primary objective of extending the cut-off date in Delhi's proposed slum rehabilitation policy revision?
- A.To reduce the financial burden on the state government
- B.To speed up the construction of new flats on city outskirts
- C.To make all current slum dwellers in Delhi eligible for permanent housing✓ Correct Answer
- D.To transfer the responsibility of rehabilitation entirely to central agencies
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Explanation
The article states the key revision is 'to make all slum dwellers in the national capital eligible for permanent housing' by extending the cut-off date. This expansion of eligibility is the core objective, as opposed to the other options which are either not mentioned or are incidental effects.
Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL), mentioned in the news, operates the world's largest single-location refining complex in which Indian state?
- A.Maharashtra
- B.Gujarat✓ Correct Answer
- C.Tamil Nadu
- D.Assam
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that RIL owns and operates the world's largest single-location refining complex in Gujarat's Jamnagar. This is a key static GK fact about India's industrial infrastructure.
Consider the following statements regarding the refinery project announced in Texas:
1. It is the first new oil refinery to be built in the United States in the last five decades.
2. The project involves a direct investment of $300 billion from Reliance Industries.
3. The refinery is specifically engineered to process American light shale oil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states this is the first new refinery in the US in five decades, with the last major one built in 1976. Statement 2 is incorrect: The $300 billion figure represents the estimated value of crude processed and products produced over 20 years, not a direct investment. Statement 3 is correct: The article quotes America First Refining stating the refinery is 'specifically engineered to process American light shale oil'.
According to the article, in which year was the last major refinery built in the United States before the newly announced Texas project?
- A.1965
- B.1976✓ Correct Answer
- C.1985
- D.1991
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The last major refinery built in the United States was the Marathon Refinery, built way back in 1976, when oil cost under $5 a barrel.' This is a precise data point for factual recall.
What is a primary strategic reason, as per the analyst cited in the article, for building this new domestic refinery in the US?
- A.To reduce the cost of gasoline for American consumers immediately.
- B.To decrease dependence on foreign refining capacity for products derived from US shale oil.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclusively export all refined products to Asian markets.
- D.To replace all existing refineries on the Gulf Coast.
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Explanation
The article quotes analyst Shanaka Perera stating that the Iran war proved America's dependence on foreign refining capacity for products from its own shale. Building domestic capacity is a structural defense against supply chain chokepoints like the Strait of Hormuz. The other options are not supported as primary reasons in the text.
The Public Interest Litigation (PIL) discussed in the news was filed in which court?
- A.High Court of Delhi
- B.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Green Tribunal
- D.Central Administrative Tribunal
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the PIL was heard by a Supreme Court bench comprising Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi. The Supreme Court is the apex court and has original jurisdiction to entertain PILs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Consider the following statements regarding the legal issue highlighted in the news:
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, currently defines an acid attack victim specifically as a person disfigured due to 'throwing' of acid.
2. Section 124 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) penalizes causing hurt only by 'throwing' acid and not by 'administering' it.
3. The petition argues that the different treatment of victims based on the method of acid attack violates Article 14 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which quotes the RPwD Act's schedule. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Section 124 of the BNS penalizes causing hurt by 'throwing acid on or by administering acid' equally. Statement 3 is correct, as the petition argues the exclusion is 'manifestly arbitrary' violating Article 14 (equality before law).
According to the data presented to the Supreme Court in January, which state had the highest number of pending acid attack trials?
- A.West Bengal
- B.Uttar Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Gujarat
- D.Maharashtra
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Explanation
The article provides data showing 198 cases pending in Uttar Pradesh, which is higher than West Bengal (160), Gujarat (114), Bihar (68), and Maharashtra (58). This is a direct factual recall question testing attention to numerical data presented in judicial proceedings.
What is the primary constitutional ground on which the PIL challenges the exclusion of forceful acid ingestion victims from the RPwD Act?
- A.Violation of the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
- B.Violation of the Right to Equality (Article 14) and Right to Life (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Violation of the Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
- D.Violation of the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
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Explanation
The article clearly states the petition argues the exclusion 'violates Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees equality before the law, and Article 21, which provides the right to life and dignity.' Article 14 prohibits arbitrary classification, and Article 21's expansive interpretation includes the right to live with dignity and access rehabilitation.
The recent Calcutta High Court ruling on GUI design registration pertains to which specific Indian legislation?
- A.The Copyright Act, 1957
- B.The Patents Act, 1970
- C.The Designs Act, 2000✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Information Technology Act, 2000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the court held a GUI can be considered for registration under the Designs Act. The case involved interpreting Sections 2(a) and 2(d) of this specific Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court's ruling on GUI registration:
1. The court held that GUIs are 'aesthetic decisions' producing a 'visual impression' and thus meet the criteria for design protection.
2. The court cited that over 95% of global jurisdictions, as per WIPO, already protect GUIs under their design laws.
3. The ruling emphasized that this alignment is necessary for conformity with the TRIPS Agreement and the Paris Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the court's observation quoted in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the WIPO survey found 92% protection, not 'over 95%'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the Hague Agreement and the Riyadh Design Law Treaty, not TRIPS or the Paris Convention.
According to the WIPO survey cited in the Calcutta High Court ruling, what percentage of jurisdictions globally protect Graphical User Interfaces (GUIs) under design laws?
- A.85%
- B.90%
- C.92%✓ Correct Answer
- D.95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'A recent survey conducted by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has found that 92 per cent of jurisdictions already protect GUIs under design laws.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What was the primary legal obstacle raised by the Controller of Designs against registering GUIs, which the Calcutta High Court overruled?
- A.GUIs are not original creations and are merely functional.
- B.GUIs lack permanence as they are only visible when a device is on and are not a 'finished article'.✓ Correct Answer
- C.GUIs are already protected under the Copyright Act, making design registration redundant.
- D.International treaties prohibit the design registration of software elements.
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Explanation
The article states the controller's office argued that GUIs lack 'permanence' because they are visible only when powered on and do not constitute a 'finished article' capable of being sold separately. The court found this contention legally untenable.
Which Ministry issued the Natural Gas (Supply Regulation) Order, 2026, invoking the Essential Commodities Act?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Power
- D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'Natural Gas (Supply Regulation) Order, 2026' was issued by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG). This ministry is the nodal body for regulation of petroleum and natural gas in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Essential Commodities Act (ECA):
1. It was originally enacted in the year 1955.
2. The Act was amended in 2020 to impose stock limits on all essential commodities under all circumstances.
3. The 2020 amendment delisted food items like cereals and edible oils, applying controls only under extraordinary circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The ECA was enacted in 1955. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2020 amendment did not impose blanket controls; it deregulated food items, allowing stock limits only under extraordinary circumstances like war or famine. Statement 3 is correct: As per the article, the 2020 amendment delisted food items including cereals, pulses, and edible oils.
According to the article, what percentage of India's Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) imports are sourced from West Asian countries?
- A.Over 30%
- B.Over 40%
- C.Over 50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 60%
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Explanation
The article states: 'Over 50% of these imports are sourced from West Asian countries like Qatar and the UAE.' This highlights India's significant energy import dependency on a geopolitically volatile region.
What was the primary immediate objective behind invoking the Essential Commodities Act to issue the Natural Gas Supply Order?
- A.To increase government revenue from the natural gas sector
- B.To promote the use of renewable energy sources
- C.To ensure supply of natural gas to priority sectors amidst a geopolitical supply disruption✓ Correct Answer
- D.To permanently nationalise the natural gas distribution network
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Explanation
The article makes it clear the order was issued because fuel shipments via the Strait of Hormuz were halted due to war, creating a supply crisis. The objective was to divert gas to 'priority sectors' like households (PNG), transport (CNG), and LPG production to mitigate the impact of this disruption.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for managing India's crude oil imports and strategic petroleum reserves?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) formulates policies and manages programs related to exploration, production, refining, and import of petroleum products, including the Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) program.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. India's oil imports from Russia increased to 1.5 million barrels per day in early March 2026 due to the Strait of Hormuz closure.
2. The United States issued a permanent waiver allowing India to purchase Russian crude from any source without restrictions.
3. Approximately 2.5–2.7 million barrels per day of India's crude imports transit the Strait of Hormuz, accounting for around half of its total oil imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the US issued a temporary 30-day waiver, not a permanent one, specifically for crude already on tankers. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was the approximate volume of Russian crude estimated to be 'on the water' (in transit) as of early March 2026?
- A.80 million barrels
- B.100 million barrels
- C.130 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
- D.150 million barrels
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Explanation
The article states: 'Around 130 million barrels of Russian crude was estimated to be on ships on water as of early March.' This stockpile was key for India to redirect supplies amidst the crisis.
What was the primary strategic reason cited for the United States issuing a temporary waiver to India for purchasing Russian oil?
- A.To strengthen the strategic partnership under the Quad framework
- B.To help India reduce its trade deficit with Russia
- C.To prevent a sustained spike in international oil prices before the US midterm elections✓ Correct Answer
- D.To support India's transition to renewable energy sources
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Explanation
The article explains that experts see the waiver 'as part of Donald Trump’s effort to prevent a further and sustained spike in international oil prices—and the consequent rise in domestic fuel prices in the US—given the midterm elections later this year.'
The Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW), which conducted the heat risk study, is best described as which type of organization?
- A.A statutory regulatory body under the Ministry of Environment
- B.A climate-focused think tank and research institution✓ Correct Answer
- C.An international intergovernmental panel on climate change
- D.A United Nations agency for sustainable development
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Explanation
The article explicitly refers to CEEW as a 'climate think tank'. Think tanks are research organizations that conduct analysis and advocacy on specific policy areas, unlike statutory regulators (e.g., CPCB), intergovernmental panels (e.g., IPCC), or UN agencies (e.g., UNDP).
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the CEEW heat risk study:
1. It assessed 734 districts in India using 35 indicators for the period 1982 to 2022.
2. It found that the increase in 'very hot days' was more widespread than the increase in 'very warm nights' across Indian districts.
3. The study projects that India needs 600 GW of non-fossil-fuel capacity by 2030 primarily to meet rising power demand from cooling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's first paragraph. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that 70% of districts saw an increase in warm nights, while only 28% saw an increase in hot days, making nights the more widespread trend. Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned by CEEW's Disha Agrawal regarding scaling up to 600 GW to meet demand reliably.
According to the CEEW study, what percentage of Indian districts, home to what percentage of the population, are at risk from extreme heat?
- A.57% of districts, home to 76% of the population✓ Correct Answer
- B.65% of districts, home to 70% of the population
- C.76% of districts, home to 57% of the population
- D.70% of districts, home to 65% of the population
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Explanation
Dr. Vishwas Chitale is quoted stating that extreme heat poses a risk to 57 per cent of Indian districts, which are home to 76 per cent of the population. The other options swap these percentages as distractors.
What is a key recommendation from the CEEW experts for improving Heat Action Plans (HAPs) in light of the study's findings?
- A.Focus exclusively on reducing daytime temperatures through urban forestry.
- B.Include granular measures for dealing with night-time heat and humidity stress.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mandate the installation of air conditioning in all public buildings.
- D.Relocate populations from high-risk districts to coastal regions.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that experts emphasize the importance of using granular data and including measures for night-time heat and humidity stress in HAPs. The other options are either extreme, not mentioned, or contradict the article's focus on localized, inclusive planning.
Which regulatory body granted the provisional aerodrome licence to the Noida International Airport?
- A.Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
- B.Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Airports Authority of India (AAI)
- D.Ministry of Civil Aviation
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Explanation
As per the article, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) granted the Noida International Airport a provisional aerodrome licence on March 6. DGCA is the statutory body responsible for regulating civil aviation and issuing such licences in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Noida International Airport (Jewar):
1. Its Phase 1 is being developed over approximately 3,300 acres of land.
2. Once the number of passengers crosses 1 crore annually, the process of constructing the second terminal will begin.
3. Upon full completion, the airport is planned to have five runways and handle up to 30 crore passengers annually.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that the process for constructing the second *runway* (not terminal) will begin after crossing 1 crore passengers. Statement 3 is correct as per the project's final planned scale.
According to the news, what is the planned annual passenger handling capacity of the Noida International Airport upon its full completion?
- A.1.20 crore passengers
- B.7 crore passengers
- C.15 crore passengers
- D.30 crore passengers✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that once the entire project is completed, the airport is expected to handle up to 300 million (30 crore) passengers annually. Option A is the Phase 1 capacity, and option B is the capacity with two runways.
What is a primary strategic objective of developing the Noida International Airport, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To replace the Indira Gandhi International Airport as India's primary aviation hub.
- B.To ease congestion at Delhi's Indira Gandhi International Airport and boost regional economic growth.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To serve exclusively as a cargo and logistics hub for the National Capital Region.
- D.To act as a dedicated airport for international flights, freeing up domestic traffic at other airports.
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Explanation
The article directly mentions that the project is expected to ease congestion at Delhi's IGI Airport and aims to bring economic and industrial growth to the region by boosting logistics, tourism, and trade. The other options are either incorrect or not the primary objective as stated.
Which government agency is mentioned in the article as developing the integrated Faridabad-Jewar Greenfield Expressway?
- A.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Railway Board
- C.Airports Authority of India (AAI)
- D.Metro Rail Corporation
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Faridabad-Jewar Greenfield Expressway is being developed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). NHAI is the nodal agency for national highway development in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved elevated road corridor connecting Jewar Airport:
1. It will connect to the Faridabad-Ballabgarh-Sohna spur of the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway.
2. The project is a 7.8-km long at-grade road with no intersections with other major corridors.
3. Once completed, it is expected to reduce travel time between Faridabad and the airport from nearly two hours to about 20 minutes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the project is an elevated corridor (not at-grade) and it will intersect key corridors like the Eastern Peripheral Expressway, Yamuna Expressway, and Dedicated Freight Corridor. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
What is the approved cost of the elevated road project connecting Jewar Airport to Faridabad, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹2,414 crore
- B.₹3,631 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹5,000 crore
- D.₹1,500 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states the Union Cabinet approved the project at a cost of ₹3,631 crore. ₹2,414 crore is the cost mentioned for the Faridabad-Jewar Greenfield Expressway approved earlier under Bharatmala, which is a different but integrated project.
What is a key expected impact of the improved Faridabad-Jewar airport connectivity, as highlighted by real estate analysts in the article?
- A.A shift of all industrial activity from Faridabad to Noida
- B.A decline in property prices in Greater Noida due to increased competition
- C.Property value growth of 35-50% in the coming years by improving regional accessibility✓ Correct Answer
- D.Immediate doubling of passenger traffic at the Delhi IGI airport
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Explanation
The article quotes industry observers stating that major infrastructure developments could support property value growth of 35-50% in the coming years. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Under which Act does Section 138, which deals with dishonour of cheques, fall?
- A.Indian Penal Code, 1860
- B.Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881✓ Correct Answer
- C.Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- D.Indian Contract Act, 1872
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Explanation
Section 138 is a specific provision under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which governs promissory notes, bills of exchange, and cheques. It is not part of the general criminal law in the IPC or CrPC, nor the contract law.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnataka High Court ruling on cheque bounce:
1. The court held that proceedings under Section 138 of the NI Act cannot continue if the dishonour was due to a police-ordered 'debit freeze' on the account.
2. The ruling stated that the presumption of debt under Sections 118 and 139 of the NI Act applies irrespective of the reason for the cheque's dishonour.
3. The judgment emphasized that for liability under Section 138, the accused must have control over the account when the cheque is presented for payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court's ruling created an exception where the presumption can be rebutted if dishonour is due to an external account freeze, not insufficiency of funds. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment specifically linked liability to the drawer's control over the account at the time of presentation.
On which date did Justice M Nagaprasanna of the Karnataka High Court deliver the ruling quashing the cheque bounce proceedings in the mentioned case?
- A.March 4, 2024
- B.March 9, 2024
- C.March 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.March 11, 2026
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Explanation
The article states the order was dated March 4. The publication date is March 11, 2026, and the cheque was issued in 2024, confirming the ruling year as 2026. March 9, 2024, is the cheque issue date, and March 11 is the article publication date.
What was the primary legal reasoning of the Karnataka High Court to quash the Section 138 proceedings in this case?
- A.The cheque was issued without any underlying debt or liability.
- B.The complainant had already been fully reimbursed through a RERA settlement.
- C.The dishonour was caused by an external 'account block' situation, not insufficiency of funds or the drawer's control.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The police investigation into the separate cheating case had found the accused innocent.
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Explanation
The core legal reasoning, as per the article, was that the cheque was dishonoured due to a 'debit freeze' ordered by police, which was an external factor beyond the drawer's control at the time of presentation. The court held this negated the criminal liability under Section 138. Reimbursement and RERA settlement were additional facts but not the primary legal ground for quashing.
Which government department issued the clarification on the amended FDI norms for land-border countries?
- A.Department of Economic Affairs
- B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Reserve Bank of India
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the clarification was provided by officials from the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which is responsible for FDI policy and promotion.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent amendments to FDI norms:
1. Entities registered in land-border countries (LBCs) like China no longer require any government approval for FDI in India.
2. The concept of 'beneficial ownership' is defined in line with anti-money laundering rules.
3. An expedited 60-day approval process is available for investments from LBCs in notified sectors like rare earth processing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because entities registered in LBCs still require prior government approval. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the definition is in line with money laundering rules. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a 60-day expeditious approval for select sectors.
According to the Cabinet decision, what is the maximum permissible beneficial ownership from a land-border country for an investment to be allowed under the automatic route?
- A.5%
- B.10%✓ Correct Answer
- C.25%
- D.49%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Investors with non-controlling LBC Beneficial Ownership of up to 10% shall be permitted under the automatic route.' The other options are common FDI caps used as distractors.
What is a primary objective of introducing the 'beneficial ownership' threshold in the amended FDI norms?
- A.To completely ban all investments from land-border sharing countries.
- B.To ease investment regulations for global funds with negligible Chinese shareholding.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer the approval authority from DPIIT to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- D.To increase the time taken for government approvals to 90 days.
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Explanation
The article explains that the amendment addresses concerns raised by funds like BlackRock and Carlyle, which were forced to seek government approval even with negligible Chinese shareholding. The new threshold aims to facilitate such investments while maintaining strategic guardrails.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 11 March 2026?▼
This page contains 108 current affairs questions from 11 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 11 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q13. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of p…
- Q15. Since which year has Harish Rana, the subject of the Supreme C…
- Q16. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's clarification …
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- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
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- Q20. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for advocati…
- Q21. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q23. For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state …
- Q24. is the core legal distinction highlighted by the Supreme Court…
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- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the IndiaAI Missio…
- Q27. According to the article, what is the longer-term target for I…
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- Q29. constitutional body tabled the audit report on the Namami Gang…
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- Q31. According to the CAG audit, what percentage of the inspected S…
- Q32. was a major reason cited in the CAG audit for the increase in …
- Q33. The strategic Siliguri Corridor, mentioned in the news, is loc…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q35. According to Lt. Gen. Ghai, what percentage of China's Xiaokan…
- Q36. is the primary strategic purpose of India developing 'dual-use…
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- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Public…
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- Q40. is the primary objective of the RBI's draft guidelines on the …
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- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
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- Q44. is the primary significance of the recent visit by Bangladesh'…
- Q45. institution was directed by the Supreme Court to provide palli…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q47. For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state …
- Q48. was a key procedural change made by the Supreme Court's five-j…
- Q49. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCE…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q51. For which class was the controversial NCERT textbook chapter o…
- Q52. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for directin…
- Q53. constitutional body, led by the Chief Election Commissioner, c…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commi…
- Q55. According to the news, approximately how many polling stations…
- Q56. is the primary constitutional basis cited by the Election Comm…
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- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news on passiv…
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- Q67. According to the article, how many in-situ slum rehabilitation…
- Q68. is the primary objective of extending the cut-off date in Delh…
- Q69. Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL), mentioned in the news, operates…
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- Q71. According to the article, in which year was the last major ref…
- Q72. is a primary strategic reason, as per the analyst cited in the…
- Q73. The Public Interest Litigation (PIL) discussed in the news was…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the legal issue hi…
- Q75. According to the data presented to the Supreme Court in Januar…
- Q76. is the primary constitutional ground on which the PIL challeng…
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- Q79. According to the WIPO survey cited in the Calcutta High Court …
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- Q91. According to the CEEW study, what percentage of Indian distric…
- Q92. is a key recommendation from the CEEW experts for improving He…
- Q93. regulatory body granted the provisional aerodrome licence to t…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Noida Internat…
- Q95. According to the news, what is the planned annual passenger ha…
- Q96. is a primary strategic objective of developing the Noida Inter…
- Q97. government agency is mentioned in the article as developing th…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the recently appro…
- Q99. is the approved cost of the elevated road project connecting J…
- Q100. is a key expected impact of the improved Faridabad-Jewar airpo…
- Q101. Under which Act does Section 138, which deals with dishonour o…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnata…
- Q103. On which date did Justice M Nagaprasanna of the Karnataka High…
- Q104. was the primary legal reasoning of the Karnataka High Court to…
- Q105. government department issued the clarification on the amended …
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the recent amendme…
- Q107. According to the Cabinet decision, what is the maximum permiss…
- Q108. is a primary objective of introducing the 'beneficial ownershi…