6 March 2026, Questions & Answers

108 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

108 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  22 min revision

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This page contains 108 current affairs questions with answers from 6 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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6 March 2026, Questions with Answers

108 Qs
Q1.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Governor of a State appointed?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 153
  • B.Article 154
  • C.Article 155✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 156
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 155 of the Constitution states that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Article 156 deals with the term of office, and Article 153 states there shall be a Governor for each State.

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155, India-Finland Strategic Partnership on Digitalisation & Sustainability, and India Becomes World's Largest Rice Producer with 150 MT Output →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on India's rice production:

1. India became the world's largest rice producer in 2024-25 with an estimated output of 150 million tonnes.

2. Basmati rice exports consume more water per kilogram compared to non-basmati rice exports.

3. The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) involves alternate wetting and drying of fields.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states basmati consumes less water than non-basmati varieties. Statement 3 is correct as SRI methodology involves alternate wetting and drying, a fact often tested in UPSC.

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155, India-Finland Strategic Partnership on Digitalisation & Sustainability, and India Becomes World's Largest Rice Producer with 150 MT Output →
Q3.

According to the article, what was India's rice export volume in 2024-25, according to the US Department of Agriculture?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.7.86 million tonnes
  • B.8.06 million tonnes
  • C.21.69 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • D.145.28 million tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states India's rice exports were 21.69 million tonnes in 2024-25, making it the world's largest exporter. The other figures are distractors: 7.86 mt (Thailand's export) and 145.28 mt (China's production).

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155, India-Finland Strategic Partnership on Digitalisation & Sustainability, and India Becomes World's Largest Rice Producer with 150 MT Output →
Q4.

What is a primary concern highlighted regarding India's strategy as the world's largest rice exporter?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Low global demand for Indian rice varieties.
  • B.High dependency on imported rice seeds.
  • C.Indirect export of large quantities of scarce water.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Inability to meet domestic consumption needs.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's analysis focuses on the environmental and sustainability cost. It states that for every kg of rice exported, India indirectly exports about 3000 litres of water, as paddy is a water-guzzling crop. This is the core concern raised.

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155, India-Finland Strategic Partnership on Digitalisation & Sustainability, and India Becomes World's Largest Rice Producer with 150 MT Output →
Q5.

Which regulatory body has issued the draft guidelines on limiting customer liability in digital transactions?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the draft guidelines. The RBI is India's central bank and primary regulator for banking and digital payment systems.

Source: RBI Draft: Zero Customer Liability for Digital Fraud if Lender Negligent; Compensation up to ₹25,000 for Losses up to ₹50,000 →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's draft guidelines on digital fraud liability:

1. The framework proposes zero liability for customers if the fraudulent transaction occurs due to negligence by the bank.

2. For a bona fide victim with a loss of ₹40,000, the compensation amount would be ₹34,000.

3. In cases of third-party breaches, the customer must report the fraud to the bank within three working days for the bank to bear full liability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because compensation is 85% of net loss OR ₹25,000, whichever is lower. 85% of ₹40,000 is ₹34,000, but since ₹25,000 is lower, the compensation would be capped at ₹25,000. Statement 3 is incorrect because the reporting window for third-party breaches is five calendar days, not three working days.

Source: RBI Draft: Zero Customer Liability for Digital Fraud if Lender Negligent; Compensation up to ₹25,000 for Losses up to ₹50,000 →
Q7.

According to the RBI's draft norms, what is the maximum one-time compensation a bona fide victim can receive for a digital banking fraud loss?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹15,000
  • B.₹25,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹50,000
  • D.₹42,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the compensation is 85% of the net loss amount or ₹25,000, whichever is less. Therefore, ₹25,000 is the upper limit or maximum compensation payable under this scheme.

Source: RBI Draft: Zero Customer Liability for Digital Fraud if Lender Negligent; Compensation up to ₹25,000 for Losses up to ₹50,000 →
Q8.

What is a primary objective of the RBI's proposed draft framework on limiting customer liability in digital transactions?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase the RBI's direct revenue from transaction fees
  • B.To shift the burden of proof and primary liability for certain digital frauds onto banks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To eliminate all forms of digital banking fraud entirely
  • D.To mandate the use of specific cybersecurity software by all customers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective of the framework, as derived from the article, is to enhance consumer protection. It does this by establishing 'zero liability' for customers in cases of lender negligence and placing the 'burden of proving customer liability' on the banks, thereby shifting significant responsibility onto financial institutions.

Source: RBI Draft: Zero Customer Liability for Digital Fraud if Lender Negligent; Compensation up to ₹25,000 for Losses up to ₹50,000 →
Q9.

Which constitutional body is responsible for presenting the state budget in the legislature?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The State Finance Commission
  • B.The State Finance Department✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The State Planning Board
  • D.The State Governor
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The State Finance Department, under the Finance Minister (in this case, Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis), prepares and presents the annual budget to the State Legislature. This is a standard procedure in Indian states.

Source: Maharashtra Budget 2026-27: ₹7.69 Lakh Crore Outlay with ₹2 Lakh Farm Loan Waiver, Wainganga-Nal Ganga Link & ₹20,000 Cr Free Electricity →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Budget 2026-27:

1. It includes a farm loan waiver scheme named after Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar.

2. The budget allocates ₹20,000 crore for continuing the free electricity scheme for farmers.

3. The Wainganga-Nal Ganga river linking project has an estimated cost of over ₹1 lakh crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The scheme is called the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Shetkari Karjamafi Yojana. Statement 2 is correct: ₹20,000 crore is allocated for the free electricity scheme. Statement 3 is incorrect: The cost of the Wainganga-Nal Ganga project is ₹94,968 crore, which is less than ₹1 lakh crore.

Source: Maharashtra Budget 2026-27: ₹7.69 Lakh Crore Outlay with ₹2 Lakh Farm Loan Waiver, Wainganga-Nal Ganga Link & ₹20,000 Cr Free Electricity →
Q11.

According to the Maharashtra Budget 2026-27, what is the projected fiscal deficit for the financial year?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.₹1.36 lakh crore
  • B.₹1.50 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1.24 lakh crore
  • D.₹1.75 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's fiscal data table shows the Fiscal Deficit for 2026-27 (BE) as ₹1,50,491 crore, which is approximately ₹1.50 lakh crore. The other options are distractors: ₹1.36 lakh crore was the previous year's deficit, ₹1.24 lakh crore was 2024-25's deficit, and ₹1.75 lakh crore is not mentioned.

Source: Maharashtra Budget 2026-27: ₹7.69 Lakh Crore Outlay with ₹2 Lakh Farm Loan Waiver, Wainganga-Nal Ganga Link & ₹20,000 Cr Free Electricity →
Q12.

What is a primary objective of the Lakhpati Didi scheme mentioned in the Maharashtra budget?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To provide free healthcare to women
  • B.To create women entrepreneurs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To offer skill training in traditional crafts
  • D.To ensure free education for girls
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the 'Lakhpati Didi scheme aims to create 25 lakh more women entrepreneurs next year.' While skill training might be a component, the stated primary objective is entrepreneurship creation, not healthcare, crafts, or education.

Source: Maharashtra Budget 2026-27: ₹7.69 Lakh Crore Outlay with ₹2 Lakh Farm Loan Waiver, Wainganga-Nal Ganga Link & ₹20,000 Cr Free Electricity →
Q13.

The legal framework for peacetime governance of the world's oceans, as mentioned in the article, is primarily established by which international convention?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Geneva Conventions
  • B.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.International Maritime Organization (IMO) Convention
  • D.United Nations Charter
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that international maritime law falls under the purview of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). While the UN Charter addresses the use of force, UNCLOS is the comprehensive framework governing ocean usage, navigation, and resources in peacetime.

Source: US Torpedoes Iranian Warship IRIS Dena off Sri Lanka, 80 Sailors Killed, Raising Maritime Law & UNCLOS Debate →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the legal aspects of the news event:

1. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) contains explicit provisions regulating the conduct of parties during an armed conflict at sea.

2. Article 51 of the UN Charter provides an exception to the prohibition of the use of force, allowing for the right of individual or collective self-defence.

3. For a military strike to be authorized under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, it requires a unanimous vote from all permanent members of the Security Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states UNCLOS does NOT contain explicit provisions for armed conflict; its primary focus is peacetime governance. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of Article 51. Statement 3 is incorrect. Chapter VII requires a majority vote with none of the permanent members exercising their veto, not a unanimous vote from all permanent members.

Source: US Torpedoes Iranian Warship IRIS Dena off Sri Lanka, 80 Sailors Killed, Raising Maritime Law & UNCLOS Debate →
Q15.

According to the article, what was the approximate number of sailors killed in the sinking of the Iranian warship IRIS Dena?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.At least 50 sailors
  • B.At least 80 sailors✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over 100 sailors
  • D.The article does not specify a number
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The sinking of the frigate, in which at least 80 sailors were killed...'. The other options are incorrect as they do not match the specific figure provided in the content.

Source: US Torpedoes Iranian Warship IRIS Dena off Sri Lanka, 80 Sailors Killed, Raising Maritime Law & UNCLOS Debate →
Q16.

As per the analysis of experts cited in the article, what is a primary legal justification that could validate a military strike against a foreign warship on the high seas?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Prior imposition of economic sanctions on the vessel
  • B.Authorization under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
  • C.Clear justification as self-defence under Article 51 of the UN Charter✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The vessel's participation in a prior multilateral naval exercise
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Rear Admiral Sudhir Pillai stating that force is 'presumptively unlawful unless clearly justified as self‑defence'. It further notes that a strike could be valid if it met the grounds for self-defence under Article 51 of the UN Charter. Sanctions, UNCLOS, or prior exercises are not cited as primary legal justifications for the use of force.

Source: US Torpedoes Iranian Warship IRIS Dena off Sri Lanka, 80 Sailors Killed, Raising Maritime Law & UNCLOS Debate →
Q17.

In the context of Indian politics, what does the abbreviation 'NDA' stand for?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Democratic Alliance✓ Correct Answer
  • B.National Development Agenda
  • C.National Democratic Association
  • D.National Development Alliance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NDA stands for National Democratic Alliance, a centre-right political coalition led by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). It is frequently in the news regarding government formation and coalition dynamics at the Centre and in states like Bihar.

Source: BJP Secures Chief Ministership in Bihar After JD(U)'s Seat Share Declines in 2020 (43) and 2025 (85) Assembly Elections →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the political shift in Bihar as discussed in the article:

1. In the 2020 Bihar Assembly elections, the BJP won more seats than the JD(U).

2. The BJP's strategy under the Modi-Shah era has been to become a reliable junior partner within the NDA coalition.

3. The article mentions that the BJP has yet to produce a leader in Bihar with the cross-caste appeal that Nitish Kumar once commanded.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the BJP won 74 seats against JD(U)'s 43 in the 2020 Assembly polls. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states the BJP's long-term objective shifted 'from being a reliable junior partner to becoming the alliance's hegemonic pole'. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states, 'The party has yet to produce a leader who commands the kind of cross-caste appeal that Nitish once did.'

Source: BJP Secures Chief Ministership in Bihar After JD(U)'s Seat Share Declines in 2020 (43) and 2025 (85) Assembly Elections →
Q19.

According to the article, what was the BJP's vote share in the 2020 Bihar Assembly elections?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15.39%
  • B.19.46%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.20.08%
  • D.24.4%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides precise data: 'In the 2020 Assembly polls... the BJP won 74 seats and 19.46% vote share against JD(U)'s 43 seats and 15.39%.' Option A is JD(U)'s share, option C is BJP's share in 2025, and option D is BJP's share in the 2015 election.

Source: BJP Secures Chief Ministership in Bihar After JD(U)'s Seat Share Declines in 2020 (43) and 2025 (85) Assembly Elections →
Q20.

What is identified in the article as a primary challenge for the BJP following its political dominance in Bihar?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Managing coalition partners at the national level.
  • B.Producing a credible local leader with cross-caste appeal.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Increasing its vote share among urban and trader communities.
  • D.Reconciling with former ally LJP (Ram Vilas).
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states, 'the BJP faces challenges of its own: producing a credible local leadership capable of filling Nitish’s large boots and expanding its social base...' and later reiterates, 'The party has yet to produce a leader who commands the kind of cross-caste appeal that Nitish once did.' This is the core challenge identified.

Source: BJP Secures Chief Ministership in Bihar After JD(U)'s Seat Share Declines in 2020 (43) and 2025 (85) Assembly Elections →
Q21.

Which U.S. government department issued the temporary 30-day waiver allowing Indian refiners to purchase Russian crude oil?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Commerce
  • B.Department of Energy
  • C.Department of State
  • D.Treasury Department✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

U.S. Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent announced the waiver via social media platform X. The Treasury Department oversees financial and economic sanctions, including those related to energy trade.

Source: U.S. Grants 30-Day Waiver for Indian Refiners to Buy 130M Barrels of Stranded Russian Oil Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The U.S. waiver allows India to purchase any new Russian crude oil for the next 30 days.

2. The Strait of Hormuz handles approximately one-fifth of global liquid petroleum consumption.

3. India's crude oil import dependence level is stated to be over 88%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The waiver specifically authorizes transactions involving Russian oil 'already stranded at sea,' not any new purchases. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which states the Strait of Hormuz handles about one-fifth of global oil consumption and India's import dependence is over 88%.

Source: U.S. Grants 30-Day Waiver for Indian Refiners to Buy 130M Barrels of Stranded Russian Oil Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q23.

According to the article, approximately how many million barrels of Russian crude oil were estimated to be on ships on water as of early March 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.70 million barrels
  • B.100 million barrels
  • C.130 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • D.160 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites data from commodity analytics firm Kpler stating that around 130 million barrels of crude is estimated to be on ships on water. This is a key factual data point for prelims-style questions.

Source: U.S. Grants 30-Day Waiver for Indian Refiners to Buy 130M Barrels of Stranded Russian Oil Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q24.

What is identified in the article as a primary U.S. motivation for issuing the waiver on Russian oil imports for India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To strengthen the strategic partnership with India against China
  • B.To provide significant long-term financial relief to the Russian government
  • C.To prevent a sustained spike in international oil prices ahead of U.S. midterm elections✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To permanently replace Middle Eastern oil in the Indian energy basket
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that experts see the waiver as part of an effort to prevent a further and sustained spike in oil prices, which would lead to higher U.S. fuel prices—a politically sensitive issue in a midterm election year. The waiver is temporary and does not provide significant financial benefit to Russia.

Source: U.S. Grants 30-Day Waiver for Indian Refiners to Buy 130M Barrels of Stranded Russian Oil Amid Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q25.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Governor of a State appointed by the President?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 153
  • B.Article 154
  • C.Article 155✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 156
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 155 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states: 'The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.' Article 153 states there shall be a Governor for each State, Article 154 deals with the executive power of the State, and Article 156 deals with the term of office of the Governor.

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155 Spark Federalism Debate as West Bengal, Tamil Nadu See Changes →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Governors in India:

1. The Constitution mandates consultation with the Chief Minister of the concerned state before the appointment of a Governor.

2. The Sarkaria Commission recommended amending Article 155 to ensure consultation with the Chief Minister.

3. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President as per Article 156.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution (Article 155) does not mandate consultation with the Chief Minister; it is a convention and a recommendation by commissions. Statement 2 is correct as the Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended amending Article 155 to require consultation. Statement 3 is correct as Article 156 states 'The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.'

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155 Spark Federalism Debate as West Bengal, Tamil Nadu See Changes →
Q27.

As per the Constitution, what is the normal term of office for a Governor of a State?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3 years
  • B.4 years
  • C.5 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.6 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 156(3) of the Indian Constitution states: 'A Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.' However, he holds office 'during the pleasure of the President' and can be removed before completing the term.

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155 Spark Federalism Debate as West Bengal, Tamil Nadu See Changes →
Q28.

What is the primary constitutional reason cited for the frequent friction between state governments and Governors?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The mandatory election of Governors by the state legislature.
  • B.The Governor's power to dismiss the state cabinet at will.
  • C.The unilateral power of the Centre to appoint and remove Governors without mandatory state consultation.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The fixed six-year term which makes Governors unaccountable.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As highlighted in the article and by expert commissions, the root cause of friction is the constitutional design where the Governor is appointed by the President (on Union Cabinet advice) under Article 155 and holds office 'during the pleasure of the President' under Article 156. This lack of a mandatory consultative process with the state leads to perceptions of the Governor being an 'agent of the Centre,' especially when different parties rule at the Centre and State.

Source: Governor Appointments Under Article 155 Spark Federalism Debate as West Bengal, Tamil Nadu See Changes →
Q29.

The Allahabad High Court judgment dealt with conviction under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Sections 302, 304B, and 354
  • B.Sections 304, 326A, and 452✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Sections 307, 498A, and 509
  • D.Sections 376, 377, and 354A
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the conviction was upheld under Sections 304 (culpable homicide not amounting to murder), 326A (voluntarily causing grievous hurt using acid), and 452 (house trespass after preparation for hurt) of the IPC. The other options list sections related to murder, dowry death, outraging modesty, attempt to murder, cruelty, sexual assault, and unnatural offences, which are not mentioned in the context of this case.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Conviction Under Sections 304, 326A IPC, Reduces Acid Attack Life Term to 14 Years →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court judgment on acid attacks:

1. The court termed acid attacks as a form of 'gender-based violence', noting they predominantly target women.

2. The court reduced the sentence from life imprisonment to a fixed term of 10 years of rigorous imprisonment.

3. The court emphasized that delay in filing an FIR due to focusing on the victim's medical treatment does not weaken the prosecution's case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes the court stating, "Acid attacks in India predominantly target women... making it a form of gender-based violence." Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the sentence was reduced to 14 years, not 10 years. Statement 3 is correct as the court observed that prioritizing medical aid is a natural cause for delay and this alone cannot refute the prosecution story.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Conviction Under Sections 304, 326A IPC, Reduces Acid Attack Life Term to 14 Years →
Q31.

To what fixed term of imprisonment did the Allahabad High Court reduce the convict's sentence in the acid attack case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 years
  • B.14 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.20 years
  • D.Life imprisonment (no reduction)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the bench, while upholding the conviction, modified the sentence "from life imprisonment to a fixed term of 14 years of rigorous imprisonment." The other options are distractors: 10 years is the minimum under Section 326A IPC, 20 years is a plausible but incorrect reduction, and 'no reduction' contradicts the core news.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Conviction Under Sections 304, 326A IPC, Reduces Acid Attack Life Term to 14 Years →
Q32.

What was a key consideration cited by the Allahabad High Court for reducing the convict's sentence from life imprisonment?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of evidence proving the attack was premeditated.
  • B.The convict's young age at the time of the crime.
  • C.The convict having served over 12 years in jail and having no criminal history.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.An apology tendered by the convict to the victims' families.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions specific factors considered for sentence reduction: "It has come on record that the appellant has been in jail for over 12 years. Further, the custody certificate shows he has no criminal history. It has also come on record that the appellant has a wife and a son to support." The other options, like lack of premeditation, young age, or an apology, are not mentioned as considerations in the provided text.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Conviction Under Sections 304, 326A IPC, Reduces Acid Attack Life Term to 14 Years →
Q33.

Which of the following institutions/agencies was cited in the article as analyzing the 'prolonged decay' in China's economy due to fiscal and financial systems?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  • B.The World Bank
  • C.Rhodium Group✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Logan Wright, Partner and Director of China Markets Research at Rhodium Group, as the source of the analysis describing 'prolonged decay' in China's economy. The other institutions are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: China Sets 2026 GDP Growth Target at 4.5-5%, Lowest in Over 30 Years Amid Record $1.2 Trillion Trade Surplus →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding China's economic scenario as discussed in the article:

1. China's GDP growth target for 2026 is set between 4.5% and 5%, which is below the growth achieved in each of the previous three years.

2. China's record trade surplus in 2025 contributed to almost half of its headline GDP growth rate for that year.

3. Analysts suggest the lower growth target allows officials to focus on structural problems like high local government debt and low household spending.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the 2026 target is 'below the 5% growth achieved in each of the last three years'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says the trade surplus contributed 'almost a third' (not half) of the GDP growth. Statement 3 is correct, as directly quoted from analysts at Trivium China.

Source: China Sets 2026 GDP Growth Target at 4.5-5%, Lowest in Over 30 Years Amid Record $1.2 Trillion Trade Surplus →
Q35.

According to the article, what was the approximate value of India's total merchandise and services exports in 2025, used to contextualize China's trade surplus?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$762 billion
  • B.$862 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$962 billion
  • D.$1.06 trillion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides this exact figure: 'India’s total merchandise and services exports in 2025 stood at $862 billion.' It is used to provide perspective on the scale of China's $1.2 trillion trade surplus.

Source: China Sets 2026 GDP Growth Target at 4.5-5%, Lowest in Over 30 Years Amid Record $1.2 Trillion Trade Surplus →
Q36.

What is identified in the article as a primary reason for China's shift away from chasing high GDP growth targets?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce its massive trade surplus with the United States.
  • B.To focus on resolving deep-rooted structural economic problems.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with new international climate change agreements.
  • D.To reallocate resources towards military modernization.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that a lower growth target 'allows officials to focus on the structural problems facing the economy, such as high levels of local government debt, low household spending...' and mentions the leadership's weariness of 'the frivolity of chasing GDP growth and all of the subsequent problems.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: China Sets 2026 GDP Growth Target at 4.5-5%, Lowest in Over 30 Years Amid Record $1.2 Trillion Trade Surplus →
Q37.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The FRRO functions under the Foreigners Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA handles all matters related to immigration, citizenship, and deportation of foreigners in India.

Source: Karnataka HC Orders Release Under Article 22, Directs FRRO Deportation for 10-Year Visa Overstay →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment:

1. The Court held that the protection under Article 22 of the Constitution is citizen-centric and not available to foreign nationals.

2. The Court ordered the release of the accused because the police failed to inform them of the grounds of arrest.

3. The Court also directed the formation of state and district-level committees to monitor and deport foreigners overstaying their visas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court explicitly stated that Article 22 protection is 'person-centric' and extends to all persons within India, including foreign nationals. Statement 2 is correct as the release was ordered due to non-compliance with Article 22(1). Statement 3 is correct as per the Court's directive to constitute FRRO screening committees.

Source: Karnataka HC Orders Release Under Article 22, Directs FRRO Deportation for 10-Year Visa Overstay →
Q39.

For how many years had the two Nigerian nationals overstayed in India beyond their visa validity, as per the Karnataka High Court order?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 5 years
  • B.Over 7 years
  • C.Over 10 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 12 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Nigerians had overstayed 'for over 10 years' after their visas expired in 2015. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: Karnataka HC Orders Release Under Article 22, Directs FRRO Deportation for 10-Year Visa Overstay →
Q40.

What was the primary legal basis for the Karnataka High Court ordering the release of the two accused foreign nationals?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Lack of evidence for drug peddling charges.
  • B.Violation of the right to a speedy trial under Article 21.
  • C.Non-compliance with the mandatory safeguard of informing grounds of arrest under Article 22.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Humanitarian grounds considering their long stay in India.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court's order for release was specifically based on the police's failure to inform the accused of the grounds of arrest, which it termed a 'mandatory constitutional safeguard' under Article 22(1). The other options, while plausible, were not the grounds cited in the judgment as described in the article.

Source: Karnataka HC Orders Release Under Article 22, Directs FRRO Deportation for 10-Year Visa Overstay →
Q41.

Which institution is primarily responsible for managing India's foreign exchange reserves and intervening to stabilize the Rupee during external shocks, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is forced to aggressively intervene using its foreign exchange reserves to prevent a currency freefall. The RBI is India's central bank and the manager of its forex reserves.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Threatens India: 80% LPG Imports, $9B CAD Impact per $10 Oil Rise →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding India's vulnerability to a Strait of Hormuz disruption:

1. India imports roughly 50% of its crude oil and 54% of its liquefied natural gas through the Strait of Hormuz.

2. India maintains strategic reserves for Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) that provide a buffer similar to its crude oil reserves.

3. A $10 per barrel increase in Brent crude oil price is estimated to widen India's Current Account Deficit by approximately 0.4 to 0.5 percent of GDP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states that 'strategic reserves for LPG are practically non-existent,' making India highly vulnerable. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Threatens India: 80% LPG Imports, $9B CAD Impact per $10 Oil Rise →
Q43.

According to the article, approximately what percentage of India's Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) imports transit through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.54%
  • B.60%
  • C.80%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.88%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Astoundingly, around 80 per cent of India’s LPG imports originate from Gulf suppliers and depend on the Strait.' The other options are distractors: 54% refers to LNG imports, 60% relates to DAP fertiliser imports, and 88% is India's overall crude oil import dependency.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Threatens India: 80% LPG Imports, $9B CAD Impact per $10 Oil Rise →
Q44.

What is identified as a primary macroeconomic consequence for India of a prolonged blockade of the Strait of Hormuz, beyond the immediate oil price shock?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A significant increase in foreign direct investment inflows.
  • B.A 'stagflation drag' combining higher inflation with lower GDP growth.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A sharp appreciation of the Indian Rupee due to increased risk aversion.
  • D.A substantial reduction in the fiscal deficit due to lower subsidy spending.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details that a price shock creates a 'textbook stagflation drag, importing inflationary pressures while suffocating domestic expansion.' It specifies that a $10/bbl rise adds 30-35 bps to CPI inflation and shaves 15-20 bps off real GDP growth. The other options are opposite to the described effects.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Threatens India: 80% LPG Imports, $9B CAD Impact per $10 Oil Rise →
Q45.

The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS) is administered under which United Nations programme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  • B.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
  • D.United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the CMS was signed 'under the United Nations Environment Programme'. UNEP is the leading global environmental authority that sets the agenda and promotes coherent implementation of environmental dimensions of sustainable development.

Source: CMS Report 2026: 49% CMS-listed Migratory Species Declining, 24% Face Extinction →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS):

1. It is a legally binding global treaty that came into force in 1979.

2. Species listed in its Appendix-I are accorded protection through international 'Agreements'.

3. The Great Indian Bustard and the Olive Ridley turtle are among the species included in Appendix I of CMS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article calls CMS a 'legally binding global treaty, signed in 1979'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states Appendix II is for species conserved through 'Agreements', while Appendix I requires 'strict protection'. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly lists the Great Indian Bustard and Olive Ridley turtle as included in Appendix I.

Source: CMS Report 2026: 49% CMS-listed Migratory Species Declining, 24% Face Extinction →
Q47.

According to the CMS interim report 2026, what percentage of migratory species listed under the convention are facing population decline?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.44%
  • B.47%
  • C.49%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.52%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states '49 per cent of the migratory species population protected by the...CMS are declining'. The other options are close distractors. The report also mentions a 5% increase in this threat over two years, making the exact figure crucial for prelims.

Source: CMS Report 2026: 49% CMS-listed Migratory Species Declining, 24% Face Extinction →
Q48.

As per the CMS report, what are identified as the two greatest threats to migratory species worldwide?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Climate change and invasive species
  • B.Pollution and disease outbreaks
  • C.Overexploitation, and habitat loss and fragmentation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Natural predation and genetic erosion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the CMS Executive Secretary: '"Overexploitation, and habitat loss and fragmentation, are the two greatest threats to migratory species worldwide."' While climate change and disease (like H5N1) are mentioned as concerns, the report highlights these two as the primary drivers.

Source: CMS Report 2026: 49% CMS-listed Migratory Species Declining, 24% Face Extinction →
Q49.

Which constitutional body is responsible for appointments to the higher judiciary in India?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
  • B.Election Commission of India (ECI)
  • C.Collegium System of the Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article's context on judicial appointments, the Collegium System (comprising the CJI and senior judges) is responsible for appointments to the Supreme Court and High Courts, a key static GK point for Polity.

Source: SC Upholds 3-Year Litigation Rule for District Judges, CJI Warns of Disproportionate Impact on Women's Representation →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the judicial appointment rule discussed in the article:

1. The Supreme Court has upheld a mandatory requirement of three years of litigation experience for district judge appointments.

2. The Shetty Commission had recommended replacing this mandatory practice rule with two years of intensive judicial training.

3. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant supports the rule, stating it will significantly improve the gender representation in the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SC upheld the 3-year litigation experience rule. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the Shetty Commission recommended replacing the rule with two years of training. Statement 3 is incorrect because CJI Surya Kant expressed concerns that the rule would deter women, not improve gender representation.

Source: SC Upholds 3-Year Litigation Rule for District Judges, CJI Warns of Disproportionate Impact on Women's Representation →
Q51.

According to the data presented by the Minister of Law and Justice, Arjun Ram Meghwal, what percentage of judges in the Supreme Court are women?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2%
  • B.5%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10%
  • D.37%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data noted only two women judges (5 per cent) working in the Supreme Court. 10% is the figure for High Courts, and 37% is for District and subordinate courts.

Source: SC Upholds 3-Year Litigation Rule for District Judges, CJI Warns of Disproportionate Impact on Women's Representation →
Q52.

What is the primary concern raised by CJI Surya Kant regarding the mandatory litigation experience rule for district judges?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It will lower the overall quality of judicial appointments.
  • B.It will disproportionately impact aspiring women lawyers due to social pressures.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It contradicts the recommendations of the Law Commission of India.
  • D.It will lead to a shortage of qualified candidates in rural areas.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the CJI's concern that familial expectations and social pressures like marriage and relocation may prevent women from completing the required years of practice, thereby shrinking female representation in the judiciary.

Source: SC Upholds 3-Year Litigation Rule for District Judges, CJI Warns of Disproportionate Impact on Women's Representation →
Q53.

The 'AI-based Facial Recognition Software attendance system' announced in the Karnataka Budget is to be implemented in which of the following institutions?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Only in all Anganwadis and schools
  • B.Only in all colleges and hostels
  • C.In all Anganwadis, schools, colleges, and hostels across the state✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Only in government colleges in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The budget speech explicitly stated that the AI-based Facial Recognition Software attendance system will be implemented in all Anganwadis, schools, colleges, and hostels across the state. This is a direct factual recall from the article.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026 Allocates ₹31 Cr for AI Labs, Digital Tutors & Grievance Systems →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding initiatives announced in the Karnataka Budget 2026:

1. A 'Personalised Self-Learning Digital Tutor Facility' will be developed in collaboration with IIIT Dharwad.

2. Modern AI Data Labs will be established with a grant of ₹5 crore in 50 government colleges.

3. An AI and Robotics Technology Park (ART-PARK) will be established under the Indian Institute of Science (IISc).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2 and 3
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the grant for Modern AI Data Labs is ₹10 crore, not ₹5 crore. Statement 3 is correct as ART-PARK is under IISc. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026 Allocates ₹31 Cr for AI Labs, Digital Tutors & Grievance Systems →
Q55.

What is the allocated cost for establishing the Centre of Excellence for Artificial Intelligence at the Indian Institute of Information Technology, Raichur, as per the Karnataka Budget 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹5 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • B.₹10 crore
  • C.₹16 crore
  • D.₹31 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that a Centre of Excellence for Artificial Intelligence will come up at IIIT Raichur at a cost of ₹5 crore. The other figures are distractors: ₹10 crore is for AI Data Labs, and ₹16 crore is for two additional AI CoEs.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026 Allocates ₹31 Cr for AI Labs, Digital Tutors & Grievance Systems →
Q56.

What is the primary stated objective of establishing Modern AI Data Labs in government colleges in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities of Karnataka?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To boost research publications from these colleges
  • B.To make rural youth employable by providing necessary AI skills✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace traditional classroom teaching with AI tutors
  • D.To facilitate online degree programs in collaboration with foreign universities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that this project 'aims to make rural youth employable by providing them with the necessary skills'. The other options, while possible secondary benefits, are not the primary objective as mentioned in the budget speech.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026 Allocates ₹31 Cr for AI Labs, Digital Tutors & Grievance Systems →
Q57.

The Karnataka budget proposes allowing city corporations to issue Municipal Bonds. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act were Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) given constitutional status in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.73rd Amendment Act
  • B.74th Amendment Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.75th Amendment Act
  • D.76th Amendment Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities). This act is foundational to urban governance and empowers ULBs, making the concept of Municipal Bonds relevant. The 73rd Amendment pertains to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local bodies).

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026-27: Bengaluru Development Grant ₹7,000 Cr, Metro 41 Km, Municipal Bonds for Corporations →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Budget 2026-27 announcements for Bengaluru:

1. A 9 km-long pedestrian walkway along the Metro viaduct on the Outer Ring Road will be constructed under the sponsorship of the Outer Ring Road Companies Association (ORRCA).

2. The budget allocated ₹5,000 crore for the Karnataka Water Security and Resilience Programme (KWSRP), a state-funded initiative to control flooding in Bengaluru.

3. Land acquisition for Corridor-2 (Benniganahalli-Chikkabanavara) of the Bengaluru Suburban Railway Project is complete, while it is underway for Corridor-4 (Heelalige-Rajanukunte).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the 9 km walkway is sponsored by ORRCA. Statement 2 is incorrect because the KWSRP is a World Bank-funded initiative, not solely state-funded. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned: land acquisition for Corridor-2 is complete and for Corridor-4 is underway.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026-27: Bengaluru Development Grant ₹7,000 Cr, Metro 41 Km, Municipal Bonds for Corporations →
Q59.

According to the Karnataka Budget 2026-27, what is the targeted length of Metro lines to be completed during the financial year 2026-27?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.30 km
  • B.35 km
  • C.41 km✓ Correct Answer
  • D.50 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The budget announcement clearly states that "a total of 41km of additional Metro lines will be completed during the financial year 2026-27". The other options are close distractors based on other potential infrastructure lengths mentioned in the article.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026-27: Bengaluru Development Grant ₹7,000 Cr, Metro 41 Km, Municipal Bonds for Corporations →
Q60.

What is the primary objective cited in the Karnataka Budget 2026-27 for introducing Municipal Bonds for city corporations under the Greater Bengaluru Authority?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To replace state government grants for city development
  • B.To enable corporations to mobilize their own resources for development works✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To attract foreign direct investment in urban infrastructure
  • D.To reduce the fiscal burden of the state government by cutting grants
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The budget speech explicitly states that city corporations "will mobilise resources for development works by issuing 'Municipal Bonds' based on their balance sheets." This indicates the primary objective is financial empowerment and resource mobilization at the municipal level, not necessarily replacing grants or focusing on FDI.

Source: Karnataka Budget 2026-27: Bengaluru Development Grant ₹7,000 Cr, Metro 41 Km, Municipal Bonds for Corporations →
Q61.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the LPG distribution and policy mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for policies related to petroleum products, including LPG production, distribution, and pricing. The article discusses government directives to oil refiners, which fall under this ministry's purview.

Source: India Invokes Emergency Powers to Maximize LPG Production Amid Middle East Crisis, Supplies 332 Million Consumers →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding India's LPG sector as per the article:

1. India is the world's second-biggest importer of LPG.

2. Imports account for about one-third of India's total LPG consumption.

3. The Middle East supplies about 85-90% of India's LPG imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India is the 'world's second-biggest importer of LPG'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says imports account for 'about two-thirds' (not one-third) of consumption. Statement 3 is correct as per the line 'the Middle East making up about 85–90% of that supply'.

Source: India Invokes Emergency Powers to Maximize LPG Production Amid Middle East Crisis, Supplies 332 Million Consumers →
Q63.

According to the article, how many active LPG consumers does India have?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.250 million
  • B.300 million
  • C.332 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.350 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The country has about 332 million active LPG consumers, government data showed.' The other options are close distractors around the correct figure.

Source: India Invokes Emergency Powers to Maximize LPG Production Amid Middle East Crisis, Supplies 332 Million Consumers →
Q64.

What is a primary consequence of the government's order to divert propane and butane for LPG production, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will increase India's crude oil import bill.
  • B.It will curtail the output of alkylates, a gasoline blending component.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will lead to a significant increase in LPG export volumes.
  • D.It will directly reduce the subsidy burden on the PMUY scheme.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'A mandatory diversion of propane and butane for LPG production would curtail the output of alkylates, a gasoline blending component, by Reliance Industries Ltd.' This is the direct impact mentioned. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: India Invokes Emergency Powers to Maximize LPG Production Amid Middle East Crisis, Supplies 332 Million Consumers →
Q65.

The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) functions under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It administers social security schemes like the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) for organized sector workers.

Source: EPFO Approves Auto-Settlement for 1.33 Lakh Inoperative Accounts with Balances ≤ ₹1,000 to Boost Financial Inclusion →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding EPFO's inoperative accounts:

1. An EPF account becomes inoperative if no contribution is made for three continuous years after the member attains 58 years of age.

2. Inoperative accounts with balances above ₹1 lakh constitute the majority of the total unclaimed amount of ₹10,181 crore.

3. The Central Board of Trustees (CBT) of EPFO has approved a pilot for auto-settlement of inoperative accounts with balances up to ₹1,000.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: An account becomes inoperative after 3 years of no contribution post the member attaining 55 years or retirement, whichever is later, not 58. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states that only 13,000 accounts with balances above ₹10 lakh hold ₹4,553 crore, meaning high-value accounts are a minority in number, not the majority. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's report on the 239th CBT meeting decision.

Source: EPFO Approves Auto-Settlement for 1.33 Lakh Inoperative Accounts with Balances ≤ ₹1,000 to Boost Financial Inclusion →
Q67.

As per the article, what is the total number of inoperative EPF accounts as of the latest data?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.27.05 lakh
  • B.31.83 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.34.63 crore
  • D.7.83 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that EPFO has a total of 31.83 lakh inoperative accounts. Option A (27.05 lakh) is the number of establishments, C (34.63 crore) is the total number of members, and D (7.83 crore) is the number of active contributing members.

Source: EPFO Approves Auto-Settlement for 1.33 Lakh Inoperative Accounts with Balances ≤ ₹1,000 to Boost Financial Inclusion →
Q68.

What is the primary objective behind EPFO's pilot project for auto-settlement of inoperative accounts with balances up to ₹1,000?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase the corpus managed by EPFO through fresh contributions.
  • B.To simplify the claims process and ensure members receive their dues without filing fresh claims.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage members to transfer their EPF balances to the National Pension System (NPS).
  • D.To reduce the administrative burden by closing all small-balance accounts permanently.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that under the pilot, amounts will be credited directly to members' bank accounts 'without requiring fresh claims or documentation,' simplifying the process. The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the article.

Source: EPFO Approves Auto-Settlement for 1.33 Lakh Inoperative Accounts with Balances ≤ ₹1,000 to Boost Financial Inclusion →
Q69.

The Forest Survey of India (FSI), whose views were cited in the Aravalli case, operates under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Forest Survey of India (FSI) is an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Its mandate is to conduct forest resource assessments, which is directly relevant to its role in providing technical opinion on the Aravalli hills definition.

Source: SC Scrutinizes 100-Metre Aravalli Definition; Panel Report Ignored FSI Warning Excluding 90% of Hills →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about the Aravalli hills definition:

1. The Supreme Court's Amicus Curiae alleged that a committee report suppressed the views of the Forest Survey of India (FSI).

2. The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) had approved the committee's report before it was submitted to the Supreme Court.

3. The FSI had warned that a 100-metre height definition would exclude approximately 90% of the Aravalli hills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Amicus Curiae submitted that the report 'completely suppressed' the FSI's views. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the CEC's letter clarified the report was never placed before it and was never approved. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the FSI's warning that the definition would exclude 90% of the hills.

Source: SC Scrutinizes 100-Metre Aravalli Definition; Panel Report Ignored FSI Warning Excluding 90% of Hills →
Q71.

According to the news article, what was the specific height benchmark (in metres) proposed by the committee to define the Aravalli hills?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 metres
  • B.75 metres
  • C.100 metres✓ Correct Answer
  • D.150 metres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the committee recommended a '100-metre height definition' for the Aravalli hills. This is the core factual data point around which the controversy and the FSI's dissent revolve.

Source: SC Scrutinizes 100-Metre Aravalli Definition; Panel Report Ignored FSI Warning Excluding 90% of Hills →
Q72.

As per the Amicus Curiae's submission, what was a primary criticism of the committee's 100-metre height definition for the Aravalli hills?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It was based on outdated satellite imagery.
  • B.It was tailored solely for the purpose of operationalizing mining activities.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It required approval from the Ministry of Mines, which was not obtained.
  • D.It applied only to the state of Rajasthan and not the entire range.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Amicus Curiae stating the definition 'suffered from an inherent defect' because the committee repeatedly recorded that 'it is for the purpose of operationalising mining alone.' This was criticized as an incorrect reading of the SC's order which intended protection and conservation.

Source: SC Scrutinizes 100-Metre Aravalli Definition; Panel Report Ignored FSI Warning Excluding 90% of Hills →
Q73.

Which of the following organizations' report is cited in the article analyzing India's trade with West Asia?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • D.World Trade Organization (WTO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly cites a report by the New Delhi-based trade think tank, the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI), which provided the data on India's $98.7 billion imports from West Asia in 2025.

Source: West Asia Conflict Threatens 68.5% of India's Limestone, 62.1% of Gypsum Imports, $98.7 Billion Trade in 2025 →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the West Asia conflict on India:

1. India imports over 40% of its rough diamonds from West Asia for its cutting and polishing industry.

2. The fertilizer sector is expected to feel the immediate impact of supply disruptions as it is currently the peak consumption season in India.

3. Alternative sources for industrial inputs like limestone exist in countries such as Thailand and Vietnam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states it is currently an off-season for fertilizer consumption in India, so the impact would not be immediate. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned by a steel industry insider in the article.

Source: West Asia Conflict Threatens 68.5% of India's Limestone, 62.1% of Gypsum Imports, $98.7 Billion Trade in 2025 →
Q75.

According to the GTRI report cited in the article, what was the approximate value of India's total imports from the West Asia region in 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$75.4 billion
  • B.$88.2 billion
  • C.$98.7 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$112.5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'According to a report by New Delhi-based trade think tank GTRI, India imported goods worth $98.7 billion from the region in 2025.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: West Asia Conflict Threatens 68.5% of India's Limestone, 62.1% of Gypsum Imports, $98.7 Billion Trade in 2025 →
Q76.

As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as the 'real challenge' for the steel industry amidst the West Asia conflict, beyond sourcing raw materials like DRI?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Shortage of skilled labor
  • B.Volatility in global oil and gas prices✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Stringent environmental regulations
  • D.High domestic interest rates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes a steel industry insider stating that while alternative sources exist for inputs like limestone and DRI, 'the real challenge is volatility in oil and gas prices.' This is because the industry relies on gas for decarbonisation and energy, making it vulnerable to price fluctuations.

Source: West Asia Conflict Threatens 68.5% of India's Limestone, 62.1% of Gypsum Imports, $98.7 Billion Trade in 2025 →
Q77.

Which US government department issued the temporary 30-day waiver to India for purchasing Russian oil?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of State
  • B.Department of Energy
  • C.Treasury Department✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Commerce
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Treasury Department, under Secretary Scott Bessent, issued the temporary waiver. The Treasury Department is responsible for enforcing financial and economic sanctions.

Source: US Grants India 30-Day Waiver for Russian Oil Imports Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Affecting 40% of Supplies →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article:

1. The US waiver allows Indian refiners to purchase any new Russian crude oil production.

2. The Strait of Hormuz handles approximately one-fifth of global liquid petroleum consumption.

3. India's oil imports from Russia in February 2026 were just over 1 million barrels per day.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The waiver specifically authorizes transactions involving oil "already stranded at sea," not new production. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions India imported "just over 1 million barrels per day (bpd) of Russian crude" in February.

Source: US Grants India 30-Day Waiver for Russian Oil Imports Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Affecting 40% of Supplies →
Q79.

According to the article, what percentage of India's total oil needs are met through imports?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.75%
  • B.80%
  • C.85%
  • D.88%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that India "imports 88% of its oil needs." This high import dependency is a critical vulnerability and a key data point for questions on India's energy security.

Source: US Grants India 30-Day Waiver for Russian Oil Imports Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Affecting 40% of Supplies →
Q80.

What is cited in the article as a primary reason for the US issuing the waiver to India, beyond providing relief to India's supply crunch?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To strengthen military cooperation with India in the Indian Ocean.
  • B.To undermine Russia's long-term oil export revenues.
  • C.To prevent a rise in domestic fuel prices in the US ahead of elections.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To encourage India to permanently shift away from West Asian oil suppliers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that experts see the waiver "as part of US President Donald Trump's effort to prevent a rise in domestic fuel prices in the US given the midterm elections later this year." This highlights the domestic political calculus behind an international economic decision.

Source: US Grants India 30-Day Waiver for Russian Oil Imports Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure Affecting 40% of Supplies →
Q81.

Which of the following sub-regional groupings, mentioned in the article as a pragmatic alternative to SAARC for Nepal, includes Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, and Nepal?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.ASEAN
  • B.SAFTA
  • C.BBIN Initiative✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ganga River Basin Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the BBIN (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal) initiative as a sub-regional cluster serving as a pragmatic alternative to the long-dormant SAARC. ASEAN is Southeast Asian, SAFTA is South Asian, and the Ganga River Basin Commission is not mentioned.

Source: Nepal Early Parliamentary Election 2026: Key Economic Signals for India-Nepal Relations, BIMSTEC, and Remittance Dependency →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding Nepal's economic situation as discussed in the article:

1. Nepal functions largely as a remittance-reliant 'coping economy' with a persistent trade deficit.

2. Nepal maintains a floating exchange rate with the Indian rupee, adjusted frequently.

3. The first trilateral power transaction mentioned in the article involved electricity flowing from Nepal to Bangladesh through the Indian grid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes Nepal's economy as remittance-reliant with a trade deficit. Statement 2 is incorrect because Nepal maintains a fixed exchange rate peg with the Indian rupee (1 INR = 1.6 NPR since 1993), not a floating one. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which states the first trilateral power transaction took place flowing electricity from Nepal to Bangladesh through the Indian grid.

Source: Nepal Early Parliamentary Election 2026: Key Economic Signals for India-Nepal Relations, BIMSTEC, and Remittance Dependency →
Q83.

According to the article, approximately what percentage of Nepal's total trade is accounted for by trade with India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.~53%
  • B.~63%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.~73%
  • D.~83%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that trade with New Delhi accounts for approximately 63 per cent of Nepal's total trade. The other options are distractors.

Source: Nepal Early Parliamentary Election 2026: Key Economic Signals for India-Nepal Relations, BIMSTEC, and Remittance Dependency →
Q84.

What is the primary geoeconomic vulnerability for Nepal highlighted in the article, stemming from the escalating conflict in West Asia?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Disruption to its information technology exports.
  • B.A decline in tourism from European countries.
  • C.Vulnerability of its remittance pipeline from the Gulf and potential energy price spikes.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Restrictions on its agricultural exports to China.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for a nation structurally dependent on the Gulf corridor, the geoeconomic fallout is twofold: vulnerability of the remittance pipeline and susceptibility to energy price spikes due to petroleum imports. The other options are not mentioned as primary vulnerabilities.

Source: Nepal Early Parliamentary Election 2026: Key Economic Signals for India-Nepal Relations, BIMSTEC, and Remittance Dependency →
Q85.

Which government think tank provided the 2025 population data for Karnataka mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Planning Commission
  • C.Finance Commission
  • D.National Statistical Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that a 2025 presentation by the federal government think tank NITI Aayog showed Karnataka's population as 67.6 million. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission as the government's premier policy think tank.

Source: Karnataka Bans Social Media for Under-16s Under IT Act, Goa & AP Weigh Similar Restrictions →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on social media bans:

1. Karnataka has announced a ban on social media usage for individuals under the age of 16.

2. Australia is the first country in the world to ban social media for children.

3. According to the article, more than 25% of Karnataka's population is under the age of 15.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Karnataka's Chief Minister announced the ban. Statement 2 is correct as Australia was the first country to do so in December 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly states that LESS than one-quarter (i.e., less than 25%) of Karnataka's population is under 15.

Source: Karnataka Bans Social Media for Under-16s Under IT Act, Goa & AP Weigh Similar Restrictions →
Q87.

As per the article, what is the approximate population of Karnataka according to the 2025 NITI Aayog presentation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.57.6 million
  • B.62.6 million
  • C.67.6 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.72.6 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that a 2025 presentation by NITI Aayog showed Karnataka has a population of 67.6 million. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Karnataka Bans Social Media for Under-16s Under IT Act, Goa & AP Weigh Similar Restrictions →
Q88.

What is a primary criticism raised by activists and tech experts regarding age-based bans on social media, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They are too expensive to implement effectively.
  • B.They violate international trade agreements.
  • C.Children can bypass them using fake identification documents.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They lead to increased usage of other digital platforms.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes activists and experts saying that age-based curbs do not work as children can bypass them with fake identification documents. Their suggested alternative is measures to help children and parents develop healthy usage habits.

Source: Karnataka Bans Social Media for Under-16s Under IT Act, Goa & AP Weigh Similar Restrictions →
Q89.

Which ministry is responsible for releasing the official estimates of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency that comes out with estimates and revisions of India's GDP. This is a core static GK fact about national income accounting.

Source: MoSPI GDP Revision: Economy Size at ₹345 Lakh Cr FY26, Per Capita Income ₹2.43 Lakh, $5 Trillion Target Delayed →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent GDP revision by MoSPI:

1. The new base year for GDP calculation has been changed to 2022-23.

2. According to the new estimates, India's nominal GDP for 2025-26 is higher than the previous estimate.

3. The revision shows that India's per capita income for 2025-26 is now over Rs. 2.5 lakhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the new series takes a fresh guard from 2022-23 as the base year. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new estimate for FY26 GDP is Rs 345 lakh crore, which is lower than the old estimate of Rs 357 lakh crore. Statement 3 is incorrect as the new per capita income is Rs 2,43,180, which is below Rs 2.5 lakhs.

Source: MoSPI GDP Revision: Economy Size at ₹345 Lakh Cr FY26, Per Capita Income ₹2.43 Lakh, $5 Trillion Target Delayed →
Q91.

According to the MoSPI's revised estimates, what is the nominal size of India's economy (GDP) for the financial year 2025-26?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹261 lakh crore
  • B.₹269 lakh crore
  • C.₹345 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹357 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for the current financial year (2025-26), India's GDP is not Rs 357 lakh crore but Rs 345 lakh crore according to the new estimates. ₹261 lakh crore is the revised figure for 2022-23, and ₹269 lakh crore was the old figure for that year.

Source: MoSPI GDP Revision: Economy Size at ₹345 Lakh Cr FY26, Per Capita Income ₹2.43 Lakh, $5 Trillion Target Delayed →
Q92.

What is a key implication of the downward revision of India's GDP figures by MoSPI?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.India's ranking in global human development indices will improve.
  • B.Key fiscal parameters like the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio will appear larger.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The value of the Indian rupee against the US dollar will strengthen automatically.
  • D.The base year for calculating Wholesale Price Index (WPI) will also change.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

A downward revision in the absolute size of GDP (the denominator) means that ratios where GDP is in the denominator, such as Fiscal Deficit/GDP or Public Debt/GDP, will increase even if the numerator (deficit or debt) remains unchanged. This has significant implications for fiscal policy and credit ratings. The article does not link the revision to HDI, automatic rupee strength, or WPI base year changes.

Source: MoSPI GDP Revision: Economy Size at ₹345 Lakh Cr FY26, Per Capita Income ₹2.43 Lakh, $5 Trillion Target Delayed →
Q93.

Which government office, mentioned in the news, is primarily responsible for the registration and deportation of foreign nationals overstaying their visas in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • B.Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • D.State Police Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Karnataka High Court asked the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) to deport the two Nigerians. The FRRO, under the Bureau of Immigration (Ministry of Home Affairs), handles registration and immigration-related matters for foreign nationals in India.

Source: Karnataka HC Invokes Article 22 to Free Foreigners, Orders FRRO to Deport for 10-Year Overstay Using Fake Documents →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment mentioned in the news:

1. The court held that the constitutional protection under Article 22 is 'citizen-centric' and applies primarily to Indian citizens.

2. The court ordered the release of the accused because the police did not inform them of the grounds of their arrest.

3. The court directed the constitution of state and district-level screening committees to identify foreigners overstaying their visas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly observed that protection under Article 22 is 'not citizen-centric but person-centric' and extends to all persons within India. Statement 2 is correct as the release was ordered due to the police not informing them of arrest grounds. Statement 3 is correct as the HC directed the creation of screening committees at state and district levels for the FRRO.

Source: Karnataka HC Invokes Article 22 to Free Foreigners, Orders FRRO to Deport for 10-Year Overstay Using Fake Documents →
Q95.

For how many years had the two Nigerian nationals, as per the news, overstayed in India after their visas expired?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 5 years
  • B.Over 8 years
  • C.Over 10 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 12 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Nigerians had overstayed in India for over 10 years after their visas expired in 2015. The court also mentioned they had stayed 'without valid documents for more than a decade'.

Source: Karnataka HC Invokes Article 22 to Free Foreigners, Orders FRRO to Deport for 10-Year Overstay Using Fake Documents →
Q96.

What was the primary constitutional reason cited by the Karnataka High Court for ordering the release of the two foreign nationals?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Lack of evidence for the drug peddling charges.
  • B.Violation of the right to free legal aid under Article 39A.
  • C.Failure of the police to inform them of the grounds of arrest as mandated by Article 22.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Expiry of the maximum permissible period of detention without trial.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court ordered the release specifically because the police did not inform the accused of the grounds of their arrest. The judgment emphasized that this is a 'mandatory constitutional safeguard' under Article 22 of the Constitution and not a mere procedural formality.

Source: Karnataka HC Invokes Article 22 to Free Foreigners, Orders FRRO to Deport for 10-Year Overstay Using Fake Documents →
Q97.

Which constitutional article empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes for a state or union territory?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 341
  • B.Article 342✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 243
  • D.Article 366
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 342 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify the tribes or tribal communities which shall be deemed Scheduled Tribes for a state or union territory. This article was cited in the judgment regarding the protection of tribal customary laws.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows Divorce Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 for ST Couple Following Hindu Rites →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment:

1. The court held that Section 2(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, is a measure of protection for tribal customary laws, not exclusion.

2. The judgment was delivered by a bench comprising Justices Sanjay K Agrawal and Arvind Kumar Verma.

3. The court ruled that a Scheduled Tribe member can never seek remedies under the Hindu Marriage Act, even if married according to Hindu rites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court interpreted Section 2(2) as protective. Statement 2 is factually correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the judgment explicitly allowed an ST member who voluntarily followed Hindu customs to invoke the Act's provisions.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows Divorce Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 for ST Couple Following Hindu Rites →
Q99.

Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, was the couple's petition for divorce by mutual consent filed?

MediumUPSC, Judiciary
  • A.Section 13
  • B.Section 13A
  • C.Section 13B✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Section 14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the couple's application for dissolution of marriage was for divorce on the basis of mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows Divorce Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 for ST Couple Following Hindu Rites →
Q100.

What was the primary legal principle established by the Chhattisgarh High Court in this judgment?

MediumUPSC, Judiciary
  • A.Scheduled Tribes are completely excluded from all personal laws.
  • B.Section 2(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act mandates the application of tribal customary laws in all cases.
  • C.A Scheduled Tribe member who voluntarily follows Hindu customs can opt into the provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Family Courts lack jurisdiction over matters involving Scheduled Tribe members.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling was that Section 2(2) is protective, not exclusionary. Therefore, when a member of a notified Scheduled Tribe voluntarily submits to the court's jurisdiction under the Act, citing adherence to Hindu customs, they cannot be barred from invoking its provisions.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Allows Divorce Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 for ST Couple Following Hindu Rites →
Q101.

Which regulatory body granted the security clearance to the Noida International Airport, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
  • B.Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Airports Authority of India (AAI)
  • D.Ministry of Civil Aviation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that security approval was granted by the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS). DGCA is responsible for the aerodrome licence, AAI manages many airports, and the Ministry is the parent administrative body.

Source: Noida International Airport Gets BCAS Security Clearance, Phase 1 Capacity 1.2 Crore Passengers Annually →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the Noida International Airport:

1. It is located in Jewar, Gautam Buddh Nagar district of Uttar Pradesh.

2. It received security clearance from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).

3. Its first phase is expected to handle 1.2 crore passengers annually.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because security clearance was granted by the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS), not DGCA. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Noida International Airport Gets BCAS Security Clearance, Phase 1 Capacity 1.2 Crore Passengers Annually →
Q103.

What is the estimated cost for the first phase of the Noida International Airport project, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹4,500 crore
  • B.₹5,500 crore
  • C.₹6,500 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹7,500 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that under the Rs 6,500-crore phase one of the airport operations, Jewar will have one runway and one terminal. The other figures are close distractors.

Source: Noida International Airport Gets BCAS Security Clearance, Phase 1 Capacity 1.2 Crore Passengers Annually →
Q104.

What is the primary strategic objective behind commissioning the Noida International Airport, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To serve as a dedicated cargo hub for North India
  • B.To promote tourism specifically in Western Uttar Pradesh
  • C.To lighten the passenger load on Delhi's Indira Gandhi International Airport✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To act as a maintenance, repair, and overhaul (MRO) facility for airlines
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the airport was "Commissioned in 2021 to lighten the existing passenger load on Delhi’s IGI Airport". While it may serve other purposes, this is stated as the primary objective.

Source: Noida International Airport Gets BCAS Security Clearance, Phase 1 Capacity 1.2 Crore Passengers Annually →
Q105.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the decennial Census of India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Census of India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). While other ministries like MeitY (for C-DAC) are involved in the digital tools, the overall responsibility lies with MHA.

Source: MHA Launches 4 Digital Platforms for India's First Fully Digital Census 2027, Developed by C-DAC →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the digital initiatives for Census 2027:

1. The Self-Enumeration (SE) Portal, allowing households to submit data online, is being introduced for the first time in Indian census history.

2. The HLO Mobile Application for enumerators is developed to function only with an active internet connection.

3. The mascots 'Pragati' and 'Vikas' symbolize India's goal of becoming a developed nation by 2047.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the Self-Enumeration Portal is 'a first in Indian census history'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article describes the HLO Mobile App as 'a secure offline app for enumerators'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which states the mascots 'symbolise... India's resolve to become a developed nation by 2047'.

Source: MHA Launches 4 Digital Platforms for India's First Fully Digital Census 2027, Developed by C-DAC →
Q107.

How many regional languages is the HLO Mobile Application for Census 2027 enumerators designed to support for data collection?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.14
  • B.16✓ Correct Answer
  • C.18
  • D.22
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the HLO Mobile Application allows enumerators to collect data 'in 16 regional languages'. The other numbers are plausible distractors given India's linguistic diversity.

Source: MHA Launches 4 Digital Platforms for India's First Fully Digital Census 2027, Developed by C-DAC →
Q108.

What is the primary significance of introducing mascots 'Pragati' and 'Vikas' for Census 2027?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace human enumerators with automated data collection systems.
  • B.To help disseminate census messages to diverse audiences in a relatable way and symbolize equal participation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To represent the technological partnership between the government and private software companies.
  • D.To serve as the official brand ambassadors for the Ministry of Home Affairs' digital initiatives.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the spokesperson stated the mascots 'will help disseminate census messages to diverse audiences in a relatable way' and 'symbolise equal participation of men and women in India's resolve to become a developed nation by 2047'. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: MHA Launches 4 Digital Platforms for India's First Fully Digital Census 2027, Developed by C-DAC →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 6 March 2026?▼

This page contains 108 current affairs questions from 6 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 6 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

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All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Governor…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the news on India'…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what was India's rice export volume …
  4. Q4. is a primary concern highlighted regarding India's strategy as…
  5. Q5. regulatory body has issued the draft guidelines on limiting cu…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's draft gu…
  7. Q7. According to the RBI's draft norms, what is the maximum one-ti…
  8. Q8. is a primary objective of the RBI's proposed draft framework o…
  9. Q9. constitutional body is responsible for presenting the state bu…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Bu…
  11. Q11. According to the Maharashtra Budget 2026-27, what is the proje…
  12. Q12. is a primary objective of the Lakhpati Didi scheme mentioned i…
  13. Q13. The legal framework for peacetime governance of the world's oc…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the legal aspects …
  15. Q15. According to the article, what was the approximate number of s…
  16. Q16. As per the analysis of experts cited in the article, what is a…
  17. Q17. In the context of Indian politics, what does the abbreviation …
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the political shif…
  19. Q19. According to the article, what was the BJP's vote share in the…
  20. Q20. is identified in the article as a primary challenge for the BJ…
  21. Q21. U.S. government department issued the temporary 30-day waiver …
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  23. Q23. According to the article, approximately how many million barre…
  24. Q24. is identified in the article as a primary U.S. motivation for …
  25. Q25. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Governor…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of…
  27. Q27. As per the Constitution, what is the normal term of office for…
  28. Q28. is the primary constitutional reason cited for the frequent fr…
  29. Q29. The Allahabad High Court judgment dealt with conviction under …
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  31. Q31. To what fixed term of imprisonment did the Allahabad High Cour…
  32. Q32. was a key consideration cited by the Allahabad High Court for …
  33. Q33. of the following institutions/agencies was cited in the articl…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding China's economic s…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what was the approximate value of In…
  36. Q36. is identified in the article as a primary reason for China's s…
  37. Q37. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the Foreigner…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
  39. Q39. For how many years had the two Nigerian nationals overstayed i…
  40. Q40. was the primary legal basis for the Karnataka High Court order…
  41. Q41. institution is primarily responsible for managing India's fore…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding India's vulnerabil…
  43. Q43. According to the article, approximately what percentage of Ind…
  44. Q44. is identified as a primary macroeconomic consequence for India…
  45. Q45. The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wil…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on …
  47. Q47. According to the CMS interim report 2026, what percentage of m…
  48. Q48. As per the CMS report, what are identified as the two greatest…
  49. Q49. constitutional body is responsible for appointments to the hig…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the judicial appoi…
  51. Q51. According to the data presented by the Minister of Law and Jus…
  52. Q52. is the primary concern raised by CJI Surya Kant regarding the …
  53. Q53. The 'AI-based Facial Recognition Software attendance system' a…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding initiatives announ…
  55. Q55. is the allocated cost for establishing the Centre of Excellenc…
  56. Q56. is the primary stated objective of establishing Modern AI Data…
  57. Q57. The Karnataka budget proposes allowing city corporations to is…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Budg…
  59. Q59. According to the Karnataka Budget 2026-27, what is the targete…
  60. Q60. is the primary objective cited in the Karnataka Budget 2026-27…
  61. Q61. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the LPG distr…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding India's LPG sector…
  63. Q63. According to the article, how many active LPG consumers does I…
  64. Q64. is a primary consequence of the government's order to divert p…
  65. Q65. The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) functions un…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding EPFO's inoperative…
  67. Q67. As per the article, what is the total number of inoperative EP…
  68. Q68. is the primary objective behind EPFO's pilot project for auto-…
  69. Q69. The Forest Survey of India (FSI), whose views were cited in th…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news about the…
  71. Q71. According to the news article, what was the specific height be…
  72. Q72. As per the Amicus Curiae's submission, what was a primary crit…
  73. Q73. of the following organizations' report is cited in the article…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the …
  75. Q75. According to the GTRI report cited in the article, what was th…
  76. Q76. As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as the …
  77. Q77. US government department issued the temporary 30-day waiver to…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
  79. Q79. According to the article, what percentage of India's total oil…
  80. Q80. is cited in the article as a primary reason for the US issuing…
  81. Q81. of the following sub-regional groupings, mentioned in the arti…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding Nepal's economic s…
  83. Q83. According to the article, approximately what percentage of Nep…
  84. Q84. is the primary geoeconomic vulnerability for Nepal highlighted…
  85. Q85. government think tank provided the 2025 population data for Ka…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news on social…
  87. Q87. As per the article, what is the approximate population of Karn…
  88. Q88. is a primary criticism raised by activists and tech experts re…
  89. Q89. ministry is responsible for releasing the official estimates o…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the recent GDP rev…
  91. Q91. According to the MoSPI's revised estimates, what is the nomina…
  92. Q92. is a key implication of the downward revision of India's GDP f…
  93. Q93. government office, mentioned in the news, is primarily respons…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
  95. Q95. For how many years had the two Nigerian nationals, as per the …
  96. Q96. was the primary constitutional reason cited by the Karnataka H…
  97. Q97. constitutional article empowers the President to specify the S…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
  99. Q99. Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, was the c…
  100. Q100. was the primary legal principle established by the Chhattisgar…
  101. Q101. regulatory body granted the security clearance to the Noida In…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Noida Internat…
  103. Q103. is the estimated cost for the first phase of the Noida Interna…
  104. Q104. is the primary strategic objective behind commissioning the No…
  105. Q105. ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the decennial…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the digital initia…
  107. Q107. many regional languages is the HLO Mobile Application for Cens…
  108. Q108. is the primary significance of introducing mascots 'Pragati' a…