5 March 2026, Questions & Answers
132 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
132 questions · 0 topics covered · 27 min revision
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This page contains 132 current affairs questions with answers from 5 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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132 QsAnil Kakodkar, the author of the article, is the former chairman of which of the following commissions?
- A.Atomic Energy Commission✓ Correct Answer
- B.Space Commission
- C.Finance Commission
- D.Law Commission
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Explanation
The article's byline explicitly states that Anil Kakodkar is the former chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC). The AEC is the nodal body for India's nuclear energy programme.
Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy mission:
1. The '100 GWe by 2047' mission would require about 18,000-20,000 tonnes of mined uranium annually.
2. The SHANTI Act 2025 restricts participation in the nuclear sector to government agencies only.
3. India's first 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is almost ready.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SHANTI Act 2025 opens the sector to public, private, academia, and industry. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the approximate current global nuclear generation capacity?
- A.Around 280 GWe
- B.Around 380 GWe✓ Correct Answer
- C.Around 480 GWe
- D.Around 580 GWe
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Explanation
The article states: 'global nuclear generation capacity is expected to grow from around 380 GWe today to around 1,400 GWe.' The other options are close distractors.
What is the principal purpose of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) in India's three-stage nuclear programme as per the article?
- A.To directly generate electricity using imported uranium
- B.To irradiate thorium at scale and produce Uranium-233✓ Correct Answer
- C.To serve as small modular reactors for rural electrification
- D.To replace all Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors by 2040
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The principal purpose of FBRs is to irradiate thorium at scale and produce the uranium-233 needed for the third stage.' This is a core objective of the second stage of India's nuclear programme.
The MILAN-2026 naval exercise, mentioned in the news, is hosted by which country's navy?
- A.United States Navy
- B.Indian Navy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Iranian Navy
- D.Sri Lankan Navy
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that MILAN-2026 was a multilateral exercise organized by the Indian Navy in Visakhapatnam. The Iranian frigate was returning from this event.
Consider the following statements regarding the news incident:
1. The sunken Iranian warship, IRIS Dena, was a Moudge-class frigate.
2. The attack occurred within the territorial waters of Sri Lanka.
3. The US Navy destroyer USS Pinckney actively participated in the MILAN-2026 exercises alongside the Iranian frigate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article identifies IRIS Dena as a Moudge-class frigate. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the distress call was issued roughly 40 nautical miles off Galle, which is likely in Sri Lanka's EEZ or international waters, not territorial waters (typically 12 nm). Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states USS Pinckney did not participate due to 'emergent requirements', though a US P-8 aircraft did.
According to the article, approximately how many sailors were on board the Iranian frigate IRIS Dena when it was sunk?
- A.120 sailors
- B.130 sailors✓ Correct Answer
- C.140 sailors
- D.150 sailors
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Explanation
The article mentions the frigate was 'carrying almost 130 sailors' in the Iranian FM's post, and later reiterates 'carrying 130 sailors'. The other options are close distractors.
What is a primary diplomatic challenge for India arising from the incident described in the news?
- A.Enforcing sanctions against Iran as per UN directives.
- B.Balancing its strategic partnership with the US and its ties with Iran.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Leading a multilateral naval blockade in the Indian Ocean.
- D.Providing military aid to Sri Lanka to secure its waters.
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Explanation
The article highlights India's delicate position: the attacked Iranian ship was a recent 'guest' at its naval exercise, while the attacker is its key strategic partner, the US. India's official silence underscores this challenge of balancing both relationships, which is its core diplomatic tightrope. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The force majeure notices in the news were issued by which Indian company, the country's largest importer of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG)?
- A.GAIL (India) Ltd.
- B.Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
- C.Petronet LNG Ltd.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'India’s largest importer of liquefied natural gas (LNG) Petronet LNG has issued force majeure notices'. GAIL, IOC, and BPCL are mentioned as off-takers, not the issuer.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in West Asia:
1. The Iranian warship IRIS Dena was sunk while returning from a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy.
2. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint now facing disruption, handles approximately one-third of global liquefied natural gas (LNG) trade.
3. The depreciation of the Indian Rupee past 92 against the US dollar is attributed solely to rising domestic inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The IRIS Dena had participated in MILAN-2026 hosted by India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Strait handles one-fifth (not one-third) of global LNG trade. Statement 3 is incorrect: Rupee depreciation is attributed to multiple factors including rising crude oil prices and disrupted trade flows, not solely domestic inflation.
According to the article, what was the daily earning rate for a Very Large Crude Carrier (VLCC) on the Middle East-China route that marked a record high?
- A.$218,000
- B.$350,000
- C.$423,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.$500,000
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Explanation
The article states: 'Daily earnings for a very large crude carrier (VLCC) on the benchmark Middle East-China route hit a record high... $423,000 on Monday'. $218,000 was the rate from the previous week.
What is the primary immediate economic implication for India of the blockade of the Strait of Hormuz, as discussed in the article?
- A.A surge in software export revenues due to a weaker rupee.
- B.A significant increase in the cost of imports, particularly crude oil, widening the current account deficit.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A boost in domestic manufacturing competitiveness due to cheaper raw materials.
- D.A decrease in foreign institutional investment (FII) due to geopolitical stability.
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Explanation
The article directly links the Strait's blockade to spiking crude oil prices. For India, which imports 80% of its crude, this makes imports costlier, directly widening the Current Account Deficit (CAD). Other options are either incorrect (software exports may benefit but it's not the primary implication) or opposite to the article's narrative (FII might sell due to uncertainty, not invest).
The Madras High Court judgment was delivered by a bench consisting of which two Justices?
- A.Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and S. Ravindra Bhat
- B.Justices G. Jayachandran and K. K. Ramakrishnan✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Sudhanshu Dhulia
- D.Justices K.M. Joseph and Hrishikesh Roy
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the bench hearing the case was composed of Justices G Jayachandran and K K Ramakrishnan of the Madras High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court judgment on Madurai airport expansion:
1. The court invoked the legal maxim 'Salus populi est suprema lex' which means 'public necessity is greater than private interest'.
2. The court held that the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 were strictly applicable to the acquisition.
3. The court dismissed the petitions, allowing authorities to use necessary force for eviction under Section 4(3) of the Tamil Nadu Acquisition of Land for Industrial Purposes Act, 1997.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. 'Salus populi est suprema lex' means 'the welfare of the people is the supreme law'. The maxim for 'public necessity is greater than private interest' is 'Necessitas publica est major quam private'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court ruled the 2013 Act was NOT strictly applicable. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's details on the judgment and the invoked section.
According to the news, what is the total area of land being acquired across several villages for the expansion of Madurai Airport?
- A.500.50 acres
- B.633.17 acres✓ Correct Answer
- C.720.25 acres
- D.815.90 acres
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The state government had decided to acquire 633.17 acres of land across several villages in Madurai to upgrade the airport to international standards.'
What was the primary philosophical principle invoked by the Madras High Court to justify its decision favoring the airport expansion?
- A.The principle of sustainable development and intergenerational equity.
- B.The libertarian principle of minimal state intervention in property rights.
- C.The utilitarian principle of 'the greatest good for the greatest number of people'.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Gandhian principle of trusteeship and equitable distribution.
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Explanation
The article's opening paragraph states the court invoked 'the utilitarian principle of "the greatest good for the greatest number of people" articulated by philosophers Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill' to uphold the eviction for the larger public project.
CRIF High Mark, which released the report on women borrowers, is primarily a/an:
- A.Microfinance Institution
- B.Credit Information Company✓ Correct Answer
- C.Public Sector Bank
- D.Non-Banking Financial Company
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Explanation
CRIF High Mark is one of the four RBI-approved Credit Information Companies (CICs) in India, along with TransUnion CIBIL, Experian, and Equifax. Its primary function is to collect and maintain credit data of individuals and businesses.
Consider the following statements regarding the CRIF High Mark report on women borrowers:
1. The number of women borrowers grew at a CAGR of 14.2% between December 2020 and December 2025.
2. Women borrowers have a higher Portfolio at Risk (PAR) delinquency rate compared to male borrowers.
3. Women hold the highest share of the retail portfolio in the gold loan category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article (14.2% CAGR). Statement 2 is incorrect; the report states women's delinquency rate (PAR) is 2.8%, which is lower than the 3.3% for men. Statement 3 is correct; women hold a 43.5% share in gold loans, their highest among retail products.
According to the CRIF High Mark report, what was the year-on-year growth in the portfolio outstanding for women borrowers in December 2025?
- A.16.7%
- B.23.4%✓ Correct Answer
- C.14.8%
- D.8.2%
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Explanation
The report explicitly states that the portfolio outstanding for women borrowers rose 23.4% year-on-year (y-o-y) in December 2025. 16.7% was the growth for men, 14.8% was the growth in active loans for women, and 8.2% was the CAGR for male borrowers.
The report's finding of a smaller average ticket size for women-led business loans compared to men primarily indicates what?
- A.Women are less creditworthy than men.
- B.Women-led businesses are concentrated in smaller-scale enterprises.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Banks are actively discriminating against women entrepreneurs.
- D.Women prefer personal loans over business loans.
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Explanation
The article states the average ticket size for women-led business loans is Rs 5.3 lakh versus Rs 11.6 lakh for men, indicating 'significant headroom for expansion.' This suggests women-led enterprises are currently at a smaller scale, not necessarily due to creditworthiness or discrimination, but highlighting a potential growth area.
Which constitutional functionary presented the Maharashtra Economic Survey 2025-26 in the state assembly?
- A.The Chief Minister
- B.The Finance Minister
- C.The Minister of State for Finance✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Governor
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the survey was tabled by the Minister of State for Finance, Ashish Jaiswal. In Indian states, the Finance Minister or the Minister of State for Finance presents key financial documents like the Economic Survey and the Budget.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Economic Survey 2025-26:
1. The state's economy is expected to grow at a rate higher than the projected growth rate for the Indian economy.
2. The share of the agriculture and allied activities sector in the state's GSVA has increased compared to its share in 2011-12.
3. The state's debt-to-GSDP ratio is within the limit prescribed by its fiscal responsibility law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Maharashtra's GSDP growth is projected at 7.9%, while India's GDP growth is projected at 7.4%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Agriculture's share declined from 13.1% (2011-12) to 11.2% (2024-25). Statement 3 is correct: The debt-to-GSDP ratio is 18.3%, which is below the 25% limit prescribed by the Maharashtra FRBM rules.
According to the Maharashtra Economic Survey 2025-26, what is the projected growth rate for the state's agriculture and allied activities sector?
- A.3.4%✓ Correct Answer
- B.5.7%
- C.7.9%
- D.9.0%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the agriculture and allied activities sector is expected to grow at 3.4%. The other options are distractors: 5.7% is the industrial sector growth, 7.9% is the overall GSDP growth, and 9.0% is the services sector growth.
What is the primary concern highlighted by the Gross District Value Added (GDVA) estimates in the Maharashtra Economic Survey?
- A.Declining contribution of the industrial sector to the state's economy.
- B.High fiscal deficit exceeding the FRBM target.
- C.Severe regional imbalance in per capita income across districts.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over-reliance on central tax devolution for state revenue.
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Explanation
The survey explicitly paints a 'grim picture of regional imbalance', noting that only seven districts have a per capita income above ₹3 lakh, while eleven districts are below ₹2 lakh. This indicates concentrated development in a few urban centers, leaving many districts behind.
The 'Eat Right India' campaign, mentioned in the context of tackling obesity, is an initiative of which statutory body?
- A.National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog)
- B.Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Eat Right India campaign was launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in 2018. FSSAI is the statutory body responsible for regulating food safety and standards in the country.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Obesity Atlas 2026:
1. It was released by the World Health Organisation (WHO) on World Obesity Day.
2. According to its estimates, India has the second-highest number of children living with obesity globally.
3. It projects that by 2040, over 500 million children worldwide will be overweight or living with obesity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Atlas was released by the World Obesity Federation, not the WHO. Statement 2 is correct as the article states India ranks second globally after China. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the prediction of 507 million children worldwide by 2040.
According to the World Obesity Atlas 2026, what is the projected number of Indian children (aged 5-19) who will be overweight or living with obesity by the year 2040?
- A.14 million
- B.20 million
- C.41 million
- D.56 million✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states the projection: "Estimates suggest that... 56 million will be either overweight or living with obesity." 14 million is the 2025 figure for obesity alone, 20 million is the 2040 projection for obesity alone, and 41 million is the 2025 figure for high BMI.
What is the primary significance of the World Obesity Atlas 2026 report for public health policy in India?
- A.It highlights India's success in reducing malnutrition through the POSHAN Abhiyaan.
- B.It underscores the urgent need for preventive policies targeting childhood obesity and its future disease burden.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It recommends privatizing healthcare to better manage non-communicable diseases.
- D.It focuses solely on the genetic factors contributing to obesity in the Indian population.
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Explanation
The report's core message, as per the article, is the need for "urgent, coordinated action" and "stronger prevention policies" like healthier school food and sugar taxes to avert a future crisis of chronic diseases. The other options are either incorrect or not the primary focus mentioned in the article.
Which regulatory body issued a public warning in November 2025 that trading in digital/e-gold products is unregulated business, as mentioned in the case against Jar Gold?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a SEBI public warning of November 8, 2025, noted that trading in digital/e-gold products is unregulated business. RBI issued a separate alert in July 2025.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment on Jar Gold:
1. The Court held that the Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes (BUDS) Act, 2019 applies to digital gold investments.
2. The Court noted that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has explicit regulatory supervision over the storage of digital gold.
3. The Court emphasized a 'purposive and expansive' interpretation of the term 'money' under the BUDS Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The HC ruled Jar Gold's activities fall under BUDS Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court highlighted the *lack* of express regulatory supervision by RBI over digital gold storage. Statement 3 is correct: The judgment advocates a 'purposive, expansive and pragmatic' interpretation of money.
According to the FIR mentioned in the article, approximately how much money had Jar Gold collected from the public?
- A.About ₹100 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.About ₹1,000 crore
- C.About ₹4,000 crore
- D.About ₹10,000 crore
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Explanation
The FIR states 'They have collected about Rs 100 crore from the public.' The ₹4,000 crore figure is the startup's total turnover over five years, not the amount collected as per the FIR.
What was the primary rationale of the Karnataka High Court for rejecting Jar Gold's narrow definition of 'deposit' under the BUDS Act?
- A.To increase government tax revenue from fintech startups
- B.To prevent regulatory evasion by including digital assets and commodities under the Act's ambit✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer all fintech regulation exclusively to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.To mandate that all gold must be stored in RBI-approved vaults
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Explanation
The Court ruled that confining 'money' to physical currency would be a 'pedantic and myopic construction' rendering the BUDS Act ineffective. It advocated an expansive interpretation to cover digital assets and 'gold linked assurances' to prevent evasion, aligning with the Act's remedial and protective purpose.
The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) is a joint venture between which two entities?
- A.Government of India and Government of Delhi✓ Correct Answer
- B.Government of India and Government of Haryana
- C.Government of Delhi and Municipal Corporation of Delhi
- D.Ministry of Railways and Ministry of Urban Development
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Explanation
DMRC is a state-owned company established as a 50:50 joint venture between the Government of India and the Government of the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This structure is crucial for funding and administrative control of the metro project.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Delhi Metro expansion:
1. The newly inaugurated Majlis Park to Maujpur-Babarpur section is part of the Magenta Line.
2. The Deepali Chowk to Majlis Park corridor reaches a height of approximately 28.36 metres, making it one of the highest elevated sections in the Delhi Metro network.
3. The foundation stone was laid for three new corridors, including an underground Central Vista corridor from Ramakrishna Ashram Marg to Indraprastha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Majlis Park to Maujpur-Babarpur section is part of the Pink Line, not the Magenta Line. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct; the foundation was laid for three corridors, including the underground Central Vista corridor. Hence, option C is correct.
What is the estimated total cost of the Delhi Metro projects inaugurated and for which foundation was laid, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹15,200 crore
- B.₹18,300 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹22,500 crore
- D.₹25,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The estimated total cost of these Metro projects is Rs 18,300 crore.' This is a direct factual recall question testing attention to key financial data in infrastructure news.
What is a primary expected benefit of the newly operational Ring Metro and expanded network in Delhi, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher fare collection
- B.To promote foreign direct investment in metro manufacturing
- C.To reduce the number of vehicles on roads and help control pollution✓ Correct Answer
- D.To serve as a model for metro systems in other countries
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Explanation
The article quotes the Chief Minister stating the expansion 'will improve public transport, make daily travel easier for citizens, reduce the number of vehicles on roads and help control pollution.' While other options may be indirect benefits, pollution control and decongestion are cited as direct primary objectives of the project.
Saskatchewan, a key province in the India-Canada trade relationship, is a major global producer of which of the following resources?
- A.Crude Oil and Natural Gas
- B.Uranium, Potash, and Pulses✓ Correct Answer
- C.Diamonds and Gold
- D.Timber and Fisheries
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Explanation
As per the article, Saskatchewan supplies about 20% of the world's uranium, over 35% of the world's potash, and is the largest exporter of pulses (like lentils and peas). This makes it a critical partner for India's energy and agricultural needs.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada trade relationship as discussed in the article:
1. Canada supplied uranium to India between 2015 and 2020 under a previous agreement.
2. Saskatchewan produces over 50% of the world's potash, making it the largest global supplier.
3. The two Prime Ministers have committed to conclude negotiations on an Early Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA) within the current calendar year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Canada supplied uranium to India earlier, between 2015 and 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect; Saskatchewan produces over 35% of the world's potash, not over 50%. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of the commitment to conclude EPTA negotiations within this calendar year.
As per the news article, what is the value and duration of the new uranium supply agreement between India and Canada?
- A.$1.8 billion for 5 years
- B.$2.6 billion for 9 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.$3.5 billion for 10 years
- D.$2.0 billion for 7 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the uranium supply agreement is worth $2.6 billion and has a duration of nine years. This long-term, high-value deal is central to the news item and a key data point for exams.
According to Saskatchewan Premier Scott Moe, what is the primary rationale for advocating that India-Canada trade must move beyond political disputes?
- A.To increase diplomatic leverage in multilateral forums
- B.To separate political differences from stable, market-based trade relationships✓ Correct Answer
- C.To counter the economic influence of other global powers
- D.To prioritize cultural and educational exchanges over commerce
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Explanation
The Premier's core argument, as quoted in the article, is the importance of separating political differences from market-based trade relationships to ensure economic ties remain stable. This is presented as a pragmatic approach to maintaining vital trade in resources like uranium, pulses, and potash despite bilateral political tensions.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for issuing Emigration Clearance for Indian workers traveling to Gulf countries?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
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Explanation
The Protector of Emigrants (PoE), which grants Emigration Clearance Required (ECR) clearance, operates under the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The MEA handles all matters related to Indian citizens abroad.
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the West Asia conflict as per the article:
1. The Strait of Hormuz, through which nearly a fifth of the world's oil passes, is now effectively closed to commercial shipping.
2. Between 2021 and 2025, Saudi Arabia accounted for the largest share (41%) of emigration clearances for Indian workers bound for Gulf countries.
3. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is the largest source of India's inward remittances and also the top destination for Indian white-collar professionals in the Gulf.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Strait of Hormuz handles nearly a fifth of global oil and is now effectively closed. Statement 2 is correct as Saudi Arabia accounted for 41% of clearances. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the UAE is a major remittance source and the largest destination for blue-collar work, the article does not specify it as the top destination for white-collar professionals.
According to the article, what percentage of emigration clearances for Gulf-bound Indian workers between 2021 and 2025 were for the United Arab Emirates (UAE)?
- A.12%
- B.24%✓ Correct Answer
- C.41%
- D.65%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UAE accounted for 24% of emigration clearances for Indian workers bound for the Gulf region during 2021-2025. Saudi Arabia was first with 41%, and Kuwait was third with 12%.
What is the primary economic risk to India highlighted in the article due to the escalating conflict in West Asia?
- A.A sharp decline in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from the region.
- B.Disruption of a critical source of foreign remittances and energy supplies.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cancellation of major defense procurement deals with Gulf nations.
- D.Increased cost of importing gold and precious metals.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis points to the dual threat: risks to Indian migrant workers (affecting remittances) and the closure of the Strait of Hormuz (affecting oil supplies). These are immediate and significant economic vulnerabilities, unlike FDI, defense deals, or gold imports which are not the primary focus.
The study revealing the underestimation of coastal water heights was published in which prestigious scientific journal?
- A.Science
- B.Nature✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Lancet
- D.Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the study was published in the journal 'Nature'. This is a premier international weekly journal of science.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the study on sea-level rise:
1. About 90% of scientific studies underestimated baseline coastal water heights.
2. The average underestimation was found to be 50 cm.
3. The biggest discrepancy between assumed and actual water height was found in Europe and along Atlantic coasts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the average underestimation was 30 cm, not 50 cm. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the problem is 'less so in Europe and along Atlantic coasts' and is far more frequent in the Global South, the Pacific, and Southeast Asia.
According to the study, correcting the baseline coastal height error means a 1-meter sea-level rise could threaten how many more people?
- A.50-100 million
- B.77-132 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.100-150 million
- D.200-250 million
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Explanation
The article provides the specific range: 'waters could inundate up to 37% more land and threaten 77 million to 132 million more people'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figures mentioned.
What is the primary 'methodological blind spot' identified in the study that led to the underestimation of coastal water heights?
- A.Ignoring the melting of polar ice caps in calculations
- B.A mismatch between the way sea altitudes and land altitudes are measured✓ Correct Answer
- C.Failure to account for future greenhouse gas emission scenarios
- D.Over-reliance on historical data from tide gauges
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Explanation
The article directly quotes study co-author Philip Minderhoud attributing the error to a 'methodological blind spot' between the different measurement techniques for sea and land, where factors at the coastline interface are not accounted for.
Which international convention, mentioned in the article, establishes the classic criteria for statehood?
- A.The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties
- B.The Montevideo Convention✓ Correct Answer
- C.The United Nations Charter
- D.The Geneva Convention
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Explanation
The article explicitly references the 1933 Montevideo Convention in Uruguay as establishing the four criteria for statehood: territory, permanent population, government, and capacity to enter into relations with other states.
Consider the following statements regarding climate change and international law:
1. The principle of Permanent Sovereignty over Natural Resources (PSNR) grants states an unqualified right to extract fossil fuels.
2. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) has categorically ruled that the loss of territory due to sea-level rise does not affect a state's continued statehood.
3. The 1951 Refugee Convention's definition covers people displaced solely due to climate change and rising sea levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of PSNR. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the ICJ's opinion was 'a very modest legal claim' and not categorical. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clarifies climate refugees do not fit within the 1951 Convention's ambit, which requires persecution.
As per the article, the urgency to restrict the global average temperature rise is below what level?
- A.1.0° Celsius
- B.1.5° Celsius✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.0° Celsius
- D.2.5° Celsius
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'The urgency to restrict global average temperature below 1.5° Celsius is giving rise to the demand... to phase out fossil fuel.' This aligns with the Paris Agreement goal.
What is a key legal challenge for small island states facing sea-level rise, as discussed in the article?
- A.Loss of voting rights in the United Nations General Assembly.
- B.Invalidation of all pre-existing bilateral trade agreements.
- C.Potential loss of statehood due to the disappearance of territory, a criterion under the Montevideo Convention.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Automatic transfer of their population to neighboring countries under international law.
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Explanation
The core legal challenge highlighted is the threat to the 'territory' criterion, one of the four essential elements for statehood as defined by the 1933 Montevideo Convention. This creates unprecedented legal uncertainty about their continued existence as sovereign states.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint mentioned in the news, is primarily under the control of which country?
- A.Saudi Arabia
- B.United Arab Emirates
- C.Iran✓ Correct Answer
- D.Oman
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz is 'under Iran's control.' This is a key static geography fact; Iran controls the northern shore of this strategic waterway.
Consider the following statements regarding the situation described in the news:
1. The disruption in gas supply is due to the Strait of Hormuz being closed following a conflict involving Iran.
2. The ceramic industry in Morbi primarily uses coal as its main fuel for firing kilns.
3. According to industry representatives, the available stock of natural gas (CNG) is estimated to last about one week.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article cites the closure of the Strait of Hormuz due to the Iran-US-Israel conflict. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the industry relies on 'propane or natural gas,' not coal. Statement 3 is correct as per the quote from the President of MCMA (Vitrified Tiles Division).
According to the news article, approximately how many ceramic units are currently operational in Morbi, Gujarat?
- A.Around 400 units
- B.Around 500 units
- C.Around 600 units✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around 700 units
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Explanation
The article quotes Haresh Bopaliya, president of the Morbi Ceramic Manufacturers Association (Wall Tiles Division), stating 'Morbi currently had around 600 ceramic units.' This is a precise data point for factual recall.
What is the primary immediate cause for the potential shutdown of the ceramic industry in Morbi as per the news article?
- A.A shortage of skilled labour in the region
- B.New environmental regulations banning ceramic production
- C.Disruption of propane and natural gas supply due to a conflict in West Asia✓ Correct Answer
- D.A major accident at a key manufacturing plant in Morbi
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Explanation
The entire article centers on the disruption of gas supplies from the Gulf region because the Strait of Hormuz is closed amid the US-Israel-Iran conflict. While a port accident in Saudi Arabia earlier disturbed supply, the current imminent crisis is directly attributed to the war and strait closure.
Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in India?
- A.The Supreme Court of India
- B.The Parliament of India
- C.The Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI), established under Article 324 of the Constitution, is the apex body responsible for superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections, including processes like the SIR.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in West Bengal:
1. The SIR process resulted in the deletion of approximately 62 lakh names from the electoral roll.
2. The highest category of deletions was voters who had shifted to other constituencies.
3. The Supreme Court intervened and appointed judicial officers to adjudicate pending cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states deletions were 'about 62 lakh names so far'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The highest category was deceased voters (24 lakh), not shifted voters (18 lakh). Statement 3 is correct: The SC intervened and '501 judicial officers' were brought in for adjudication.
According to the article, what was the approximate number of Booth Level Officers (BLOs) involved in the SIR exercise in West Bengal?
- A.50,000
- B.80,681✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,00,000
- D.1,20,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'more than five lakh government officials including 80,681 BLOs (booth level officers)' were involved in the process. The other options are distractors not mentioned.
What was the primary objective of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) as stated by the Election Commission of India in the article?
- A.To increase voter turnout in the upcoming assembly elections
- B.To ensure inclusion of eligible electors and exclusion of those ineligible✓ Correct Answer
- C.To implement a new electronic voting system across the state
- D.To redraw the boundaries of parliamentary constituencies
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the ECI's objective: 'the main objective of the SIR is to ensure inclusion of eligible electors and exclusion of those ineligible.' The other options are administrative tasks not mentioned as the SIR's primary goal.
Which constitutional body audits state finances and flagged concerns about Tamil Nadu's internal debt growth?
- A.Finance Commission
- B.Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions a CAG analysis of states in 2023-24 that noted Tamil Nadu's internal debts were growing at one of the fastest rates in the country. The CAG is the supreme audit institution of India responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the central and state governments.
Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal health of states as per the news article:
1. Tamil Nadu's own-revenue expenditure as a share of total spending is above the all-India average.
2. Kerala's outstanding liabilities as a share of its GDP have been increasing every year since 2021-22.
3. Assam's own-revenue expenditure as a share of total spending is below the all-India average.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states Tamil Nadu's own revenue expenditure (66.9%) remains above the all-India average of 57.3%. Statement 2 is incorrect: For Kerala, the article states its outstanding liabilities have been 'declining every year since 2021-22'. Statement 3 is correct: The article says Assam's own-revenue expenditure (36.8%) is below the all-India average of 57.3%.
According to the 2026-27 Budget mentioned in the article, what is the allocation for Tamil Nadu's Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai scheme?
- A.₹13,807 crore
- B.₹14,412 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹7,641 crore
- D.₹4,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'for which the government allocated Rs 14,412 crore in 2026-27, marginally up from Rs 13,807 crore in 2025-26.' ₹13,807 crore is the previous year's allocation, ₹7,641 crore is for discounted power tariffs, and ₹4,000 crore is for free bus travel for women.
What is a primary fiscal concern arising from the high debt levels of states like Kerala and West Bengal, as indicated in the article?
- A.It leads to immediate cuts in essential welfare schemes.
- B.It increases the state's dependence on central government transfers.
- C.It crowds out capital expenditure needed for long-term growth.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It automatically triggers intervention by the Finance Commission.
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Explanation
The article directly links high debt to constrained capital expenditure. For Kerala, a NITI Aayog report notes it 'has struggled to raise its capital expenditure given the heavy burden of its social sector and non-developmental spending.' For West Bengal, it states 'The state’s debt position has, however, contributed to restricting its capital expenditure in recent years.'
The Durand Line is a disputed border between which two countries?
- A.India and Pakistan
- B.Afghanistan and Pakistan✓ Correct Answer
- C.Iran and Afghanistan
- D.Pakistan and China
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Explanation
The Durand Line, established in 1893, is the international border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. Afghanistan has historically contested its legitimacy, a key factor mentioned in the article fueling current tensions.
Consider the following statements regarding the Afghanistan-Pakistan conflict:
1. Pakistan's military operation in February 2026 is named 'Operation Ghazab Lil Haq'.
2. The conflict is primarily driven by Pakistan's accusation that the Afghan Taliban harbors militants of the Islamic State (ISIS).
3. The Durand Line is recognized as a legitimate international border by Pashtun nationalists in Afghanistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Pakistan accuses Afghanistan of harboring Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) militants, not ISIS. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Durand Line remains an illegitimate colonial inheritance for many Pashtun nationalists in Afghanistan.
According to the article, in which month and year did peace talks between Afghanistan and Pakistan stall?
- A.October 2025
- B.November 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.February 2026
- D.March 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'peace talks between the allies-turned-foes stalled in November last year' (referring to 2025). October 2025 is mentioned as the month of the deadliest military exchange, and February 2026 is when Pakistan launched air strikes.
What is identified in the article as a core reason for the failure of Pakistan's 'strategic depth' policy in Afghanistan?
- A.Military weakness of the Afghan Taliban
- B.Strong diplomatic intervention by India
- C.Ethnic and ideological links between Afghan Taliban and TTP✓ Correct Answer
- D.Economic sanctions imposed by the United States
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Explanation
The article explains that structural factors, 'foremost among them, ethnicity', ensured Pakistan's policy would not succeed. The Pakistani Taliban (TTP) have longstanding ethnic (Pashtun) and ideological links with their Afghan counterparts, making the Afghan Taliban unwilling to rein them in.
The long-term uranium supply agreement mentioned in the news is between a Canadian company and which Indian government department?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- C.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the commercial agreement is between Canada's Cameco and India's Department of Atomic Energy. While NPCIL operates nuclear plants, the overarching department for atomic energy matters is the DAE.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada agreements:
1. A landmark deal was signed for the long-term supply of uranium between Cameco and India's Department of Atomic Energy.
2. The two sides signed over thirty government-to-government agreements and MoUs.
3. The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) signed an MoU with Canada's MITACS to send 500 Indian students annually for research internships.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions 'eight government-to-government pacts and 24 MoUs', which totals 32 agreements, not 'over thirty' government-to-government agreements alone. Statement 3 is incorrect; the number of students is 'approximately 300', not 500.
According to the news, what is the target for India-Canada bilateral trade by 2030 as envisioned under the CEPA?
- A.$30 billion
- B.$40 billion
- C.$50 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$60 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states the trade framework (CEPA) is expected to boost bilateral trade to '$50 billion by 2030'. The current trade is less than $9 billion.
What is a significant strategic implication of the recent India-Canada agreements, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It primarily focuses on countering Chinese influence in the Arctic region.
- B.It helps India tide over global uncertainty caused by a potential shift in US foreign policy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is aimed at replacing India's existing strategic partnership with the United States.
- D.Its main goal is to resolve the long-standing Kashmir issue through multilateral dialogue.
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Explanation
The article concludes that closer ties with countries like Canada will help India 'tide over the current period of uncertainty' as 'a Trump-led US pursues an America-First approach'. This is the key strategic implication mentioned. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), which led the study on cancer drug affordability, operates under which government department?
- A.Department of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Science and Technology
- D.Department of Pharmaceuticals
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Explanation
Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), a premier cancer care and research institute in Mumbai, operates under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. This is a key static fact relevant for government exams.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the Tata Memorial Centre study on cancer drug affordability:
1. The study found that immunotherapy drugs like pembrolizumab are covered under the Ayushman Bharat scheme for head and neck cancer patients.
2. The cost of a six-month course of pembrolizumab in India is approximately 80 times the average monthly income of a patient.
3. The study was conducted in collaboration with the Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer (ACTREC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states that immunotherapy drugs are NOT covered under Ayushman Bharat. Statement 2 is correct as per the study's finding that the cost is nearly 80 times the average monthly income. Statement 3 is correct as the study was led by TMC and ACTREC.
According to the study published in the Head & Neck journal, what is the approximate cost of a six-month course of the immunotherapy drug nivolumab (Opdivo) in India?
- A.₹5-7 lakh
- B.₹12-15 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹20-25 lakh
- D.₹30-35 lakh
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Explanation
The article clearly states that a six-month course of nivolumab (Opdivo) costs approximately ₹12-15 lakh. This is a direct data point from the news, making it a potential prelims question.
What is the primary reason highlighted in the study for the inaccessibility of modern immunotherapy drugs for head and neck cancer patients in India?
- A.Lack of medical infrastructure in rural areas
- B.Absence of trained oncologists in the country
- C.Prohibitively high drug prices relative to patient income✓ Correct Answer
- D.Stringent regulatory hurdles for drug approval
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Explanation
The core finding of the study, as quoted by Dr. Arjun Singh, is that "immunotherapy is not just expensive, it is completely out of reach for most families" because the drug prices are "far too high compared to the actual benefit intended." The article quantifies this by showing the cost is 80 times the average monthly income.
Which international organization, mentioned in the article, is the UN's nuclear watchdog responsible for monitoring Iran's nuclear activities?
- A.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
- D.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
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Explanation
The article repeatedly mentions the IAEA, referring to it as 'the UN's nuclear watchdog' and detailing its reports and Iran's suspended cooperation with it. The IAEA is the correct body for monitoring nuclear non-proliferation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Iran nuclear issue:
1. The 2015 nuclear deal, from which the U.S. withdrew in 2018, is officially known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).
2. Iran's stockpile of 60% highly enriched uranium (HEU) is estimated to be sufficient for five to eight nuclear warheads.
3. According to the article, the U.S.-Israeli strikes in 2025 completely destroyed Iran's Fordow nuclear facility and its stockpile of enriched uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article states Iran has ~70 kg of 60% HEU, 'sufficient for five to eight nuclear warheads'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states early assessments claimed the program was only 'set back by a few months' and there is 'no certainty' the stockpile was destroyed.
According to the article, what is the approximate quantity of 60% highly enriched uranium (HEU) that Iran is estimated to possess?
- A.About 25 kg
- B.About 50 kg
- C.About 70 kg✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 100 kg
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'According to some estimates, Iran has around 70 kg of 60% HEU, sufficient for five to eight nuclear warheads.' The other options are plausible distractors but not the figure mentioned.
What is the primary strategic significance of Iran enriching uranium to the 60% level, as discussed in the article?
- A.It is the ideal level for fueling civilian nuclear power reactors.
- B.It represents over 90% of the separative work needed to reach weapons-grade (90%) uranium.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is a legal limit set by the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) for non-nuclear weapon states.
- D.It is a threshold that triggers automatic sanctions under United Nations resolutions.
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Explanation
The article explains the technical crux: '60% HEU will have completed more than 90% of the work required to produce weapons-grade uranium.' This drastically reduces the 'breakout time' needed to produce a bomb, which is the core security concern.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 in India?
- A.Ministry of Human Resource Development
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
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Explanation
The Ministry of Education (formerly the Ministry of Human Resource Development) is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The article discusses NEP 2020's provisions on language, which fall under this ministry's purview.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020's stance on language in education:
1. It mandates the use of the mother tongue or home language as the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5.
2. It views multilingualism in the classroom primarily as a administrative challenge that needs to be streamlined.
3. It emphasizes the need for teacher training to handle multilingual pedagogy effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of NEP 2020's "bold call for mother-tongue instruction till at least Class 5". Statement 2 is incorrect; NEP 2020 asks us to treat multilingualism as a resource, not a hurdle or administrative challenge. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies teacher preparedness as a core challenge and states that teacher education must develop educators to see multilingualism as a strength.
According to the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, until which grade should the mother tongue or home language preferably be used as the medium of instruction?
- A.Till Class 3
- B.Till at least Class 5✓ Correct Answer
- C.Till Class 8
- D.Till Class 10
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "NEP 2020’s bold call for mother-tongue instruction till at least Class 5 reflects global research..." This is a key factual takeaway from the policy for exam purposes. The other options are plausible distractors for different educational stages.
What is identified in the article as the primary objective of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020's emphasis on mother-tongue instruction in early education?
- A.To reduce the number of languages spoken in India
- B.To promote English as the sole language of global opportunity
- C.To place language at the heart of educational equity✓ Correct Answer
- D.To simplify textbook production for publishers
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Explanation
The article states that "NEP 2020 doesn’t just talk about language; it places it at the heart of equity" and that its greatest strength is "placing language at the heart of equity." The policy aims to ensure children are not disadvantaged by an unfamiliar classroom language, making equity its core objective. The other options are either contrary to the policy's intent or secondary concerns.
Which statutory body is primarily responsible for enforcing air pollution control measures like construction bans in the Delhi-NCR region, as mentioned in the article?
- A.National Green Tribunal (NGT)
- B.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- C.Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
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Explanation
The article references construction bans triggered under Delhi-NCR's pollution control framework. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is the statutory body established specifically for this region under the CAQM Act, 2021. While MoEFCC is the nodal ministry and CPCB/NGT are involved, CAQM is the primary enforcement authority for GRAP measures in NCR.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on air pollution as a business risk:
1. According to a Bloomberg analysis, the phrase 'air pollution' was mentioned 988 times in earnings calls of companies in the BSE AllCap index in the year 2025.
2. The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) framework is a global initiative that mandates companies to disclose air pollution as a material risk.
3. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) estimates that global healthcare costs related to air pollution will rise to $176 billion by the year 2060.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because BRSR is an Indian framework mandated by SEBI, not a global initiative. The global framework mentioned is the Taskforce on Nature-related Financial Disclosures (TNFD). Statement 3 is correct as per the OECD projection cited in the article.
As per the news article, for which quarter did Shoppers Stop attribute a 69% decline in net profit partly to elevated pollution levels in northern India?
- A.June Quarter
- B.September Quarter
- C.December Quarter✓ Correct Answer
- D.March Quarter
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "In the December quarter, Shoppers Stop reported a 69% decline in net profit, partly attributing it to elevated pollution levels in northern India." This is a direct data point from the corporate earnings call mentioned in the analysis.
What is a key criticism, as highlighted in the article, regarding how companies currently disclose air pollution risks under frameworks like BRSR?
- A.They over-report absolute emissions data, causing investor panic.
- B.They aggregate multiple pollutants together and avoid disclosing data from worst-performing facilities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are mandated to report only for their headquarters, ignoring supply chain impacts entirely.
- D.They rely solely on forward-looking cost projections without any current intensity metrics.
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Explanation
The article quotes an expert stating: "Even when companies disclose on air pollution, there is a tendency to aggregate multiple pollutants together and avoid disclosing on worst-performing facilities." This points to a lack of granularity and transparency in current reporting practices, which is a central critique in the news piece.
Which state's Public Health Act served as the prototype for similar acts in only five other states and one Union Territory in India, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Kerala
- B.Maharashtra
- C.Tamil Nadu✓ Correct Answer
- D.Andhra Pradesh
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Explanation
The article states that the Tamil Nadu Public Health Act, modeled on the 1939 Madras Presidency Act, is the prototype that only five other states and one UT have replicated. This is a key static GK fact about public health governance in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's healthcare achievements:
1. Tamil Nadu's Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) dropped from 13 per 1,000 live births in 2020 to 8.2 per 1,000 live births in the period April-December 2023.
2. The state's Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) of 35 per 1,00,000 live births is the lowest in India.
3. Tamil Nadu has achieved 100% institutional deliveries, exceeding the national average.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the HMIS data cited. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Tamil Nadu's MMR is 35, which is the second-lowest, behind Kerala and Andhra Pradesh (both at 30). Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions Tamil Nadu boasts 100% institutional deliveries against 94.5% nationally.
According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) data mentioned in the article, what is Tamil Nadu's Crude Birth Rate?
- A.14.2✓ Correct Answer
- B.19.7
- C.26.2
- D.8.2
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Explanation
The article explicitly states Tamil Nadu's Crude Birth Rate is 14.2, compared to the national mark of 19.7. 19.7 is the national average, 26.2 was the neonatal mortality rate in 2005, and 8.2 is the IMR for 2023.
What is the primary objective of the Tamil Nadu Medical Services Corporation (TNMSC), established in 1995, as described in the article?
- A.To provide health insurance coverage to all families in the state.
- B.To train and deploy Village Health Nurses across rural areas.
- C.To centralize the procurement and distribution of quality drugs for government health facilities.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To implement the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme digitally.
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Explanation
The article clearly states TNMSC was established to centralize and streamline the procurement, storage, and distribution of quality, affordable medicines for all government health facilities. While CMCHIS provides insurance and VHNs are field workers, the core objective of TNMSC is drug supply chain management.
According to the article, which academic domains are most negatively impacted by excessive AI tool usage in terms of cognitive skill development?
- A.Engineering and Technology
- B.Medicine and Pharmacy
- C.Humanities and Social Sciences✓ Correct Answer
- D.Pure Sciences and Mathematics
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that students in the humanities and social sciences experienced the biggest drops in cognitive abilities. This is significant because these domains are traditionally where critical thinking, argumentation, and policy-making skills are cultivated.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the 2025 studies on AI in education mentioned in the article:
1. AI overuse leads to a phenomenon termed 'solution paralysis', where students struggle to initiate tasks without AI assistance.
2. Students who used AI extensively showed improved performance in solving practice problems and also demonstrated enhanced conceptual knowledge.
3. The studies utilized frameworks like Cognitive Load Theory and Bloom's Taxonomy to analyze the impact of AI on learning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article defines 'solution paralysis' as when students feel unable to start, decide, or move forward without AI. Statement 2 is incorrect; while students using AI did more practice problems correctly, their conceptual knowledge got worse. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the authors used Cognitive Load Theory and Bloom's taxonomy to explain the impact.
According to a 2025 study published in the ASSA Journal, by what percentage did memory retention worsen among students who heavily depended on AI tools?
- A.17.3%
- B.22%✓ Correct Answer
- C.25%
- D.The article does not specify a percentage
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the ASSA Journal study found people who depended on AI a lot had '22% worse memory retention'. Option A (17.3%) is the drop in critical thinking scores, which is a different metric.
What is the primary objective of the 'AI receipt' pedagogical intervention discussed in the article?
- A.To police and punish students for using AI in their assignments.
- B.To make students document and reflect on their AI usage, fostering accountability and metacognition.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To completely replace traditional grading with automated AI assessment.
- D.To provide students with a formal invoice for using premium AI tools.
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Explanation
The article describes the 'AI receipt' as requiring students to document where, how, and why they used AI, and what they changed. This process is not about punishment but about making them take intellectual responsibility, understand AI as a tool with consequences, and engage in metacognition—thinking about their own thinking process.
The International Fleet Review (IFR) mentioned in the article, graced by the Indian President, was held at which Indian naval port?
- A.Mumbai
- B.Kochi
- C.Visakhapatnam✓ Correct Answer
- D.Chennai
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the International Fleet Review was held at Visakhapatnam. Visakhapatnam is a major naval base on the east coast of India, housing the Eastern Naval Command.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Iranian warship IRIS Dena was sunk by a US submarine in the Indian Ocean, 40 nautical miles off the coast of Sri Lanka.
2. The sinking occurred before the warship participated in India's International Fleet Review held in Visakhapatnam.
3. India's reliance on crude oil imports transiting through these sea lanes is nearly 88 percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the Dena participated in the IFR in February and was sunk later, on March 4. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions India relies on almost 88% of imported crude oil that transits these sea lines.
According to the article, what percentage of India's imported crude oil transits through the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean region that are now vulnerable to conflict escalation?
- A.75%
- B.82%
- C.88%✓ Correct Answer
- D.92%
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Explanation
The article specifically states: "India relies on almost 88 per cent of the imported crude oil that transits these sea lines." This is a critical data point highlighting India's energy security vulnerability.
What is the primary strategic dilemma for India, as highlighted in the article, following the sinking of the IRIS Dena?
- A.Choosing between supporting the US or Iran in the ongoing conflict.
- B.Addressing the gap in its underwater domain awareness and its diplomatic posture.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Launching its own search and rescue operation to assert naval dominance.
- D.Imposing sanctions on the United States for violating international waters.
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Explanation
The article frames India's dilemma as a 'catch-22' involving two questions: Was India unaware of the submarine activity (UDA failure)? Or was it aware but not informed/apprised (diplomatic slight)? Both scenarios point to strategic vulnerabilities in awareness and diplomacy, which is the core analytical dilemma presented.
Under which constitutional article did the Karnataka High Court issue a writ of mandamus to direct the registrar?
- A.Article 32
- B.Article 136
- C.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 142
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Explanation
Article 226 of the Constitution empowers High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs, including mandamus, for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. The article was explicitly mentioned in the court's observations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment on a minor's surname:
1. The court held that a child's right to claim maintenance from the biological father depends on the surname she bears.
2. The court observed that the presumption a child must bear the father's surname is a constitutional mandate.
3. The court ruled that the registrar has the power under the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 to correct the birth certificate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court specifically noted that "A child's right to claim maintenance from the biological father does not depend upon the surname she bears." Statement 2 is incorrect. The court observed that this presumption is "not a constitutional mandate but a social convention." Statement 3 is correct as per the judgment.
As per the news article, on which date did Justice Suraj Govindaraj of the Karnataka High Court pass the order allowing the plea?
- A.March 05, 2026
- B.February 17, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 05, 2025
- D.February 17, 2025
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Explanation
The article states: "Justice Suraj Govindaraj passed the order on February 17 while allowing a plea..." The published date of the article is March 05, 2026, but the order date is clearly February 17, 2026.
What was the primary legal reasoning of the Karnataka High Court for allowing the change of a minor's surname to her maternal lineage?
- A.It simplifies administrative procedures for single mothers.
- B.It is in the best interest of the child and upholds her right to identity under Article 21.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is mandatory as per the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
- D.It prevents the biological father from future legal claims.
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Explanation
The court anchored its decision in the child's fundamental right to identity and dignity under Article 21, stating the change promotes her "psychological well-being, and practical convenience" and reflects her "actual familial associations." While the Act grants power, the reasoning was based on constitutional rights and the child's welfare.
As per the US Constitution, which branch of government holds the power to declare war?
- A.The President
- B.The Supreme Court
- C.The Congress✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Department of Defense
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Explanation
Article I, Section 8, Clause 11 of the US Constitution explicitly grants Congress the power to declare war. The President serves as Commander-in-Chief but does not hold the power to formally declare war.
Consider the following statements regarding war powers in the United States:
1. The power to declare war is vested in the Congress by the US Constitution.
2. The War Powers Resolution of 1973 allows the President to engage in hostilities indefinitely without Congressional approval.
3. Authorizations for the Use of Military Force (AUMFs) have been used for conflicts like the Vietnam War and the Iraq War.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Article I, Section 8. Statement 2 is incorrect; the War Powers Resolution limits unauthorized Presidential military action to 60 days (plus a 30-day withdrawal period). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions AUMFs were used for Vietnam, the 1991 Gulf War, Afghanistan, and the 2003 Iraq War.
According to the article, after which war has the United States NOT formally declared war?
- A.Korean War
- B.Vietnam War
- C.World War II
- D.Both A and B✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states, 'The United States has not formally declared war since World War II.' It lists the Korean War, Vietnam War, Gulf War, Afghanistan, and Iraq as operations conducted without a formal declaration of war.
What was the primary objective of the War Powers Resolution enacted by the US Congress in 1973?
- A.To expand the President's authority to deploy troops overseas
- B.To reassert Congressional authority over the commitment of US forces to hostilities✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the need for Congressional approval with a notification system
- D.To grant the Supreme Court final say on military engagements
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Explanation
The article states the resolution was passed 'intending to reassert its authority over wars' after Presidents involved the country in Vietnam without meaningful Congressional input. It creates rules to limit unilateral executive military action.
The concept of the 'Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace' (IOZP) was first prominently advocated by which country in the 1970s?
- A.India
- B.Indonesia
- C.Sri Lanka✓ Correct Answer
- D.Australia
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'In the 1970s, Sri Lanka prominently advocated for the first time the idea of the Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace.' This is a key static GK fact linked to the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Iranian frigate IRIS Dena sank approximately 40 nautical miles south of Sri Lanka after participating in a multilateral naval exercise.
2. The Indian Ocean carries nearly 80% of global seaborne oil traffic and contains critical chokepoints like the Strait of Gibraltar.
3. The United States Defence Secretary confirmed that the operation constituted the first American sinking of an enemy ship by torpedo since World War I.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the 80% figure is correct, the Strait of Gibraltar is not mentioned among the Indian Ocean chokepoints (which are Hormuz, Malacca, and Bab el-Mandeb). Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says 'since World War II,' not World War I.
According to the article, approximately what percentage of global seaborne oil moves across the Indian Ocean?
- A.60%
- B.70%
- C.80%✓ Correct Answer
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'Approximately 80 per cent of global seaborne oil moves across the Indian Ocean.' This is a critical data point for understanding the strategic importance of the region.
What is the primary strategic concern for India, as highlighted in the article, arising from the escalation of conflict into the Indian Ocean?
- A.It threatens India's fishing rights in its Exclusive Economic Zone.
- B.It challenges India's credibility as the net security provider in the region.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It necessitates an immediate increase in India's naval budget.
- D.It requires India to mediate directly between the US and Iran.
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'If the Indian Ocean begins to host open-ended naval warfare between extra-regional powers, it would raise significant questions regarding India’s credibility as the net security provider in the region.' This is the core strategic implication for India.
The concept of 'Velayat-e-Faqih', which forms the basis of Iran's modern government, is most closely associated with which branch of Islam?
- A.Sunni Islam
- B.Shia Islam (Twelver)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sufism
- D.Ibadi Islam
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Explanation
Velayat-e-Faqih (Guardianship of the Islamic Jurist) is a concept developed within Twelver Shia Islam. It was central to the ideology of Ayatollah Khomeini and became the governing principle of the Islamic Republic of Iran after the 1979 Revolution.
Consider the following statements regarding the history of Shi'ism in Iran:
1. The Safavid dynasty established the first Shia state in Iran in the early 16th century.
2. The Pahlavi dynasty aggressively promoted Shi'ism as a state religion, leading to the 1979 Revolution.
3. The Sunni-Shia split originated primarily from differences over the rightful successor to Prophet Muhammad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Shah Ismail I of the Safavid dynasty established Iran as a Shia state in 1501. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Pahlavi dynasty (Reza Shah and his son) pursued aggressive secularization and Westernization, which alienated the religious establishment and was a cause of the 1979 Revolution, not the promotion of Shi'ism. Statement 3 is correct: The primary origin of the Sunni-Shia division was the succession crisis after Prophet Muhammad's death in 632 AD.
In which year did Shah Ismail I of the Safavid dynasty establish the first Shia state in Iran, a pivotal turning point mentioned in the article?
- A.1453
- B.1501✓ Correct Answer
- C.1526
- D.1600
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the year 1501 was a turning point when Shah Ismail I established the first Shi'i state in Iran. 1453 is the fall of Constantinople, 1526 is the First Battle of Panipat, and 1600 is the founding of the East India Company.
According to the analysis in the article, what was a primary reason for the Safavid dynasty's importation of Shia religious scholars from places like Lebanon in the 16th century?
- A.To translate Persian texts into Arabic
- B.To provide religious legitimacy for their rule✓ Correct Answer
- C.To lead military campaigns against the Ottomans
- D.To establish trade networks in the Mediterranean
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Explanation
The article explains that the Safavids, as warrior tribes who conquered Iran, lacked institutional legitimacy. They imported Shia scholars (Ulama) from established centers like Lebanon to provide religious sanction and legitimacy for their rule, in exchange for state appointments and salaries.
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a security alliance primarily involving which of the following regions?
- A.North American and European countries✓ Correct Answer
- B.Asian and Pacific countries
- C.South American and African countries
- D.Middle Eastern and Central Asian countries
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Explanation
NATO is a trans-Atlantic security alliance formed in 1949, as mentioned in the article, involving countries from North America and Europe to provide collective defence against a specific adversary.
Consider the following statements:
1. The League of Nations was formed after World War II and succeeded by the United Nations.
2. NATO's intervention in Kosovo was explicitly sanctioned by a United Nations Security Council resolution.
3. Article 51 of the UN Charter recognizes the inherent right of individual or collective self-defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The League was formed after WWI, and the UN was formed after WWII, effectively succeeding it. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states NATO's Kosovo intervention was NOT sanctioned by the UNSC. Statement 3 is correct: Article 51 is explicitly mentioned as anchoring NATO's right to collective self-defence.
In which year was the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) formed, as per the article?
- A.1945
- B.1949✓ Correct Answer
- C.1955
- D.1991
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NATO came into existence in 1949 against the backdrop of the failure of the interwar period and the beginning of the Cold War. 1945 is the year the UN was formed, and 1991 marks the end of the Cold War.
What is a central element of India's vision for global governance reform as described in the article?
- A.Replacing the United Nations with a new alliance-centric security model
- B.Advocating for the dissolution of NATO to ease tensions with Russia
- C.Demanding a more representative United Nations Security Council and a greater voice for the Global South✓ Correct Answer
- D.Promoting hierarchical governance frameworks led by established powers
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Explanation
The article states India's vision emphasizes reform rather than replacement, specifically demanding a more representative UNSC and a greater voice for the Global South, while respecting sovereignty and maintaining strategic autonomy.
The international legal framework defining maritime zones like Territorial Waters and EEZ is established by which convention?
- A.Geneva Conventions
- B.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
- D.Montreal Protocol
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a country's territorial waters extend up to 12 nautical miles and the EEZ up to 200 nautical miles. UNCLOS is the primary international treaty governing all uses of the oceans.
Consider the following statements regarding maritime zones as per UNCLOS:
1. A coastal state exercises full sovereignty, similar to its land territory, within its Territorial Waters.
2. In an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), foreign vessels require permission from the coastal state for navigation.
3. Waters beyond 200 nautical miles from any coast are known as International Waters or the High Seas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The coastal state exercises full sovereignty, similar to its land territory' within the 12 nm Territorial Waters. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that in an EEZ, 'the waters themselves remain open for navigation by other countries.' Statement 3 is correct: the article defines International Waters as 'Waters beyond 200 nautical miles from any country’s coast.'
According to the news, how many nautical miles off the coast of Galle, Sri Lanka, did the sinking of the IRIS Dena occur?
- A.12 nautical miles
- B.40 nautical miles✓ Correct Answer
- C.74 nautical miles
- D.200 nautical miles
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'A US submarine strike sank the Iranian frigate IRIS Dena about 40 nautical miles off Lanka’s southern city of Galle.' The distance is also reiterated later as 'approximately 40 nautical miles (74 km) off the coast of Galle, Sri Lanka.'
Why does the location of the IRIS Dena sinking (40 nm off Sri Lanka) carry significant legal and geopolitical implications?
- A.It occurred within Sri Lanka's Territorial Waters, constituting a direct act of war.
- B.It occurred in International Waters, where no laws of naval warfare apply.
- C.It occurred within Sri Lanka's EEZ, testing the balance between coastal state resource rights and freedom of navigation.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It occurred within Sri Lanka's internal waters, violating its absolute sovereignty.
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Explanation
As per UNCLOS, 40 nm is outside the 12 nm Territorial Waters but within the 200 nm EEZ. In an EEZ, the coastal state (Sri Lanka) has exclusive rights over resources, but the waters remain open for navigation. This creates a legal gray zone for military engagements, making the incident a test case for interpreting maritime security in EEZs, unlike the clear-cut violations suggested in other options.
Under which Act are Special Courts established to try offences of atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
- A.The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
- B.The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
- D.The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
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Explanation
The SC/ST (PoA) Act, 1989, provides for the establishment of Special Courts for the speedy trial of offences of atrocities committed against members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, as mentioned in the article's context.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court ruling:
1. The court held that merely calling a person by their profession automatically attracts provisions of the SC/ST Act.
2. The court emphasized that for an offence under the SC/ST Act, it must be proven that the words were used with intent to humiliate the victim based on their caste.
3. The case involved sections of the Indian Penal Code related to voluntarily causing hurt and criminal intimidation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled that merely calling a person by their profession does NOT by itself attract the SC/ST Act; intent to humiliate must be proven. Statement 2 is correct as it captures the core ruling. Statement 3 is correct as the FIR was registered under IPC Sections 323 (voluntarily causing hurt) and 506 (criminal intimidation), among others.
The Allahabad High Court judgment was delivered by which judge?
- A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.Justice Anil Kumar-X✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justice N.V. Ramana
- D.Justice U.U. Lalit
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Explanation
As clearly mentioned in the article, the observation was made by Justice Anil Kumar-X of the Allahabad High Court while partly allowing an appeal. The other names are of Supreme Court judges.
What was the primary legal implication of the Allahabad High Court's ruling on the use of the word 'dhobin'?
- A.It expanded the definition of atrocities under the SC/ST Act to include all occupational references.
- B.It narrowed the application of the SC/ST Act by requiring proof of intent to humiliate based on caste.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It declared Section 3(1) of the SC/ST Act as unconstitutional.
- D.It mandated higher punishments for verbal insults under the IPC.
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Explanation
The court's primary ruling was that using a term referring to a profession (like 'dhobin') does not automatically constitute an offence under the SC/ST Act. It established that the prosecution must prove the words were intentionally used with the intent to humiliate the victim because they belong to an SC/ST community, thereby adding a layer of judicial scrutiny.
Which ministry is the nodal agency for managing India's crude oil imports and strategic petroleum reserves, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions sources in the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) discussing India's oil stock position and engagement with international suppliers. MoPNG is responsible for exploration, production, import, and distribution of petroleum and natural gas in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz:
1. It is a narrow waterway between Iran and Oman connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
2. It handles approximately one-fifth of global liquid petroleum consumption and a significant share of LNG trade.
3. The recent military conflict has led to a complete and permanent halt of all maritime traffic through the Strait.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article's description. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article describes an 'effective halt' and that most entities are 'loath to get involved', implying a high-risk-induced stoppage, not a permanent or complete one mandated by a single authority. The situation is due to risk, not a permanent closure.
According to the article, what quantity of India's daily crude oil imports typically transits the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.1.1 - 1.3 million barrels per day
- B.1.5 - 2.0 million barrels per day
- C.2.5 - 2.7 million barrels per day✓ Correct Answer
- D.3.0 - 3.5 million barrels per day
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Explanation
The article states: 'Around 2.5–2.7 million barrels per day (bpd) of India’s crude imports — accounting for around half of the country’s total oil imports — have transited the Strait of Hormuz in recent months.' The other options are distractors based on other figures in the article, like India's total Russian crude imports.
What is the primary strategic implication for India of the disruption in the Strait of Hormuz, as discussed in the article?
- A.A need to immediately increase domestic crude oil production
- B.A challenge to energy security requiring diversification of import sources✓ Correct Answer
- C.An opportunity to completely halt imports from Gulf countries
- D.A trigger for reducing strategic petroleum reserves to lower costs
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Explanation
The article's core analysis highlights that the closure disrupts half of India's imports, forcing it to seek alternative suppliers like Russia and engage with international traders. This directly points to the need for import source diversification to ensure energy security. The other options are not supported: domestic production cannot be immediately ramped up, imports from the Gulf are vital and cannot be completely halted, and drawing down reserves is a reactive measure, not a strategic implication.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 5 March 2026?▼
This page contains 132 current affairs questions from 5 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 5 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q31. According to the FIR mentioned in the article, approximately h…
- Q32. was the primary rationale of the Karnataka High Court for reje…
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- Q36. is a primary expected benefit of the newly operational Ring Me…
- Q37. Saskatchewan, a key province in the India-Canada trade relatio…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada t…
- Q39. As per the news article, what is the value and duration of the…
- Q40. According to Saskatchewan Premier Scott Moe, what is the prima…
- Q41. ministry is primarily responsible for issuing Emigration Clear…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the …
- Q43. According to the article, what percentage of emigration cleara…
- Q44. is the primary economic risk to India highlighted in the artic…
- Q45. The study revealing the underestimation of coastal water heigh…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q47. According to the study, correcting the baseline coastal height…
- Q48. is the primary 'methodological blind spot' identified in the s…
- Q49. international convention, mentioned in the article, establishe…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding climate change and…
- Q51. As per the article, the urgency to restrict the global average…
- Q52. is a key legal challenge for small island states facing sea-le…
- Q53. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint mentioned…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the situation desc…
- Q55. According to the news article, approximately how many ceramic …
- Q56. is the primary immediate cause for the potential shutdown of t…
- Q57. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special …
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
- Q59. According to the article, what was the approximate number of B…
- Q60. was the primary objective of the Special Intensive Revision (S…
- Q61. constitutional body audits state finances and flagged concerns…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal health …
- Q63. According to the 2026-27 Budget mentioned in the article, what…
- Q64. is a primary fiscal concern arising from the high debt levels …
- Q65. The Durand Line is a disputed border between which two countries?
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Afghanistan-Pa…
- Q67. According to the article, in which month and year did peace ta…
- Q68. is identified in the article as a core reason for the failure …
- Q69. The long-term uranium supply agreement mentioned in the news i…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada a…
- Q71. According to the news, what is the target for India-Canada bil…
- Q72. is a significant strategic implication of the recent India-Can…
- Q73. The Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), which led the study on cancer …
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q75. According to the study published in the Head & Neck journal, w…
- Q76. is the primary reason highlighted in the study for the inacces…
- Q77. international organization, mentioned in the article, is the U…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Iran nuclear i…
- Q79. According to the article, what is the approximate quantity of …
- Q80. is the primary strategic significance of Iran enriching uraniu…
- Q81. ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of th…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the National Educa…
- Q83. According to the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, until w…
- Q84. is identified in the article as the primary objective of the N…
- Q85. statutory body is primarily responsible for enforcing air poll…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news on air po…
- Q87. As per the news article, for which quarter did Shoppers Stop a…
- Q88. is a key criticism, as highlighted in the article, regarding h…
- Q89. state's Public Health Act served as the prototype for similar …
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's healt…
- Q91. According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) data…
- Q92. is the primary objective of the Tamil Nadu Medical Services Co…
- Q93. According to the article, which academic domains are most nega…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q95. According to a 2025 study published in the ASSA Journal, by wh…
- Q96. is the primary objective of the 'AI receipt' pedagogical inter…
- Q97. The International Fleet Review (IFR) mentioned in the article,…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q99. According to the article, what percentage of India's imported …
- Q100. is the primary strategic dilemma for India, as highlighted in …
- Q101. Under which constitutional article did the Karnataka High Cour…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
- Q103. As per the news article, on which date did Justice Suraj Govin…
- Q104. was the primary legal reasoning of the Karnataka High Court fo…
- Q105. As per the US Constitution, which branch of government holds t…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding war powers in the …
- Q107. According to the article, after which war has the United State…
- Q108. was the primary objective of the War Powers Resolution enacted…
- Q109. The concept of the 'Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace' (IOZP) wa…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q111. According to the article, approximately what percentage of glo…
- Q112. is the primary strategic concern for India, as highlighted in …
- Q113. The concept of 'Velayat-e-Faqih', which forms the basis of Ira…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the history of Shi…
- Q115. In which year did Shah Ismail I of the Safavid dynasty establi…
- Q116. According to the analysis in the article, what was a primary r…
- Q117. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a security al…
- Q118. Consider the following statements: 1. The League of Nations w…
- Q119. In which year was the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO…
- Q120. is a central element of India's vision for global governance r…
- Q121. The international legal framework defining maritime zones like…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding maritime zones as …
- Q123. According to the news, how many nautical miles off the coast o…
- Q124. Why does the location of the IRIS Dena sinking (40 nm off Sri …
- Q125. Under which Act are Special Courts established to try offences…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
- Q127. The Allahabad High Court judgment was delivered by which judge?
- Q128. was the primary legal implication of the Allahabad High Court'…
- Q129. ministry is the nodal agency for managing India's crude oil im…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q131. According to the article, what quantity of India's daily crude…
- Q132. is the primary strategic implication for India of the disrupti…