9 March 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 80 of the Constitution of India specifies the composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), including its maximum strength and the manner of election and nomination of its members. Article 79 deals with the Constitution of Parliament, Article 81 with the composition of the Lok Sabha, and Article 82 with the readjustment of constituencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha is a permanent body, with one-third of its members retiring every two years. Statement 2 is incorrect: A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Statement 3 is correct: Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution (by a two-thirds majority) recommending the creation of All India Services common to the Union and the states.

Explanation

The article states that India imported $483 million worth of limestone from West Asia, accounting for 68.5% of its total imports. 62.1% refers to gypsum imports, 65.8% to sulphur imports, and 50.7% to copper wire imports from the region.

Explanation

The article, citing the RBI, states that loan waivers affect credit culture as borrowers may withhold repayment in anticipation of a waiver, which adversely affects their credit history and prospects for fresh loans. It also mentions that such schemes stagger fiscal burdens and have historically had low disbursement rates.

Explanation

The SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) and MARPOL (Prevention of Pollution from Ships) conventions are key instruments developed and maintained by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), a specialized UN agency responsible for regulating shipping.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as UNCLOS defines the Territorial Sea limit as 12 nautical miles. Statement 2 is correct as the EEZ extends to 200nm and grants exclusive resource rights. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states that the US is not a signatory to UNCLOS.

Explanation

The article states that the High Seas Treaty reached 60 ratifications on 19 September 2025, triggering a 120-day countdown, and officially entered into force on 17 January 2026. The other dates are related to its signing (Sep 2024) and milestone achievement (Sep 2025).

Explanation

The article's 'Difference between signing and ratification' section clarifies that signing indicates a country agrees with the provisions and is willing to abide by them, but it is not legally bound until it completes its domestic ratification process, which varies by country.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government invoked emergency powers derived from the Essential Commodities Act to direct Indian refiners. This Act allows the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'every $1-per-barrel increase in oil prices would bump up the country's oil import bill by up to $2 billion'. Statement 2 is correct as per a Nomura report cited: 'every 10% oil price increase typically widens India's current account deficit by 0.4% of the GDP'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states 'the immediate priority is to ensure crude oil and fuel availability' and that there are 'no immediate plans for hiking petrol and diesel prices', indicating price stability, not reduction, is the focus.

Explanation

The article states: 'Around 2.5–2.7 million barrels per day (bpd) of India’s crude imports—accounting for around half of the country’s total oil imports—have transited the Strait of Hormuz in recent months.' Half translates to approximately 50%.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that 'the immediate priority is to ensure crude oil and fuel availability on a continuous basis' and that 'the current priority is to ensure continued availability of crude oil and fuels in the country.' While inflation control and strategic reserves are mentioned, the central and immediate concern is supply security.

Explanation

The Department of Fertilizers, under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, is the nodal agency for planning, promotion, and development of the fertilizer industry. It administers subsidy schemes and ensures adequate availability.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'The country’s entire projected 3 mt consumption of muriate of potash (MOP) would be imported.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states the fertilizer sector accounts for 'close to 29%' of India's total gas consumption, not over 50%. Statement 3 is correct: The article states 'the share of Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries... in India’s urea imports at roughly 75%.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Out of India’s total natural gas consumption of 58,802 mmscm (million metric standard cubic meters) during April-January 2025-26...' The other options are close distractors based on misreading the figure.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that a major risk is the closure of the Strait of Hormuz, which would affect the flow of LNG, ammonia, and sulphur from GCC suppliers like Qatar and UAE. These are critical for fertilizer production and supply, making this chokepoint the primary vulnerability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states India should consider developing mechanisms for dialogue 'in collaboration with BRICS and other European countries.' BRICS is mentioned as a key platform for India's proposed diplomatic engagement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the strike was launched on the nuclear pretext despite progress in Geneva talks. Statement 2 is incorrect; Iran struck bases in 'as many as 12 countries', not over 20. Statement 3 is correct, directly stating the price rose from $65 to $90.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Brent crude oil price has reached $90 a barrel from the pre-war price of $65'. Therefore, $65 is the correct pre-war price.

Explanation

The article specifies: 'For New Delhi, the immediate concerns are ensuring the safe return of its people stuck in the region and securing an unhindered supply of oil, gas and fertiliser.' This directly matches option C.

Explanation

As per the article, Romila Thapar notes that the cult of soma/haoma and the emphasis on fire worship were common to Iran and India, and are found in the Rig Veda and the Avesta. This cult 'does not occur elsewhere in the Indo-European speaking world'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as archaeologist J M Unvala pointed to parallels between Susa and Indus Valley sites. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the Mitanni Empire used an Indo-Aryan language and a treaty invoked Varuna, Indra, and Mitra. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states Sassanian influence extended to southwest India and left imprints on Buddhist cave complexes in northwest India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Greater Iran Bronze Age complex probably migrated towards the Indus Valley around 2000 BCE.' This is a direct factual recall from the text.

Explanation

The article states that Persian became embedded in chancery practices, producing a large scribal class, and that Hindu scribal castes like Kayasth and Khatri embraced Persian and became its accomplished prose stylists. This is the direct impact mentioned. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The NGT is a statutory body established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is a general environmental law but not the specific parent act for the NGT.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the NGT rejected the request to withdraw the petition. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the penalty mentioned was ₹5,000, not ₹50,000.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "35 trees are stated to have been illegally felled." The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The NGT order, as quoted in the article, states that the application "raises substantial environmental questions in public interest" and therefore could not be dismissed without adjudication. This underscores the tribunal's duty to uphold environmental justice beyond individual petitioners.

Explanation

The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, is administered by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD). This ministry is responsible for policy, planning, and coordination for the welfare, development, and protection of children.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Karnataka HC specifically ruled that mere storage IS an offence under Section 15 of POCSO and Section 67B of the IT Act, even without transmission. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the HC relied on the SC precedent. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the court held Section 15 POCSO is an 'inchoate offence' that penalizes storage with intent.

Explanation

As per the article, the accused was booked under 'Section 67B of the IT Act and Section 15 of the POCSO Act'. Section 67B deals with punishment for publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts. Section 15 deals with punishment for storage of pornographic material involving children.

Explanation

The article explains that an 'inchoate offence' is incomplete and penalizes preparatory acts. By holding Section 15 as inchoate, the court ruled that the offence is complete with the storage of child pornography with the specific intent to share or transmit, and there is 'no need for any actual transmission or dissemination'. The intent is to be determined from circumstances.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Committee of Privileges is a Standing Committee. Standing Committees are permanent committees constituted every year or periodically. Ad-hoc, Joint, and Select Committees are formed for specific purposes and dissolved thereafter.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Atlas was released by the World Obesity Federation, not WHO. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India ranks second after China, not first.

Explanation

The article states: 'Estimates suggest that... 20 million children in India will be living with obesity... by 2040.' 14 million is the 2025 figure for obesity alone, 41 million is the 2025 total for high BMI, and 56 million is the 2040 projection for overweight or obese children.

Explanation

The article clearly states the directive came due to certain channels airing 'unwarranted sensationalism and speculative content' about the Israel-Iran conflict, which could create public panic. The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the provided content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has plans to set up its own space station, to be called Bharatiya Antariksh Station, in the 2035 timeframe. ISRO is the primary agency responsible for India's space program.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the ISS has been continuously inhabited with astronauts for the last 25 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies that unlike the ISS, Tiangong has been used only by Chinese astronauts, indicating it is not an international project. Statement 3 is correct: It is stated that Starlab is likely to be launched in one shot, as one full unit, unlike the ISS which was assembled in space.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the International Space Station (ISS) is orbiting the Earth at a distance of about 400 km from its surface. This is a key factual detail about the ISS's operational parameters.

Explanation

The article's central thesis, as stated by the executive and supported by the context, is that with the International Space Station set to retire in about five years, the rush to set up commercial space stations is the biggest driver. While other factors like scientific demand exist, the article presents the ISS's retirement as the primary catalyst creating the need for replacement infrastructure.

Explanation

Article 112 of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'Annual Financial Statement,' commonly known as the Union Budget. It mandates the President to cause a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure to be laid before Parliament. Article 110 deals with Money Bills, Article 265 with taxation, and Article 280 with the Finance Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The budget outlay is ₹2,60,437 crore and no new taxes were imposed. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states the debt-to-GSDP ratio has been reduced from 48.25% to 44.47%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: The 'Meri Rasoi' scheme with ₹900 crore allocation for free quarterly ration kits is mentioned. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The budget document projects the GSDP for 2026-27 to reach ₹9,80,635 crore. ₹8,91,487 crore is the revised estimate for 2025-26. ₹4,47,754 crore is the projected outstanding debt, and ₹2,60,437 crore is the budget outlay.

Explanation

A lower debt-to-GSDP ratio is a key indicator of a government's improved fiscal health and its ability to manage debt sustainably. It signals to credit rating agencies and investors that the state's finances are on a stronger footing, which was a key point made by the Finance Minister in the budget speech.

Explanation

The article states the initiative was launched by Deputy Chief Minister Eknath Shinde. The Public Health Minister (Prakash Abitkar) also spoke at the event, but the launch was done by the Deputy CM.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article targets girls aged 14-15. Statement 2 is incorrect; Gardasil 4 is a quadrivalent (protects against four strains), not a bivalent, vaccine. Statement 3 is correct as the campaign will run for three months before becoming part of the regular schedule.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in December 2025, Maharashtra procured 9,47,380 doses of Gardasil 4. The figure 9,84,414 is the number of target beneficiaries (girls), not the doses procured.

Explanation

The article's core objective is preventing cervical cancer. It repeatedly mentions vaccinating girls to protect them from this disease. The other options, like reducing maternal mortality or eradicating polio, are unrelated to the HPV vaccine's purpose.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Karnataka High Court delivered this judgment. The case pertained to a project in Karnataka and the interpretation of the state's KAOA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states RERA applies 'till handing over of possession'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court explicitly said 'The Cooperative Society is not a good vehicle...'. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment states KAOA applies 'once such handing over is complete'. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'out of 395 units' when discussing the developer's argument. This is a factual data point directly from the text.

Explanation

The court's order emphasized that 'Functioning of parallel associations will definitely create chaos' and that 'the very purpose of purchasing the apartment by the owners for their peaceful living will be frustrated.' This is the core rationale provided in the judgment.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the CBI's appeal challenging the bail granted to Kuldeep Singh Sengar. The CBI is the central investigating agency handling the case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SC 'permitted the survivor...to become a party'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the precedent cited was the Lakhimpur Kheri violence case, not the Nirbhaya case. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the bench refused to entertain the cousin's application.

Explanation

The article clearly states the CBI's appeal was against the 'December 23, 2025, order of the Delhi High Court'. December 29, 2025, is the date the Supreme Court stayed the HC order.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bench allowed the impleadment 'observing that she has a right to be heard in light of the judgment in the Lakhimpur Kheri violence case', where the SC held a victim has 'unbridled participatory rights'. This is the core legal principle applied.

Explanation

As per the article, the Gem and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) is the nodal agency designated to implement the KPCS certification process in India. It works under the supervision of the Department of Commerce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the KP is a 'voluntary agreement' and 'does not create legally binding obligations'. Statement 2 is correct as KPCS was established in 2003. Statement 3 is correct as participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's exports of cut and polished diamonds stood at approximately $13.3 billion in 2024-2025. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article identifies that a key reform revolves around 'reconsidering the definition of conflict diamonds, as it does not include diamonds linked to child labour, environmental harm, and human rights violations.' The other options are not mentioned as part of India's agenda.

Explanation

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. The student moved the Rajasthan High Court via a writ petition, which falls under this Article. Article 32 is for the Supreme Court, Article 136 is for special leave to appeal, and Article 142 deals with the Supreme Court's enforcement decrees.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Court quashed the ₹1,000 fee. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court rejected the university's argument based on Section 7, calling the fee 'arbitrary' and a violation of the Act. Statement 3 is correct: The Court explicitly stated that the RTI Rules 2012 occupy the field and any conflicting guidelines are void. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Rule 3 of the RTI Rules, 2012, fixes the cap of ₹10 as the application fee. The Rajasthan High Court judgment specifically cited this rule while quashing the university's ₹1,000 fee. The other options are common distractors based on other fee structures or outdated rules.

Explanation

The core ruling is that the RTI Act and its Rules (2012) occupy the field. Therefore, any fee charged by a public authority (like a university) must strictly adhere to these central rules and cannot be a discretionary, arbitrary barrier. It does not grant autonomy (A), mandate free cost (B), or transfer rule-making power (D).

Explanation

The article clearly states that the High Court upheld an order passed by the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT). The AFT is a specialized tribunal established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007, to adjudicate service matters of defence personnel.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition of broad-banding. Statement 2 is also correct as the article mentions it applies to disability 'attributable to or aggravated by service'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court in the Ram Avtar case declared it a 'judgment in rem' applicable from the date of discharge, while the government's circular of February 9, 2018, tried to restrict it from January 1, 2016, which the High Court struck down.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court reaffirmed the legal position that armed forces personnel 'are entitled to the benefit of rounding off from the date of their discharge/retirement with disability.' The High Court upheld this, rejecting the government's circular which sought to grant it only from January 1, 2016.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the Court's statement that 'an internal communication between the Government of India and the three Army Chiefs cannot change the law declared by the Supreme Court' and that the 2018 circular 'could not be used to supplant or override judicial declarations.' This reinforces the principle of judicial supremacy under the Constitution.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bills were introduced by Law and Justice Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal on December 17, 2024. The Ministry of Law and Justice is the nodal ministry for legislative proposals related to the Constitution and election laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the bills provide for a 'one-time measure' to curtail Assembly terms. Statement 2 is incorrect; the bills were introduced by the Law and Justice Minister, not the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions that 'mid-term elections will be held for the remainder of the term' if a government falls.

Explanation

The article provides the exact date: 'The Bills... were introduced by Law and Justice Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal on December 17, 2024.' This is a key factual detail for prelims-oriented questions.

Explanation

The article quotes Ghulam Nabi Azad's argument that simultaneous polls could benefit the Opposition because 'the ruling party’s leadership would not be able to campaign across the country at the same time, leading to a rise of regional leadership.' This presents a counter-intuitive impact often debated in polity questions.