10 March 2026, Questions & Answers
120 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
120 questions · 0 topics covered · 24 min revision
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This page contains 120 current affairs questions with answers from 10 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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120 QsWhich Minister is mentioned in the article as consulting opposition parties regarding the amendment to the Women's Reservation Act?
- A.Minister of Law and Justice
- B.Minister of Parliamentary Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Minister of Women and Child Development
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Union Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju has spoken to Congress president Mallikarjun Kharge regarding amending the Act. This ministry handles parliamentary procedures and inter-party coordination.
Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reservation Act, 2023:
1. Its implementation was originally linked to the completion of a delimitation exercise.
2. The Act provides for the reservation of one-third seats for women in both the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
3. A proposed amendment seeks to implement it through a lottery system for selecting reserved constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Act stipulated implementation after the first Census post-commencement and subsequent delimitation. Statement 2 is correct: The Act reserves 33% (one-third) seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the government is considering a lottery system to decide the reserved constituencies.
As per the Women's Reservation Act, 2023, what percentage of seats is reserved for women in the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies?
- A.25%
- B.30%
- C.33%✓ Correct Answer
- D.50%
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Explanation
The article repeatedly mentions that the Women's Reservation Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) reserves 33% of the seats for women. This is equivalent to one-third of the total seats.
What is the primary objective of the proposed amendment to the Women's Reservation Act, as discussed in the article?
- A.To increase the reservation quota from 33% to 50%
- B.To implement the reservation immediately without waiting for delimitation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To restrict the reservation only to the Lok Sabha
- D.To make the reservation permanent for specific constituencies
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Explanation
The core proposal in the article is to delink the Act's implementation from the Census and delimitation exercises, which were causing an indefinite delay. The amendment aims to fast-track the reservation, potentially by 2027, using methods like a lottery system.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance Commission constituted?
- A.Article 270
- B.Article 275
- C.Article 280✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 281
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Explanation
Article 280 of the Constitution mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years. Article 270 deals with taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to States, Article 275 deals with grants-in-aid, and Article 281 relates to the presentation of the Commission's recommendations to Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission:
1. It recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.
2. Its recommendations are binding on the Government of India.
3. The 16th Finance Commission introduced 'Contribution to GDP' as a criterion for horizontal devolution with a 15% weightage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Article 280. Statement 2 is incorrect; the recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government, though they are usually accepted. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the 16th FC introduced 'Contribution to GDP', the article states its weight is 10%, not 15%.
According to the article, what is the weight assigned to 'Income distance' in the horizontal devolution formula of the 16th Finance Commission?
- A.37.5%
- B.40.0%
- C.42.5%✓ Correct Answer
- D.45.0%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 16th Finance Commission assigned a 42.5% weight to 'Income distance' to promote fiscal equity. This remains the most significant criterion in the horizontal devolution formula.
What significant shift does the 16th Finance Commission's approach to grants-in-aid represent, as discussed in the article?
- A.A move from performance-linked grants to unconditional revenue deficit grants.
- B.A shift from simple revenue support to grants linked to institutional performance and fiscal discipline.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An increase in the total amount of grants while removing all conditions for their release.
- D.A focus solely on urban local bodies, neglecting rural local bodies.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the 16th Finance Commission discontinued general revenue deficit grants. Instead, it recommends grants, particularly for local bodies, divided into basic and performance-linked components, with release dependent on conditions like audited accounts. This represents a shift towards incentivizing fiscal discipline.
Which constitutional body's removal process is identical to that of the Chief Election Commissioner, as per Article 324(5)?
- A.President of India
- B.Chief Justice of India
- C.Judge of the Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
- D.Attorney General of India
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Explanation
Article 324(5) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment process for a Chief Election Commissioner:
1. A motion for removal must be signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha.
2. The grounds for removal are 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity' as per the Constitution.
3. If the motion is admitted, the Speaker/Chairman must set up a three-member committee consisting of a Supreme Court Judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Section 3 of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 124(4). Statement 3 is correct as per the same Act, which outlines the composition of the investigating committee.
According to the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, how many members of the Rajya Sabha must sign a motion for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge (or CEC)?
- A.25 members
- B.50 members✓ Correct Answer
- C.75 members
- D.100 members
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Explanation
Section 3 of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 specifies that a motion for presenting an address to the President for removal of a judge must be signed by at least 50 members in the case of the Rajya Sabha.
What is the primary constitutional objective of making the removal process of a Chief Election Commissioner identical to that of a Supreme Court Judge?
- A.To expedite the removal process in case of misconduct.
- B.To ensure the CEC is accountable directly to the Parliament.
- C.To safeguard the independence and autonomy of the Election Commission.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To allow the government greater control over the election process.
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Explanation
The high threshold (special majority parliamentary address) for removal, mirroring that of a Supreme Court Judge, is a constitutional safeguard designed to protect the Election Commission from arbitrary removal and ensure its functional independence, which is crucial for free and fair elections.
Which premier medical research body played a strengthened role in disease surveillance as part of Uttar Pradesh's encephalitis control strategy?
- A.National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC)
- B.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.National Institute of Virology (NIV)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions a 'strengthened role for ICMR in disease surveillance' as part of the institutional expansion to fight encephalitis. NCDC, WHO, and NIV, while relevant to public health, are not the body specified in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's success against encephalitis:
1. The state reported zero deaths from Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) in the year 2024.
2. The strategy relied solely on medical interventions like setting up new AIIMS and treatment centres.
3. Initiatives under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Jal Jeevan Mission were integral to addressing the root causes of the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states deaths plummeted to 0 in 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect because the strategy was comprehensive, addressing sanitation, water, and nutrition, not solely medical interventions. Statement 3 is correct as building toilets under Swachh Bharat and clean water connections under Jal Jeevan were highlighted as significant breakthroughs.
According to the article, what was the approximate number of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) cases reported in Uttar Pradesh in 2017, before the major intervention began?
- A.Around 1,200 cases
- B.Around 2,800 cases
- C.Around 4,100 cases
- D.Around 5,400 cases✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point that Uttar Pradesh moved from 'over 5,400 cases and 650 deaths in 2017'. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the exact figure mentioned.
What is the broader governance lesson highlighted by Uttar Pradesh's success in combating encephalitis?
- A.The primacy of state governments over central schemes in health delivery.
- B.The effectiveness of cooperative federalism and mission-mode execution with accountability.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The necessity of privatizing healthcare infrastructure for better outcomes.
- D.The limited role of sanitation and nutrition in controlling vector-borne diseases.
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Explanation
The article concludes that the success was made possible by 'Centre–state synergy, structural reforms, and political will that prioritised mission-mode execution with accountability,' creating an example of cooperative federalism. The other options contradict the article's emphasis on integrated public efforts and the role of central schemes.
Which minister made the suo motu statement in Rajya Sabha regarding India's stance on the West Asia conflict?
- A.Minister of Defence
- B.External Affairs Minister✓ Correct Answer
- C.Minister of Home Affairs
- D.Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar made the suo motu statement in Rajya Sabha. The Ministry of External Affairs is the nodal body for foreign policy statements.
Consider the following statements regarding India's stakes in West Asia as outlined in the news:
1. India's oil import dependency is over 88%, and around half of its crude and LNG imports pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
2. India explicitly condemned the assassination of Iran's Supreme Leader Ayatollah Ali Khamenei in its official statement.
3. The Indian Navy launched search-and-rescue operations after the sinking of IRIS Dena in the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data on oil dependency and Hormuz transit. Statement 2 is incorrect—the article notes India 'steered clear of explicitly condemning any side'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned regarding the Indian Navy's response to IRIS Dena sinking.
According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG imports pass through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.Around 50%
- B.More than 60%
- C.More than 70%
- D.More than 80%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically states 'more than 80% of LPG imports pass through the Strait of Hormuz'. The other options are close distractors based on other percentages mentioned (around half for crude/LNG).
What is the primary reason India's stance on the West Asia conflict emphasizes restraint and diplomacy, according to the article?
- A.To align completely with the United States' foreign policy objectives.
- B.To protect its strategic stakes including energy security and the welfare of its large diaspora in the region.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To explicitly support Iran against Israel and the United States.
- D.To reduce its military involvement in the Indian Ocean Region.
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Explanation
The article highlights India's high stakes: energy security (88% oil import dependency), shipping lanes, and nearly 1 crore Indian citizens in the Gulf. These strategic interests necessitate a balanced, diplomatic approach avoiding explicit condemnation to maintain relations with all actors.
Which Indian ministry is primarily responsible for managing the country's foreign policy and strategic partnerships, as discussed in the context of the West Asia conflict?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal agency responsible for conducting India's foreign relations and diplomatic efforts. The article's call for a 'recalibration' of India's stance directly falls under the MEA's mandate to safeguard national interests abroad.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic implications for India as per the article:
1. Over 50% of India's crude oil imports are sourced from West Asia.
2. A $10 per barrel rise in crude oil prices would increase India's annual import bill by approximately $20-22 billion.
3. Remittances from the Indian diaspora in West Asia contribute about 3.4% to India's GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states 50% of India's crude oil imports come from West Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article specifies the increase is $13-14 billion, not $20-22 billion. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions remittances contribute 3.4% to GDP. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what percentage of India's total LPG imports comes from West Asia?
- A.Over 50%
- B.Over 75%
- C.Over 90%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 95%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'over 90% of LPG imports come from West Asia'. This highlights a critical vulnerability in India's energy supply chain, making it a key data point for exams.
What is a primary strategic concern for India regarding its relationship with Iran, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Losing access to Iranian natural gas for power generation.
- B.Jeopardizing the strategic utility of the Chabahar port and discounted oil.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Facing direct military confrontation with Iranian forces in the Arabian Sea.
- D.Violating international sanctions by continuing trade with Iran.
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Explanation
The article lists Iran's support through discounted oil, the Chabahar port (a counter to Gwadar), a base for operations against Pakistan, and links to Afghanistan/Central Asia as key strategic assets. Alienating Iran risks losing these advantages, which is the core strategic concern presented.
As per the revised MHA guidelines, requests for Look Out Circulars from bodies like the National Human Rights Commission must be routed through which of the following?
- A.The concerned State Government
- B.The Ministry of External Affairs
- C.A law enforcement agency✓ Correct Answer
- D.The concerned High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that statutory bodies with no criminal jurisdiction, like the NHRC, must forward their LOC requests to the 'law enforcement agency concerned' who are authorized to open the LOC. This includes agencies like the police, CBI, or NIA.
Consider the following statements regarding the revised MHA guidelines on Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
1. The National Commission for Women (NCW) can no longer directly request the Bureau of Immigration to issue an LOC.
2. The Intelligence Bureau (IB) can use the 'see remarks' category in the LOC proforma only for counter-terrorism purposes.
3. If immigration authorities receive a court order for LOC deletion directly, they can act on it immediately without waiting for the originating agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article lists NCW among statutory bodies barred from direct LOC requests. Statement 2 is correct as the article specifies that intelligence agencies like IB may use 'see remarks' only for counter-terrorism. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states that even if immigration gets a court order directly, they must inform the originator and wait for the system to be updated before permitting departure.
According to the revised MHA guidelines, within what maximum timeframe must the 'originator' agency respond to the Bureau of Immigration upon receiving a court order for LOC deletion/quashing?
- A.Within 3 working days
- B.Within 5 working days
- C.Within 7 working days✓ Correct Answer
- D.Within 10 working days
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "The originator is required to respond 'without delay', and no later than seven working days from receipt." The other options are plausible distractors but not the specified deadline.
What is the primary rationale behind the MHA's directive that statutory bodies like NHRC and NCW must route LOC requests through law enforcement agencies?
- A.To reduce the workload on the Bureau of Immigration
- B.To ensure that LOCs are issued only after a criminal jurisdiction assessment✓ Correct Answer
- C.To expedite the process of preventing economic offenders from fleeing
- D.To delegate the financial responsibility of issuing LOCs
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Explanation
The core reason, as inferred from the article's emphasis on 'bodies with no criminal jurisdiction', is to introduce a procedural safeguard. Law enforcement agencies (police, CBI, NIA) have the mandate and expertise to assess if a situation warrants the serious step of restricting movement via an LOC, which bodies with primarily recommendatory powers (like NHRC/NCW) lack.
The article mentions an author affiliated with the M S Swaminathan Research Foundation. What is the primary focus area of this foundation?
- A.Space technology and satellite development
- B.Agricultural research and farmer welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defense and strategic studies
- D.Financial inclusion and banking reforms
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Explanation
The M S Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF), established by renowned agricultural scientist M.S. Swaminathan, is dedicated to leveraging science and technology for sustainable agriculture and the welfare of farmers, particularly smallholders and women.
Consider the following statements regarding women in Indian agriculture as discussed in the article:
1. They contribute close to half of the total crop production in the country.
2. They own more than 30% of the operational landholdings.
3. They are significantly less likely than men to own a smartphone or use mobile internet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states women contribute close to half of crop production. Statement 2 is incorrect because women own only about 13-14% of operational landholdings, not more than 30%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions women are around 15-20% less likely to own a smartphone and significantly less likely to use mobile internet.
According to the article, what is the approximate value of India's dairy sector which relies heavily on women's labour?
- A.Over $50 billion
- B.Over $100 billion
- C.Over $150 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over $200 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's dairy sector is valued at over $150 billion. This sector's reliance on women's labour makes the potential productivity gains from AI (like predictive veterinary alerts) highly significant for rural incomes.
What is identified as a major risk if AI strategies in agriculture are not designed inclusively, according to the article?
- A.Decrease in overall agricultural GDP contribution
- B.Increased dependence on imported food grains
- C.Algorithmic bias against women-centric agricultural practices✓ Correct Answer
- D.Reduced effectiveness of chemical fertilizers
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Explanation
The article warns that most digitized agricultural data focuses on male-dominated cereals (wheat/rice). If AI models are trained on this skewed data, they may become biased and provide ineffective advisories for sectors where women play a larger role, such as millets, pulses, and horticulture.
As per the article, which Indian state has implemented the 'Vatsalya' scheme offering financial assistance for IVF treatment?
- A.Andhra Pradesh
- B.Sikkim✓ Correct Answer
- C.Kerala
- D.Tamil Nadu
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that under the Vatsalya scheme, the Sikkim government offered financial assistance for in vitro fertilisation (IVF) treatment to couples unable to conceive naturally.
Consider the following statements regarding pro-natalist policies discussed in the article:
1. Sikkim's policy included one-year maternity leave and the introduction of paternity leave for government employees.
2. Andhra Pradesh's proposed cash incentive of ₹25,000 is applicable only for the birth of a third child.
3. Hungary is cited as a partial success story where fertility rose from about 1.23 to 1.55 after aggressive pro-family policies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions maternity leave was extended to one year and paternity leave was introduced in Sikkim. Statement 2 is incorrect because Andhra Pradesh's proposed incentive of ₹25,000 is for couples having a second or third child, not just the third. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of Hungary's experience.
According to the article, what is the approximate Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of Sikkim, making it the lowest in India?
- A.About 0.9
- B.About 1.1✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 1.4
- D.About 1.6
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Sikkim has the lowest fertility rate in India, about 1.1 children per woman. Andhra Pradesh's TFR is about 1.4, as mentioned elsewhere.
What is the primary lesson, as highlighted in the article, from Sikkim's experience and global examples regarding pro-natalist policies?
- A.Financial incentives are the most effective tool to reverse declining fertility rates.
- B.Fertility decline is primarily driven by biological factors like infertility.
- C.Decisions about having children are rarely determined by financial incentives alone due to deeper structural changes.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Policies focused on government employees have a higher success rate than those for the private sector.
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Explanation
The article's core argument, supported by examples from Sikkim, Singapore, and South Korea, is that fertility decisions are influenced by structural factors like women's education, career, urban costs, and childcare accessibility, limiting the impact of financial incentives.
Under which government department does the LIGO-India project fall?
- A.Department of Space
- B.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Earth Sciences
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Explanation
The article states the project is under the Directorate of Construction Services and Estate Management of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). This information was accessed via an RTI reply from this directorate.
Consider the following statements regarding LIGO-India:
1. Its total financial approval from the Centre is ₹2,300 crore.
2. The construction tender for the project is worth ₹1,600 crore and was awarded in January 2026.
3. The project is located in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions "Centre’s financial approval of Rs 2,300 crore for LIGO-India was given in April 2023". Statement 2 is incorrect because the tender, while its financial bid was opened in January 2026, has NOT been awarded yet. Statement 3 is correct as the location is clearly stated as Maharashtra’s Hingoli district.
What is the approved deadline for the completion of the LIGO-India project?
- A.2027
- B.2028
- C.2029
- D.2030✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions, "the project is set to be completed by its original deadline of 2030," as stated by the Directorate of Construction Services and Estate Management in its RTI reply.
What is the primary scientific significance of the LIGO observatory, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To study solar flares and sunspots in detail.
- B.To provide a new vision to track cosmic events that light cannot capture.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To measure atmospheric pollution levels from space.
- D.To search for radio signals from extraterrestrial intelligence.
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Explanation
The 'Explained' section of the article states: "The ability to detect gravitational waves gives scientists a new vision to track cosmic events that light or other electromagnetic waves are not able to capture." This is the core scientific application of LIGO.
Which government policy did PM Modi refer to as the foundation for linking education with the real-world economy?
- A.National Policy on Education, 1986
- B.National Education Policy (NEP) 2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.New Skill India Mission
- D.National Digital Education Architecture
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Explanation
In the address, PM Modi explicitly stated, "The new National Education Policy (NEP) provides the foundation for a curriculum that must stay aligned with market demands and the real-world economy." NEP 2020 is the current overarching education policy framework of India.
Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's address on linking education and economy:
1. He emphasized the need to accelerate linking the education system with the real-world economy.
2. He called for promoting the AVGC sector, which stands for Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, and Comics.
3. He stated that the New Education Policy (NEP) 2023 is the foundation for aligning curriculum with market demands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the PM said, "We will have to accelerate the process of linking our education system with the real world economy." Statement 2 is correct as he highlighted the promotion of the 'Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comics (AVGC) sector'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the policy mentioned is the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, not NEP 2023.
According to PM Modi's address, which of the following is an important sector that includes Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics?
- A.AVGC
- B.STEM✓ Correct Answer
- C.NEP
- D.CEPA
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Explanation
In the article, PM Modi explicitly stated, "another important sector is STEM: Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics." AVGC refers to Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics. NEP is National Education Policy. CEPA is a trade agreement term not mentioned in the article.
What was a key suggestion by PM Modi for academic institutions to provide students with real-world exposure?
- A.Increase the number of online degree programs
- B.Transform campuses into hubs of industry collaboration and research✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mandate longer internship durations for all courses
- D.Focus exclusively on theoretical foundations
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Explanation
PM Modi urged stakeholders to brainstorm on "developing your campuses as centres of industry collaboration and research-driven learning to provide students with essential real world exposure." This directly aims to bridge the gap between academia and the practical demands of the economy.
Which High Court delivered the judgment upholding the conviction under the POCSO Act as mentioned in the news?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Bombay High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madras High Court
- D.Kolkata High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Bombay High Court, comprising Justices Manish Pitale and Shreeram V Shirsat, upheld the conviction and life sentence.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Court judgment mentioned in the news:
1. The Court held that a child's allegation against a parent cannot be dismissed merely on grounds of familial anger.
2. The Court ruled that medical ossification tests are mandatory for determining a victim's age under POCSO.
3. The conviction was also upheld under IPC Section 376(2)(f) due to the accused being in a position of trust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court termed it 'far-fetched' that a daughter would falsely accuse her father of rape out of anger. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Court stated that in the face of credible documentary evidence (school records), there was NO necessity for medical tests. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the father was convicted under IPC Section 376(2)(f) for being in a position of trust.
Under which specific section of the Indian Penal Code, mentioned in the article, was the accused father convicted for rape by a person in a position of trust or authority?
- A.Section 376(1)
- B.Section 376(2)(f)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 376(3)
- D.Section 376AB
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The appellant has been convicted and sentenced under section 376(2)(f) of the IPC. The said provision pertains to an accused who, being a relative, guardian or teacher or a person in a position of trust or authority towards the woman, commits rape on such a woman.'
What was the primary legal significance of the Bombay High Court's observation regarding the determination of a victim's age under the POCSO Act?
- A.It mandated a mandatory psychological evaluation of the victim.
- B.It established that school records and official documents hold greater credibility than medical tests for age proof.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It introduced a new minimum age of consent for POCSO cases.
- D.It transferred all POCSO case trials to fast-track courts.
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Explanation
The article details the Court's observation that 'School records and documentary evidence have to be given primacy, and in the face of such credible material being available, there was no necessity to undertake any medical or ossification test.' This establishes a crucial evidentiary principle for POCSO cases.
Which regional economic and political alliance, comprising six member states, is a major source of remittances for India as per the article?
- A.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
- B.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
- D.Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that roughly 38% of India's remittance inflows originate from the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) economies. The GCC is a political and economic union of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic linkages between South Asia and West Asia:
1. India received a record $135 billion in remittances in FY 2024-25, maintaining its position as the world's largest remittance recipient.
2. The Strait of Hormuz carries roughly one-third of globally traded oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG).
3. A $10 increase in crude oil prices can widen India's current account deficit by around 0.5% of GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Strait of Hormuz carries roughly one-fifth (not one-third) of globally traded oil and LNG. Statement 3 is also incorrect; the article states a $10 increase widens India's CAD by around 0.3% of GDP, not 0.5%.
According to the article, approximately what percentage of India's crude oil is sourced from Gulf countries?
- A.More than 65%
- B.More than 75%
- C.More than 85%✓ Correct Answer
- D.More than 95%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 'India sources more than 85 per cent of its crude oil from Gulf countries.' This high dependency is a central point of vulnerability discussed in the analysis.
What is the primary economic risk for South Asian countries like Bangladesh, as highlighted in the article, arising from disruptions to maritime trade routes?
- A.A decrease in foreign direct investment inflows.
- B.Erosion of export competitiveness due to rising freight costs.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Increased borrowing costs for government debt.
- D.A slowdown in the growth of the information technology sector.
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that for export-oriented economies like Bangladesh, where the ready-made garment sector accounts for over 80% of export earnings, 'competitiveness could erode as freight costs rise and transit times lengthen' due to disruptions in routes like the Red Sea and Suez Canal.
Which U.S. agency is mentioned in the article for its ongoing study evaluating the accuracy of facial age-estimation software?
- A.Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
- B.National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
- D.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions an ongoing study run by the U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) that tracks the improving accuracy of face-scanning software for age estimation. NIST is a non-regulatory agency under the Department of Commerce focused on measurement science.
Consider the following statements regarding the advancements in age-verification technology as discussed in the article:
1. The average error in facial age estimation for the 14-18 age range, as per the latest NIST study, is approximately 2.5 years.
2. Companies like Yoti and Persona are examples of age assurance vendors that use only traditional methods like human confirmation and data triangulation.
3. A significant challenge for on-device processing age checks is that they are less effective at catching attempts by youngsters to appear older using tricks like heavy makeup.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the NIST study found the average error had dropped to 2.5 years currently. Statement 2 is incorrect: Yoti and Persona are vendors that use automated tools like face scans and machine-based ID analysis, not just traditional methods. Statement 3 is correct: The article quotes an executive saying on-device processing is less likely to catch attempts by youngsters to appear older using tricks like makeup or masks.
According to the article, what was the approximate number of Instagram, Facebook, and Threads accounts Meta took down in the first weeks of the Australian ban on underage social media use?
- A.About 250,000 accounts
- B.About 415,000 accounts
- C.About 550,000 accounts✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 700,000 accounts
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Explanation
The article provides a specific data point: "Meta said it took down about 550,000 Instagram, Facebook and Threads accounts suspected to be underage in the first weeks of the Australian ban." Snapchat's figure of 415,000 is a close distractor.
What is cited as a primary reason for social media companies resisting robust implementation of age-verification checks, according to industry representatives quoted in the article?
- A.The high financial cost of implementing the technology across global platforms.
- B.The lack of accurate and reliable age-estimation technology currently available.
- C.The fear that successful implementation in one country will lead to its adoption as a policy worldwide.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Concerns that such checks would violate free speech protections in their home countries.
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Explanation
The article quotes Iain Corby of the Age Verification Providers Association stating, "They are extremely worried this is going to be contagious and be a policy that is adopted around the world, so they are not really motivated for it to be a glowing success." This directly points to the fear of global policy contagion as a key reason for resistance.
The amendments to the Information Technology Rules, which are under Supreme Court review, fall under the purview of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The Information Technology Act, 2000, and the rules framed under it, including the Intermediary Guidelines, are administered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court proceedings on Fact Check Units:
1. The Supreme Court has stayed the operation of the Bombay High Court verdict striking down the IT Rules amendments.
2. The petitioner in the original case before the Bombay High Court was standup comic Kunal Kamra.
3. The Solicitor General argued that the intent of the Fact Check Unit rules was to curb satire and critical expression against the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court specifically refused to stay the Bombay High Court order. Statement 2 is correct as Kunal Kamra was the petitioner. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Solicitor General explicitly stated there was 'no intention... to curb any humour, satire... or critical expression'.
On which date did the Bombay High Court deliver its verdict striking down the amendments to the IT Rules concerning Fact Check Units?
- A.March 10, 2026
- B.September 26, 2024✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 26, 2025
- D.December 15, 2023
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court issued notice on an appeal challenging the 'September 26, 2024, high court order'. This is the date of the Bombay High Court verdict.
What was a key concern raised by the Supreme Court bench regarding the struck-down IT Rules amendments for Fact Check Units?
- A.The rules would lead to excessive taxation of digital platforms.
- B.The rules placed the entire onus on the government machinery without obligating those spreading misinformation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The rules mandated the physical establishment of units in every district.
- D.The rules required prior approval from the judiciary for every fact-check.
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Explanation
CJI Surya Kant remarked, 'Shifting the entire onus on the machinery without putting any obligation on those who play all this mischief is something that requires consideration'. This highlights the concern about an unbalanced regulatory approach.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Uniform Civil Code mentioned as a Directive Principle of State Policy?
- A.Article 40
- B.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 48
- D.Article 51
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Explanation
Article 44 of the Constitution, under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' The Supreme Court's remarks in the news directly reference this principle.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court hearing mentioned in the news:
1. The petition challenged the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 for discriminating against women.
2. The Supreme Court stated that striking down the personal law would be the most effective answer to ensure equality.
3. The Court referenced the Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code brought in 2024 during the proceedings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the petition challenged the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Court said a Uniform Civil Code (UCC), not striking down the law, is the 'most effective answer'. Statement 3 is correct as Justice Mahadevan referred to the UCC brought by the Uttarakhand government in 2024.
The petition heard by the Supreme Court in the news primarily challenged provisions of which specific Act from the year 1937?
- A.The Indian Succession Act, 1925
- B.The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- D.The Special Marriage Act, 1954
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the plea challenged provisions of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, which the petitioners argued discriminated against Muslim women in matters of succession. The other Acts are related but not the subject of this specific petition.
What was the Supreme Court's primary concern regarding the judicial striking down of the personal law provisions, as highlighted in the news?
- A.It would infringe upon the fundamental right to religion under Article 25.
- B.It would create a legal vacuum and cause ambiguities in the absence of an alternative law.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would overburden the judiciary with subsequent litigation on implementation.
- D.It would require a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
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Explanation
The CJI and Justice Bagchi repeatedly questioned what would fill the void if the 1937 Act was struck down, arguing it might deprive individuals of existing rights. This concern for creating a 'vacuum' led the Court to suggest legislative action via a UCC as a more prudent solution.
Under which ministry does the primary responsibility lie for framing the 'no-fault' compensation policy for vaccine side effects as directed by the Supreme Court?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's directive is for the Centre (the Union Government) to frame the policy. Matters related to vaccines, immunization, and public health fall squarely under the domain of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's order on COVID-19 vaccine compensation:
1. The Court directed the creation of a new expert committee to examine Adverse Events Following Immunization (AEFI).
2. The order mandates that AEFI data be placed in the public domain, continuing a directive from May 2022.
3. The bench comprised Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court rejected the prayer for a separate expert body. Statement 2 is correct as the Court directed that the existing mechanism for monitoring AEFI continue and data be made public, referencing the May 2, 2022 order. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.
The Supreme Court's recent order on vaccine compensation cited a precedent from which specific date in 2022?
- A.March 10, 2022
- B.May 2, 2022✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 15, 2022
- D.December 1, 2022
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Court referenced its previous order from May 2, 2022, in the case of Jacob Puliyel vs Union of India. The other dates are distractors.
What is the primary legal implication of the 'no-fault' compensation policy directed by the Supreme Court?
- A.It admits liability on the part of the vaccine manufacturers.
- B.It allows claimants to seek compensation without proving negligence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates higher penalties for pharmaceutical companies.
- D.It transfers the burden of proof entirely to the government.
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Explanation
The core of a 'no-fault' compensation policy is that individuals who suffer serious adverse effects can claim compensation without the legal hurdle of establishing fault, negligence, or liability on the part of the authorities or manufacturers, as highlighted in the article.
Which government think tank developed and launched the e-AMRIT portal on electric vehicles?
- A.Ministry of Heavy Industries
- B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
- C.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the e-AMRIT portal was developed by NITI Aayog. It is a web portal providing information on EV adoption, policies, and subsidies, launched at the COP26 Summit in Glasgow.
Consider the following statements regarding electric vehicles in India:
1. A Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV) starts in all-electric mode and switches to the engine only after the battery is depleted.
2. The India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) is updated quarterly and its scores reflect annual assessments.
3. The PM E-Drive scheme was launched to replace the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME) policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per NITI Aayog's description on the e-Amrit portal. Statement 2 is incorrect; the IEMI scores are updated annually, reflecting the results of quarterly assessments. Statement 3 is correct as PM E-Drive was launched on October 1, 2024, to replace FAME and the EMPS scheme.
What is the total financial outlay approved for the 'PM e-Bus Sewa-Payment Security Mechanism (PSM) Scheme' as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹2,500 crore
- B.₹3,435.33 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹4,150 crore
- D.₹5,000 crore
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the PM e-Bus Sewa-PSM scheme was approved with an outlay of Rs. 3,435.33 crore. This scheme aims to support the deployment of over 38,000 electric buses in the country.
What is a primary strategic rationale for the Delhi government's plan to extend road tax benefits to Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEVs) and Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicles (PHEVs)?
- A.To immediately phase out all internal combustion engine vehicles within the state.
- B.To act as a transitional bridge for consumers towards full electrification by addressing range and infrastructure concerns.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclusively promote indigenous manufacturing of electric vehicle components.
- D.To reduce the fiscal burden on the state exchequer by increasing tax collection from conventional vehicles.
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Explanation
While the article does not state the rationale explicitly, it is inferable from the context of promoting electric mobility. Extending benefits to HEVs and PHEVs, which are less efficient than BEVs but more than conventional cars, helps consumers transition by mitigating concerns about charging infrastructure and driving range, thereby accelerating overall EV adoption.
Which regulatory body replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) and is responsible for approving new medical seats as per the news?
- A.National Board of Examinations (NBE)
- B.National Medical Commission (NMC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
The National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019 replaced the Medical Council of India. The article explicitly states that the seat approval data was shared by the NMC, which processes applications through its Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB).
Consider the following statements regarding the expansion of medical education as per the Health Ministry data:
1. The number of medical colleges in India has more than doubled since 2014.
2. The centrally sponsored scheme for new medical colleges follows a uniform 60:40 funding pattern between the Centre and all states.
3. The Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB) under the NMC can use surprise physical inspections to assess colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Colleges increased from 387 (2014) to 818 (present), which is more than double. Statement 2 is incorrect: The funding pattern is 90:10 for NE/special category states and 60:40 for others, not uniform. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions MARB may use 'surprise physical inspections' among other methods.
According to the data placed in Rajya Sabha, what was the number of postgraduate (PG) medical seats in India as of the latest figures mentioned?
- A.31,185
- B.51,348
- C.85,020✓ Correct Answer
- D.1,28,976
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Explanation
The article states that PG seats increased from 31,185 in 2014 to 85,020 at present. Option A (31,185) is the 2014 figure, Option B (51,348) is the 2014 MBBS seat count, and Option D (1,28,976) is the present MBBS seat count.
What is a primary objective of the centrally sponsored scheme for establishing new medical colleges mentioned in the news?
- A.To privatize medical education and reduce government expenditure
- B.To attach new colleges to existing district hospitals, especially in underserved regions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all older medical colleges with new infrastructure
- D.To focus exclusively on increasing super-specialty surgical seats
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the scheme aims at 'establishing new medical colleges attached to existing district or referral hospitals, aimed particularly at underserved regions and aspirational districts.' This links education with public health service delivery in areas that need it most.
The recommendations by Meta's Oversight Board echoed provisions of recently notified Indian rules governing online content. What is the common name for these rules?
- A.The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
- B.The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2021
- C.The IT Rules amendments related to synthetically generated information (SGI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Oversight Board's recommendations echoed certain provisions of 'India’s recently notified rules governing the creation and dissemination of AI generated content online', specifically referring to the 'IT Rules amendments related to synthetically generated information (SGI)' that went into effect from February 20, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Meta's Oversight Board is funded by the company but operates independently.
2. The Board's decision to overturn Meta's action on a specific AI-generated video is binding on the company.
3. The Board recommended that all AI-generated content should be automatically taken down to prevent the spread of misinformation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Board is 'funded by Meta but operates independently'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'the Oversight Board’s decisions related to content on Meta’s platforms are binding'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions that 'some Board members recommended that posts with High Risk AI labels must be subsequently demoted or taken down', but this was not a blanket recommendation for all AI content, and the Board also cautioned against restricting freedom of expression.
According to the article, from which date did India's IT Rules amendments related to synthetically generated information (SGI) go into effect?
- A.March 10, 2026
- B.February 28, 2026
- C.February 20, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.June 1, 2025
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The IT Rules amendments related to synthetically generated information (SGI), that went into effect from February 20, 2026'. March 10, 2026 is the date of the Oversight Board ruling. February 28, 2026 is mentioned as the start date of the US-Israel war on Iran. June 2025 is the time of the referenced Israel-Iran war.
What was the primary criticism levied by Meta's Oversight Board against the company's current approach to AI-generated content, especially during conflicts?
- A.That it invests too much in AI detection tools, raising costs.
- B.That its labelling mechanisms are not robust or comprehensive enough for crisis-scale content.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That it completely bans AI content, stifling creative expression.
- D.That it relies solely on government agencies for fact-checking.
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Explanation
The article states the Board 'sharply criticised Meta’s current labelling mechanisms as "neither robust nor comprehensive enough" to address the scale and velocity of AI-generated content, particularly during a crisis or conflict.' The other options are not supported: the Board asked for more investment in detection tools, not less; it did not mention a complete ban; and it discussed signals from external partners, not sole reliance on government agencies.
The 'Anavaran-Deforestation Alert System' mentioned in the news is an initiative of which government organization?
- A.Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
- B.Forest Survey of India (FSI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
- D.National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Forest Survey of India (FSI) is the central government organization that was responsible for issuing the fortnightly deforestation alerts through the Anavaran system. The FSI operates under the MoEFCC but is the specific nodal body for this task.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The government has invoked powers under the Essential Commodities Act to direct refiners to maximise LPG production.
2. The Anavaran deforestation alert system uses satellite imagery with a spatial resolution of 250 metres.
3. The early onset of summer heatwave conditions in March 2026 is attributed to an excess of Western Disturbances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Anavaran system uses Sentinel satellite data at 10-20 metre resolution, while 250m is the resolution of the 'Terra-I' system used in Latin America. Statement 3 is incorrect; the early summer is due to a LACK of Western Disturbances and dry winter, not an excess.
According to the article, what is the new minimum waiting period set by the government for booking an LPG cylinder?
- A.21 days
- B.25 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.28 days
- D.30 days
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the government has raised the minimum waiting period for booking an LPG cylinder to 25 days from 21 days to avoid hoarding and black marketing. The other options are plausible distractors based on common policy durations.
What is cited as the primary reason for the disruption in LPG supply to India, as per the news article?
- A.Domestic refinery maintenance shutdowns
- B.A surge in domestic household consumption
- C.The ongoing conflict in West Asia blocking the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- D.Policy changes by Indian Oil Marketing Companies
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Explanation
The article repeatedly links the LPG shortage to the conflict in West Asia (Iran), which has led to the effective suspension of tanker movements through the critical Strait of Hormuz, a chokepoint for over 80% of India's LPG imports. The other options are secondary or incorrect factors.
The Election Commission of India derives its authority from which Article of the Constitution of India?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 326
- C.Article 329
- D.Article 352
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Explanation
Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. Article 326 deals with elections on the basis of adult suffrage, Article 329 bars interference by courts in electoral matters, and Article 352 pertains to the proclamation of Emergency.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Election Commission announced 100% webcasting for all polling stations in West Bengal for the first time.
2. The final voter list for West Bengal was published on February 28 following the Special Intensive Revision.
3. The adjudication of nearly 60 lakh flagged voter entries is being done by officers of the state executive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the CEC announced 100% webcasting across approximately 80,000 polling stations. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the final list came out on February 28. Statement 3 is incorrect because the adjudication is being done by 'learned judicial officers' appointed under Supreme Court orders, not by the state executive.
Approximately how many polling stations in West Bengal are slated for 100% webcasting as per the CEC's announcement?
- A.Approximately 60,000
- B.Approximately 70,000
- C.Approximately 80,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 90,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that West Bengal would see 100% webcasting across its 'approximately 80,000 polling stations'. The other numbers are close distractors.
What is the primary constitutional basis cited by the CEC for the adjudication of voter eligibility cases in West Bengal?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
- C.Article 324 (Election Commission)
- D.Article 326 (Elections to the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies)✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
In the press conference, CEC Gyanesh Kumar stated that judicial officers are taking decisions on the eligibility of electors 'in line with Article 326'. Article 326 provides for elections on the basis of adult suffrage. While Article 324 deals with the ECI's powers, the specific reference for voter eligibility is Article 326.
Under which entry of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution can a State Government like Uttar Pradesh make laws to regulate taxi aggregators?
- A.Union List (List I)
- B.State List (List II)
- C.Concurrent List (List III)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Residuary Powers of the Union
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Explanation
The subject 'Transport' is included in the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 35). This allows both the Union Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on this subject. The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, is a central law under this entry, and states can frame rules under it, as Uttar Pradesh has done.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Uttar Pradesh government decision on ride-hailing apps:
1. The decision mandates that aggregators obtain a licence under Section 93 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
2. The licensing fee is a flat ₹5 lakh for all aggregators, regardless of fleet size.
3. The state government will develop an app to provide public access to verified driver details.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies the ₹5 lakh fee is for companies operating '50-100 or more vehicles', implying a tiered structure. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned by the Transport Minister.
What is the application fee that app-based ride aggregators must pay to seek a licence in Uttar Pradesh as per the new rules?
- A.₹5,000
- B.₹25,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹1,00,000
- D.₹5,00,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The application fee will be Rs 25,000'. ₹5,000 is the renewal fee, ₹5 lakh is the licensing fee for large operators, and ₹1 lakh is not mentioned.
What is the primary rationale cited by the Uttar Pradesh government for introducing licensing for cab aggregators like Ola and Uber?
- A.To generate significant revenue for the state exchequer
- B.To comply with directives from the Supreme Court of India
- C.To ensure passenger safety and convenience through a regulatory framework✓ Correct Answer
- D.To restrict the operations of foreign companies in the transport sector
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Explanation
The Transport Minister stated the proposal was approved 'keeping in mind the safety and convenience of passengers'. While revenue generation is a by-product, it is not cited as the primary objective. The article does not mention a Supreme Court directive or an intent to specifically target foreign companies.
Under which Act was the Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) constituted?
- A.Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956
- B.Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966✓ Correct Answer
- C.River Boards Act, 1956
- D.Constitution of India
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Explanation
The Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) is a statutory body created under Section 79 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. This act reorganized the former state of Punjab into Punjab, Haryana, and the Union Territory of Chandigarh.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Punjab government has challenged the BBMB's decisions in the Supreme Court of India.
2. Punjab's Advocate General argued that the BBMB's role is limited to administration and maintenance, not water allocation.
3. The BBMB's counsel claimed the present petition seeks to reopen issues already adjudicated upon by higher courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The challenge was filed in the Punjab and Haryana High Court, not the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: "BBMB can only carry out administration, maintenance and operation. It cannot decide the share of water..." Statement 3 is correct: BBMB's senior counsel argued that the petition "effectively sought to reopen issues that had already been adjudicated."
According to the news, the Punjab government challenged BBMB decisions reflected in the minutes of meetings held on which of the following dates in the previous year?
- A.April 22, April 29, and May 2, 2025
- B.April 23, April 30, and May 3, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 23, March 30, and April 3, 2025
- D.May 23, May 30, and June 3, 2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "According to Punjab, the decisions were reflected in the minutes of meetings held last year, dated April 23, April 30, and May 3..." The other options are close distractors with incorrect dates.
What is the core legal argument presented by the Punjab government against the Bhakra Beas Management Board's actions?
- A.The BBMB violated the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
- B.The BBMB acted beyond its jurisdiction by altering water allocations, a power not granted by its governing statute.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The BBMB failed to obtain the prior consent of the Central Water Commission.
- D.The BBMB's decisions were based on inaccurate hydrological data.
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Explanation
The central argument, as stated by Punjab's Advocate General, is that "BBMB can only carry out administration, maintenance and operation. It cannot decide the share of water between states" and that the directions were issued "without jurisdiction and beyond the statutory framework." The other options represent potential angles but are not the primary argument cited in the article.
Which constitutional article, cited in the judgment, guarantees the right to life and personal liberty?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
The Punjab and Haryana High Court's judgment explicitly cited Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The court expanded its scope to include the right to live a dignified life, which would be violated by denying a family pension.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court's judgment on 'karewa' marriage:
1. The court ruled that 'karewa' marriage is equivalent to remarriage as per service rules, leading to disqualification from family pension.
2. The judgment cited the Supreme Court case of DK Nakara v. Union of India to establish that pension is a form of deferred wages.
3. The court held that the right to family pension is a fundamental right flowing directly from Article 21 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the court ruled that 'karewa' marriage is NOT equivalent to remarriage as envisaged by service rules. Statement 2 is correct; the judgment did cite DK Nakara v. Union of India. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the court linked denial of pension to a violation of the right to a dignified life under Article 21, it did not declare family pension itself as a fundamental right.
On which date did the Punjab and Haryana High Court deliver the judgment in question?
- A.March 7, 2025
- B.March 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 10, 2026
- D.March 8, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that the High Court said on 'March 7'. The published date of the article is March 10, 2026, confirming the judgment was delivered on March 7, 2026.
What was the primary social purpose of 'karewa' marriage, as recognized by the Punjab and Haryana High Court?
- A.To ensure property remains within the paternal lineage.
- B.To aid in the social and financial rehabilitation of widows and their children.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with religious dictates for widow remarriage.
- D.To reduce the financial burden on the state exchequer.
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Explanation
The court's order explicitly stated that 'karewa' marriages serve a social purpose by assisting in the social and financial rehabilitation of widows and their children, while also preserving family ties and dignity.
Which ministry issued the order invoking the Essential Commodities Act for priority gas allocation as per the news?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the order was issued by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) to manage the natural gas supply shortage. This ministry is the nodal body for policies related to petroleum, natural gas, and refineries in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the gas allocation priority order:
1. The top priority category, receiving 100% of past average consumption, includes PNG for households and CNG for transport.
2. Fertilizer units are in the second priority category and are allocated 80% of their past average gas consumption.
3. The supply of natural gas to refineries has been cut to 65% of their average consumption of the past six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the top priority (100%) includes domestic PNG and CNG. Statement 2 is incorrect; fertilizer units receive 70%, not 80%. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned that refinery gas supply is cut to 65%. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what percentage of India's total natural gas consumption comes via the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.About 20%
- B.About 30%✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 50%
- D.About 80%
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Explanation
The article states: "volumes coming via the Strait account for roughly 30% of India’s overall gas consumption." The 50% figure refers to India's overall LNG import dependency, and 80% refers to the share of LPG imports coming via the Strait.
What was the primary objective of the government invoking the Essential Commodities Act in the context of the news?
- A.To increase taxes on petroleum products
- B.To manage the supply shortage of natural gas by diverting it to priority sectors✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of electric vehicles over CNG vehicles
- D.To nationalize all private gas distribution companies
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Explanation
The article clearly states that due to the halt in LNG shipments through the Strait of Hormuz, the government invoked the Essential Commodities Act to divert natural gas to 'priority sectors' like household PNG, CNG, and LPG production, managing the acute shortage. The other options are not mentioned as objectives.
Under which ministry does the Directorate of Estates, the administrative body for GPRA colonies, function?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Urban Development
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Explanation
The article states that GPRA accommodations are under the administrative control of the Directorate of Estates in Delhi. The Directorate of Estates is a part of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, which is responsible for housing and urban development policies.
Consider the following statements regarding the GPRA redevelopment project:
1. The project aims to replace approximately 12,970 old flats with over 21,000 modern residential units.
2. The redevelopment is being implemented solely by the National Buildings Construction Corporation (NBCC).
3. The project follows a self-financing model where commercial space development funds the housing construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the project is implemented by two agencies: NBCC India Limited (for Sarojini Nagar, Netaji Nagar, Nauroji Nagar) and the Central Public Works Department (for Kasturba Nagar, Thyagraj Nagar, Srinivaspuri, Mohammadpur). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the self-financing model where commercial space is monetized.
What is the estimated total cost of the redevelopment project for the seven GPRA colonies in Delhi?
- A.₹18,000 crore
- B.₹25,500 crore
- C.₹32,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹40,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the overall project cost is estimated at around ₹32,000 crore. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a key feature of the financing model adopted for the GPRA redevelopment project?
- A.It is entirely funded through multilateral agency loans.
- B.It relies primarily on increased allocation in the Union Budget.
- C.It uses revenue from monetized commercial space to finance housing construction.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is funded by a special cess levied on government employees.
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Explanation
The article describes a self-financing model where commercial space developed in parts of the project (particularly along major corridors) is monetized to finance the housing construction. This is intended to reduce the burden on the government budget.
The right to be informed of the grounds of arrest is a fundamental right guaranteed under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
- A.Article 19
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 22(1)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
Article 22(1) specifically states that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest. This is the direct constitutional source for this right, as reiterated in the Kerala HC judgment.
Consider the following statements regarding the grounds of arrest as explained by the Kerala High Court:
1. The grounds must be communicated in writing at least two hours before the arrestee is produced before a Magistrate for remand.
2. In cases under the NDPS Act, specification of the quantity of contraband seized is mandatory for effective communication of grounds.
3. The filing of a chargesheet and taking of cognizance by a court can validate an arrest that was initially unconstitutional due to non-communication of grounds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held grounds must be communicated in writing within a reasonable time and at least two hours BEFORE remand, not before arrest. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court explicitly stated that filing of a chargesheet and cognisance cannot validate an unconstitutional arrest.
As per the Kerala High Court ruling, within what minimum time must the written grounds of arrest be communicated to the arrestee before their production before a Magistrate for remand?
- A.Immediately after arrest
- B.1 hour before remand
- C.2 hours before remand✓ Correct Answer
- D.24 hours before remand
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Explanation
The judgment clearly states that the grounds must be communicated in writing within a reasonable time and, in any case, at least two hours before the production of the arrestee before the Magistrate for remand proceedings. This is a concrete procedural safeguard.
What is the primary constitutional objective of the requirement to communicate grounds of arrest, as emphasized by the Kerala High Court and legal experts in the article?
- A.To expedite the police investigation process.
- B.To act as a substantive protection against arbitrary arrest and detention.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the workload of the judiciary in remand hearings.
- D.To standardize documentation across all police stations.
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Explanation
The article quotes Senior Advocate Vikas Pahwa stating this safeguard is "not a mere formality but a substantive protection against arbitrary arrest." The HC also linked it to the fundamental rights under Articles 21 and 22, highlighting its role in protecting personal liberty from state overreach.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry responsible for implementing the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development
- C.Jal Shakti Ministry✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Jal Shakti Ministry is the nodal ministry responsible for implementing JJM. This ministry was formed in 2019 to manage the country's water resources and related schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
1. It was launched in 2019 with the aim to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to all rural households by 2024.
2. The Union Cabinet has approved its extension till 2028 with an allocation that matches the initial demand of the Jal Shakti Ministry.
3. Action has been taken against officials, contractors, and Third Party Inspection Agencies following complaints of irregularities in the mission's implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the approved allocation of ₹1.51 lakh crore is lower than the Jal Shakti Ministry's demand of ₹2.79 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions action against 596 officials, 822 contractors, and 152 Third Party Inspection Agencies.
What is the total allocation approved by the Union Cabinet for the Jal Jeevan Mission extension till 2028?
- A.₹1.51 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹2.79 lakh crore
- C.₹67,000 crore
- D.₹17,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Union Cabinet approved an allocation of ₹1.51 lakh crore for the JJM extension. ₹2.79 lakh crore was the amount sought by the Jal Shakti Ministry. ₹67,000 crore and ₹17,000 crore were figures related to the budget for the 2025-26 financial year.
What was a primary reason cited in the article for the Union Cabinet approving a lower allocation for JJM than what was demanded by the Jal Shakti Ministry?
- A.A shift in focus to urban water supply schemes
- B.Completion of the mission's targets ahead of schedule
- C.Concerns about irregularities in the implementation of the scheme✓ Correct Answer
- D.A surplus of funds from other rural development schemes
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Explanation
The article states that the Ministry of Finance rejected the higher demand of ₹2.79 lakh crore 'amid concerns about irregularities in the implementation of the rural tap water scheme.' This directly links the lower approved allocation to governance and implementation issues.
Which Indian organization developed the Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) system?
- A.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
- B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
- D.National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NavIC was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). DRDO handles defence research, C-DOT focuses on telecom, and NTRO is a technical intelligence agency.
Consider the following statements regarding GPS interference:
1. GPS spoofing involves overpowering the satellite signal with 'noise' on the same frequency.
2. GPS jamming provides false information about a vessel's actual location, creating confusion.
3. Over 1,650 vessels experienced GPS/AIS interference in West Asia on March 7, 2026, according to the maritime company Windward.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: It describes GPS jamming, not spoofing. Jamming uses noise to overpower the signal. Statement 2 is incorrect: It describes GPS spoofing, not jamming. Spoofing provides false location data. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which cites Windward's data.
According to the article, approximately how many incidents of GPS interference were reported in India's border regions between November 2023 and February 2025?
- A.Around 250
- B.Around 350
- C.Around 465✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around 550
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Explanation
The article states that the government informed the Lok Sabha last year about 'around 465 incidents of GPS interference' reported in India's border regions, mostly in Amritsar and Jammu, during that period.
What is the primary purpose of deploying multi-constellation GNSS receivers, as mentioned in the context of mitigating GPS interference?
- A.To increase the signal strength of the American GPS system.
- B.To reduce dependence on a single navigation system and enhance resilience.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with international maritime regulations for all vessels.
- D.To provide free navigation services to developing countries.
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Explanation
The article mentions that shipping companies use multi-constellation GNSS (like GPS, Galileo, GLONASS, BeiDou, NavIC) 'to mitigate against GPS interference.' The core idea is to avoid reliance on one vulnerable system, thereby increasing overall navigation resilience.
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All Questions in This Set
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- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q95. According to the news, the Punjab government challenged BBMB d…
- Q96. is the core legal argument presented by the Punjab government …
- Q97. constitutional article, cited in the judgment, guarantees the …
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Har…
- Q99. On which date did the Punjab and Haryana High Court deliver th…
- Q100. was the primary social purpose of 'karewa' marriage, as recogn…
- Q101. ministry issued the order invoking the Essential Commodities A…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the gas allocation…
- Q103. According to the article, what percentage of India's total nat…
- Q104. was the primary objective of the government invoking the Essen…
- Q105. Under which ministry does the Directorate of Estates, the admi…
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- Q107. is the estimated total cost of the redevelopment project for t…
- Q108. is a key feature of the financing model adopted for the GPRA r…
- Q109. The right to be informed of the grounds of arrest is a fundame…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the grounds of arr…
- Q111. As per the Kerala High Court ruling, within what minimum time …
- Q112. is the primary constitutional objective of the requirement to …
- Q113. ministry is the nodal ministry responsible for implementing th…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mis…
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- Q116. was a primary reason cited in the article for the Union Cabine…
- Q117. Indian organization developed the Navigation with Indian Const…
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- Q119. According to the article, approximately how many incidents of …
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