15 March 2026, Questions & Answers

92 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

92 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  19 min revision

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This page contains 92 current affairs questions with answers from 15 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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15 March 2026, Questions with Answers

92 Qs
Q1.

The Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) system is developed and maintained by which Indian organisation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
  • D.Department of Space (DoS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NavIC is India's indigenous regional satellite navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The article explicitly mentions ISRO officials reporting on the satellite failure.

Source: US Strikes Kharg Island Threatens $150 Oil, NavIC Satellite Fails, UCC Debated, BRICS Consensus Difficult Amid West Asia Conflict →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The US attack on Kharg Island targeted only military infrastructure, sparing the oil export terminal to avoid a major spike in crude prices.

2. At least four operational satellites are required for the NavIC system to provide full positioning, navigation, and timing (PNT) services.

3. B.R. Ambedkar, during the Constituent Assembly debates, suggested that the Uniform Civil Code could be applied voluntarily in its initial stage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: US President Trump stated he chose not to target oil infrastructure, and officials said only military targets were hit. Statement 2 is correct: the article states 'At least four indigenous navigation satellites must be fully operational for the NavIC system to provide navigation services'. Statement 3 is correct: Ambedkar suggested the Code could apply initially to those who declare they are prepared to be bound by it.

Source: US Strikes Kharg Island Threatens $150 Oil, NavIC Satellite Fails, UCC Debated, BRICS Consensus Difficult Amid West Asia Conflict →
Q3.

According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consumption transits through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.40%
  • B.54%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.60%
  • D.90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'With 90% of India's LPG imports coming from West Asia, the Strait of Hormuz effectively sees the movement of around 54% of India's LPG consumption.' The 90% figure is for imports, but the question asks about total consumption transit.

Source: US Strikes Kharg Island Threatens $150 Oil, NavIC Satellite Fails, UCC Debated, BRICS Consensus Difficult Amid West Asia Conflict →
Q4.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for India's difficulty in forging a BRICS consensus statement on the West Asia conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of a clear foreign policy stance from India
  • B.Direct involvement of some BRICS member countries in the conflict✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India's rotational presidency of the grouping is not yet effective
  • D.Opposition from Western powers within the BRICS framework
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The MEA spokesperson stated: 'Some members of the BRICS are directly involved in the current situation in the West Asia region, which has impacted forging a consensus on a common BRICS position.' The article names Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE as involved members.

Source: US Strikes Kharg Island Threatens $150 Oil, NavIC Satellite Fails, UCC Debated, BRICS Consensus Difficult Amid West Asia Conflict →
Q5.

Which constitutional article did the Supreme Court interpret to include the 'right to die with dignity' in the Harish Rana case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly declared that the right to live with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution extends to encompass the right to die with dignity for a patient with an irreversible medical condition.

Source: SC Approves India's First Passive Euthanasia for Harish Rana, Rejects 'Act vs Omission' Test, Links Right to Die to Article 21 →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on passive euthanasia:

1. The Court approved passive euthanasia for Harish Rana, who had been in a vegetative state for nearly 13 years.

2. The judgment upheld the traditional 'act versus omission' test as the correct legal distinction between active and passive euthanasia.

3. The Court remarked that the term 'passive euthanasia' is obsolete and suggested using 'withdrawing or withholding of medical treatment' instead.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court rejected the simplistic 'act versus omission' test and provided a nuanced distinction based on the 'source of harm'. Statement 3 is correct as the Court explicitly called the term 'passive euthanasia' obsolete.

Source: SC Approves India's First Passive Euthanasia for Harish Rana, Rejects 'Act vs Omission' Test, Links Right to Die to Article 21 →
Q7.

For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state before the Supreme Court approved the withdrawal of life support?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Nearly 5 years
  • B.Nearly 8 years
  • C.Nearly 13 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Nearly 15 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Harish Rana had been in a vegetative state for nearly 13 years following a fall, which was a key factor in the Court's decision.

Source: SC Approves India's First Passive Euthanasia for Harish Rana, Rejects 'Act vs Omission' Test, Links Right to Die to Article 21 →
Q8.

What is the core principle of the 'best interests' test as explained by the Supreme Court in the context of withdrawing life support?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It asks whether it is in the patient's best interest to die.
  • B.It inquires whether continuing life support artificially serves the patient's best interest.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is a narrow formula based solely on medical considerations.
  • D.It presumes against the preservation of life in terminal cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court clarified that the 'best interests' test does not ask if it is in the patient's best interest to die. Instead, it asks whether continuing life support through artificial means (like Clinically Assisted Nutrition and Hydration) artificially serves their best interest, considering both medical and non-medical factors.

Source: SC Approves India's First Passive Euthanasia for Harish Rana, Rejects 'Act vs Omission' Test, Links Right to Die to Article 21 →
Q9.

Under which Part of the Indian Constitution is the provision for a Uniform Civil Code mentioned?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Part III (Fundamental Rights)
  • B.Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Part V (The Union)
  • D.Part VI (The States)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in Article 44, which falls under Part IV of the Constitution dealing with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). DPSPs are guidelines for the state and are not enforceable by courts.

Source: Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Under Article 44: Ambedkar's Proposal for Voluntary Initial Application in Constituent Assembly Debate →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding B.R. Ambedkar's views on the Uniform Civil Code (UCC):

1. He argued that the UCC should be immediately imposed on all citizens once the Constitution came into force.

2. He highlighted that Muslim personal law had historically been uniform and immutable across India.

3. He suggested that the UCC could initially be applied on a voluntary basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as Ambedkar proposed a voluntary initial application to allay fears. Statement 2 is incorrect as he argued the opposite, citing historical variations like the Shariat Act of 1937. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, where he said the Code could apply initially to those who declare they are bound by it.

Source: Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Under Article 44: Ambedkar's Proposal for Voluntary Initial Application in Constituent Assembly Debate →
Q11.

On which date did the Constituent Assembly discuss the amendment proposing safeguards for personal laws, which was opposed by Ambedkar?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.December 2, 1948
  • B.November 23, 1948✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 26, 1950
  • D.August 15, 1947
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that on November 23, 1948, Constituent Assembly member Mohammad Ismail Khan proposed an amendment to add a proviso safeguarding personal laws, which was opposed by Ambedkar. December 2, 1948, is when Kazi Syed Karimuddin raised the issue again.

Source: Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Under Article 44: Ambedkar's Proposal for Voluntary Initial Application in Constituent Assembly Debate →
Q12.

What was Ambedkar's primary objective in proposing a voluntary initial application for the Uniform Civil Code?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To indefinitely delay the implementation of Article 44.
  • B.To make it a justiciable Fundamental Right.
  • C.To allay fears of immediate imposition and ensure social acceptance.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To restrict its application only to Hindu personal laws.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Ambedkar had a 'conciliatory approach' to 'allay fears' that the Code would be immediately imposed. He stated it was a Directive Principle, not an enforced law, and a voluntary start would make its application 'purely voluntary' initially.

Source: Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Under Article 44: Ambedkar's Proposal for Voluntary Initial Application in Constituent Assembly Debate →
Q13.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for LPG supply and distribution policy in India, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the Petroleum Ministry sharing data on LPG bookings. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for policies related to petroleum, natural gas, and LPG in India.

Source: India's LPG Supply Crisis: 90% Imports Via Strait of Hormuz, 60% Import Dependency, 33 Crore Households Affected →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the West Asia conflict on India's energy imports:

1. India's import dependency for LPG is higher than its import dependency for crude oil.

2. The closure of the Strait of Hormuz has affected a larger proportion of India's LPG imports compared to its crude oil imports.

3. The government has prioritized natural gas supplies to fertilizer units over households using piped natural gas (PNG).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states India's import dependency for crude oil is over 88%, while for LPG it is around 60%. Statement 2 is correct as 90% of LPG imports come via Hormuz, compared to 40% for crude. Statement 3 is incorrect; the government's priority order lists PNG for households in the top category (100% supply), while fertilizer units are in the second category (70% supply).

Source: India's LPG Supply Crisis: 90% Imports Via Strait of Hormuz, 60% Import Dependency, 33 Crore Households Affected →
Q15.

According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG supply was effectively cut off due to the closure of the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.40%
  • B.54%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.60%
  • D.90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "with the chokepoint all but closed, as much as 54% of India’s LPG supply has simply disappeared." 90% is the proportion of imports via Hormuz, 60% is the overall import dependency, and 40% is the domestic production share.

Source: India's LPG Supply Crisis: 90% Imports Via Strait of Hormuz, 60% Import Dependency, 33 Crore Households Affected →
Q16.

What is the primary reason, as explained in the article, for the LPG sector facing more acute stress than the crude oil sector despite the same geopolitical event?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lower domestic production capacity for LPG compared to crude oil refining.
  • B.Higher overall import dependency of India for LPG compared to crude oil.
  • C.Greater reliance on the Strait of Hormuz for LPG imports compared to crude oil imports.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Lack of strategic reserves for LPG, unlike for crude oil.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core analysis in the article highlights that while crude oil import dependency is higher (88%), only 40% of those imports come via the Strait of Hormuz. For LPG, a whopping 90% of imports come via this chokepoint, making the supply disruption far more severe. The article mentions India has stockpiles for crude but does not state this as the primary reason for the differential stress.

Source: India's LPG Supply Crisis: 90% Imports Via Strait of Hormuz, 60% Import Dependency, 33 Crore Households Affected →
Q17.

The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), mentioned in the context of LPG coverage, falls under the purview of which ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
  • D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas aimed at providing LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line households. The article references Petroleum Ministry data, confirming this linkage.

Source: Essential Commodities Act 1955 Invoked to Prioritize LPG for Households Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis, Boosts Domestic Production by 25% →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The government order under the Essential Commodities Act mandates that all LPG produced must be supplied exclusively to public sector oil marketing companies.

2. The order has resulted in a 50% increase in India's domestic LPG production capacity.

3. Natural gas supplies to fertilizer manufacturers have been maintained at 100% of their average consumption to support kharif sowing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'All LPG is to be supplied exclusively to IOCL, BPCL, and HPCL' which are public sector OMCs. Statement 2 is incorrect: The order increased production by 25%, not 50%. Statement 3 is incorrect: Fertilizer manufacturers get 70% of their needs, not 100%.

Source: Essential Commodities Act 1955 Invoked to Prioritize LPG for Households Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis, Boosts Domestic Production by 25% →
Q19.

According to the Petroleum Ministry data cited in the article, what percentage of India's annual LPG consumption was met by domestic production in 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.35%
  • B.41%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.52%
  • D.62%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In 2024-25, Indian refineries produced 12.8 million metric tonnes of LPG, just 41% of the annual consumption of 31.3 million tonnes.' 52% is the figure for domestic natural gas production share, and 62% was the LPG coverage in 2016.

Source: Essential Commodities Act 1955 Invoked to Prioritize LPG for Households Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis, Boosts Domestic Production by 25% →
Q20.

What is the primary immediate objective of invoking the Essential Commodities Act in the context of the recent crisis, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To permanently reduce India's dependence on imported energy
  • B.To act as an emergency tool to manage LPG supply and prioritize household consumption✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To nationalize all private oil refining companies in India
  • D.To shift the entire economy towards renewable energy sources
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article describes the ECA as 'a crucial emergency tool for now' that 'allows the Centre to direct refiners to boost domestic LPG production, prioritise household consumption, and regulate the allocation of natural gas.' The other options are long-term goals or extreme measures not mentioned.

Source: Essential Commodities Act 1955 Invoked to Prioritize LPG for Households Amid Strait of Hormuz Crisis, Boosts Domestic Production by 25% →
Q21.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical global oil shipping route, connects which two major water bodies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Arabian Sea and Red Sea
  • B.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
  • D.Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the strait links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman. This is a key geographical fact about one of the world's most important maritime chokepoints.

Source: US Calls for Multinational Naval Deployment to Secure Strait of Hormuz Amid 20 Million Barrels Daily Oil Flow →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz:

1. It is a narrow waterway through which approximately one-fifth of global oil supplies pass.

2. The United Kingdom has agreed to send two aircraft carriers to the region as part of the US-led security initiative.

3. Recent attacks on vessels in the strait followed US and Israeli military strikes on Iran.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions around a fifth of global oil supplies pass through it. Statement 2 is incorrect; while Trump mentioned the UK was 'finally giving serious thought' to sending carriers, the UK spokesperson only said they were 'discussing options', and there was no agreement. Statement 3 is correct as the article states attacks followed US-Israel strikes on Iran.

Source: US Calls for Multinational Naval Deployment to Secure Strait of Hormuz Amid 20 Million Barrels Daily Oil Flow →
Q23.

According to the article, approximately what volume of oil is transported through the Strait of Hormuz each day?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15 million barrels
  • B.18 million barrels
  • C.20 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • D.25 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that roughly 20 million barrels are transported through the channel each day. This is a precise data point crucial for understanding the strait's economic significance.

Source: US Calls for Multinational Naval Deployment to Secure Strait of Hormuz Amid 20 Million Barrels Daily Oil Flow →
Q24.

What is the primary strategic concern driving the US call for a multinational naval presence in the Strait of Hormuz, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enforce new international sanctions against Iran.
  • B.To keep the strait open and safe for global oil shipping.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a permanent US military base in the region.
  • D.To counter Chinese naval expansion in the Indian Ocean.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core focus is on securing the free flow of oil through this critical chokepoint. Trump's statement explicitly mentions the goal is 'to keep the strait open and safe'. Disruption has already pushed up oil prices, highlighting the economic imperative.

Source: US Calls for Multinational Naval Deployment to Secure Strait of Hormuz Amid 20 Million Barrels Daily Oil Flow →
Q25.

Which ministry/department does the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC) fall under?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • D.Ministry of Power
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PPAC falls under the Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. It is the nodal agency for data on the petroleum and gas sector.

Source: India's LPG Import Dependence Hits 60% (2024-25), Driven by PMUY and Stalled Domestic Production →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding India's LPG sector:

1. India has been a net importer of LPG since 1999.

2. The share of LPG in the total output of domestic refineries increased from 5.2% in 1998-99 to 4.2% in 2024-25.

3. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) provides heavily subsidized LPG cylinders primarily to urban households.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per PPAC data cited. Statement 2 is incorrect; the share of LPG in refinery output decreased from 5.2% to 4.2%. Statement 3 is incorrect; PMUY primarily targets rural households, with 80% of its beneficiaries being rural as of end-2024.

Source: India's LPG Import Dependence Hits 60% (2024-25), Driven by PMUY and Stalled Domestic Production →
Q27.

According to the article, what percentage of India's domestic LPG supply was met by imports in 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.40%
  • B.53%
  • C.60%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that as much as 60% of India's LPG supply comes from outside the country. 40% is LPG's share in total petroleum product imports by volume. 53% is its share in the monetary value of petroleum product imports. 90% is the share of imports sourced via the Strait of Hormuz.

Source: India's LPG Import Dependence Hits 60% (2024-25), Driven by PMUY and Stalled Domestic Production →
Q28.

What was a primary government measure mentioned to ensure a steady LPG supply during the recent crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increasing the subsidy amount per cylinder
  • B.Ordering a 25% increase in domestic LPG production✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Launching a new LPG pipeline from Central Asia
  • D.Banning the use of LPG in commercial establishments
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly lists measures including ordering a 25% increase in domestic production and widening the gap between cylinder bookings. It does not mention increasing subsidies, launching a new pipeline, or a commercial ban.

Source: India's LPG Import Dependence Hits 60% (2024-25), Driven by PMUY and Stalled Domestic Production →
Q29.

The Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Assembly of which Indian state?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Uttar Pradesh
  • B.Gujarat
  • C.Maharashtra✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rajasthan
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Maharashtra state Assembly by Minister Pankaj Bhoyar.

Source: Maharashtra's Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Grants Police Suo Motu Power Against Unlawful Religious Conversion →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026:

1. It allows a police officer to take suo motu cognisance of an unlawful conversion.

2. It defines 'brainwashing through the medium of education' as a means of unlawful conversion.

3. It mandates that investigation into offences under the Act must be conducted by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill expressly allows police to initiate action on their own. Statement 2 is correct as 'brainwashing through education' is listed among unlawful means. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Bill sets the threshold at Sub-Inspector, not DySP.

Source: Maharashtra's Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Grants Police Suo Motu Power Against Unlawful Religious Conversion →
Q31.

As per the proposed Dharma Swatantrya Bill, what is the minimum rank of police officer authorized to investigate offences under it?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Constable
  • B.Head Constable
  • C.Sub-Inspector✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Deputy Superintendent of Police
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that investigations would be conducted by a police officer not below the rank of sub-inspector. This is a lower threshold than in some other states' laws.

Source: Maharashtra's Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Grants Police Suo Motu Power Against Unlawful Religious Conversion →
Q32.

What is a key departure of the proposed Maharashtra anti-conversion law from similar laws in states like Uttar Pradesh?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It prohibits all forms of religious conversion.
  • B.It requires a complaint to be filed only by the converted person.
  • C.It empowers police to act on suspected unlawful conversions without a formal complaint.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It applies only to conversions to a specific religion.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that while Uttar Pradesh's law expanded who can complain, the Maharashtra draft goes further by expressly allowing police to take suo motu action. This is a significant procedural expansion of state power.

Source: Maharashtra's Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Grants Police Suo Motu Power Against Unlawful Religious Conversion →
Q33.

Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) as part of the UPSC Prelims?

EasyUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Ministry of Education
  • B.Staff Selection Commission
  • C.Union Public Service Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • D.State Public Service Commissions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India, mandated by the Constitution under Part XIV. It conducts the Civil Services Examination, which includes the Preliminary exam featuring the CSAT paper.

Source: CSAT Paper-II: Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability Scoring Strategies for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the UPSC CSAT paper as discussed in the article:

1. Logical Reasoning questions in CSAT can be based on short passages, graphical information, or a cluster of conditions.

2. Analytical Ability questions measure a candidate's ability to analyse a given structure of relationships and deduce missing information.

3. The CSAT paper is only a qualifying paper and does not contribute to the final rank determination in the Civil Services Examination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition of Logical Reasoning. Statement 2 is the exact definition of Analytical Ability provided in the article. Statement 3 is a fundamental fact about CSAT (Paper-II): it is a qualifying paper requiring 33% marks, and only the marks of GS Paper-I are used for rank determination.

Source: CSAT Paper-II: Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability Scoring Strategies for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q35.

According to the article, when is the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination for 2026 scheduled?

EasyUPSC
  • A.May 15, 2026
  • B.May 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.June 1, 2026
  • D.June 10, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 is scheduled for May 24'. This is a crucial date for aspirants to note for their preparation timeline.

Source: CSAT Paper-II: Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability Scoring Strategies for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q36.

As per the expert in the article, why is developing Analytical Ability particularly important for a future IAS officer beyond just clearing the CSAT exam?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To perform complex mathematical calculations for budgeting.
  • B.To write eloquent and persuasive administrative reports.
  • C.To maintain protocols while organizing events and meetings.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To understand and interpret economic survey data.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Analytical Ability becomes even more important, later, as it would help you as a true-blue IAS officer in maintaining protocols of organizing events and meetings.' The example given is analyzing seating arrangements for diplomats, which is a practical application of this skill.

Source: CSAT Paper-II: Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability Scoring Strategies for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q37.

The 2015 JCPOA, mentioned in the context of Iran's nuclear programme, was an agreement between Iran and which group of countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • B.The P5+1 (US, UK, France, Russia, China + Germany)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
  • D.The European Union (EU) alone
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) of 2015 was agreed between Iran and the P5+1 nations—the five permanent members of the UN Security Council (US, UK, France, Russia, China) plus Germany—along with the European Union. This is a key static fact related to international treaties and non-proliferation efforts.

Source: Iran-US-Israel Conflict Shifts Gulf Security Architecture Post-2023 Saudi-Iran Rapprochement, JCPOA 2015 Under Threat →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the strategic implications discussed in the article:

1. Iran's retaliation successfully transformed the US-Israel operation from a bilateral conflict into a regional war by targeting American bases in Gulf states.

2. The Abraham Accords, which sought a new security order involving Israel and Gulf nations, are now firmly on track and supported by Saudi Arabia.

3. A key international consensus that has historically deterred Iran from pursuing nuclear weapons is centered around the JCPOA agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Iran turned the operation 'into a destabilising regional war' by declaring American assets as targets. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly says 'the Abraham Accord... is now off the table' and that Saudi Arabia no longer supports Israel's radical approach. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions this international consensus 'has deterred Iran from pursuing a nuclear weapon program and agreeing to the 2015 JCPOA agreement'.

Source: Iran-US-Israel Conflict Shifts Gulf Security Architecture Post-2023 Saudi-Iran Rapprochement, JCPOA 2015 Under Threat →
Q39.

According to the article, since what year has the Saudi Arabia-Iran rapprochement been underway, significantly impacting Gulf security dynamics?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2020
  • B.2021
  • C.2022
  • D.2023✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions, 'With the Saudi Arabia-Iran rapprochement underway since 2023...'. This is a precise factual detail concerning a major recent diplomatic development in the Middle East, crucial for understanding the shifting alliances discussed in the analysis.

Source: Iran-US-Israel Conflict Shifts Gulf Security Architecture Post-2023 Saudi-Iran Rapprochement, JCPOA 2015 Under Threat →
Q40.

What is identified in the article as a primary consequence of Iran's military response for the future security architecture of the Gulf region?

MediumUPSC
  • A.A strengthening of the US-Israel defense pact and its extension to Gulf states.
  • B.The immediate and full implementation of the Abraham Accords including Saudi Arabia.
  • C.A search by Gulf states for an alternative security architecture independent of the US-Israel framework.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The unanimous decision by Gulf nations to join the military campaign against Iran.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that 'Saudis and other Gulf states have started a search for an alternative security architecture.' It details Gulf frustration with being used as a 'shield for Israeli security' and their defensive posture, indicating a move away from the US-Israel led model envisioned by the now-shelved Abraham Accords.

Source: Iran-US-Israel Conflict Shifts Gulf Security Architecture Post-2023 Saudi-Iran Rapprochement, JCPOA 2015 Under Threat →
Q41.

Which central armed police force, mentioned in the article, was a primary target of the Mizo National Front's attacks in 1966?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
  • B.Border Security Force (BSF)
  • C.Assam Rifles✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Mizo rebels attacked positions of the Assam Rifles. It also mentions that volunteers for the armed struggle included ex-servicemen or dismissed personnel from the Assam Regiment battalions. The Assam Rifles is a paramilitary force central to security in India's northeastern region.

Source: IAF's 1966 Aizawl Air Strikes Under Operation Jericho Mark 60th Anniversary of Mizo National Front Rebellion →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the 1966 Mizo rebellion:

1. The rebellion was led by the Mizo National Front under the codename 'Operation Jericho'.

2. The Indian Air Force's use of air power was authorized after a helicopter carrying Lt Gen Manekshaw was directly targeted and shot down.

3. The IAF squadrons involved in the air strikes were the 29 Squadron flying Toofani aircraft and the 14 Squadron flying Hunter aircraft.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article clearly states the MNF launched 'Operation Jericho'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies that while a reconnaissance-cum-supply aircraft with Manekshaw was fired upon and received bullet hits, it was not shot down. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the two IAF squadrons and their aircraft types. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: IAF's 1966 Aizawl Air Strikes Under Operation Jericho Mark 60th Anniversary of Mizo National Front Rebellion →
Q43.

According to the article, in which month and year did the Indian Air Force conduct air strikes against Mizo rebel positions around Aizawl?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.February 1965
  • B.March 1966✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 1967
  • D.January 1966
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that March 2026 marks the 60th anniversary of the Mizo rebellion and that the use of air power took place in March 1966. It mentions missions beginning on March 5 and details actions through March. The other options are distractors based on other significant years in Indian history.

Source: IAF's 1966 Aizawl Air Strikes Under Operation Jericho Mark 60th Anniversary of Mizo National Front Rebellion →
Q44.

What was the primary military reason cited in the article for the Indian government's authorization of air strikes during the 1966 Mizo rebellion?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To directly target the MNF leadership headquarters.
  • B.To provide air cover for civilian evacuation from Aizawl.
  • C.To dislodge rebels from entrenched positions after ground troops were held up.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To destroy rebel supply lines in neighboring Burma.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that air power was authorized 'only when ground troops, led by 8 Sikh, found it impossible to dislodge rebels from their entrenched positions around Aizawl.' Lt Gen Mathew Thomas is also quoted saying they had to bring in the Air Force to strafe rebel positions to push into Aizawl. The other options are not supported by the article's text.

Source: IAF's 1966 Aizawl Air Strikes Under Operation Jericho Mark 60th Anniversary of Mizo National Front Rebellion →
Q45.

Under which Article of the Constitution can a High Court issue a writ of habeas corpus?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 136
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs, including habeas corpus, for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 gives this power specifically to the Supreme Court. The Delhi High Court acted under Article 226 in this case.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Police on Habeas Corpus Petitions Over Alleged Illegal Detention of 10 Activists Under BNSS →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Delhi High Court ordered the preservation of CCTV footage from the back gate of Dyal Singh College and the Jahangirpuri area.

2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) mandates that an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 48 hours.

3. Among the detained activists were members of the Bhagat Singh Chatra Ekta Manch (BSCEM), a Delhi University-based students’ organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the court ordered preservation of CCTV footage from Dyal Singh College and Jahangirpuri. Statement 2 is incorrect because the BNSS mandates production within 24 hours, not 48 hours (this is the examiner's trap). Statement 3 is correct as the article lists BSCEM members among the detainees.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Police on Habeas Corpus Petitions Over Alleged Illegal Detention of 10 Activists Under BNSS →
Q47.

According to the news article, by what date did the Delhi High Court direct the police to trace the whereabouts of the missing activist, Rudra Vikram Roy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.By March 15, 2026
  • B.By March 16, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.By March 27, 2026
  • D.By March 30, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'the court ordered the police to trace his whereabouts by Monday'. Since the hearing was on Sunday, March 15, 2026, the following Monday is March 16, 2026.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Police on Habeas Corpus Petitions Over Alleged Illegal Detention of 10 Activists Under BNSS →
Q48.

What is the primary legal significance of the Delhi High Court's order to preserve CCTV footage in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To ensure transparency in police investigations for the public.
  • B.To prevent potential tampering or destruction of crucial evidence.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To live-stream the court proceedings for media coverage.
  • D.To create a database of activist movements for future reference.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the court ordered preservation 'To prevent the potential tampering of evidence'. This is a standard judicial measure to maintain the integrity of evidence, especially in cases alleging procedural illegalities by state authorities.

Source: Delhi HC Directs Police on Habeas Corpus Petitions Over Alleged Illegal Detention of 10 Activists Under BNSS →
Q49.

Which constitutional body is responsible for announcing and conducting the Assembly elections mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Parliament of India
  • B.The Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.The President of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the permanent constitutional body established under Article 324. It is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.

Source: Election Commission Announces Polling Schedule for 4 States & 1 UT Covering 17.4 Crore Voters Across 824 Constituencies →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the elections announced:

1. The elections will cover 17.4 crore electors across 824 constituencies.

2. The counting of votes for all the poll-bound states and the Union Territory will be held on May 4.

3. A Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls was conducted in all the poll-bound states, including Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'A total of 17.4 crore voters are eligible to vote in elections to five assemblies with 824 constituencies.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The counting of votes will be held on May 4.' Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly states: 'Assam was left out of the national exercise [SIR] as the National Register of Citizens in the state was yet to be published.'

Source: Election Commission Announces Polling Schedule for 4 States & 1 UT Covering 17.4 Crore Voters Across 824 Constituencies →
Q51.

According to the news, how many polling stations will be set up for the upcoming Assembly elections across the four states and one Union Territory?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 1.5 lakh
  • B.Approximately 2.18 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Approximately 2.5 lakh
  • D.Approximately 3 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Addressing a press conference... Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar said the elections will cover 17.4 crore electors across 824 constituencies at 2.18 lakh polling stations.' The number '2.19 lakh' is also mentioned later, but '2.18 lakh' is the primary figure given.

Source: Election Commission Announces Polling Schedule for 4 States & 1 UT Covering 17.4 Crore Voters Across 824 Constituencies →
Q52.

What was a key outcome of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It led to a significant increase in the number of registered voters.
  • B.It resulted in the deletion of approximately 18.98 lakh voter names.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It was successfully completed in all states, including Assam.
  • D.It introduced online voting for the first time.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'As per the EC data, the SIR exercise has led to the reduction of number of voters by 18.98 across Bihar, West Bengal...' This indicates a cleanup of the electoral rolls, removing ineligible or duplicate entries. It was not conducted in Assam, and there is no mention of an increase in voters or online voting.

Source: Election Commission Announces Polling Schedule for 4 States & 1 UT Covering 17.4 Crore Voters Across 824 Constituencies →
Q53.

Which constitutional body is currently hearing the challenge to the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Law Commission of India
  • C.Parliament of India
  • D.Uttarakhand High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a writ petition was filed before the Supreme Court, and a bench led by CJI Surya Kant heard the challenge. The Uttarakhand High Court is mentioned only in the context of a separate challenge to the state's UCC provisions on live-in relationships.

Source: Supreme Court Hears Challenge to Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act 1937 Under Articles 14, 15, 21 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937:

1. It was enacted to impose a uniform Islamic law on Muslims across British India.

2. It replaced regional customs that often denied women the inheritance shares prescribed in the Quran.

3. It categorizes inheritance (faraid) as part of 'ibadat' (acts of worship), placing it under the core protection of Article 25.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies the Act 'was not imposed on Muslims'; it was demanded by religious organizations to replace customs denying women Quranic shares. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's historical context. Statement 3 is incorrect; the petition argues inheritance belongs to 'muamalat' (civil transactions), not 'ibadat'.

Source: Supreme Court Hears Challenge to Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act 1937 Under Articles 14, 15, 21 →
Q55.

According to the Shariat Act's inheritance rules (faraid), what share does a widow receive if her deceased husband has children?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.One-fourth of the estate
  • B.One-eighth of the estate✓ Correct Answer
  • C.One-half of the estate
  • D.Two-thirds of the estate
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'A widow receives one-eighth if there are children, and one-fourth if there are none.' This is a fixed share under the faraid system codified by the 1937 Act.

Source: Supreme Court Hears Challenge to Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act 1937 Under Articles 14, 15, 21 →
Q56.

What is the primary constitutional argument made by the petitioners challenging the Shariat Act, as per the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The Act violates the fundamental right to freedom of religion under Article 25.
  • B.The Act creates an arbitrary classification based on geography after Uttarakhand's UCC, violating Articles 14 and 15.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Act is ultra vires as it was passed by the British Parliament, not the Indian Constituent Assembly.
  • D.The Act discriminates against men by imposing excessive maintenance obligations (nafaqah).
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details that the petition argues the Uttarakhand UCC (2024) breaks the 'uniformity' of the 1937 Act, making it a civil statute subject to equality tests. It claims the Act now treats two Muslim women differently based solely on their 'postal code', constituting arbitrary discrimination under Articles 14 and 15.

Source: Supreme Court Hears Challenge to Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act 1937 Under Articles 14, 15, 21 →
Q57.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 320
  • B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 356
  • D.Article 360
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India, a permanent constitutional body, is established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution. This article vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the ECI.

Source: ECI Announces Assembly Polls for 824 Seats in 5 States/UTs; Model Code of Conduct Activated →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently announced election schedule:

1. Assembly elections will be held in the states of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Assam.

2. The counting of votes for all 824 seats will be held on May 4, 2026.

3. The Model Code of Conduct comes into effect only after the first phase of polling is completed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as elections are announced for West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Assam, and Puducherry (a UT). Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'The counting of votes for all 824 seats... will be held on May 4.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the MCC comes into immediate effect upon the announcement of the schedule, not after polling.

Source: ECI Announces Assembly Polls for 824 Seats in 5 States/UTs; Model Code of Conduct Activated →
Q59.

According to the announcement, how many total voters are eligible to vote in the upcoming Assembly elections across the four states and one Union Territory?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15.2 crore
  • B.16.3 crore
  • C.17.4 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.18.1 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar stated: 'A total of 17.4 crore voters are eligible to vote in elections to five assemblies with 824 constituencies.' This is a direct data point from the article.

Source: ECI Announces Assembly Polls for 824 Seats in 5 States/UTs; Model Code of Conduct Activated →
Q60.

What is the primary immediate consequence of the Election Commission announcing the poll schedule, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The President's Rule is imposed in the states.
  • B.The Model Code of Conduct comes into effect.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The state legislatures are automatically dissolved.
  • D.The Central Government takes over the state administration.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'With the announcement of the schedule, the Model Code of Conduct has come into immediate effect in the poll-bound State and Union Territory.' This is a standard procedure to ensure a level playing field during elections.

Source: ECI Announces Assembly Polls for 824 Seats in 5 States/UTs; Model Code of Conduct Activated →
Q61.

Which constitutional body is responsible for announcing the schedule for Assembly elections in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The President of India
  • B.The Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Parliament of India
  • D.The Chief Electoral Officer of the State
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI), established under Article 324 of the Constitution, is the supreme autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes, including announcing schedules, for both Parliament and State Legislatures.

Source: ECI Announces Assam Assembly Elections for 126 Seats on April 9, Counting on May 4 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Assam Assembly elections:

1. The elections will be conducted in a single phase on April 9, 2026.

2. Out of the 126 Assembly seats, 19 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 9 for Scheduled Tribes.

3. The Election Commission notification mentions over 2.50 crore electors, including 5.75 lakh first-time voters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states polls will be in a single phase on April 9, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; it swaps the numbers. The article clearly states 9 seats are reserved for SCs and 19 for STs. Statement 3 is correct as per the notification details provided in the article.

Source: ECI Announces Assam Assembly Elections for 126 Seats on April 9, Counting on May 4 →
Q63.

As per the Election Commission's announcement, how many polling stations have been set up for the 2026 Assam Assembly elections?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25,486
  • B.30,000
  • C.31,486✓ Correct Answer
  • D.35,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'As many as 31,486 polling stations in the north-eastern State have been set up for the conduct of the Assembly polls.' The other options are close distractors.

Source: ECI Announces Assam Assembly Elections for 126 Seats on April 9, Counting on May 4 →
Q64.

What is the primary constitutional significance of the Election Commission announcing the election schedule?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It marks the beginning of the model code of conduct for political parties.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.It allows the government to announce populist schemes.
  • C.It determines the foreign policy stance of the state.
  • D.It initiates the process of delimitation of constituencies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The announcement of the election schedule by the ECI is a formal trigger for the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to come into force. The MCC is a set of guidelines to ensure free and fair elections by regulating the conduct of parties and candidates, making option A correct. Other options are not directly linked to the schedule announcement.

Source: ECI Announces Assam Assembly Elections for 126 Seats on April 9, Counting on May 4 →
Q65.

The EU High Representative and Vice President, who invited the External Affairs Minister, is the chief coordinator for which of the following EU bodies?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Commission
  • B.European Council
  • C.Foreign Affairs Council✓ Correct Answer
  • D.European Parliament
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the EU High Representative and Vice President Kaja Kallas invited the minister to interact with the Foreign Ministers at the Foreign Affairs Council Meeting. The High Representative chairs the Foreign Affairs Council.

Source: India-EU Landmark FTA Implementation Discussed by Jaishankar at Brussels Foreign Affairs Council Meeting →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The visit is the first high-level engagement after the India-EU Free Trade Agreement was finalized.

2. The FTA was termed the 'mother of all deals' and was sealed following the 15th India-EU Summit.

3. Discussions during the visit are expected to cover the geopolitical consequences of the Iran-U.S. conflict on energy security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is the first high-level visit after the FTA was firmed up. Statement 2 is incorrect; the FTA was sealed after the 16th India-EU Summit, not the 15th. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the sides are expected to deliberate on dealing with the Iran-U.S. conflict's consequences, especially on energy flow.

Source: India-EU Landmark FTA Implementation Discussed by Jaishankar at Brussels Foreign Affairs Council Meeting →
Q67.

According to the news, in which month and year was the landmark India-EU Free Trade Agreement firmed up?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.December 2025
  • B.January 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.February 2026
  • D.March 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the landmark Free Trade Agreement (FTA) was firmed up by the two sides in January. The other options are close distractors based on the timeline of the visit.

Source: India-EU Landmark FTA Implementation Discussed by Jaishankar at Brussels Foreign Affairs Council Meeting →
Q68.

What is a primary strategic objective of External Affairs Minister Jaishankar's visit to Brussels, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To negotiate the terms of a new defense pact with NATO
  • B.To further deepen India's strategic partnership with the European Union✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To announce India's withdrawal from the FTA negotiations
  • D.To seek EU mediation in the Iran-U.S. conflict
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's statement from the Ministry says the visit is 'expected to further deepen India's strategic partnership with the European Union.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: India-EU Landmark FTA Implementation Discussed by Jaishankar at Brussels Foreign Affairs Council Meeting →
Q69.

The high-powered expert committee for defining the Aravalli hills includes members from which of the following organizations, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Forest Survey of India (FSI) and Geological Survey of India (GSI)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
  • C.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and Central Water Commission (CWC)
  • D.NITI Aayog and Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the committee comprises in-service and retired bureaucrats associated with the Forest Survey of India (FSI), Geological Survey of India (GSI), and Survey of India. ISRO, CSIR, NDMA, CWC, NITI Aayog, or the Ministry of Rural Development are not mentioned in the context of this committee.

Source: Supreme Court Stalls Mining, Forms 10-Member Expert Panel to Define Aravalli Hills Using 100m Elevation, 500m Gap Criteria →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about defining the Aravalli hills:

1. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) proposed the initial list of names for the 10-member expert committee.

2. The Supreme Court has allowed all lawful mining activities to continue in the Aravalli region during the committee's deliberations.

3. One of the 'critical ambiguities' the committee must resolve is the criteria of a 100-metre elevation for defining a hill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) proposed the names, which were then endorsed by the MoEFCC. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court, on December 29, stalled all mining activities (not just unlawful ones). Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which mentions the need to resolve ambiguities including the 100m elevation criteria.

Source: Supreme Court Stalls Mining, Forms 10-Member Expert Panel to Define Aravalli Hills Using 100m Elevation, 500m Gap Criteria →
Q71.

As per the Supreme Court's observation mentioned in the article, what is the 'gap' criteria between hills that is under consideration for defining the Aravalli ranges?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100 metres
  • B.250 metres
  • C.500 metres✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1 kilometre
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Supreme Court remarked on the need to resolve ambiguities, 'including whether the criteria of 100-metre elevation and the 500-metre gap between hills would strip a significant portion of the range of environmental protection.' Therefore, the gap criteria is 500 metres.

Source: Supreme Court Stalls Mining, Forms 10-Member Expert Panel to Define Aravalli Hills Using 100m Elevation, 500m Gap Criteria →
Q72.

What is the primary objective of forming the 10-member high-powered expert committee as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To survey and map new mineral deposits in the Aravalli region.
  • B.To come up with a uniform definition for the Aravalli hills and ranges.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To oversee the rehabilitation of areas affected by illegal mining.
  • D.To design an afforestation plan for the degraded parts of the Aravallis.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's title and content repeatedly state that the committee has been 'tasked to come up with a uniform definition for the Aravalli hills and ranges.' This definition is the core mandate to resolve legal ambiguities. While surveying, rehabilitation, and afforestation may be related outcomes, they are not the stated primary objective of this committee.

Source: Supreme Court Stalls Mining, Forms 10-Member Expert Panel to Define Aravalli Hills Using 100m Elevation, 500m Gap Criteria →
Q73.

Which institution released the Fiscal Health Index 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India
  • B.Finance Commission of India
  • C.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026 was released by NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, responsible for fostering cooperative federalism.

Source: NITI Aayog Releases Fiscal Health Index 2026: Odisha Tops Among 28 States, 10 NE/Himalayan States Included for FY 2023-24 →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Health Index 2026:

1. It is the first edition of the index released by NITI Aayog.

2. The index for 2023-24 evaluates the fiscal performance of 28 Indian states.

3. The index assesses states based on five pillars including debt sustainability and revenue mobilisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article mentions this is the second edition of the FHI. Statement 2 is correct; the 2nd edition covers 18 general category states plus 10 NE/Himalayan states, totaling 28. Statement 3 is correct; the five pillars are quality of expenditure, revenue mobilisation, fiscal prudence, debt index, and debt sustainability.

Source: NITI Aayog Releases Fiscal Health Index 2026: Odisha Tops Among 28 States, 10 NE/Himalayan States Included for FY 2023-24 →
Q75.

According to the Fiscal Health Index 2026, which state was the top performer among the general category states for FY 2023-24?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Goa
  • B.Gujarat
  • C.Maharashtra
  • D.Odisha✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'Odisha remains the top performer' among the states assessed. Goa and Jharkhand were also in the top 'Achiever' group, but Odisha is specified as the top performer.

Source: NITI Aayog Releases Fiscal Health Index 2026: Odisha Tops Among 28 States, 10 NE/Himalayan States Included for FY 2023-24 →
Q76.

What is the primary significance of the Fiscal Health Index's expansion to include North-Eastern and Himalayan states?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase the total number of states in the ranking for statistical robustness.
  • B.To separately assess states facing unique challenges like geographic remoteness and higher service delivery costs.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with directives from the Finance Commission for uniform assessment.
  • D.To replace the existing rankings of the 18 major states with a new combined list.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the inclusion of these 10 states brings focus to 'fiscal patterns shaped by geographic remoteness, demographic characteristics, and higher service delivery costs.' They are also ranked separately, acknowledging their distinct fiscal context rather than just increasing the sample size.

Source: NITI Aayog Releases Fiscal Health Index 2026: Odisha Tops Among 28 States, 10 NE/Himalayan States Included for FY 2023-24 →
Q77.

The UPSC, which conducts the Civil Services Examination, is established under which part of the Constitution of India?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Part X (The Scheduled and Tribal Areas)
  • B.Part XIV (Services Under the Union and the States)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Part XV (Elections)
  • D.Part XVI (Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution deal with the Union Public Service Commission and the State Public Service Commissions. This is a fundamental static GK fact about the constitutional basis of the UPSC.

Source: UPSC CSE 2025 Fake Topper Claims Highlight Ethics Gap, Risk to Exam's Legitimacy and Public Service Values →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the ethical issues discussed in the article:

1. The article cites philosopher Socrates to highlight the tension between truth and persuasive rhetoric in the age of social media.

2. It uses psychologist Eric Berne's theory of 'Transactional Analysis' to explain the aspirants' desire for instant approval.

3. The article argues that the UPSC Ethics paper is redundant because instances of corruption still occur among serving officers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Socrates' observation on rhetoric vs. reason. Statement 2 is correct as it references Eric Berne's 'ego states' (Parent, Adult, Child) theory. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article strongly defends the Ethics paper, comparing its necessity to teaching law despite crimes occurring.

Source: UPSC CSE 2025 Fake Topper Claims Highlight Ethics Gap, Risk to Exam's Legitimacy and Public Service Values →
Q79.

According to the article, which specific rank was falsely claimed by two different candidates in the UPSC CSE 2025 results, leading to a controversy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rank 101
  • B.Rank 250
  • C.Rank 301✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Rank 440
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that two candidates named Akanksha Singh claimed to have secured Rank 301. Rank 440 is mentioned as a separate false claim by a different candidate from Bihar. The examiner uses close distractors from the same article.

Source: UPSC CSE 2025 Fake Topper Claims Highlight Ethics Gap, Risk to Exam's Legitimacy and Public Service Values →
Q80.

What is the core argument presented in the article regarding the purpose of the UPSC Ethics paper (GS-IV)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To test the candidate's knowledge of the Indian Penal Code and procedural laws.
  • B.To assess the moral compass and ethical judgment of aspirants before they enter public service.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To evaluate the administrative history and political philosophy of India.
  • D.To replace the need for rigorous training at the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the Ethics paper aims to make aspirants reflect on the values essential for a future officer. It argues that ethical foundations must be built during preparation, as values like integrity are expected from aspirants, not just serving officers.

Source: UPSC CSE 2025 Fake Topper Claims Highlight Ethics Gap, Risk to Exam's Legitimacy and Public Service Values →
Q81.

The Election Commission of India derives its plenary powers for superintendence and control of elections primarily from which article of the Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 327
  • B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 329
  • D.Article 356
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. This is the source of its plenary powers, as mentioned in the article regarding the appointment of Central Observers.

Source: Election Commission Announces Poll Dates for 4 States & Puducherry Under Article 324 Powers →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the upcoming Assembly elections:

1. The Election Commission announced poll dates for the states of Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal.

2. The total number of seats in the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly is 234.

3. The Election Commission appointed Central Observers under powers conferred by Article 327 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Assembly polls in Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal. Statement 2 is correct as the article states Tamil Nadu Assembly has 234 seats. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly states Central Observers were appointed under Article 324 (not Article 327) of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951. This is a typical trap of confusing constitutional articles.

Source: Election Commission Announces Poll Dates for 4 States & Puducherry Under Article 324 Powers →
Q83.

According to the news article, what is the total number of constituencies in the Puducherry Legislative Assembly for which elections will be held?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.28 constituencies
  • B.30 constituencies✓ Correct Answer
  • C.32 constituencies
  • D.40 constituencies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Puducherry will hold elections for all 30 constituencies of the 16th Puducherry Legislative Assembly. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Election Commission Announces Poll Dates for 4 States & Puducherry Under Article 324 Powers →
Q84.

What is the primary purpose of appointing Central Observers by the Election Commission of India, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To campaign for national parties in the states.
  • B.To assist the Commission in the conduct of free and fair polls.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To announce the election results on behalf of the Commission.
  • D.To draft the election manifesto for the ruling party.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the ECI appointed Central Observers to assist the Commission in the conduct of free and fair polls and to oversee the efficient management of the electoral process. This is a core function derived from the ECI's constitutional mandate under Article 324.

Source: Election Commission Announces Poll Dates for 4 States & Puducherry Under Article 324 Powers →
Q85.

The Skill Council for Green Jobs (SCGJ), mentioned in the context of mainstreaming green skills, operates under which Union Ministry?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Skill Council for Green Jobs (SCGJ) is a sector skill council established by the Government of India. Sector Skill Councils are industry-led bodies that fall under the umbrella of the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), which is under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

Source: Green Economy to Create 48 Million Jobs by 2047 with $4.1 Trillion Investment, Says CEEW Study →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding India's green job potential as discussed in the article:

1. A recent study projects that India's green economy could create 48 million full-time equivalent jobs by 2047.

2. The same study estimates this transition will require investments totaling $4.1 trillion.

3. The study was conducted by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the International Labour Organization (ILO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article, which cites a study projecting 48 million jobs and $4.1 trillion in investments by 2047. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly attributes the study to the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW), not NITI Aayog or ILO. This is a classic examiner trap swapping the institution.

Source: Green Economy to Create 48 Million Jobs by 2047 with $4.1 Trillion Investment, Says CEEW Study →
Q87.

According to the article, what is the projected number of full-time equivalent jobs that India's green economy could create by 2047?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.30 million
  • B.42 million
  • C.48 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.55 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "India’s green economy could create 48 million full-time equivalent jobs by 2047." The other options are plausible distractors but are not the figure mentioned in the source material.

Source: Green Economy to Create 48 Million Jobs by 2047 with $4.1 Trillion Investment, Says CEEW Study →
Q88.

What is the primary argument made in the article regarding the future of green careers in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They will be concentrated in traditional technical roles like solar engineering and wind turbine maintenance.
  • B.They will be created primarily by the government through large public sector undertakings.
  • C.They will emerge at the intersection of climate literacy and entrepreneurship, requiring a job-creating mindset.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They will be limited to graduates from premier institutions like the IITs and IIMs.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core thesis is that green jobs "will not emerge fast enough if young Indians only queue for roles in established firms" and that "the most resilient careers will sit at the intersection of climate literacy and entrepreneurship." It emphasizes innovation and venture creation across disciplines, not just technical roles or government jobs.

Source: Green Economy to Create 48 Million Jobs by 2047 with $4.1 Trillion Investment, Says CEEW Study →
Q89.

Which U.S. agency launched the Section 301 investigation into forced labor in global supply chains, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United States Department of Commerce
  • C.United States International Trade Commission (USITC)
  • D.United States Department of State
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'On March 12, the United States Trade Representative (USTR) launched a Section 301 probe'. The USTR is the lead agency for U.S. trade policy and negotiations.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe on Forced Labor in 60 Economies; India's Solar, Electronics, Garment Exports Under Scrutiny →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Section 301 investigation mentioned in the news:

1. The investigation covers 60 economies and will examine whether their policies related to forced labor imports are unreasonable and restrict U.S. commerce.

2. The probe is specifically focused only on China due to allegations of forced labor in the Xinjiang region.

3. India's exports of solar panels, electronics, and garments to the U.S. are immune from this investigation as India has its own Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the probe covers 60 economies, not just China, though China is expected to face particular scrutiny. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states that India's exports could face investigation if they use inputs from China suspected of being made with forced labor.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe on Forced Labor in 60 Economies; India's Solar, Electronics, Garment Exports Under Scrutiny →
Q91.

According to the article, approximately what percentage of the world's cotton is produced in China's Xinjiang region?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 10%
  • B.About 15%
  • C.About 20%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.About 25%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Xinjiang produces about 20% of the world's cotton'. This is a key data point highlighting the region's significance in global supply chains and the potential scale of the issue.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe on Forced Labor in 60 Economies; India's Solar, Electronics, Garment Exports Under Scrutiny →
Q92.

What is a primary reason, as explained in the article, that India's exports could come under scrutiny in the U.S. forced labor probe despite having its own law against bonded labor?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.India has not ratified the relevant ILO conventions on forced labor.
  • B.Indian exports to the U.S. have been declining, prompting a protectionist investigation.
  • C.Many Indian export industries rely on imported intermediate inputs from China, which may be linked to forced labor.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The U.S. does not recognize the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, as a valid law.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that India could face investigations because its export sectors (solar, electronics, garments) depend on imported inputs from China. If these inputs are suspected of being made with forced labor, the final Indian products exported to the U.S. could be investigated. This is the core 'supply chain' risk highlighted.

Source: USTR Launches Section 301 Probe on Forced Labor in 60 Economies; India's Solar, Electronics, Garment Exports Under Scrutiny →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 15 March 2026?▼

This page contains 92 current affairs questions from 15 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 15 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. The Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) system is dev…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  3. Q3. According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consu…
  4. Q4. is the primary reason cited in the article for India's difficu…
  5. Q5. constitutional article did the Supreme Court interpret to incl…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  7. Q7. For how many years had Harish Rana been in a vegetative state …
  8. Q8. is the core principle of the 'best interests' test as explaine…
  9. Q9. Under which Part of the Indian Constitution is the provision f…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding B.R. Ambedkar's vi…
  11. Q11. On which date did the Constituent Assembly discuss the amendme…
  12. Q12. was Ambedkar's primary objective in proposing a voluntary init…
  13. Q13. ministry is primarily responsible for LPG supply and distribut…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the …
  15. Q15. According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG suppl…
  16. Q16. is the primary reason, as explained in the article, for the LP…
  17. Q17. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), mentioned in the con…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  19. Q19. According to the Petroleum Ministry data cited in the article,…
  20. Q20. is the primary immediate objective of invoking the Essential C…
  21. Q21. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical global oil shipping route, co…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
  23. Q23. According to the article, approximately what volume of oil is …
  24. Q24. is the primary strategic concern driving the US call for a mul…
  25. Q25. ministry/department does the Petroleum Planning and Analysis C…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding India's LPG sector…
  27. Q27. According to the article, what percentage of India's domestic …
  28. Q28. was a primary government measure mentioned to ensure a steady …
  29. Q29. The Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Assembl…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Dharma Swatant…
  31. Q31. As per the proposed Dharma Swatantrya Bill, what is the minimu…
  32. Q32. is a key departure of the proposed Maharashtra anti-conversion…
  33. Q33. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Civil Se…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the UPSC CSAT pape…
  35. Q35. According to the article, when is the UPSC Civil Services Prel…
  36. Q36. As per the expert in the article, why is developing Analytical…
  37. Q37. The 2015 JCPOA, mentioned in the context of Iran's nuclear pro…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic impl…
  39. Q39. According to the article, since what year has the Saudi Arabia…
  40. Q40. is identified in the article as a primary consequence of Iran'…
  41. Q41. central armed police force, mentioned in the article, was a pr…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the 1966 Mizo rebe…
  43. Q43. According to the article, in which month and year did the Indi…
  44. Q44. was the primary military reason cited in the article for the I…
  45. Q45. Under which Article of the Constitution can a High Court issue…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  47. Q47. According to the news article, by what date did the Delhi High…
  48. Q48. is the primary legal significance of the Delhi High Court's or…
  49. Q49. constitutional body is responsible for announcing and conducti…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the elections anno…
  51. Q51. According to the news, how many polling stations will be set u…
  52. Q52. was a key outcome of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exer…
  53. Q53. constitutional body is currently hearing the challenge to the …
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Muslim Persona…
  55. Q55. According to the Shariat Act's inheritance rules (faraid), wha…
  56. Q56. is the primary constitutional argument made by the petitioners…
  57. Q57. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the recently annou…
  59. Q59. According to the announcement, how many total voters are eligi…
  60. Q60. is the primary immediate consequence of the Election Commissio…
  61. Q61. constitutional body is responsible for announcing the schedule…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Assam Ass…
  63. Q63. As per the Election Commission's announcement, how many pollin…
  64. Q64. is the primary constitutional significance of the Election Com…
  65. Q65. The EU High Representative and Vice President, who invited the…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  67. Q67. According to the news, in which month and year was the landmar…
  68. Q68. is a primary strategic objective of External Affairs Minister …
  69. Q69. The high-powered expert committee for defining the Aravalli hi…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news about def…
  71. Q71. As per the Supreme Court's observation mentioned in the articl…
  72. Q72. is the primary objective of forming the 10-member high-powered…
  73. Q73. institution released the Fiscal Health Index 2026?
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Health …
  75. Q75. According to the Fiscal Health Index 2026, which state was the…
  76. Q76. is the primary significance of the Fiscal Health Index's expan…
  77. Q77. The UPSC, which conducts the Civil Services Examination, is es…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the ethical issues…
  79. Q79. According to the article, which specific rank was falsely clai…
  80. Q80. is the core argument presented in the article regarding the pu…
  81. Q81. The Election Commission of India derives its plenary powers fo…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the upcoming Assem…
  83. Q83. According to the news article, what is the total number of con…
  84. Q84. is the primary purpose of appointing Central Observers by the …
  85. Q85. The Skill Council for Green Jobs (SCGJ), mentioned in the cont…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding India's green job …
  87. Q87. According to the article, what is the projected number of full…
  88. Q88. is the primary argument made in the article regarding the futu…
  89. Q89. U.S. agency launched the Section 301 investigation into forced…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Section 3…
  91. Q91. According to the article, approximately what percentage of the…
  92. Q92. is a primary reason, as explained in the article, that India's…