14 March 2026, Questions & Answers

136 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

136 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  28 min revision

Start Interactive Quiz →

This page contains 136 current affairs questions with answers from 14 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

Use this page for:

  • Daily revision
  • Prelims preparation
  • Quick self-assessment
  • Mains answer enrichment

Want to test yourself first? Try the interactive quiz before checking answers.

Take the 14 March 2026 Quiz →

14 March 2026, Questions with Answers

136 Qs
Q1.

Which Union Ministry introduced the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, in the Lok Sabha?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Union Social Justice Minister Virendra Kumar introduced the Bill. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry responsible for the welfare of transgender persons and the parent Act of 2019.

Source: Union Govt Proposes Bill to Amend Transgender Act 2019, Omits 'Self-Perceived Gender Identity' →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed amendments to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019:

1. The Amendment Bill proposes to omit the right to 'self-perceived gender identity' currently under Section 4(2).

2. It introduces a new definition for 'transgender person' that includes only those with intersex variations.

3. The Bill mandates that a District Magistrate must examine the recommendation of a medical board before issuing a transgender certificate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill calls for omission of sub-section (2) of Section 4, which contains the right to self-perceived gender identity. Statement 2 is incorrect: The proposed definition includes socio-cultural identities (hijra, kinner etc.), intersex variations, congenital variations, AND persons compelled to assume a transgender identity. It is not limited to intersex variations. Statement 3 is correct: The amendment requires the DM to 'examine the recommendation of the authority' (medical board).

Source: Union Govt Proposes Bill to Amend Transgender Act 2019, Omits 'Self-Perceived Gender Identity' →
Q3.

The proposed Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, was introduced in the Lok Sabha on which date?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 4, 2026
  • B.March 13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 14, 2026
  • D.February 28, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the Union government on Friday (March 13, 2026) introduced a Bill in Lok Sabha'. March 14 is the publication date of the news article. March 4 and February 28 are dates mentioned in other contexts within the article.

Source: Union Govt Proposes Bill to Amend Transgender Act 2019, Omits 'Self-Perceived Gender Identity' →
Q4.

What is the primary constitutional principle, as per the Supreme Court's NALSA judgment, that the proposed amendments to the Transgender Act are argued to contradict?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of federalism and distribution of legislative powers.
  • B.The principle of self-determination of gender as part of personal liberty under Article 21.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The principle of secularism and equal treatment of all religions.
  • D.The principle of judicial review and separation of powers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article extensively discusses the NALSA (2014) judgment which held that 'self-determination of gender is an integral part of personal autonomy and self-expression and falls within the realm of personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21'. The proposed amendment's omission of 'self-perceived gender identity' and introduction of medical certification is seen as contradicting this core principle.

Source: Union Govt Proposes Bill to Amend Transgender Act 2019, Omits 'Self-Perceived Gender Identity' →
Q5.

According to the Supreme Court ruling, which of the following bodies has the primary domain to consider the fitness and suitability of a candidate for police recruitment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The High Court of the respective state
  • B.The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
  • C.The employer or the screening committee of the employer✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The State Security Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly stated that 'the domain of considering the fitness and suitability of a candidate for the purpose of taking him in service belongs to the employer.' This includes the screening committee constituted for recruitment, which evaluates candidates based on antecedents.

Source: SC Bench: Police Recruits Must Have 'Clean Background'; 'Honourable Acquittal' Concept Clarified Under CrPC →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations in the news:

1. The expressions 'honourable acquittal' or 'fully acquitted' are defined under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

2. An acquittal based solely on weak prosecution evidence can be considered an 'honourable acquittal'.

3. Police recruits must be persons 'beyond reproach' possessing rectitude and a clean background.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court observed these expressions are 'unknown' to CrPC 1973 and IPC 1860 and are coined in judicial pronouncements. Statement 2 is incorrect: The court clarified that acquittal due to weak prosecution evidence does NOT amount to honourable acquittal, which requires a definitive conclusion of innocence. Statement 3 is correct: The bench underscored that recruits in disciplined services must be persons 'beyond reproach' with a clean background.

Source: SC Bench: Police Recruits Must Have 'Clean Background'; 'Honourable Acquittal' Concept Clarified Under CrPC →
Q7.

The Supreme Court case regarding police recruitment standards originated from the rejection of a candidate for which specific post?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Sub-Inspector (Civil Police)
  • B.Constable (Driver)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Deputy Superintendent of Police
  • D.Assistant Sub-Inspector
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the dispute arose from the recruitment process for the post of constable (driver) in the Madhya Pradesh Police. Candidate Rajkumar Yadav had applied for this post.

Source: SC Bench: Police Recruits Must Have 'Clean Background'; 'Honourable Acquittal' Concept Clarified Under CrPC →
Q8.

What is the primary legal principle reinforced by the Supreme Court's ruling on police recruitment?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Courts should actively review all recruitment decisions for procedural fairness.
  • B.Candidates acquitted by courts have an automatic right to government employment.
  • C.Employers, especially for disciplined services, have discretion to reject candidates based on antecedents and conduct.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The concept of 'honourable acquittal' provides a blanket protection against employment rejection.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling empowers the employer (screening committee) to evaluate suitability based on criminal antecedents and moral conduct, even in the absence of legal conviction. It limits judicial interference unless the decision is arbitrary or mala fide, thereby upholding employer discretion in sensitive recruitment like police forces.

Source: SC Bench: Police Recruits Must Have 'Clean Background'; 'Honourable Acquittal' Concept Clarified Under CrPC →
Q9.

As per the Constitution, the removal process of the Chief Election Commissioner is same as that of which of the following?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.A Judge of the Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • C.The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
  • D.The Chief Justice of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324(5) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This provision ensures independence of the office.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 800 Indian Seafarers Stranded, ₹1.3 Lakh Cr War Cost and SC Ruling on OBC Creamy Layer →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway between Bahrain and Qatar.

2. The concept of 'creamy layer' for OBCs was introduced by the Supreme Court in the Indra Sawhney vs Union of India case.

3. The grounds for removal of the Chief Election Commissioner are laid down in the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Strait of Hormuz is between Oman and Iran, connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman. Statement 2 is correct; the 'creamy layer' concept originated from the 1992 Indra Sawhney (Mandal) verdict. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which mentions Section 11(2) of the 2023 Act.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 800 Indian Seafarers Stranded, ₹1.3 Lakh Cr War Cost and SC Ruling on OBC Creamy Layer →
Q11.

According to the article, what was the estimated combined cost of the war for the US and Israel in the first six days starting February 28, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately ₹90,000 crore
  • B.Approximately ₹1.3 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Approximately ₹7.8 lakh crore
  • D.Approximately ₹2.5 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the US spent about $11.3 billion and Israel $3 billion per week. For the first six days, this amounted to over ₹1.3 lakh crore (approx. $14.3 billion at the given rate of $1 ≈ ₹9,000). ₹7.8 lakh crore is India's defence budget for 2026, mentioned for comparison.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 800 Indian Seafarers Stranded, ₹1.3 Lakh Cr War Cost and SC Ruling on OBC Creamy Layer →
Q12.

What was the core constitutional principle invoked by the Supreme Court to strike down the DoPT's 2004 order on OBC creamy layer?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Principle of Natural Justice
  • B.Doctrine of Proportionality
  • C.Equality doctrine under Articles 14, 15 & 16✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Directive Principles of State Policy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the 2004 order, which included salary income of PSU/private employees but not government employees for creamy layer test, resulted in 'hostile discrimination between parties who are similarly placed'. This, the court ruled, amounted to 'equals being treated unequally', thereby violating the equality doctrine under Articles 14, 15 and 16 of the Constitution.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Crisis: 800 Indian Seafarers Stranded, ₹1.3 Lakh Cr War Cost and SC Ruling on OBC Creamy Layer →
Q13.

Which United Nations body is responsible for providing the scientific assessments on climate change that form the basis for international climate agreements like the Paris Pact?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • B.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
  • D.United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions IPCC reports as a benchmark. The IPCC is the UN body tasked with assessing climate science. While UNFCCC is the treaty framework, the scientific assessments come from the IPCC.

Source: Climate Warming Pace Doubled Since 2014, 1.5°C Paris Target at Risk by 2030: New Studies →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings discussed in the article:

1. The study by Rahmstorf and Foster confirms that the pace of global warming has doubled since 2014 compared to the previous decade.

2. The Paris Pact aims to limit the temperature rise to 2.5 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels.

3. According to a study in Environmental Research: Health, extreme heat severely limits human activity for one-third of the world's population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Paris Pact target is 1.5°C, not 2.5°C. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Climate Warming Pace Doubled Since 2014, 1.5°C Paris Target at Risk by 2030: New Studies →
Q15.

According to the analysis published in Geophysical Research Letters, by which year could the Paris Pact's 1.5°C temperature rise target be out of reach?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2025
  • B.2030✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2040
  • D.2050
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study 'reckons that the Paris Pact's target... could be out of reach by 2030.' The other options are distractors based on other climate timelines.

Source: Climate Warming Pace Doubled Since 2014, 1.5°C Paris Target at Risk by 2030: New Studies →
Q16.

What is a key criticism raised in the article regarding the 'net-zero' targets used in current climate negotiations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They are based on outdated scientific models from the 1990s.
  • B.They rely on a methodology that allows multiple entities to claim the same emission cuts.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They focus only on carbon dioxide and ignore other greenhouse gases.
  • D.They are not legally binding for any country.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article criticizes the 'much looser method adopted by national policymakers' for net-zero calculations, stating it is 'criticized for not reckoning with the fact that multiple entities can claim the same emission cuts.' This is the primary flaw highlighted.

Source: Climate Warming Pace Doubled Since 2014, 1.5°C Paris Target at Risk by 2030: New Studies →
Q17.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the safety and evacuation of Indian nationals stranded abroad during international crises, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Defence
  • D.Ministry of Civil Aviation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal agency for all matters related to India's foreign relations, including the welfare and protection of Indian citizens abroad. The article mentions Indian missions (embassies/consulates under MEA) struggling with evacuation requests.

Source: 90 Lakh Indian Expatriates Vulnerable in GCC Amid Israel-Iran War; 6 Fatalities Reported →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia crisis as reported:

1. The conflict began with a joint attack by Israel and the U.S. on Iran on February 28, 2026.

2. The Indian expatriate population across all Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries is estimated to be between 90 lakh and 1 crore.

3. So far, five Indian sailors have been reported killed in attacks on oil tankers in the Strait of Hormuz.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2 and 3
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the war began on February 28, 2026, with a joint Israel-U.S. attack on Iran. Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of External Affairs figure of 90 lakh-1 crore Indian expatriates across the six GCC countries is explicitly mentioned. Statement 3 is correct: Officials stated that five Indians died in Iranian drone and missile attacks on oil tankers in the Strait of Hormuz.

Source: 90 Lakh Indian Expatriates Vulnerable in GCC Amid Israel-Iran War; 6 Fatalities Reported →
Q19.

According to the article, what is the approximate number of Indian blue-collar workers currently in Israel?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around 10,000
  • B.Around 20,000
  • C.Around 30,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Around 40,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "According to the Ministry, the number of Indian blue-collar workers in Israel is around 30,000." This number has risen as Israel reduced Palestinian workers after the October 7, 2023 attacks.

Source: 90 Lakh Indian Expatriates Vulnerable in GCC Amid Israel-Iran War; 6 Fatalities Reported →
Q20.

What is a significant long-term implication of the West Asia crisis highlighted in the article, beyond the immediate evacuation challenge?

HardUPSC
  • A.A permanent reduction in Indian tourism to the UAE.
  • B.A shift in the regional security architecture, with Gulf states doubting U.S. security commitments.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The complete withdrawal of Indian workers from all GCC countries.
  • D.The immediate signing of a new defense pact between India and Iran.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes a former diplomat stating that the war is "changing the region" and that Arab Gulf states, having realized the U.S. did not protect them from Iranian retaliation for hosting U.S. bases, are now "paying a heavy price." This points to a potential realignment in regional security guarantees, which is a profound geopolitical implication.

Source: 90 Lakh Indian Expatriates Vulnerable in GCC Amid Israel-Iran War; 6 Fatalities Reported →
Q21.

Which statutory committee of the RBI is responsible for setting the policy interest rate to target inflation?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Board for Financial Supervision
  • B.Monetary Policy Committee✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Financial Stability and Development Council
  • D.Committee on Financial Sector Assessment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body of the RBI mandated to determine the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target. This is a core static GK concept mentioned in the article's analysis of the RBI's policy dilemma.

Source: CPI New Series: Retail Inflation Hits 10-Month High at 3.2% in February 2026, Food Weight 36.75% →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the inflation scenario discussed in the news article:

1. Retail inflation in India quickened to a 10-month high of 3.2% in February 2026.

2. In the new CPI series, the weight of food and beverages has been increased compared to the old series.

3. The inflation in silver jewellery stood at more than 160% in both January and February 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states 'Food has a lower weight in the new series as compared to the old one'. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: CPI New Series: Retail Inflation Hits 10-Month High at 3.2% in February 2026, Food Weight 36.75% →
Q23.

According to the article, what was the approximate weight of food in the overall new Consumer Price Index (CPI) series?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.28.50%
  • B.36.75%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.45.86%
  • D.52.10%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Food has a lower weight in the new series... with a 36.75% weight in the overall CPI.' The other options are distractors; 45.86% was the approximate weight in the old series, while 28.50% and 52.10% are not mentioned.

Source: CPI New Series: Retail Inflation Hits 10-Month High at 3.2% in February 2026, Food Weight 36.75% →
Q24.

According to the analysis in the article, why might raising interest rates be less effective in controlling the current inflation?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Because inflation is primarily driven by excessive demand in the economy.
  • B.Because inflation is being driven by supply constraints and cost-push factors.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because the RBI has already exhausted its monetary policy tools.
  • D.Because the government has mandated a specific inflation target.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states 'Inflation is being driven by supply constraints, so trying to reduce demand by raising interest rates will not only have a minimal impact...'. This highlights the cost-push nature of the current inflation, making demand-side tools like rate hikes less effective.

Source: CPI New Series: Retail Inflation Hits 10-Month High at 3.2% in February 2026, Food Weight 36.75% →
Q25.

Which ministry has been directed by the Supreme Court to design a no-fault compensation scheme for vaccine injuries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court's directive in the Rachana Gangu case was specifically addressed to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This ministry is the nodal agency for national health programmes, including immunisation.

Source: SC Directs Health Ministry to Design No-Fault Compensation Scheme for AEFI, Shifting from Fault-Based Liability →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's directive on vaccine injury compensation:

1. It directs the establishment of a no-fault compensation scheme for serious Adverse Events Following Immunisation (AEFI).

2. The ruling is based on the adjudication that specific vaccines caused the injuries in the Rachana Gangu case.

3. The Court rejected the government's position that aggrieved citizens could sue vaccine manufacturers in civil court as impractical.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court directed the Health Ministry to design a no-fault compensation scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the directive is 'not based on adjudicating whether the vaccines caused specific injuries or deaths'. Statement 3 is correct as the Court rejected the government's earlier stance that citizens could sue manufacturers.

Source: SC Directs Health Ministry to Design No-Fault Compensation Scheme for AEFI, Shifting from Fault-Based Liability →
Q27.

According to the article, approximately how many deaths were reported following vaccination during the COVID-19 pandemic across 219 crore doses administered?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 500
  • B.Over 800
  • C.Over 1,100✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 1,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that during the pandemic, the government had reported 'over 1,100 deaths following vaccination across 219 crore doses administered'. This is a critical data point for understanding the scale of the issue addressed by the Supreme Court.

Source: SC Directs Health Ministry to Design No-Fault Compensation Scheme for AEFI, Shifting from Fault-Based Liability →
Q28.

What is the primary significance of the Supreme Court's directive to establish a no-fault compensation scheme for AEFI?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the financial burden on vaccine manufacturers.
  • B.To shift the liability framework in state-run public health programmes from fault-based to no-fault.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To mandate higher standards for vaccine clinical trials.
  • D.To decentralise the management of immunisation programmes to states.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core analysis highlights that the directive 'marks a shift from a fault-based liability system to a no-fault one in state-run public health programmes'. This structural change in liability is the primary significance, establishing state accountability and a duty of care.

Source: SC Directs Health Ministry to Design No-Fault Compensation Scheme for AEFI, Shifting from Fault-Based Liability →
Q29.

Which global body's assembly adopted the Pandemic Agreement discussed in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations General Assembly
  • B.World Trade Organization
  • C.World Health Assembly✓ Correct Answer
  • D.International Monetary Fund
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The World Health Organisation (WHO) Pandemic Agreement was adopted by the World Health Assembly on May 20, 2025.' The World Health Assembly (WHA) is the supreme decision-making body of the WHO.

Source: WHO Pandemic Agreement Adopted May 2025, India Pushes for Legally Binding Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) System →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the WHO Pandemic Agreement:

1. It was adopted by the World Health Assembly in May 2025.

2. It will enter into force immediately upon adoption by the World Health Assembly.

3. A key point of negotiation is the legally binding Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the agreement will enter into force '30 days after 60 countries have ratified it', not immediately. Statement 3 is correct as the negotiation of the PABS system forms the core of the news report.

Source: WHO Pandemic Agreement Adopted May 2025, India Pushes for Legally Binding Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) System →
Q31.

According to the news, what is the minimum percentage of pandemic products that manufacturers should donate to WHO under the proposed benefit-sharing system?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5%
  • B.10%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15%
  • D.20%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that non-monetary benefits include 'requirements that manufacturers reserve a percentage of real-time production of pandemic products for WHO (with at least 10% donated)'. The EU also agrees with this '10% donation floor'.

Source: WHO Pandemic Agreement Adopted May 2025, India Pushes for Legally Binding Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) System →
Q32.

What is a primary objective of India's stance in the Pandemic Agreement negotiations as per the news article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To ensure faster development of vaccines by developed nations.
  • B.To establish a voluntary system for pathogen sharing.
  • C.To create a legally binding system ensuring benefits for countries providing pathogens.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce the role of the WHO in global health governance.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details India's push for a 'system of standard legally binding contracts' and an enforceable PABS system to ensure benefit-sharing, countering the current 'extractive system' where supplying countries get 'very little benefit'. This contrasts with the EU's preference for voluntary agreements.

Source: WHO Pandemic Agreement Adopted May 2025, India Pushes for Legally Binding Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) System →
Q33.

Which online platform provides real-time data on case pendency in Indian courts, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.eCourts Portal
  • B.National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Supreme Court Case Status Portal
  • D.District Court Information System
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) as the source indicating 5 crore pending cases as of 2024. The NJDG is a key transparency tool under the eCourts Project.

Source: Institutional Weakness Drains ₹11.21 Lakh Cr Investment Momentum; 5 Cr Court Pendency Hinders Growth →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings mentioned in the article:

1. According to the article, India's net foreign direct investment (FDI) for April-September 2025 was $7.7 billion.

2. The study on EU cohesion policy by Rodríguez-Pose and Garcilazo (2015) found that government quality is irrelevant for economic growth regardless of investment levels.

3. The article states that Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal together account for approximately 31% of the total case backlog in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states net FDI was $7.7bn. Statement 2 is incorrect; the study found cohesion funds initially deliver growth regardless of government quality, but government quality becomes critical once spending exceeds ~€80 per person per year. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Source: Institutional Weakness Drains ₹11.21 Lakh Cr Investment Momentum; 5 Cr Court Pendency Hinders Growth →
Q35.

As per the National Judicial Data Grid data cited in the article, what percentage of the total pending court cases in India (as of 2024) were criminal cases?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.65%
  • B.70%
  • C.77%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.82%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that criminal cases constituted 77% of the pending cases (5 crore total) as per NJDG, 2024. This is a specific data point testable in prelims.

Source: Institutional Weakness Drains ₹11.21 Lakh Cr Investment Momentum; 5 Cr Court Pendency Hinders Growth →
Q36.

According to the article's argument using the 'bicycle metaphor', what is the primary consequence of having a strong development strategy (front wheel) but weak institutions (back wheel)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It leads to accelerated but unsustainable growth.
  • B.It results in a 'penny farthing' equilibrium, causing friction and stalling progress.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ensures balanced regional development across all states.
  • D.It automatically attracts higher foreign direct investment.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that a grand strategy (large front wheel) with undermined institutions (tiny back wheel) leads to a 'penny farthing' equilibrium, where development efforts are unstable and prone to stalling due to institutional friction.

Source: Institutional Weakness Drains ₹11.21 Lakh Cr Investment Momentum; 5 Cr Court Pendency Hinders Growth →
Q37.

Which organization has been designated as the nodal agency for implementing Tamil Nadu's AVGC-XR Policy 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation Limited (TIDCO)
  • B.Electronics Corporation of Tamil Nadu Limited (ELCOT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Tamil Nadu Infrastructure Fund Management Corporation (TNIFMC)
  • D.Guidance Tamil Nadu
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ELCOT, under the Information Technology and Digital Services Department, shall function as the nodal agency for the AVGC-XR sector. TIDCO and TNIFMC are involved in funding, while Guidance Tamil Nadu facilitates single-window clearances.

Source: Tamil Nadu AVGC-XR Policy 2026 Targets 200 Startups, ₹50 Cr Seed Fund Via TIDCO-TNIFMC →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's AVGC-XR Policy 2026:

1. It aims to support the creation of at least 200 AVGC-XR startups by the year 2030.

2. The policy is being implemented by the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation Limited (TIDCO) as the nodal agency.

3. Funding for eligible companies will be provided under the Tamil Nadu Emerging Sector Seed Fund (TNESSF), which is a SEBI registered CAT-I AIF.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's target. Statement 2 is incorrect because the nodal agency is the Electronics Corporation of Tamil Nadu Limited (ELCOT), not TIDCO. Statement 3 is correct as the TNESSF is described as a SEBI registered CAT-I AIF.

Source: Tamil Nadu AVGC-XR Policy 2026 Targets 200 Startups, ₹50 Cr Seed Fund Via TIDCO-TNIFMC →
Q39.

What is the anchor investment amount for the Tamil Nadu Emerging Sector Seed Fund (TNESSF) mentioned in the AVGC-XR Policy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹25 Crore
  • B.₹50 Crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹100 Crore
  • D.₹200 Crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the TNESSF is set up with an anchor investment of ₹50 crore. The other options are plausible distractors for a state-level fund.

Source: Tamil Nadu AVGC-XR Policy 2026 Targets 200 Startups, ₹50 Cr Seed Fund Via TIDCO-TNIFMC →
Q40.

What is a primary strategic objective of Tamil Nadu's AVGC-XR Policy 2026 as outlined in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace traditional manufacturing industries with digital services.
  • B.To position the state as a creative powerhouse driving a sustainable and innovation-led economy.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To exclusively promote Tamil-language content in the global entertainment market.
  • D.To reduce the state's dependence on revenue from the film industry.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's opening paragraph states the policy envisions positioning Tamil Nadu as a creative powerhouse where artists and technologists can drive a sustainable, inclusive, and innovation-led economy. While the film industry's strength is noted, the policy's objective is broader economic transformation through the AVGC-XR sector.

Source: Tamil Nadu AVGC-XR Policy 2026 Targets 200 Startups, ₹50 Cr Seed Fund Via TIDCO-TNIFMC →
Q41.

The article mentions fiscal consolidation efforts by the Centre and states. Under which constitutional framework do both levels of government operate their fiscal policies?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Under the Union List of the Seventh Schedule
  • B.Under the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule
  • C.Under the State List of the Seventh Schedule
  • D.Under the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

While the Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers, the FRBM Act, 2003 provides the legal framework for fiscal consolidation by mandating targets for reducing fiscal deficits for both the Central and State Governments. The article discusses debt-GDP ratios, which are central to FRBM compliance.

Source: Geopolitical 'Real' Crises Spillover to Financial Sector, Complicating Policymaking Amid Fiscal Consolidation →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the crises discussed in the article:

1. The 1997 Asian Contagion and the 2008 Global Financial Crisis are examples of financial crises that spilled over into the real economy.

2. The Covid-19 pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war are examples of 'real' crises that have spilled over into the financial sector.

3. A key impact of the current West Asia conflict on India, as per the article, is the strengthening of the Indian Rupee due to increased safe-haven flows.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article categorizes the 1997 and 2008 crises as financial in origin with real economy spillovers. Statement 2 is correct as it identifies Covid and the Ukraine war as 'real' crises with financial spillovers. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the conflict could lead to a 'further weakening of the rupee', not strengthening.

Source: Geopolitical 'Real' Crises Spillover to Financial Sector, Complicating Policymaking Amid Fiscal Consolidation →
Q43.

According to the article, approximately what share of the world's petroleum liquids and liquefied natural gas (LNG) trade passes through the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.About one-tenth
  • B.About one-fifth✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About one-third
  • D.About one-half
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'handles about a fifth of the world’s total petroleum liquid consumption and liquefied natural gas trade'. This is a critical data point highlighting the strategic importance of this maritime chokepoint.

Source: Geopolitical 'Real' Crises Spillover to Financial Sector, Complicating Policymaking Amid Fiscal Consolidation →
Q44.

What is the primary complication for economic policymaking in India, as highlighted by the article's analysis of current 'real' crises?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Managing the routine business cycles of debt-fuelled growth and speculative bubbles.
  • B.Navigating the spillover effects from geopolitical shocks while pursuing domestic fiscal targets.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Implementing monetary policy tools like repo rate changes to control inflation.
  • D.Regulating the banking sector to prevent a twin balance sheet problem recurrence.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that 'real' crises emanating from geopolitics make economic policymaking 'much more complicated'. It specifically notes this creates a challenge for India's fiscal consolidation efforts, as external shocks pressure government finances and the balance of payments just when debt reduction is a priority.

Source: Geopolitical 'Real' Crises Spillover to Financial Sector, Complicating Policymaking Amid Fiscal Consolidation →
Q45.

According to the article, which center is associated with one of the authors focusing on AI, Law & Regulation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
  • B.Cyril Shroff Centre for AI, Law & Regulation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog's AI Task Force
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and IT's AI Division
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that one of the authors, Ashwin Upreti, is the assistant director at the 'Cyril Shroff Centre for AI, Law & Regulation'. This is a direct factual extraction from the source.

Source: Participatory AI Governance Model Proposed to Address Social Risks and Algorithmic Bias in Labor, Healthcare, and Democratic Processes →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the governance challenges of Artificial Intelligence (AI) as discussed in the article:

1. AI governance has traditionally been a state-centric activity with standards set by regulators.

2. A key challenge is that AI systems can evolve post-deployment, complicating regulation by static legal frameworks.

3. The article suggests that participatory governance mechanisms are effective only when implemented as standalone, non-institutionalized initiatives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Historically, technology governance has been state-centric, with standards set by regulators.' Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'the ability of machine-learning systems to evolve post-deployment, complicating regulation for static legal frameworks.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the article argues the opposite: 'a participatory approach to governance may only be effective when embedded in institutional design.'

Source: Participatory AI Governance Model Proposed to Address Social Risks and Algorithmic Bias in Labor, Healthcare, and Democratic Processes →
Q47.

According to the article, what is a primary reason for advocating a participatory approach to AI governance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the speed of AI development and deployment by private firms.
  • B.To enable diverse end-users to detect emerging harms, such as bias against linguistic or cultural groups, that domain experts might overlook.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the computational costs and energy consumption of large AI models.
  • D.To centralize all AI development under a single government agency for national security.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a participatory approach 'would enable the diverse community of end-users... to detect emerging harms that domain experts or developers overlook,' and that this is 'particularly helpful when bias relates to linguistic or cultural groups, regional practices or local traditions.'

Source: Participatory AI Governance Model Proposed to Address Social Risks and Algorithmic Bias in Labor, Healthcare, and Democratic Processes →
Q48.

The article identifies which of the following as sectors increasingly impacted by AI-enabled systems?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Only labor markets and healthcare
  • B.Labor markets, education, and finance only
  • C.Labor markets, education, healthcare, finance, and democratic processes✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Primarily entertainment and social media platforms
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides a specific list: 'AI-enabled systems increasingly impact labour markets, education, healthcare, finance, and even democratic processes.' This is a direct factual statement from the source material.

Source: Participatory AI Governance Model Proposed to Address Social Risks and Algorithmic Bias in Labor, Healthcare, and Democratic Processes →
Q49.

As per the proposed Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, to which authority must a person intending to convert give a prior notice?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The Superintendent of Police
  • B.The District Magistrate✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Sessions Judge
  • D.The State Home Ministry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Bill mandates that any person wishing to convert must submit a written notice to the District Magistrate at least 60 days before the proposed conversion. The District Magistrate or an authorised officer may then conduct an inquiry.

Source: Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Mandates 60-Day Notice, 7-Year Jail Term & Defines Child's Religion →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026:

1. It defines 'mass conversion' as the conversion of five or more persons simultaneously.

2. The Bill places the burden of proof on the person who conducted the conversion to prove it was voluntary.

3. It provides that a child born from an unlawful conversion marriage will belong to the religion of the father before such marriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Bill defines 'mass conversion' as the conversion of two or more persons simultaneously, not five. Statement 2 is correct as explicitly mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect; the child belongs to the religion of the mother before the marriage, not the father.

Source: Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Mandates 60-Day Notice, 7-Year Jail Term & Defines Child's Religion →
Q51.

According to the Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, what is the imprisonment term prescribed for a repeat offence of unlawful conversion?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.5 years
  • B.7 years
  • C.10 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.14 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Bill prescribes a general punishment of 7 years imprisonment for unlawful conversion. However, for repeat offenders, it provides stricter punishment of imprisonment up to 10 years and a fine up to ₹7 lakh.

Source: Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Mandates 60-Day Notice, 7-Year Jail Term & Defines Child's Religion →
Q52.

What is a key feature of the Maharashtra anti-conversion Bill that distinguishes it from similar laws enacted by many other states?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It mandates a 30-day notice period for conversion.
  • B.It explicitly defines the religion of a child born from an unlawful conversion marriage.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It provides for capital punishment for mass conversions.
  • D.It applies only to conversions to religions of foreign origin.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that while some states like Haryana recognize inheritance rights of children from such marriages, the Maharashtra Bill specifically defines the religion of the child, a feature not explicitly mentioned in many similar laws. The notice period is 60 days, not 30. It does not prescribe capital punishment nor limit its scope to foreign-origin religions.

Source: Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 Mandates 60-Day Notice, 7-Year Jail Term & Defines Child's Religion →
Q53.

Under which Article of the Constitution is a Constitution Bench of five or more judges of the Supreme Court constituted to hear substantial questions of law?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 124
  • B.Article 131
  • C.Article 143
  • D.Article 145(3)✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be five. This forms the basis for constituting a Constitution Bench.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench to Reinterpret 'Industry' Under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court case mentioned in the news:

1. The definition of 'industry' under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, was broadly interpreted by a 7-judge bench in the Bangalore Water Supply case of 1978.

2. A 5-judge bench of the Supreme Court in 2017 referred the matter of defining 'industry' to a larger 9-judge bench.

3. The Industrial Disputes (Amendment) Act, 1982, which sought to amend the definition, has been in force since its enactment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply case by a 7-judge bench gave a broad interpretation. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was a 7-judge bench in 2017 (headed by CJI T.S. Thakur) that referred it to a 9-judge bench, not a 5-judge bench. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the 1982 Amendment Act 'seemingly did not come into force'.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench to Reinterpret 'Industry' Under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 →
Q55.

According to the news, on which date in 2026 is the 9-judge Constitution Bench slated to commence hearing on the definition of 'industry'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.February 16, 2026
  • B.February 28, 2026
  • C.March 17, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.March 18, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'A nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court is slated to commence on March 17 the hearing...' February 16 was when the court formulated issues, February 28 was the deadline for written submissions, and March 18 is when the hearing is scheduled to conclude.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench to Reinterpret 'Industry' Under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 →
Q56.

What is one of the primary issues the 9-judge Supreme Court Bench will adjudicate, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To determine the minimum wages for all industries in India.
  • B.To examine if social welfare activities by government departments can be considered 'industrial activities'.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To decide the constitutional validity of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.
  • D.To settle disputes between specific trade unions and the government.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions: 'one of the issues to be adjudicated... would be whether social welfare activities and schemes or other enterprises undertaken by the government departments... can be construed to be "industrial activities" for the purpose of Section 2(j)...'. The bench is interpreting the law, not setting wages (A), deciding the code's validity (C), or settling specific disputes (D).

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench to Reinterpret 'Industry' Under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 →
Q57.

Which international organization is responsible for monitoring compliance with the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) through safeguards and inspections?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
  • D.World Health Organization (WHO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the Vienna-based IAEA conducts inspections and monitoring under the NPT framework to verify that nuclear energy is used for peaceful purposes by non-nuclear weapon states.

Source: NPT Regime Faces Double Standards: Iran Faces Sanctions Under IAEA, Israel's 90 Warheads Face No Scrutiny →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the global nuclear order discussed in the article:

1. The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) recognizes five countries as nuclear-weapon states.

2. Israel is a signatory to the NPT and its nuclear facilities are subject to regular IAEA inspections.

3. Iran, a signatory to the NPT, is allowed to pursue civilian nuclear technology under IAEA monitoring.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The NPT recognizes the US, Russia, China, Britain, and France as nuclear-weapon states. Statement 2 is incorrect: Israel is NOT a signatory to the NPT and maintains nuclear ambiguity with no IAEA inspections. Statement 3 is correct: Iran is an NPT signatory and is allowed peaceful nuclear programs under IAEA safeguards.

Source: NPT Regime Faces Double Standards: Iran Faces Sanctions Under IAEA, Israel's 90 Warheads Face No Scrutiny →
Q59.

According to the article, in which year did the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) come into force?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1968
  • B.1970✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1975
  • D.1980
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The modern global nuclear order is governed by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), which came into being in 1970.'

Source: NPT Regime Faces Double Standards: Iran Faces Sanctions Under IAEA, Israel's 90 Warheads Face No Scrutiny →
Q60.

What is the primary critique of the current global nuclear non-proliferation regime highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It fails to provide any peaceful nuclear technology to developing nations.
  • B.It imposes overly stringent sanctions on all countries equally.
  • C.It suffers from double standards in enforcement, favoring allies over adversaries.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It has been rendered obsolete by the complete success of nuclear disarmament.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central argument is the 'underlying double standard' where adversaries like Iran (NPT signatory) face sanctions and attacks, while allies like Israel (non-signatory with nuclear weapons) face no international pressure or inspections, undermining the regime's credibility.

Source: NPT Regime Faces Double Standards: Iran Faces Sanctions Under IAEA, Israel's 90 Warheads Face No Scrutiny →
Q61.

Which constitutional article guarantees the freedom of religion, which the Maharashtra Bill claims to protect?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 19
  • B.Article 21
  • C.Article 25✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 29
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. The Bill's stated objective is to protect this right by prohibiting unlawful conversions.

Source: Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill 2026 Proposes 10-Year Jail, ₹7 Lakh Fine for Coercive Conversions →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the Freedom of Religion Bill, 2026 introduced in Maharashtra:

1. It proposes imprisonment up to 10 years for forcible religious conversions.

2. The Bill was introduced by the Minister of State for Home during the ongoing Budget Session.

3. The Bill prohibits conversions only if carried out through coercion or fraud, but not through inducement or marriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions 'imprisonment up to 10 years'. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the Bill was introduced by Minister of State for Home Pankaj Bhoyar during the Budget Session. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the Bill prohibits conversions carried out through coercion, fraud, inducement, or marriage.

Source: Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill 2026 Proposes 10-Year Jail, ₹7 Lakh Fine for Coercive Conversions →
Q63.

What is the maximum monetary fine prescribed for forcible conversion under the proposed Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹5 lakh
  • B.₹7 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹10 lakh
  • D.₹15 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the Bill proposes a 'fine up to ₹7 lakh' for forcible conversion. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill 2026 Proposes 10-Year Jail, ₹7 Lakh Fine for Coercive Conversions →
Q64.

According to the news, what is the primary stated objective of the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill, 2026?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To promote a particular religion in the state
  • B.To protect the right to freedom of religion by prohibiting unlawful conversions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To mandate state registration for all religious conversions
  • D.To increase government revenue through fines on religious institutions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated by the Minister while introducing the Bill, its objective is 'to protect the right to freedom of religion' and 'to prohibit unlawful religious conversions'. The other options are either not mentioned or misrepresent the Bill's purpose as described in the article.

Source: Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill 2026 Proposes 10-Year Jail, ₹7 Lakh Fine for Coercive Conversions →
Q65.

The 'trisulfide metathesis reaction' discovery, enabling manipulation of sulphur-sulphur bonds, was primarily reported in which scientific journal?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Science
  • B.Nature Chemistry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Cell
  • D.The Lancet
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'trisulfide metathesis reaction' was described in a paper published in the journal Nature Chemistry. This is a key factual detail for exam purposes.

Source: Nature Chemistry Publishes 'Trisulfide Metathesis' Discovery Enabling Room-Temperature S-S Bond Modification for Drug Design →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently discovered 'trisulfide metathesis reaction':

1. It spontaneously makes and breaks sulphur-sulphur bonds at room temperature.

2. It requires external chemical agents or catalysts to initiate the reaction.

3. It has been successfully used to modify anti-cancer drugs and create recyclable polymers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes the reaction as spontaneous at room temperature. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article emphasizes that no exogenous reagents or external stimuli are required. Statement 3 is correct as applications mentioned include modifying anti-cancer drugs and producing recyclable plastics. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Nature Chemistry Publishes 'Trisulfide Metathesis' Discovery Enabling Room-Temperature S-S Bond Modification for Drug Design →
Q67.

According to the news, the new chemical reaction enables the making and breaking of which specific type of chemical bond?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Carbon-Carbon (C-C) bond
  • B.Sulphur-Sulphur (S-S) bond✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nitrogen-Nitrogen (N-N) bond
  • D.Oxygen-Oxygen (O-O) bond
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly and specifically states that the discovered 'trisulfide metathesis reaction' makes and breaks sulphur-sulphur (S-S) bonds. This is the core scientific fact of the discovery.

Source: Nature Chemistry Publishes 'Trisulfide Metathesis' Discovery Enabling Room-Temperature S-S Bond Modification for Drug Design →
Q68.

What is a primary potential application of the 'trisulfide metathesis reaction' highlighted in the research, beyond drug modification?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Creation of non-biodegradable single-use plastics
  • B.Development of chemically recyclable plastics for a circular economy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Synthesis of permanent, non-reversible adhesives
  • D.Production of high-temperature resistant ceramics
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the reaction allows for 'S-S metathesis polymerisation and depolymerisation as a platform for chemically recyclable plastics' and creating plastics that can be 'un-made' back to building blocks, supporting a circular plastics economy.

Source: Nature Chemistry Publishes 'Trisulfide Metathesis' Discovery Enabling Room-Temperature S-S Bond Modification for Drug Design →
Q69.

The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination drive launched in 2026 falls primarily under the purview of which Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Immunization programmes, including the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) and new initiatives like the HPV drive, are implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). This ministry is responsible for public health policy and healthcare delivery in India.

Source: Nationwide HPV Vaccination Drive Launched for 14-Year-Old Girls Using U-WIN Platform, Aligned with WHO 2030 Elimination Target →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccination drive and related facts:

1. The HPV vaccination drive targets girls aged 14 and uses the U-WIN digital platform for registration.

2. The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is included as one of the 11 vaccines provided under India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).

3. Mission Indradhanush is a special catch-up vaccination campaign launched in 2014 to cover left-out children and pregnant women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the drive targets 14-year-old girls and uses the U-WIN platform. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states, based on a Lok Sabha response from December 2025, that the HPV vaccine is NOT part of the UIP. Statement 3 is correct: Mission Indradhanush was launched in 2014 as a catch-up campaign under UIP.

Source: Nationwide HPV Vaccination Drive Launched for 14-Year-Old Girls Using U-WIN Platform, Aligned with WHO 2030 Elimination Target →
Q71.

According to the article, what is the estimated annual number of girls who turn 14 in India, making them eligible for the HPV vaccination drive?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 75 lakh
  • B.Approximately 95 lakh
  • C.Approximately 1.15 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Approximately 1.35 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "An estimated 1.15 crore girls turn 14 every year in India." This is a precise data point crucial for understanding the scale of the vaccination programme. The other figures are distractors related to other statistics in the article (e.g., 75,000 annual cervical cancer deaths).

Source: Nationwide HPV Vaccination Drive Launched for 14-Year-Old Girls Using U-WIN Platform, Aligned with WHO 2030 Elimination Target →
Q72.

What is a primary public health rationale cited in the article for vaccinating girls at the age of 14 against HPV?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To comply with international treaties signed by India.
  • B.Because it is the legal age of medical consent in India.
  • C.To provide immunity before potential exposure through sexual activity.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align with the school vaccination schedule for Class 9 students.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that HPV immunization in the teenage years, when girls are going through puberty but are not sexually active, results in better and longer immunity. This is the core preventive health strategy. The other options, while potentially relevant, are not the primary rationale discussed in the article.

Source: Nationwide HPV Vaccination Drive Launched for 14-Year-Old Girls Using U-WIN Platform, Aligned with WHO 2030 Elimination Target →
Q73.

Which Indian organization is responsible for the development and operation of the NavIC satellite navigation system?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
  • D.Department of Space (DoS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) multiple times in the context of launching NavIC satellites, issuing statements on failures, and conducting failure analysis. While the Department of Space oversees space activities, ISRO is the primary execution agency.

Source: ISRO's NavIC System Reduced to 3 Satellites After IRNSS-1F Atomic Clock Failure; PNT Services Likely Affected →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding India's NavIC system:

1. A minimum of four fully operational satellites is required for the NavIC system to provide Position, Navigation, and Timing (PNT) services.

2. The IRNSS-1F satellite failed after completing its design mission life of 10 years.

3. The NavIC program was initiated following the 1962 India-China war to reduce dependence on foreign navigation systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'At least four indigenous navigation satellites must be fully operational for the NavIC system to provide navigation services.' Statement 2 is correct: the article states IRNSS-1F 'completed its design mission life of 10 years on 10th March 2026' before its failure. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the program started in 1999 after the Kargil War, not the 1962 war.

Source: ISRO's NavIC System Reduced to 3 Satellites After IRNSS-1F Atomic Clock Failure; PNT Services Likely Affected →
Q75.

According to the article, how many of the 11 satellites launched for the NavIC system have failed primarily due to defective atomic clocks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.4
  • B.5
  • C.6✓ Correct Answer
  • D.7
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'With the reported failure of all atomic clocks on the IRNSS 1-F, a total of six of 11 Indian satellites meant for the NavIC system have failed due to the atomic clocks.' This includes IRNSS-1A, 1C, 1D, 1E, 1G, and now 1F.

Source: ISRO's NavIC System Reduced to 3 Satellites After IRNSS-1F Atomic Clock Failure; PNT Services Likely Affected →
Q76.

What is a major implication of the IRNSS-1F satellite failure, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will lead to the immediate termination of the entire NavIC program.
  • B.It reduces the number of operational satellites providing PNT services, potentially affecting location services.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It proves that indigenous atomic clocks are inherently unreliable.
  • D.It forces India to switch entirely to the US GPS system for all navigation needs.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that with the failure of IRNSS-1F, only three satellites (1B, 1L, 1J) remain operational for PNT services, down from four. It quotes sources saying 'Location services provided by the NavIC system in India are going to be affected.' The other options are extreme and not supported by the article's content.

Source: ISRO's NavIC System Reduced to 3 Satellites After IRNSS-1F Atomic Clock Failure; PNT Services Likely Affected →
Q77.

Under the proposed Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, who must be given a prior notice for a lawful religious conversion?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The Superintendent of Police
  • B.The District Magistrate✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Commissioner of Police
  • D.The Sub-Divisional Magistrate
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Bill stipulates that a person intending conversion or any institution organising a conversion ceremony must give a 60-day prior notice to the District Magistrate or another competent authority recognised by the government.

Source: Maharashtra Introduces Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 with 60-Day Notice, ₹7 Lakh Fine, and Voiding of Marriages for Unlawful Conversions →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026:

1. It defines 'allurement' to include glorification of one religion over another.

2. It mandates that a child born from a marriage due to unlawful conversion shall belong to the father's religion.

3. The burden of proving that a conversion was voluntary lies with the person causing or aiding it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill expands 'allurement' to include glorification of one religion over another. Statement 2 is incorrect: The child is deemed to belong to the religion followed by the mother before such a marriage. Statement 3 is correct: The Bill places the burden of proving voluntary, non-coercive conversion on the person causing or aiding it.

Source: Maharashtra Introduces Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 with 60-Day Notice, ₹7 Lakh Fine, and Voiding of Marriages for Unlawful Conversions →
Q79.

According to the proposed Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, what is the imprisonment term and fine for a repeat offender found guilty of unlawful conversion?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.7 years imprisonment and ₹5 lakh fine
  • B.10 years imprisonment and ₹7 lakh fine✓ Correct Answer
  • C.14 years imprisonment and ₹10 lakh fine
  • D.5 years imprisonment and ₹1 lakh fine
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Bill stipulates a stricter jail term of ten years and a fine of ₹7 lakh for repeat offenders, including individuals or organisations. The other options are penalties for other offences under the Bill.

Source: Maharashtra Introduces Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 with 60-Day Notice, ₹7 Lakh Fine, and Voiding of Marriages for Unlawful Conversions →
Q80.

What is a primary legal challenge highlighted in the article against anti-conversion laws like the Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.They violate the right to equality under Article 14.
  • B.They infringe upon the freedom of religion under Article 25.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They are against the directive principles of state policy.
  • D.They conflict with the powers of the state legislature.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that civil society organisations and opposition have termed such laws as against personal and religious freedom. The Supreme Court is hearing challenges to similar laws, which fundamentally question the balance between the state's power to regulate for public order and the individual's right to freedom of religion under Article 25.

Source: Maharashtra Introduces Dharma Swatantrya Bill 2026 with 60-Day Notice, ₹7 Lakh Fine, and Voiding of Marriages for Unlawful Conversions →
Q81.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, connects which two bodies of water?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
  • C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
  • D.The South China Sea and the Indian Ocean
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow, strategically vital maritime passage linking the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the wider Arabian Sea. It is a primary route for global oil shipments.

Source: US Targets Kharg Island Military Sites, Threatens $150 Oil Price Amid Strait of Hormuz Tensions →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding Kharg Island:

1. It is a coral island located approximately 50 km from the Iranian mainland in the Persian Gulf.

2. It was originally set up by the British Petroleum (BP) company.

3. Its deep-water jetties allow Very Large Crude Carriers (VLCCs) to dock, unlike much of Iran's shallow coastline.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Kharg Island was set up by the American Oil Company (Amoco), not BP. Statement 3 is correct as the article highlights its significance due to deep-water access for large tankers.

Source: US Targets Kharg Island Military Sites, Threatens $150 Oil Price Amid Strait of Hormuz Tensions →
Q83.

According to the investment bank JP Morgan, what was the volume of oil Iran ramped up to passing through Kharg Island per day in mid-February 2026, in anticipation of an attack?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1.5 million barrels
  • B.2.0 million barrels
  • C.2.5 million barrels
  • D.3.0 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that according to JP Morgan, Iran 'sharply ramped up volumes to 3 million barrels a day in mid-February' ahead of a potential US-led attack. The average is 1.5 million barrels per day.

Source: US Targets Kharg Island Military Sites, Threatens $150 Oil Price Amid Strait of Hormuz Tensions →
Q84.

What is cited as the primary reason the US initially avoided targeting Kharg Island's oil infrastructure, despite its strategic importance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To maintain diplomatic channels with Iran open
  • B.Due to a lack of military capability to strike such a hardened target
  • C.In the interest of stabilizing global oil prices✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Because the infrastructure is protected under an international treaty
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

A shipping expert quoted in the article states that not attacking oil facilities was 'a deliberate measure in the interest of stabilizing the oil price.' Destroying the infrastructure would have triggered a massive price spike, as it handles 90% of Iran's crude exports.

Source: US Targets Kharg Island Military Sites, Threatens $150 Oil Price Amid Strait of Hormuz Tensions →
Q85.

Which US agency is responsible for initiating the trade investigation mentioned in the news under Section 301?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.US Department of Commerce
  • B.US Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US International Trade Commission (USITC)
  • D.US Department of State
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the United States Trade Representative (USTR) initiated the Section 301 investigations. The USTR is the lead agency for US trade policy and negotiations.

Source: USTR Initiates Section 301 Probe Against 60 Nations, Including India & EU, Over Forced Labour in 134 Goods →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the US trade probe mentioned in the news:

1. The probe is initiated under Section 301 of the US Trade Act.

2. The investigation covers only a select few manufacturing sectors like steel and aluminum.

3. The list of countries under scrutiny includes both allies like the UK and EU, and adversaries like Russia and China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly mentions the probe is a 'Section 301 investigation'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the probe covers a wide range of sectors including steel, aluminum, automobiles, batteries, electronics, chemicals, machinery, semiconductors, and solar modules, not just a few. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists the UK, EU, Japan, Israel, UAE, Argentina, Russia, and China among the countries under scrutiny.

Source: USTR Initiates Section 301 Probe Against 60 Nations, Including India & EU, Over Forced Labour in 134 Goods →
Q87.

According to the ILO estimates cited in the article, what was the annual global profit from forced labour in the private economy in 2024?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$36.5 billion
  • B.$63.9 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$89.2 billion
  • D.$112.4 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the USTR stating: "The ILO estimates that in 2024, the profits from forced labour in the global private economy amounted to roughly $63.9 billion annually." The other figures are distractors.

Source: USTR Initiates Section 301 Probe Against 60 Nations, Including India & EU, Over Forced Labour in 134 Goods →
Q88.

What is the primary rationale cited by the US for initiating the trade probe against India and 59 other countries over forced labour?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To promote free trade agreements with developing nations
  • B.To protect US businesses from unfair competition and address national security concerns✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase tariff revenue for the US federal government
  • D.To enforce environmental standards in global supply chains
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the US argues that forced labor gives firms an artificial cost advantage, injuring American businesses, and also raises 'national security' concerns due to worker exploitation. While environmental or revenue angles are not mentioned, the core rationale is protecting US commerce and security.

Source: USTR Initiates Section 301 Probe Against 60 Nations, Including India & EU, Over Forced Labour in 134 Goods →
Q89.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for managing India's diplomatic engagements in the West Asia conflict, as evidenced by the Foreign Secretary's actions mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri signing a condolence book at the Iranian embassy and External Affairs Minister Jaishankar speaking to his Iranian counterpart. These are diplomatic engagements, which fall under the purview of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).

Source: West Asia Conflict: Strait of Hormuz Closure Impacts 60% of India's Energy Imports as 11 Countries Targeted →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia conflict discussed in the article:

1. The conflict has led to the effective closure of the Strait of Hormuz, impacting global oil prices.

2. India imports roughly 60% of its total energy requirements from the West Asia region.

3. Iran's 'mosaic defence doctrine' centralizes military command to protect Tehran from external threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the 'effective closure of the Strait of Hormuz' and resulting spike in oil prices. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 'About 60% of India’s energy imports also come from this region'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 'mosaic defence doctrine' is described as decentralizing command into 31 independent units, not centralizing it.

Source: West Asia Conflict: Strait of Hormuz Closure Impacts 60% of India's Energy Imports as 11 Countries Targeted →
Q91.

According to the article, approximately how many Indian citizens live and work in West Asia?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 50 lakh
  • B.About 75 lakh
  • C.About 1 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.About 1.5 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'About one crore Indians live and work in West Asia.' One crore equals 10 million. The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure provided.

Source: West Asia Conflict: Strait of Hormuz Closure Impacts 60% of India's Energy Imports as 11 Countries Targeted →
Q92.

What is the primary strategic dilemma for India as highlighted in the article regarding the West Asia conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Choosing between supporting the US or Russia in the conflict.
  • B.Balancing its historical ties with Iran against its energy and diaspora interests in Gulf nations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Deciding whether to deploy its navy to secure the Strait of Hormuz.
  • D.Mediating peace talks between Israel and Hamas alongside the conflict.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details India's 'precarious position' and 'strategic dilemma' stemming from its historical partnership with Iran (~9000 Indians there) versus its critical energy imports (~60%) and large diaspora (~1 crore) in Gulf countries that are strategic and trade partners. This is the core of India's diplomatic challenge.

Source: West Asia Conflict: Strait of Hormuz Closure Impacts 60% of India's Energy Imports as 11 Countries Targeted →
Q93.

Under which constitutional article are safeguards against preventive detention provided?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 19
  • B.Article 21
  • C.Article 22✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides specific safeguards against arrest and detention, including preventive detention. It grants the right to be informed of grounds, consult a lawyer, and be produced before a magistrate. The Public Safety Act (PSA) discussed in the news operates within the framework of Article 22.

Source: J&K High Court Quashes PSA Detention Citing Date Contradictions Under Article 22 →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Safety Act (PSA):

1. It allows detention without trial for up to two years.

2. The detention order is issued by the District Magistrate.

3. An Advisory Board must review the detention order within three months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: As mentioned in the article, the PSA empowers authorities to detain anyone without trial for up to two years. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions the detention order was passed by the District Magistrate, Pulwama. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the order was confirmed by the Home Department and upheld by the advisory board mandated to review such orders, implying its review is a statutory requirement.

Source: J&K High Court Quashes PSA Detention Citing Date Contradictions Under Article 22 →
Q95.

For what period was Mudasir Ahmad Bhat's detention under PSA prescribed by the Home Department in the news article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.3 months from May 1, 2025
  • B.6 months from May 1, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1 year from May 1, 2025
  • D.2 years from May 1, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "the Home Department... prescribed a six-month detention period from May 1 to October 31 last year." The other options are incorrect as the prescribed period was specifically six months, not three months, one year, or the maximum two years allowed under the Act.

Source: J&K High Court Quashes PSA Detention Citing Date Contradictions Under Article 22 →
Q96.

What was the primary legal ground on which the J&K High Court quashed the PSA detention order in the discussed case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of evidence proving the detainee was an overground worker.
  • B.The detainee's right to legal representation was violated.
  • C.Glaring contradictions and procedural lapses in dates within official records.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The detention period exceeded the maximum limit prescribed by law.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's judgment centered on "glaring contradictions" in dates between the police dossier, the district magistrate's detention order, and the jail superintendent's communication. It highlighted a "discord" in when the petitioner was called, detained, and sent to jail. The court declared the order illegal due to these procedural failures, not on the merits of evidence, legal representation, or duration.

Source: J&K High Court Quashes PSA Detention Citing Date Contradictions Under Article 22 →
Q97.

The Allahabad High Court's order was directed towards which two district-level officials?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.District Magistrate and Superintendent of Police✓ Correct Answer
  • B.District Judge and Chief Judicial Magistrate
  • C.District Development Officer and District Education Officer
  • D.District Panchayat Officer and District Health Officer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Allahabad High Court addressing the Sambhal District Magistrate (DM) and Superintendent of Police (SP). The DM is the chief executive officer of the district, and the SP is the head of police, both responsible for law and order.

Source: Allahabad HC Directs UP DM & SP on Rule of Law, Upholds Private Worship Rights Without State Permission →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court's order:

1. The Court held that the state cannot restrict the number of worshippers at a private place of worship.

2. The Court stated that state permission is essential for any religious function, regardless of the location.

3. The Court observed that the duty to ensure rule of law prevails under every circumstance lies with the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court rejected restrictions on worshippers at a private mosque. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court clarified permission is only needed for activities on public land or spilling onto it. Statement 3 is correct, as the bench stated 'It is the duty of the State to ensure that the rule of law prevails under every circumstance.'

Source: Allahabad HC Directs UP DM & SP on Rule of Law, Upholds Private Worship Rights Without State Permission →
Q99.

On which date did the Allahabad High Court division bench pass the order mentioned in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 14, 2026
  • B.February 27, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 16, 2026
  • D.February 28, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'A division bench... observed in its order, passed on February 27.' March 14 is the publication date, and March 16 is the next hearing date mentioned. February 28 is not mentioned.

Source: Allahabad HC Directs UP DM & SP on Rule of Law, Upholds Private Worship Rights Without State Permission →
Q100.

What was the primary legal principle upheld by the Allahabad High Court in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The absolute power of district administration to regulate all assemblies.
  • B.The requirement for prior police permission for any religious gathering during festivals.
  • C.The non-requirement of state permission for worship conducted on private property.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The supremacy of public order over individual fundamental rights.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core principle established by the Court, as quoted in the article, is that 'to perform worship without any permission from the State' on private property. The Court limited state involvement to only when activities occur on public land, thus protecting religious freedom from arbitrary administrative restrictions.

Source: Allahabad HC Directs UP DM & SP on Rule of Law, Upholds Private Worship Rights Without State Permission →
Q101.

As per the article, which Iranian body was established with the primary mandate of preserving the revolutionary political system, distinct from defending national borders?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Iranian Regular Army
  • B.The Ministry of Intelligence and Security (MOIS)
  • C.The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Basij Resistance Force
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the IRGC was established after the 1979 revolution with a mandate distinct from the conventional armed forces. While the regular army defends Iran's borders, the IRGC is charged with preserving the revolution and the political order itself.

Source: Iran's IRGC Doctrine of Regime Survival Since 1979, Israel's Call for Regime Change, and US-Iran Strategic Divergence →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the strategic positions in the Iran conflict as described in the article:

1. The Islamic Republic of Iran's paramount objective, since its founding, has been the survival of its political regime.

2. Israel's stated aim in the war is the unconditional surrender and nuclear disarmament of Iran.

3. The United States and Israel are fully aligned on the primary objective of achieving regime change in Iran.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes 'survival' as the paramount objective of the Islamic Republic since 1979. Statement 2 is incorrect; Israel's aim is regime change, not just disarmament. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article highlights a 'central strategic problem' and divergence, with US objectives being unclear and shifting, unlike Israel's clear regime-change goal.

Source: Iran's IRGC Doctrine of Regime Survival Since 1979, Israel's Call for Regime Change, and US-Iran Strategic Divergence →
Q103.

According to the article, in which year was the Islamic Republic of Iran founded, establishing the survival doctrine discussed?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1947
  • B.1979✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1989
  • D.2001
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the survival imperative has been central 'since the republic's founding in 1979.' This was the year of the Iranian Revolution that overthrew the Shah and established the Islamic Republic under Ayatollah Khomeini.

Source: Iran's IRGC Doctrine of Regime Survival Since 1979, Israel's Call for Regime Change, and US-Iran Strategic Divergence →
Q104.

As per the article's analysis, what is the primary strategic risk if the US-Israel alliance commits fully to regime change in Iran without a credible plan for what follows?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Immediate collapse of the global oil market.
  • B.A rapid and decisive military victory for the alliance.
  • C.An open-ended entanglement that neither country's political circumstances can sustain.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The guaranteed installation of a democratic government in Iran.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states this risk: 'If, on the other hand, the alliance commits to regime change without a credible plan for what follows, it risks the kind of open-ended entanglement that neither country's political circumstances can sustain.' This highlights the danger of prolonged conflict without clear end goals.

Source: Iran's IRGC Doctrine of Regime Survival Since 1979, Israel's Call for Regime Change, and US-Iran Strategic Divergence →
Q105.

Which government scheme, mentioned in the article, is specifically aimed at enhancing regional air connectivity?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.PM Gati Shakti
  • B.UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Smart Cities Mission
  • D.Bharatmala Pariyojana
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Nagarjuna Sagar (NSP) airport is planned to be developed under the Regional Connectivity Scheme, known as UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik).

Source: Andhra Pradesh Approves 7 Greenfield Airports Worth ₹7,472 Cr Under UDAN & PPP Mode →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the airport development plans in Andhra Pradesh:

1. The Alluri Sitharama Raju International Airport at Bhogapuram is targeted to become operational by June 2026.

2. The Techno-Economic Feasibility Report (TEFR) for the Nagarjuna Sagar airport was prepared by the Airports Authority of India (AAI).

3. Land for the Amaravati airport will be allotted under Land Pooling Scheme (LPS)-2 as lands pooled under LPS-1 are not available.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the TEFR for Nagarjuna Sagar airport was prepared by Grant Thornton, not AAI. Statement 3 is correct as the article states land under LPS-1 is unavailable and 4,500 acres will be allotted under LPS-2.

Source: Andhra Pradesh Approves 7 Greenfield Airports Worth ₹7,472 Cr Under UDAN & PPP Mode →
Q107.

What is the total estimated cost for the construction of the seven greenfield airports mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹4,700 crore
  • B.₹7,472 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹450 crore
  • D.₹5,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the total estimated cost is pegged at ₹7,472 crore" for the seven greenfield airports. ₹4,700 crore is the cost for Phase-I of Amaravati airport only, and ₹450 crore is for the brownfield expansion at Orvakal.

Source: Andhra Pradesh Approves 7 Greenfield Airports Worth ₹7,472 Cr Under UDAN & PPP Mode →
Q108.

What is the primary mode of development proposed for the construction of the Amaravati airport?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Fully funded by the State Government
  • B.Joint Venture with Airports Authority of India
  • C.Public-Private Partnership (PPP) on DBFOT basis✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Funded under the UDAN Scheme
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the Amaravati airport "is going to be constructed in PPP mode on design–build-finance-operate-transfer (DBFOT) basis." While a JV with AAI is mentioned for Ongole airport, and UDAN is for Nagarjuna Sagar, the PPP model is explicitly stated for Amaravati.

Source: Andhra Pradesh Approves 7 Greenfield Airports Worth ₹7,472 Cr Under UDAN & PPP Mode →
Q109.

Which national-level demographic survey provides the annual estimates for Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India, as cited in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
  • B.Sample Registration System (SRS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Census of India
  • D.National Sample Survey (NSS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 2023 Sample Registration Survey (SRS) report as the source for Kerala's IMR of 5. The SRS, conducted by the Registrar General of India, is the primary source for annual vital statistics like birth and death rates in India.

Source: Kerala Achieves Record Low Infant Mortality Rate of 5 (Per 1000 Births), Lowest in India Through Schemes like Hridayam, KARE →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's health initiatives:

1. The 'Hridayam' scheme provides free heart disease screening and treatment for children up to 18 years of age.

2. The 'KARE' project, with a budget of ₹250 crore launched in 2024, focuses on the prevention and management of common infectious diseases.

3. The 'Shalabham' project conducts bi-annual screening for birth defects in children from birth to 18 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Hridayam' provides heart-related disease treatment for children from birth till 18. Statement 2 is incorrect; KARE (Kerala Against Rare Diseases) focuses on 'rare diseases', not common infectious diseases. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Shalabham screens for birth defects from birth up to 18 years with bi-annual screenings.

Source: Kerala Achieves Record Low Infant Mortality Rate of 5 (Per 1000 Births), Lowest in India Through Schemes like Hridayam, KARE →
Q111.

According to the 2023 Sample Registration Survey (SRS) report mentioned in the article, what is the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) of Kerala?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 per 1000 live births✓ Correct Answer
  • B.7 per 1000 live births
  • C.12 per 1000 live births
  • D.25 per 1000 live births
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Kerala's IMR hit an all-time low of 5 (per 1,000 births) according to the 2023 SRS report. Option B (7) was Kerala's IMR in 2018 when it first achieved single-digit status. Option C (12) was the IMR ten years ago. Option D (25) is the national average.

Source: Kerala Achieves Record Low Infant Mortality Rate of 5 (Per 1000 Births), Lowest in India Through Schemes like Hridayam, KARE →
Q112.

What is identified as the primary reason for Kerala's sustained success in achieving a low Infant Mortality Rate, according to the State Nodal Officer quoted in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.A recent single intervention by the state government.
  • B.High budgetary allocation exclusively for pediatric care.
  • C.Decades of social investment and a strong health system.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Exclusive reliance on advanced medical technology in urban hospitals.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Dr. Rahul U.R., the State Nodal Officer, is quoted saying Kerala's achievement is 'the result of decades of social investment and a strong health system, rather than a single intervention.' This underscores the long-term, systemic nature of the success, which is a key takeaway for policy analysis questions.

Source: Kerala Achieves Record Low Infant Mortality Rate of 5 (Per 1000 Births), Lowest in India Through Schemes like Hridayam, KARE →
Q113.

Which constitutional article guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 25✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 29
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 25(1) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all persons the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. This is the core article under consideration in the Sabarimala case.

Source: Kerala Govt Submits Sabarimala Case to SC 9-Judge Bench; Seeks Views on Essential Religious Practice Under Article 25(1) →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala case:

1. The Kerala government has asked the Supreme Court to deliver its judgment on the entry of women into the Sabarimala temple without any further deliberation.

2. The case is being heard by a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court.

3. The 2018 verdict that allowed women's entry was delivered by a five-judge Bench and invoked Article 25(1).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kerala government has asked the Supreme Court to consider the 'impartial' opinion of scholars and reformers before deciding, not to deliver judgment without deliberation. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions a nine-judge Constitution Bench. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the 2018 verdict was by a five-judge Bench and held the ban violated Article 25(1).

Source: Kerala Govt Submits Sabarimala Case to SC 9-Judge Bench; Seeks Views on Essential Religious Practice Under Article 25(1) →
Q115.

According to the news, when is the nine-judge Constitution Bench scheduled to begin hearing the review of the Sabarimala case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 14, 2026
  • B.April 7✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 1, 2026
  • D.The article does not specify a date
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'On April 7, a nine-judge Bench will begin hearing the review of the 2018 five-judge Bench’s verdict in the Sabarimala case.' The year is implied as 2026 based on the article's publication date.

Source: Kerala Govt Submits Sabarimala Case to SC 9-Judge Bench; Seeks Views on Essential Religious Practice Under Article 25(1) →
Q116.

What is the primary legal doctrine that the Supreme Court's nine-judge Bench is set to examine in the Sabarimala review case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution
  • B.The doctrine of essential religious practice✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The doctrine of severability
  • D.The doctrine of colourable legislation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Sabarimala petitions are part of cases coming up before the nine-judge Bench on the question of what constitutes an 'essential religious practice'. This is the core legal doctrine under examination, which determines which religious practices receive constitutional protection under Article 25.

Source: Kerala Govt Submits Sabarimala Case to SC 9-Judge Bench; Seeks Views on Essential Religious Practice Under Article 25(1) →
Q117.

Which Indian ministry's spokesperson, Randhir Jaiswal, communicated India's efforts to secure safe passage for vessels near the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Shipping
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that "MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said...". MEA stands for the Ministry of External Affairs, which is responsible for India's foreign relations and diplomacy.

Source: MEA Seeks Safe Passage for 22 Stranded Vessels Near Strait of Hormuz Amid Iran Conflict and 20% Global Oil Transit Risk →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about the Strait of Hormuz:

1. India sought safe passage for 22 vessels, which included four crude oil carriers and six liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) carriers.

2. The Strait of Hormuz carries approximately 30% of the world's seaborne oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG) supply.

3. As the chair of BRICS, India has attempted to build consensus among its members regarding the Middle East conflict.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which lists the stranded vessels. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the strait carries 'around 20%' of the global supply, not 30%. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the concluding paragraph.

Source: MEA Seeks Safe Passage for 22 Stranded Vessels Near Strait of Hormuz Amid Iran Conflict and 20% Global Oil Transit Risk →
Q119.

According to the article, what percentage of the global oil and seaborne liquefied natural gas supply is carried through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15%
  • B.20%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25%
  • D.30%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "The waterway... carries around 20% of the global oil and seaborne liquefied natural gas supply." The other options are plausible-sounding distractors.

Source: MEA Seeks Safe Passage for 22 Stranded Vessels Near Strait of Hormuz Amid Iran Conflict and 20% Global Oil Transit Risk →
Q120.

What has been a direct domestic consequence in India of the blockade at the Strait of Hormuz, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A sharp increase in petrol prices leading to protests.
  • B.A cut in industrial gas supplies to protect household cooking gas.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The cancellation of several international flights due to fuel shortages.
  • D.The imposition of a nationwide ban on private vehicle use.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The blockade has led to a gas shortage in India, with the government cutting industrial supplies to protect household cooking gas." This is a direct impact of the disruption in energy imports.

Source: MEA Seeks Safe Passage for 22 Stranded Vessels Near Strait of Hormuz Amid Iran Conflict and 20% Global Oil Transit Risk →
Q121.

The 9-judge Constitution Bench hearing the Sabarimala reference is part of which institution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.High Court of Kerala
  • B.Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Human Rights Commission
  • D.Law Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the 9-judge Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court, which is the apex judicial body in India. Constitution Benches are formed by the Supreme Court to decide important questions of constitutional law.

Source: Kerala Govt Seeks 'Wider Consultation' on Sabarimala Women's Entry Before 9-Judge SC Bench Hearing on April 7, 2026 →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala case developments:

1. The Kerala government, in its latest submission, has called for wide consultation with religious scholars before any judicial review of the temple practice.

2. The Supreme Court's original judgment allowing women's entry was delivered by a 7-judge bench in 2017.

3. The Supreme Court has framed seven questions on the interplay of religious freedom with other rights for the 9-judge bench to answer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the Kerala govt called for 'wide consultation'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the original judgment was on September 28, 2018, and does not specify it was a 7-judge bench. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists the 7 questions framed by the SC.

Source: Kerala Govt Seeks 'Wider Consultation' on Sabarimala Women's Entry Before 9-Judge SC Bench Hearing on April 7, 2026 →
Q123.

On which date is the 9-judge Constitution Bench scheduled to commence hearings on the Sabarimala reference, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 14, 2026
  • B.April 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.September 28, 2026
  • D.November 13, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the 9-judge bench, which has set April 7, 2026, to commence the hearing.' March 14 is the article's publication date. September 28 is the date of the 2018 judgment. November 13 is referenced for a 2007 affidavit.

Source: Kerala Govt Seeks 'Wider Consultation' on Sabarimala Women's Entry Before 9-Judge SC Bench Hearing on April 7, 2026 →
Q124.

What is the core constitutional principle the Kerala government's submission emphasizes for judicial review under Article 25, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Courts must assess if a religious practice appeals to modern reason and sentiment.
  • B.Courts must determine if a religious belief is genuinely and conscientiously held by its adherents.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Courts should immediately strike down any practice that appears discriminatory.
  • D.Courts should defer all decisions on religious practices to the concerned state government.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the state's submission: 'should not be as to whether a particular religious practice... appeals to reason or sentiment, but should be as to whether the belief is genuinely and conscientiously held as part of the profession or practice of religion.' This is the core of its argument for judicial review.

Source: Kerala Govt Seeks 'Wider Consultation' on Sabarimala Women's Entry Before 9-Judge SC Bench Hearing on April 7, 2026 →
Q125.

Which ministry introduced the 'Unified Guidelines for Selection of LPG Distributors' (UGS) mentioned in the judgment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Consumer Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the 'Unified Guidelines for Selection of LPG Distributors' (UGS) were introduced by the union ministry of petroleum and natural gas in June 2016. This ministry oversees the petroleum sector and the public sector oil marketing companies.

Source: Kerala HC Upholds 2025 LPG Customer Transfer Policy Citing Articles 39(b) & 39(c), Rules Consumers Belong to Oil Companies →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court judgment on LPG customer transfer policy:

1. The court upheld the 'Customer Transfer – Market Restructuring' policy introduced in February 2025.

2. The judgment stated that LPG distributors have a permanent right over the customer base they have built.

3. The court cited Articles 39(b) and 39(c) of the Constitution in its reasoning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the court upheld the February 21, 2025 policy. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court emphasized that distributors cannot claim permanent rights over customers. Statement 3 is correct as the court relied on Articles 39(b) and 39(c) of the Constitution.

Source: Kerala HC Upholds 2025 LPG Customer Transfer Policy Citing Articles 39(b) & 39(c), Rules Consumers Belong to Oil Companies →
Q127.

According to the Kerala High Court judgment, what is the minimum percentage of the refill ceiling limit that a distributor's customer base is guaranteed under the 2025 policy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.75%
  • B.90%
  • C.100%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.110%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the new 2025 policy ensures a distributor's customer base cannot fall below 100% of the refill ceiling limit. The 2018 policy allowed reduction to 75%, making 100% the correct and improved guarantee under the upheld policy.

Source: Kerala HC Upholds 2025 LPG Customer Transfer Policy Citing Articles 39(b) & 39(c), Rules Consumers Belong to Oil Companies →
Q128.

What was the primary legal doctrine invoked by the Kerala High Court to presume the LPG transfer policy had proper internal approval from the oil companies?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Doctrine of Basic Structure
  • B.Doctrine of Indoor Management✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
  • D.Doctrine of Severability
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the court invoked the principles of 'indoor management'. This doctrine presumes that internal corporate procedures have been correctly followed unless proven otherwise. The other doctrines are unrelated to corporate internal approvals.

Source: Kerala HC Upholds 2025 LPG Customer Transfer Policy Citing Articles 39(b) & 39(c), Rules Consumers Belong to Oil Companies →
Q129.

The commercial contract for the supply of uranium ore concentrates was signed between India's Department of Atomic Energy and which Canadian company?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Westinghouse Electric Company
  • B.Bruce Power
  • C.Cameco✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Saskatchewan Power Corporation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the commercial contract between India's Department of Atomic Energy and Canada's Cameco for the supply of uranium ore concentrates.

Source: India-Canada Sign CEPA & Uranium Deal, Aim for 100 GW Nuclear Power by 2047 Under SHANTI Act →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-Canada agreements:

1. The terms of agreement for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) were signed, marking a roadmap for negotiations.

2. A Memorandum of Understanding was signed under the Australia-Canada-India Technology and Innovation Partnership.

3. The primary focus of the Pax Silica coalition, which includes India, is cooperation on maritime security in the Indo-Pacific.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the CEPA terms of agreement have been signed. Statement 2 is correct as an MoU under the Australia-Canada-India Technology and Innovation Partnership was signed. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Pax Silica coalition strengthens strategic cooperation in AI and semiconductors, not maritime security.

Source: India-Canada Sign CEPA & Uranium Deal, Aim for 100 GW Nuclear Power by 2047 Under SHANTI Act →
Q131.

What is India's target for nuclear power generation capacity by the year 2047, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 GW
  • B.75 GW
  • C.100 GW✓ Correct Answer
  • D.125 GW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states India's target is achieving 100 GW nuclear power capacity by 2047. This is a key data point linked to the uranium deal with Canada.

Source: India-Canada Sign CEPA & Uranium Deal, Aim for 100 GW Nuclear Power by 2047 Under SHANTI Act →
Q132.

What is a primary strategic rationale behind the India-Canada critical minerals cooperation, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of manufacturing consumer electronics.
  • B.To secure supply chains that are currently concentrated in the hands of a few countries, notably China.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To jointly explore new mineral deposits in the Arctic region.
  • D.To bypass environmental regulations for faster mining operations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that supply chains for critical minerals are concentrated with a few countries, most notably China, and that after China leveraged these chains, nations recognized the need to secure their own. The bilateral commitment aligns with this need for diversification and security.

Source: India-Canada Sign CEPA & Uranium Deal, Aim for 100 GW Nuclear Power by 2047 Under SHANTI Act →
Q133.

Which regulatory body issues the Master Directions on Know Your Customer (KYC) norms for banks in India?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution responsible for regulating the banking sector. It issues Master Directions on various banking regulations, including KYC norms, as mentioned in the article regarding changes announced in June last year.

Source: RBI's KYC Relaxation Fails to Ease Burden: Over 250 Cr Bank Accounts, PMJDY Growth Strain Compliance →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding KYC norms as per the news article:

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) relaxed KYC norms in June 2025 to simplify compliance.

2. According to RBI norms, KYC for low-risk customers must be updated every two years.

3. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is cited as a reason for the increased number of bank accounts, complicating KYC verification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states RBI announced changes to KYC norms in June last year (2025). Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states low-risk customers require KYC updates every 10 years, not two years. Statement 3 is correct as bankers claim the implementation of PMJDY swelled the number of bank accounts, making verification difficult.

Source: RBI's KYC Relaxation Fails to Ease Burden: Over 250 Cr Bank Accounts, PMJDY Growth Strain Compliance →
Q135.

According to the article, approximately how many total bank accounts are there in India, contributing to the KYC compliance challenge?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Over 100 crore
  • B.Over 150 crore
  • C.Over 200 crore
  • D.Over 250 crore✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that bank officials say the compliance burden is overwhelming as there are over 250 crore bank accounts in India. This is a key data point highlighting the scale of the operational challenge.

Source: RBI's KYC Relaxation Fails to Ease Burden: Over 250 Cr Bank Accounts, PMJDY Growth Strain Compliance →
Q136.

What is identified as a major unintended consequence of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) in the context of the news article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It led to a decrease in savings rates across banks.
  • B.It increased the operational burden of KYC compliance for banks.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It resulted in higher non-performing assets (NPAs) for public sector banks.
  • D.It caused a shift from rural to urban banking.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the success of PMJDY in opening millions of bank accounts to the current KYC crisis. Bankers claim that the sheer number of accounts, which 'further swelled after the implementation' of PMJDY, has made the task of verifying customer identity 'even more difficult'. This is the primary application/impact discussed.

Source: RBI's KYC Relaxation Fails to Ease Burden: Over 250 Cr Bank Accounts, PMJDY Growth Strain Compliance →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 14 March 2026?▼

This page contains 136 current affairs questions from 14 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 14 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Union Ministry introduced the Transgender Persons (Protection …
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed amend…
  3. Q3. The proposed Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendm…
  4. Q4. is the primary constitutional principle, as per the Supreme Co…
  5. Q5. According to the Supreme Court ruling, which of the following …
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  7. Q7. The Supreme Court case regarding police recruitment standards …
  8. Q8. is the primary legal principle reinforced by the Supreme Court…
  9. Q9. As per the Constitution, the removal process of the Chief Elec…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  11. Q11. According to the article, what was the estimated combined cost…
  12. Q12. was the core constitutional principle invoked by the Supreme C…
  13. Q13. United Nations body is responsible for providing the scientifi…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the findings discu…
  15. Q15. According to the analysis published in Geophysical Research Le…
  16. Q16. is a key criticism raised in the article regarding the 'net-ze…
  17. Q17. ministry is primarily responsible for the safety and evacuatio…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia cris…
  19. Q19. According to the article, what is the approximate number of In…
  20. Q20. is a significant long-term implication of the West Asia crisis…
  21. Q21. statutory committee of the RBI is responsible for setting the …
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the inflation scen…
  23. Q23. According to the article, what was the approximate weight of f…
  24. Q24. According to the analysis in the article, why might raising in…
  25. Q25. ministry has been directed by the Supreme Court to design a no…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  27. Q27. According to the article, approximately how many deaths were r…
  28. Q28. is the primary significance of the Supreme Court's directive t…
  29. Q29. global body's assembly adopted the Pandemic Agreement discusse…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the WHO Pandemic A…
  31. Q31. According to the news, what is the minimum percentage of pande…
  32. Q32. is a primary objective of India's stance in the Pandemic Agree…
  33. Q33. online platform provides real-time data on case pendency in In…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the findings menti…
  35. Q35. As per the National Judicial Data Grid data cited in the artic…
  36. Q36. According to the article's argument using the 'bicycle metapho…
  37. Q37. organization has been designated as the nodal agency for imple…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's AVGC-…
  39. Q39. is the anchor investment amount for the Tamil Nadu Emerging Se…
  40. Q40. is a primary strategic objective of Tamil Nadu's AVGC-XR Polic…
  41. Q41. The article mentions fiscal consolidation efforts by the Centr…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the crises discuss…
  43. Q43. According to the article, approximately what share of the worl…
  44. Q44. is the primary complication for economic policymaking in India…
  45. Q45. According to the article, which center is associated with one …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the governance cha…
  47. Q47. According to the article, what is a primary reason for advocat…
  48. Q48. The article identifies which of the following as sectors incre…
  49. Q49. As per the proposed Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, …
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Dh…
  51. Q51. According to the Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, wha…
  52. Q52. is a key feature of the Maharashtra anti-conversion Bill that …
  53. Q53. Under which Article of the Constitution is a Constitution Benc…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  55. Q55. According to the news, on which date in 2026 is the 9-judge Co…
  56. Q56. is one of the primary issues the 9-judge Supreme Court Bench w…
  57. Q57. international organization is responsible for monitoring compl…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the global nuclear…
  59. Q59. According to the article, in which year did the Treaty on the …
  60. Q60. is the primary critique of the current global nuclear non-prol…
  61. Q61. constitutional article guarantees the freedom of religion, whi…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Freedom of Rel…
  63. Q63. is the maximum monetary fine prescribed for forcible conversio…
  64. Q64. According to the news, what is the primary stated objective of…
  65. Q65. The 'trisulfide metathesis reaction' discovery, enabling manip…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recently disco…
  67. Q67. According to the news, the new chemical reaction enables the m…
  68. Q68. is a primary potential application of the 'trisulfide metathes…
  69. Q69. The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination drive launched in 2…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccinatio…
  71. Q71. According to the article, what is the estimated annual number …
  72. Q72. is a primary public health rationale cited in the article for …
  73. Q73. Indian organization is responsible for the development and ope…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding India's NavIC syst…
  75. Q75. According to the article, how many of the 11 satellites launch…
  76. Q76. is a major implication of the IRNSS-1F satellite failure, as h…
  77. Q77. Under the proposed Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, 2026, w…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Dh…
  79. Q79. According to the proposed Maharashtra Dharma Swatantrya Bill, …
  80. Q80. is a primary legal challenge highlighted in the article agains…
  81. Q81. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding Kharg Island: 1. …
  83. Q83. According to the investment bank JP Morgan, what was the volum…
  84. Q84. is cited as the primary reason the US initially avoided target…
  85. Q85. US agency is responsible for initiating the trade investigatio…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the US trade probe…
  87. Q87. According to the ILO estimates cited in the article, what was …
  88. Q88. is the primary rationale cited by the US for initiating the tr…
  89. Q89. ministry is primarily responsible for managing India's diploma…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia conf…
  91. Q91. According to the article, approximately how many Indian citize…
  92. Q92. is the primary strategic dilemma for India as highlighted in t…
  93. Q93. Under which constitutional article are safeguards against prev…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Public Safety …
  95. Q95. For what period was Mudasir Ahmad Bhat's detention under PSA p…
  96. Q96. was the primary legal ground on which the J&K High Court quash…
  97. Q97. The Allahabad High Court's order was directed towards which tw…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  99. Q99. On which date did the Allahabad High Court division bench pass…
  100. Q100. was the primary legal principle upheld by the Allahabad High C…
  101. Q101. As per the article, which Iranian body was established with th…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic posi…
  103. Q103. According to the article, in which year was the Islamic Republ…
  104. Q104. As per the article's analysis, what is the primary strategic r…
  105. Q105. government scheme, mentioned in the article, is specifically a…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the airport develo…
  107. Q107. is the total estimated cost for the construction of the seven …
  108. Q108. is the primary mode of development proposed for the constructi…
  109. Q109. national-level demographic survey provides the annual estimate…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's health in…
  111. Q111. According to the 2023 Sample Registration Survey (SRS) report …
  112. Q112. is identified as the primary reason for Kerala's sustained suc…
  113. Q113. constitutional article guarantees the freedom of conscience an…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala cas…
  115. Q115. According to the news, when is the nine-judge Constitution Ben…
  116. Q116. is the primary legal doctrine that the Supreme Court's nine-ju…
  117. Q117. Indian ministry's spokesperson, Randhir Jaiswal, communicated …
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news about the…
  119. Q119. According to the article, what percentage of the global oil an…
  120. Q120. has been a direct domestic consequence in India of the blockad…
  121. Q121. The 9-judge Constitution Bench hearing the Sabarimala referenc…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala cas…
  123. Q123. On which date is the 9-judge Constitution Bench scheduled to c…
  124. Q124. is the core constitutional principle the Kerala government's s…
  125. Q125. ministry introduced the 'Unified Guidelines for Selection of L…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Co…
  127. Q127. According to the Kerala High Court judgment, what is the minim…
  128. Q128. was the primary legal doctrine invoked by the Kerala High Cour…
  129. Q129. The commercial contract for the supply of uranium ore concentr…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-C…
  131. Q131. is India's target for nuclear power generation capacity by the…
  132. Q132. is a primary strategic rationale behind the India-Canada criti…
  133. Q133. regulatory body issues the Master Directions on Know Your Cust…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding KYC norms as per t…
  135. Q135. According to the article, approximately how many total bank ac…
  136. Q136. is identified as a major unintended consequence of the Pradhan…