17 March 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Court expanded the 'right to live with dignity under Article 21 to encompass the right to die with dignity'. Article 21 is the source of this derived right.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article discusses withdrawal of life support (passive euthanasia) for specific conditions like PVS, not the legalization of active euthanasia. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Court endorsed the concept of a living will.

Explanation

The article states: 'In 2018, a Supreme Court Constitution Bench held that the right to die with dignity is a fundamental right.' The 2026 judgment builds upon this 2018 ruling.

Explanation

The article defines a living will as 'a legal document empowering individuals to state their preferences for medical treatment in situations where they become incapacitated, vegetative or are unable to communicate'. Its primary purpose is advance healthcare directive, not property or guardianship.

Explanation

The Bench explicitly stated that Section 60(4) is violative of Articles 14 (Right to Equality) and 21 (Right to Life) of the Constitution. Articles 15 prohibits discrimination on specific grounds, Articles 19 guarantees freedoms, and Articles 32 & 226 are for remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the provision was Section 60(4) of the Social Security Code. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment linked adoption to reproductive autonomy under Article 21. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Court asked the Centre to come out with a provision recognizing paternity leave as a social security benefit.

Explanation

The Bench held that an adoptive mother should be entitled to maternity leave of 12 weeks, irrespective of the age of the adopted child. 26 weeks is for biological mothers under the amended Maternity Benefit Act. 6 and 8 weeks are incorrect durations mentioned in some older provisions.

Explanation

The Court explicitly stated that the age limit was violative of Articles 14 and 21, and observed that adoption is part of the right to reproductive autonomy. While other articles are relevant to social justice, the judgment's core legal reasoning was based on these two fundamental rights.

Explanation

Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution specifies the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so. This is a fundamental static GK fact directly relevant to the news about constitutional amendment challenges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because a constitutional amendment requires a special majority: a majority of the total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting. Statement 3 is correct as 141 is above the simple majority mark of 123 in a 245-member house for ordinary bills.

Explanation

The article states the BJP's elected members increased from 98 to 101, and five nominated members joined the party, making the total BJP MPs 106. Option A is the old elected count, B is the new elected count, and D is the old NDA tally.

Explanation

A constitutional amendment under Article 368 requires a special majority. The article calculates this as 164 seats in the Rajya Sabha based on its total strength of 245. The NDA's tally of 141 falls short of this, meaning it would need support from other parties or significant abstentions to pass such amendments.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the hearing is about defining the word 'industry' under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, specifically concerning Section 2(j) of that Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the test under review is from the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply case, not a 1996 judgment. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a seven-judge bench in 2017 referred it to a nine-judge bench.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'In May 2005, a five-judge Bench of the apex court had referred the matter to a larger Bench on the interpretation of the definition of word "industry"...' The other years correspond to other judicial events mentioned.

Explanation

If government welfare activities are deemed 'industry', their employees would be considered 'workmen' under the Act, granting them rights related to industrial disputes, retrenchment, and collective bargaining. This is the core legal implication discussed in the article.

Explanation

MACTs are specialized tribunals constituted under the provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, specifically to adjudicate claims for compensation arising from road accidents. This is a core static GK fact linked to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the court ruled that remarriage CANNOT be a ground to deny or reduce dependency compensation. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the court awarded ₹11.28 lakh and referenced the Bombay HC case of Bajaj Alliance General Insurance Company Ltd v Pushpa Narayan Khurde.

Explanation

The article states: 'The court ordered grant of an additional amount of Rs 11.28 lakh under the head loss of dependency to the widow.' ₹11.64 lakh is the total additional amount including other adjustments, ₹4.60 lakh was the tribunal's original award, and ₹20 lakh was the initial claim.

Explanation

The core legal principle established is that the right to compensation crystallizes on the date of the accident/death. Therefore, later life events of the claimant, such as remarriage or finding a job, cannot retrospectively alter or nullify this vested right. This protects dependents from discriminatory deductions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the investigation was launched under the European Union Digital Markets Act (DMA). The DMA is specifically designed to regulate large digital 'gatekeeper' platforms for fair competition, which aligns with this probe into Google's search practices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the target is within 12 months, not 18 months. Statement 3 is correct as the letter was addressed to Commission President Ursula von der Leyen, EU antitrust chief Teresa Ribera, and EU tech chief Henna Virkkunen.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions: 'The investigation, launched by the European Commission on March 25, 2024 under the European Union Digital Markets Act (DMA)...' March 17, 2026, is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The article quotes the groups stating: 'Every passing day further erodes the profitability of European companies, hampering their ability to invest and grow...' This directly highlights their core economic concern regarding the delay in the antitrust case.

Explanation

Codicology is the study of books as physical objects, especially manuscripts. While epigraphy studies inscriptions and numismatics studies coins, codicology specifically deals with the materials (like papyrus and parchment), construction, and history of books, which is the central theme of Vallejo's work discussed in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states the reasons for loss were 'surprisingly mundane' like the deterioration of papyrus and the high cost of parchment, not deliberate destruction. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions parchment was expensive and the economy could not support copying every text. Statement 3 is correct as the article states monks and abbots 'prioritised mostly Christian theological writings'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'parchment was expensive' and 'Producing it required substantial resources, and the economy of the time simply could not support copying every surviving text.' This scarcity, not a lack of scribes or interest, was the fundamental constraint that led to selective preservation.

Explanation

The article's central argument is that AI and search engines 'are becoming curators of knowledge' and that 'What these systems choose to present influences what people know and how they understand the world.' This curation, like the historical filtering by monks, can 'shape what people learn and what they forget,' raising significant ethical and societal concerns.

Explanation

The Quad comprises the United States, Japan, India, and Australia. The United Kingdom is not a member. This is a fundamental static GK fact related to Indo-Pacific groupings.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states it took South Block five days to send the Foreign Secretary and another week to express grief for a later incident. Statement 3 is incorrect; the IRIS Dena was sunk in the Indian Ocean, not the Strait of Hormuz (where Iran has weaponised access).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that approximately 25 million South Asians live in West Asia, including 10 million Indians. The other options are distractors: 5 million is for Pakistanis, 5-8 million for Afghan refugees, and 15% is the share of Indian seafarers globally.

Explanation

The article's core analysis is that India's initial perceived tilt and the unilateral action of a Quad partner (US) challenge its traditional balanced policy in West Asia. This imbalance risks trust with Iran and is observed closely by South Asian neighbours, testing India's regional influence and 'Neighbourhood First' policy. The other options are not the central challenge discussed.

Explanation

As per the article, the Bill was introduced by Social Justice Minister Virendra Kumar. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 also falls under the purview of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the Bill proposes to withdraw the right to 'self-perceived gender identity'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the right was recognized in the 2014 NALSA judgment, not the 2017 Puttaswamy case (which dealt with privacy). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions protests in these cities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in the 2014 NALSA judgement, the Supreme Court laid down that the right to self-identification of gender falls under the ambit of personal liberty (Article 21). This is a key static GK linkage for Polity.

Explanation

The article quotes activists stating the Bill 'misconstrues the ideas of what transgender and intersex bodies look like, by conflating them into one' and that the definition referring to 'hijra, kinner' etc. suggests one must be part of such gharanas to be considered trans. Other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions COP30, which is the 30th Conference of the Parties to the UNFCCC. While other conventions also have COPs, the context of climate finance and forest conservation in the Amazon strongly links this news to the UNFCCC process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the TFFF is 'set up to generate returns and reward long-term forest conservation.' Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'at least 20%...are reserved for indigenous peoples and local communities.' Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly notes that 'indigenous representatives do not have voting rights on the main governing bodies of the Fund.'

Explanation

The article states: 'some critics argue that the payment rate, around $4 a hectare in earlier proposals, is inadequate.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article quotes the GFC describing the fund as 'colonialistic' and argues it is 'built around market logic and financial returns that may not address the root structural causes of deforestation, such as agribusiness expansion, oil and mining projects, and large infrastructure.' The other options are contrary to the article's details.

Explanation

As defined in the article and static GK, NATO is a political and military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty, with its core principle being collective defence as enshrined in Article 5.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states Article 5 has been invoked only once, post-9/11. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 6 limits obligations to specific regions (Europe, North America, etc.), excluding places like Iran. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions 'NATO Secretary General Rutte'. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'through which nearly 20% of global oil and fuel shipments typically flow.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article's core analysis highlights that 'Geography is another limiting factor. Under Article 6... the current conflict, playing out in and around Iran, falls squarely outside these boundaries.' While Article 1 and the defensive nature of Article 5 are also reasons, the geographical limit of Article 6 is presented as a key legal constraint.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the court's decision was in violation of the 'public trust doctrine'. This doctrine, inferred from Article 21, holds that the state is a trustee of natural resources for the benefit of the public.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the land allotted was 'sand dune' land, not wetland. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the court quoted Hubert Reeves. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court directed identification 'within four weeks', not six weeks.

Explanation

The article states: 'the petitioner’s land, worth approximately Rs.8 Crores in Cuddalore town, is taken back'. The allotted sand dune land was valued at Rs. 2 Crores.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly observes that 'sand dunes are ecologically sensitive areas that serve as natural buffers against storms'. The article also calls them 'natural buffers that protect the land from storms'. Other options, while potentially true for other ecosystems, are not the primary function cited in this judgment.

Explanation

As per the article, Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis introduced the Bill in the Assembly. The Chief Minister, as the head of the government, typically introduces significant government bills.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bill mandates a 60-day prior notice, not 30 days. Statement 2 is correct: The article states the Bill empowers police to take suo motu action. Statement 3 is correct: CM Fadnavis noted that similar laws are in force in 12 states.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the provision requiring a person to give a notice for 60 days before converting. This was a key point of debate raised by opposition MLAs regarding privacy and safety.

Explanation

The article quotes CM Fadnavis explaining that disputes around religious conversions, particularly those linked to interfaith marriages, often lead to law and order situations. The Bill aims to provide specific legal provisions to address such matters effectively.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that charges were filed under Section 304B of the IPC (or Section 80 of the BNS) for dowry death cases. This section specifically defines and penalizes dowry death.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states bail was granted in 508 of 510 cases (99.61%). Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC bench comprised Justices J B Pardiwala and K V Vishwanathan. Statement 3 is incorrect; the law (Section 304B IPC) mandates a presumption of guilt, not innocence, against the husband or in-laws if conditions are met.

Explanation

The article provides a breakdown: hanging appeared in 340 cases, poison in 27, strangulation in 16, burn injuries in 11, among others. Therefore, hanging was the most frequently cited cause of death.

Explanation

The SC observed that the High Court did not properly examine the nature of the serious crime (dowry death by strangulation), the punishment, the relationship between accused and deceased, and the medical evidence (postmortem report) before granting bail.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that under Article 58 of the Limitation Act, a declaration suit must be filed within three years. Article 65 deals with suits for possession of immovable property, Article 56 deals with suits relating to decrees/instruments, and Article 113 is the residuary article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment reiterates that a math is a judicial persona. Statement 2 is correct as the suit was time-barred under Article 58 (filed in 1999 for a cause of action arising in 1992). Statement 3 is incorrect; the High Court set aside the appellate order granting title to the Mahant and restored the trial court's dismissal of the suit.

Explanation

The judgment specifically states that under Article 58 of the Limitation Act, a declaration suit must be filed within three years from when the right to sue accrues.

Explanation

The High Court identified a fundamental flaw: the plaintiff (Mahant) claimed the property belonged to the Emar Mutt, yet the suit sought a declaration of his personal title. The court held that when property belongs to the Math, the Mahant cannot seek a declaration of his own title.

Explanation

Article 32 grants the Supreme Court the power to issue writs, including habeas corpus, for the enforcement of fundamental rights. Article 226 grants similar power to High Courts. Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which habeas corpus protects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the average was 953 days. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 'In about 36 per cent of the cases, the delay at the Supreme Court alone crossed this limit'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the study analyzed judgments between 2000 and 2019, not 2010-2020.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Even counting only the time a case remained before the Supreme Court, the average was 528 days, i.e., one year and five months.' 344 days is the average total custody time, 953 days is the total process time, and 181 days is from the Madras HC study.

Explanation

The core argument of the article and the study is that delays often outlast the detention period, making the judicial remedy of habeas corpus ineffective ('too little and too late'). This directly undermines the fundamental right to liberty. The other options are not the primary focus of the analysis.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Fiscal Health Index 2026 is published by NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank responsible for such analytical indices on governance and development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the five pillars are Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability. Statement 2 is incorrect because Odisha is an 'Achiever', not a 'Front Runner'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Arunachal Pradesh led among northeastern and Himalayan states.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Odisha secured the top position with an FHI 2026 score of 73.1. The other options are scores of other states: Goa (54.7), Jharkhand (50.5), and Gujarat (49.9).

Explanation

The article attributes Odisha's top rank and strong debt profile to 'prudent fiscal management, stable revenues, and effective deficit control'. The other options are not mentioned as specific reasons for its performance in the report.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the United States Trade Representative (USTR) has launched the Section 301 investigations and is recreating the tariff structure. The USTR is the US government agency responsible for developing and coordinating trade policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states the Supreme Court 'scrapped' the IEEPA tariffs, not upheld them. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as expert Deborah Elms stated Section 301 is 'unlikely to get overturned by the US Courts'. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions: 'India had a bilateral trade surplus with the US of $58 billion' in 2025. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the figure cited by the USTR in the investigation.

Explanation

A Commerce Ministry official explained that any trade deal would be focused on the 'upcoming tariff structure or comparative advantage that India gets in the US market'. The article's core theme is India waiting for the new US tariff architecture to be finalized before committing.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the TTP 'operates mainly in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa region bordering Afghanistan.' This region has a significant Pashtun population with cross-border ties.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's 'Why is Pakistan attacking Afghanistan?' section. Statement 2 is correct as stated by defence expert Ali Chishti in the 'Where could the war go from here?' section. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the same section that 'China...has been trying to talk to both to cease hostilities.'

Explanation

The article states, 'Going by various announcements made by both parties since February 27, around 1,000 people are dead.' The figure '400' is specific to the Kabul airstrike, while '1,000' is the broader conflict toll.

Explanation

Georgette Gagnon of the UN mission warned the Security Council that the conflict, along with other factors, could lead to Afghanistan again becoming 'a driver of regional and global instability in the form of out-migration, terrorism, narcotics and more.' This is a direct quote from the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kerala High Court, after analyzing the UN Declaration of Basic Principles of Justice for the Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power, 1985, held that the survivor has a right to be heard. This is the specific document mentioned in the content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the judgment explicitly referred to Section 483(2) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). Statement 3 is incorrect as the surrender period was seven days, not fifteen.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "directed the accused to surrender before the sessions judge within seven days." This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The core of the judgment, as stated in the article, is upholding the survivor's 'right to be heard' before bail is granted, especially in heinous offences. This is its primary legal significance, making it a procedural safeguard. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

UNAMA is a UN political mission established to assist Afghanistan in peace and development. The article mentions its mandate was extended by the UN Security Council, which aligns with its non-military, political advisory role, not peacekeeping or counter-terrorism operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states fighting began after Afghanistan launched cross-border attacks responding to Pakistani airstrikes. Statement 2 is incorrect; Pakistan accuses Afghanistan of harboring the Pakistani Taliban (TTP) and Baloch separatists, not specifically the Islamic State. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions China's special envoy spent a week mediating and urging a ceasefire.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the death toll from the airstrike reached 400, with reports mentioning 'over 400 dead'. The figure of 250 refers to the number of injured, making option B the correct factual data point.

Explanation

The article directly states that a full-blown war would 'create a security vacuum that extremist groups would be all too eager to fill', specifically naming al-Qaeda and the Islamic State. While other options are potential secondary concerns, this is the primary security implication highlighted in the text.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Gujarat was officially recognised as a 'Tiger State' by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). The NTCA is the statutory body under the MoEFCC responsible for tiger conservation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the forest area is 21,876.45 sq km, which is 11.14% (not more than 15%) of the state's geographical area. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Gujarat is ranked first with a mangrove plantation of 41,998 hectares under the MISHTI scheme.

Explanation

The article clearly states that according to the 16th Lion Census conducted in May 2025, the number of lions in Gujarat has increased to 891. This figure includes 196 males and 330 females.

Explanation

The article states that Prosopis juliflora has affected the natural grassland ecosystem and the livelihoods of the Maldhari pastoral communities. Its removal (from 6,300 hectares) is part of ecological restoration for improving habitat, directly linking it to the cheetah project and community welfare.

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned under Article 44, which is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) of the Constitution. These principles are not enforceable by courts but are fundamental in governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The committee was chaired by former Supreme Court Judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai, not necessarily a former Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'The draft gives particular emphasis to ensuring equal rights and protection for women.' Statement 3 is correct: The article states the committee 'handed over a three-volume report to the Chief Minister'.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Gujarat Government on Tuesday (March 17, 2026) received the final draft...' and 'Chairman... meets Gujarat Chief Minister... on March 17, 2026.' The other dates are close distractors.

Explanation

While a UCC aims for uniformity, the article specifically highlights the draft's focus: 'The draft gives particular emphasis to ensuring equal rights and protection for women.' This is presented as a key objective and rationale behind the common framework.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the NCTP was established under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019. This is a key static fact about the institutional framework for transgender rights in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Bill proposes to withdraw the right to self-perceived gender identity. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions no such provision for prior NCTP approval. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly says the amendments 'grant discretionary powers to the District Magistrate'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Bill was 'introduced in Parliament on Friday (March 13)'. March 17 is the date of the article and the NCTP's statement, not the introduction date.

Explanation

The core objection highlighted throughout the article is the lack of consultation with the NCTP, the very body created by the 2019 Act to advise the government on such matters. While the Bill's content is opposed, the procedural lapse in bypassing the NCTP is the primary grievance raised by its members.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that EPS-95 is 'run by the retirement fund body EPFO'. EPFO is the statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment responsible for administering provident fund and pension schemes for organized sector employees.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the committee recommended 'an urgent and comprehensive review of the minimum pension'. Statement 2 is correct as it recommends 'registration of gig workers by aggregators on the e-Shram Portal... with continued access to social security benefits'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions revising the wage ceiling under ESIC, not merging it with EPFO.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the committee reviewed 'the ₹1,000 minimum monthly pension under the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995'. The amount ₹7,500 is the pensioners' demand, not the current minimum. ₹500 and ₹2,500 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the committee's view that 'the existing minimum pension amount is inadequate to meet even the basic needs of pensioners, particularly in the present economic scenario marked by inflation'. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in its 2018 Constitution Bench judgment, interpreted Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) to include the 'right to die with dignity'. This expansion is part of the broader interpretation of 'life' to mean a life with dignity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the 2011 judgment suggested reviewing and abolishing the relevant IPC section. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2018 judgment legalized passive euthanasia (withdrawal of treatment) and 'living wills', not active euthanasia. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states the Harish Rana ruling is the first instance of court-ordered withdrawal of treatment.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The country became the first in the world to legalise euthanasia in 2002.' This is a key factual data point in the global context of the debate.

Explanation

The article identifies the Harish Rana ruling as 'the first instance of court-ordered withdrawal or the withholding of medical treatment in India.' This represents the practical application of the principles laid down in the 2018 Constitution Bench verdict. Other options refer to different legal milestones not associated with this specific case.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that verification and compliance under the NPT are facilitated by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The NSG manages export controls, not verification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the primary treaty for biological weapons is the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), while the Wassenaar Arrangement is an export control regime. Statement 3 is incorrect; technological ambiguity means the LACK of clear distinction between civilian and military uses.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the term 'dual-use' was explicitly mentioned in a 1993 report titled 'Technologies Underlying Weapons of Mass Destruction' published by the United States Office of Technology Assessment.

Explanation

The article directly states that 'the primary challenge in dual-use technology governance lies in addressing the "dual-use dilemma": promoting technological progress and innovation while preventing misuse and associated risks.'

Explanation

As defined in the article, SIPRI, established in 1966, is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament. It provides data and analysis based on open sources.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The report states the volume was 9.2 per cent higher, not lower. Statement 2 is correct: The report explicitly states Russia was the only top-10 supplier whose exports decreased (–64%). Statement 3 is correct: It mentions Europe had the largest share (33%) for the first time since the 1960s.

Explanation

The article clearly states that arms exports by the USA increased by 27%, giving it a 42 per cent share of total global arms exports in 2021-25. The other options are plausible distractors based on other supplier shares or previous periods.

Explanation

The article directly links the 4.0% decrease in Indian arms imports to "India's growing ability to design and produce its own weapons," highlighting the push for defence indigenization (Atmanirbharta). The other options are either contrary to the report's analysis or not supported by the data provided.

Explanation

Article 44 of the Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The committee was chaired by former Supreme Court judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai, not a former Chief Justice of India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which states the report 'emphasised equal rights, protection of women' and 'suggested a common legal framework for all religions... on issues like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai, handed the three volumes of the draft report to the chief minister.'

Explanation

The core objective of a UCC is to replace religion-based personal laws (governing marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc.) with a common set of laws for all citizens, promoting equality. The Gujarat report's focus on 'a common legal framework for all religions' on these personal matters aligns with this objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the arrests were made by the National Investigation Agency (NIA). The NIA is India's premier agency for investigating terror-related cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Ukraine specifically stated that its embassy 'did not receive any official notification'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the NIA's allegations.

Explanation

The article states that after the hearing on March 16, the court decided to extend their detention until March 27, 2026. This is a specific factual detail.

Explanation

The Ukrainian protest emphasized that its embassy was not officially notified about the detention of its citizens, contrary to international practice, and demanded unimpeded consular access. This is the core diplomatic grievance mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the convicts were charged under provisions of the Indian Penal Code and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act for humiliating SC community members. This Act is specifically designed to prevent atrocities against SCs and STs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the court did NOT convict them under charges like attempt to murder. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the incident. Statement 3 is incorrect; the chargesheet was filed against 41 people, not 35 (35 were acquitted).

Explanation

The article clearly states the five convicts were sentenced to a maximum of five years' imprisonment. A senior lawyer also mentioned that five years was the maximum punishment for the offences of which they were convicted.

Explanation

While the incident involved cow vigilantes and a traditional occupation, the core legal significance lies in the conviction under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. The verdict is a direct test of this specific law's efficacy in delivering justice for caste-based violence, as highlighted by the charges and the nature of the humiliation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court is revisiting the definition of 'industry' as per the Industrial Disputes Act-1947. This Act is the primary legislation governing industrial disputes in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the case being revisited is 'Bangalore Water Supply & Sewerage Board v R Rajappa' from 1978, decided by a seven-judge bench. Statement 2 is correct: The 1978 judgment predates the 1991 economic reforms, placing it in the pre-liberalisation socialist phase. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Attorney General cautioned against an 'over expansive' and 'indiscriminate application' of the triple test, not for its expansive application.

Explanation

The article clearly states that a 'nine-judge Constitution Bench' is revisiting the earlier seven-judge decision. The bench is presided by CJI Surya Kant and comprises eight other justices, making it a nine-judge bench.

Explanation

The core issue, as articulated by Justice Nagarathna, is to determine the scope of the 'industry' definition adopted in 1978 in the context of the post-1991 economic reforms (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation). The court is examining if the definition should remain expansive, be restricted, or a balance struck.

Explanation

Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill is set for March 24, a day before the budget session concludes. Statement 2 is incorrect; the chairperson was Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai, a retired Supreme Court judge, not a retired Chief Justice of India. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's details.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Gujarat is set to move the draft Bill on March 24, 2026. March 25 is when the session concludes, and the other dates are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the committee's report 'prioritises equal rights and protection of women.' The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the provided content.

Explanation

The article clearly states that currently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the final signing-off agency responsible for issuing blocking orders under Section 69(A). The proposed amendment seeks to decentralize this power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the current Section 69(A) process. Statement 2 is correct as the Sahyog portal under Section 79(3)(b) is described as a decentralized mechanism. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the timeline was reduced from 24-36 hours to 2-3 hours, not the other way around.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Last month, it brought about a change in law to reduce blocking timelines from 24-36 hours to 2-3 hours." The other options are the original timeline or distractors.

Explanation

The article quotes an official saying the current structure creates a "bottleneck at the IT Ministry" and they "cannot act on them quick enough given the high volumes." The stated aim is to decentralize to allow faster action, not to increase revenue or transfer all power to SEBI.

Explanation

As per the article, the American national was detained by the Bureau of Immigration at Kolkata airport. Three Ukrainians were detained at Lucknow airport and three at Delhi airport.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the Ukrainians entered on tourist visas, not business visas. Statement 2 is correct as they were arrested under UAPA Section 18. Statement 3 is correct as the NIA submitted that seized phones were being sent to CERT-IN.

Explanation

The article states that on Monday, their custody was extended until March 27, which is an additional 11 days from the initial 3-day remand.

Explanation

The RAP/PAP is required for foreign nationals to visit certain 'Restricted' or 'Protected' areas in India, like parts of the Northeast. Its objective is national security, to control foreign movement in strategically sensitive border regions, as the accused traveled to Mizoram without this permit.

Explanation

Laws regulating religious conversion primarily engage with Article 25 of the Constitution, which falls under Part III (Fundamental Rights). Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to restrictions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Bill mandates a notice of 60 days, not 30 days, as mentioned by MLC Satyajeet Tambe. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'A day after it was passed by the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council on Tuesday cleared the Bill.' Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Bill seeks to prohibit conversions through 'force, coercion, allurement, misrepresentation or other fraudulent means.'

Explanation

Independent MLC Satyajeet Tambe, while extending support to the Bill, explicitly mentioned that 'There is a provision of giving notice of 60 days before conversion.' This is a key factual data point from the article.

Explanation

As stated by Minister Pankaj Bhoyar in the article, 'the Bill seeks to prohibit unlawful religious conversions carried out through force, coercion, allurement, misrepresentation or other fraudulent means.' The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Standing Committee on Petroleum and Natural Gas' as the body that made the recommendation. This is one of the Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) of Parliament. The other options are also parliamentary committees but are not the ones mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The committee urged achieving the '90-day' standard, not '120-day'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which details the BE-RE-AE gap. Statement 3 is incorrect; the committee has 31 members (21 Lok Sabha MPs and 10 Rajya Sabha MPs), meaning the majority is from the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

The article states: '...the actual expenditure standing at 75%, 45% and 47% of BE allocated in 2023-24, 2024-25 and 2025-26, respectively.' Therefore, for 2024-25, the AE was 45% of the BE. This is a classic data trap question where examiners might ask for a specific year's figure among closely listed numbers.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the committee's intent: 'to safeguard the country against potential supply shocks and external uncertainties.' This is the core purpose of a Strategic Petroleum Reserve. While the other options are related to energy policy, they are not the primary objective cited in the news for this specific recommendation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi Police drew inspiration from an Israeli software, a surveillance van that has been in use since 2018 in parts of Delhi.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's details on the 60% threshold. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the initial use was to match pictures of lost and found children, not for traffic monitoring. Statement 3 is correct as David Lyon's concept of 'social sorting' is directly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "If there is a match of 60 per cent based on real-time data and national agencies’ records, that person will be perceived as a 'potential threat'." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article's core argument revolves around the risk of 'ghettoisation', transforming people into 'second-class citizens', and the harm to marginalised communities due to biased data and 'social sorting'. While cost and integration are practical issues, the primary ethical concern is the discriminatory impact.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's recent amendments to the 'Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021' introduced a statutory definition of 'deepfake'. This is a key piece of current affairs linked to static IT laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The report states India is the second most targeted country, after the United States. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions scam centres in Myanmar, Cambodia, and Laos. Statement 3 is correct as it details the use of Generative AI for personalized scams and deepfakes.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the report: "We removed over 10.9 million Facebook and Instagram accounts... in 2025 for violating our policies against Fraud, Scams and Deceptive Practices." This is a precise data point for factual recall.

Explanation

Expert Krishna Grandhi identified factors like a large pool of potential victims with moderate income, cheap data, expansion of digital payments, and low digital literacy as key vulnerabilities. This tests understanding of the root causes rather than just symptoms.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is the supreme audit institution established under Article 148 of the Constitution. It audits all receipts and expenditure of the central and state governments, as highlighted in the article discussing the CAG's report on Punjab's finances.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The revenue deficit was 3.79% of GSDP, exceeding the FRBM target of 3.52%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Capital expenditure was only 4.40% of total borrowings, not more than 50%. Statement 3 is correct: The CAG report notes that reverting to OPS could increase financial pressures in the long run.

Explanation

The article states that Punjab's debt-to-GSDP ratio increased to 43.72% in 2023-24. Option A (42.71%) is the ratio for 2019-20. Option C (44.27%) is the ratio when off-budget borrowings are included, which is not the standard reported figure. Option D is a distractor.

Explanation

The CAG report explicitly states that a high share of revenue expenditure (80-96% of total expenditure) leaves little room for investments in infrastructure or other capital assets that are crucial for strengthening long-term economic growth. The other options, while possible indirect consequences, are not the primary concern highlighted in the article.