18 March 2026, Questions & Answers

136 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

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This page contains 136 current affairs questions with answers from 18 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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18 March 2026, Questions with Answers

136 Qs
Q1.

Under which Article of the Constitution is a 'Constitution Bench' of the Supreme Court constituted?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 124
  • B.Article 130
  • C.Article 143✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 145
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 143 deals with the power of the President to consult the Supreme Court. However, the provision for Constitution Benches (with five or more judges) is governed by Article 145(3), which states that any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be decided by a bench of at least five judges.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Revisits 'Industry' Definition Under Industrial Relations Code 2020 →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the definition of 'industry' in Indian labour law:

1. The 'triple test' for defining an industry was laid down by the Supreme Court in the Bangalore Water Supply case (1978).

2. The Industrial Disputes (Amendment) Act, 1982, which sought to narrow the definition, was fully notified and implemented.

3. The new Industrial Relations Code, 2020, has completely replaced the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the 'triple test' was indeed established in the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply case. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1982 Amendment Act was never notified and thus did not come into effect. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, is meant to consolidate and replace the Industrial Disputes Act, it is yet to be fully implemented, as mentioned in the article.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Revisits 'Industry' Definition Under Industrial Relations Code 2020 →
Q3.

How many judges were part of the Constitution Bench that delivered the landmark Bangalore Water Supply judgment in 1978?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 Judges
  • B.7 Judges✓ Correct Answer
  • C.9 Judges
  • D.11 Judges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 1978 landmark judgment in Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board vs A Rajappa was delivered by a seven-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Revisits 'Industry' Definition Under Industrial Relations Code 2020 →
Q4.

What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's current review of the 'industry' definition?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To increase the number of cases handled by labour courts.
  • B.To determine which workplaces and employees are covered under statutory labour protections.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer labour law matters from the central government to state governments.
  • D.To introduce a new profit-motive criterion for classifying industries.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the definition of an 'industry' determines which workplaces are covered by labour law and, consequently, which employees are entitled to statutory protections regarding wages, working hours, and dismissal. This is the core legal significance of the review.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Revisits 'Industry' Definition Under Industrial Relations Code 2020 →
Q5.

Under which Ministry does the Enforcement Directorate (ED) function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • C.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) functions under the Department of Revenue, which is part of the Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws like PMLA and FEMA.

Source: SC Hears ED vs West Bengal Dispute on Article 32, PMLA Powers, and ₹2,742 Cr Coal Smuggling Case →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the legal arguments presented in the Supreme Court case concerning ED raids in Kolkata:

1. West Bengal argued that the ED, being a department of the Central government, is not a 'person' entitled to file a writ petition under Article 32.

2. The Solicitor General argued that the Chief Minister's alleged obstruction of the ED's investigation was in the larger public interest.

3. Senior advocate Kapil Sibal contended that an officer of the ED does not have a 'fundamental right' to investigate, as the power is drawn solely from the PMLA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: West Bengal's counsel argued the ED is not a 'body corporate' or a 'legal or natural person' to claim violation of fundamental rights under Article 32. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was the ED (through the Solicitor General) that argued the raids were 'in the larger public interest', not that the obstruction was. Statement 3 is correct as Kapil Sibal argued an ED officer's power to investigate is drawn from the PMLA, not from a fundamental right.

Source: SC Hears ED vs West Bengal Dispute on Article 32, PMLA Powers, and ₹2,742 Cr Coal Smuggling Case →
Q7.

According to the article, what is the estimated value of the coal smuggling case being investigated by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) in relation to the Kolkata I-PAC raids?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1,542 crore
  • B.₹2,000 crore
  • C.₹2,742 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹3,500 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ED has maintained the raids were part of an investigation into a '₹2,742-crore coal smuggling case'. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the text.

Source: SC Hears ED vs West Bengal Dispute on Article 32, PMLA Powers, and ₹2,742 Cr Coal Smuggling Case →
Q8.

What was the primary constitutional objection raised by West Bengal against the ED's petition in the Supreme Court?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.That the ED had not followed proper procedure under the PMLA.
  • B.That the ED, as an agency of the Central government, cannot invoke Article 32 to claim violation of fundamental rights by a State.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.That the Supreme Court lacks jurisdiction as the matter should first go to the High Court under Article 226.
  • D.That the petition was filed with malafide intentions to harass the state government.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument, as detailed in the article, is that the ED is an 'instrument of the Centre' and not a 'person' entitled to approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 for enforcement of fundamental rights against a State. The other options, while potential legal arguments, are not the primary constitutional objection highlighted in the news report.

Source: SC Hears ED vs West Bengal Dispute on Article 32, PMLA Powers, and ₹2,742 Cr Coal Smuggling Case →
Q9.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) mentioned as a directive principle?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 21
  • C.Article 25
  • D.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that 'the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' This is the constitutional basis for the UCC debate.

Source: Gujarat Introduces Uniform Civil Code Bill 2026, Exempts Scheduled Tribes, Sets Marriage Age at 21/18 →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill, 2026:

1. It proposes a common legal framework for marriage, divorce, and succession for all citizens of the state.

2. It makes the registration of marriages optional and does not prescribe any penalty for non-registration.

3. It does not apply to members of Scheduled Tribes whose customary rights are protected under the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill aims for a uniform framework. Statement 2 is incorrect; while registration is compulsory, non-registration does not invalidate the marriage, but penalties are prescribed for failure to register. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the Bill will not apply to Scheduled Tribes and certain groups with protected customary rights.

Source: Gujarat Introduces Uniform Civil Code Bill 2026, Exempts Scheduled Tribes, Sets Marriage Age at 21/18 →
Q11.

As per the Gujarat UCC Bill, 2026, what is the minimum age prescribed for a man to enter into a valid marriage?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18 years
  • B.20 years
  • C.21 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.23 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Bill lays down a minimum age of 21 years for men and 18 years for women for a valid marriage. This is a key data point for factual recall.

Source: Gujarat Introduces Uniform Civil Code Bill 2026, Exempts Scheduled Tribes, Sets Marriage Age at 21/18 →
Q12.

What is one of the primary constitutional challenges associated with implementing a state-level Uniform Civil Code (UCC), as highlighted by the Gujarat Bill's provisions?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It violates the right to freedom of speech and expression.
  • B.It infringes upon the financial autonomy of the states.
  • C.It conflicts with the special protections granted to Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It undermines the powers of the Election Commission of India.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Gujarat Bill's explicit exemption for Scheduled Tribes underscores a key constitutional tension. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules protect tribal customs and autonomy. A uniform code that overrides these protections could face legal challenges on grounds of violating constitutional safeguards for tribal communities.

Source: Gujarat Introduces Uniform Civil Code Bill 2026, Exempts Scheduled Tribes, Sets Marriage Age at 21/18 →
Q13.

Which national survey is the primary source for data on the prevalence and treatment gap of mental disorders in India, as discussed in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
  • B.National Mental Health Survey (NMHS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Sample Survey (NSS)
  • D.Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) Survey
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly cites data from the National Mental Health Survey (NMHS) of 2015-16 for key statistics like adult prevalence (10.6%), rural-urban divide, and the 70-92% treatment gap. NMHS is the flagship survey for mental health data in India.

Source: Rural Mental Health: NMHS Reports 70-92% Treatment Gap and 0.75 Psychiatrists per 100,000 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding rural mental health in India as per the article:

1. The National Mental Health Survey (NMHS) suggests that the lower measured prevalence in rural areas (6.9%) compared to urban areas (13.5%) likely reflects better mental health outcomes in rural settings.

2. The treatment gap for mental disorders in India, as per NMHS, ranges between 70% to 92%, indicating that most affected individuals do not receive appropriate care.

3. India's psychiatrist density is approximately 0.75 per 100,000 population, which is significantly below the often-cited benchmark of 3 per 100,000.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies that the lower rural prevalence likely reflects under-detection and under-reporting, not better outcomes. Statement 2 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the NMHS-estimated treatment gap of 70-92%. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the psychiatrist density is 0.75 per 100k, below the benchmark of 3.

Source: Rural Mental Health: NMHS Reports 70-92% Treatment Gap and 0.75 Psychiatrists per 100,000 →
Q15.

According to the National Mental Health Survey (NMHS) data cited in the article, what is the current prevalence of mental disorders among adults in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6.9%
  • B.10.6%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.13.7%
  • D.15.2%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'India’s National Mental Health Survey (NMHS) reported that 10.6% of adults live with a mental disorder.' 6.9% is the rural prevalence, 13.7% is the lifetime prevalence, and 15.2% is not mentioned.

Source: Rural Mental Health: NMHS Reports 70-92% Treatment Gap and 0.75 Psychiatrists per 100,000 →
Q16.

According to the article, what is identified as the primary reason why a rural mental health strategy cannot be built solely on increasing specialist psychiatrists?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because psychiatrists are too expensive to train and employ.
  • B.Because of the severe shortage and urban clustering of the existing psychiatric workforce.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because rural populations prefer traditional faith-based healers over psychiatrists.
  • D.Because the government has already achieved the recommended psychiatrist density through the DMHP.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that a strategy based 'on specialists alone' collapses because of the 'headline shortage' and 'distribution' problem, where psychiatrists cluster in metros. This necessitates a primary-care anchored model instead of waiting for more specialists to reach rural areas.

Source: Rural Mental Health: NMHS Reports 70-92% Treatment Gap and 0.75 Psychiatrists per 100,000 →
Q17.

The BHAVYA scheme, recently approved by the Cabinet, primarily falls under the purview of which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Schemes related to industrial development, manufacturing, and infrastructure for industries are typically under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. While the article doesn't explicitly name the ministry, this is a standard static GK linkage.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Crore BHAVYA Scheme to Develop 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks, Targeting 15 Lakh Jobs →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the BHAVYA scheme:

1. It has an outlay of ₹33,660 crore for developing industrial infrastructure.

2. Under the scheme, financial support will be provided at a flat rate of ₹1 crore per industrial park.

3. The scheme is expected to generate about 15 lakh direct employment opportunities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the financial support is up to ₹1 crore per acre, not per park. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Crore BHAVYA Scheme to Develop 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks, Targeting 15 Lakh Jobs →
Q19.

What is the total financial outlay approved by the Cabinet for the BHAVYA scheme?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹30,000 crore
  • B.₹33,660 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹35,000 crore
  • D.₹40,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Cabinet approved ₹33,660 crore for the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA). The other options are close distractors.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Crore BHAVYA Scheme to Develop 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks, Targeting 15 Lakh Jobs →
Q20.

What is a key feature of the industrial parks to be developed under the BHAVYA scheme?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They will be exclusively for micro and small enterprises.
  • B.They will be developed as 'plug-and-play' ready infrastructure.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They will focus solely on export-oriented units.
  • D.They will be built only in special economic zones.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the scheme aims to develop 'plug-and-play industrial parks'. This means providing pre-built infrastructure to reduce setup time for industries, which is the scheme's core operational feature.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Crore BHAVYA Scheme to Develop 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks, Targeting 15 Lakh Jobs →
Q21.

Which cabinet committee approved the ₹6,969 crore NH-927 highway project in Uttar Pradesh?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
  • B.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Cabinet Committee on Security
  • D.Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)' approved the construction of the 4-lane highway. The CCEA is the nodal body for reviewing and approving major economic projects.

Source: CCEA Approves ₹6,969 Cr NH-927 Barabanki-Bahraich 4-Lane Project Under HAM to Boost India-Nepal Trade →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved Barabanki-Bahraich highway project:

1. The project involves the construction of a 4-lane access-controlled highway on National Highway 927.

2. The total project cost is equally divided between civil construction and land acquisition.

3. Upon completion, the project will establish a trade corridor with Nepal via the Rupaidiha Land Port.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the civil cost is ₹3,485.49 crore and land acquisition cost is ₹1,574.85 crore, which are not equal. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the project will strategically establish a vital cross-border trade corridor with Nepal via the Rupaidiha Land Port.

Source: CCEA Approves ₹6,969 Cr NH-927 Barabanki-Bahraich 4-Lane Project Under HAM to Boost India-Nepal Trade →
Q23.

What is the total estimated employment generation (direct and indirect combined) in person-days from the Barabanki-Bahraich highway project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 65 lakh person-days
  • B.Approximately 72 lakh person-days
  • C.Approximately 79.58 lakh person-days✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Approximately 85 lakh person-days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the project would generate 36.54 lakhs person-days (direct) and 43.04 lakh person-days (indirect). Adding these gives 79.58 lakh person-days. The other options are close distractors.

Source: CCEA Approves ₹6,969 Cr NH-927 Barabanki-Bahraich 4-Lane Project Under HAM to Boost India-Nepal Trade →
Q24.

What is a primary strategic objective of upgrading the Barabanki-Bahraich section of NH-927 into a 4-lane access-controlled highway?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce air pollution in the National Capital Region
  • B.To create a dedicated corridor for passenger vehicle traffic
  • C.To enhance multi-modal integration and cross-border trade with Nepal✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To serve as a bypass for the city of Lucknow
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly highlights that the project will enhance multi-modal integration by connecting with economic and logistic nodes and will establish a vital cross-border trade and transit corridor between India and Nepal via the Rupaidiha Land Port. This is its primary strategic objective.

Source: CCEA Approves ₹6,969 Cr NH-927 Barabanki-Bahraich 4-Lane Project Under HAM to Boost India-Nepal Trade →
Q25.

Which government mission is primarily responsible for driving semiconductor manufacturing investments in India, as mentioned in the report?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Make in India Mission
  • B.India Semiconductor Mission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Mission on Quantum Technologies
  • D.National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the sector's growth is 'Supported by the government's India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)'. This mission falls under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and is the nodal body for the semiconductor scheme.

Source: Semiconductor Market to Hit $300bn by 2035 with 60% Local Production, India Semiconductor Mission Drives $19bn Investment →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding India's semiconductor sector as per the Deloitte report:

1. The market is estimated at $45-50 billion in FY2024-25 and has been growing at a CAGR of 20%.

2. Local production is expected to meet more than 70% of domestic semiconductor demand by the end of 2035.

3. The sector is forecast to provide approximately two million employment opportunities by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'India's semiconductor market is estimated at $45-50 billion in FY2024-25 and has been growing at a CAGR of 20%...'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target is 'more than 60%', not 70%. Statement 3 is correct: 'The industry is forecast to provide approximately two million employment opportunities by 2035.'

Source: Semiconductor Market to Hit $300bn by 2035 with 60% Local Production, India Semiconductor Mission Drives $19bn Investment →
Q27.

According to the Deloitte report, what is the projected size of India's semiconductor market by the year 2030?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$80 billion
  • B.$100 billion
  • C.$120 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$150 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report specifically states: 'The market is predicted to reach $120 billion by 2030...'. The other options are plausible distractors, with $100bn and $150bn being common rounded figures, and $80bn being a lower estimate.

Source: Semiconductor Market to Hit $300bn by 2035 with 60% Local Production, India Semiconductor Mission Drives $19bn Investment →
Q28.

What is a primary strategic objective highlighted for India's semiconductor policy, as inferred from the report's recommendations?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To provide short-term fiscal incentives for quick market entry
  • B.To evolve into a structurally embedded national programme for long-term certainty✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To focus exclusively on attracting foreign direct investment (FDI)
  • D.To prioritize exports over meeting domestic demand
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report recommends that 'the policy environment must evolve from a time-bound incentive scheme into a structurally embedded national programme to ensure funding certainty beyond annual budget cycles.' This indicates the strategic need for policy stability and long-term commitment, which is the core objective for sustainable growth in this capital-intensive sector.

Source: Semiconductor Market to Hit $300bn by 2035 with 60% Local Production, India Semiconductor Mission Drives $19bn Investment →
Q29.

As per the news, which ministry is currently the final signing-off agency for issuing content blocking orders to social media platforms under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the power to issue final blocking orders under Section 69(A) is currently only available to the IT Ministry (Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology). Other ministries send requests, but the IT Ministry is the final agency.

Source: India Opposes WTO Permanent E-transmission Moratorium, Supreme Court Grants 12 Weeks Maternity Leave for Adoptive Mothers, India Condemns Pakistan Airstrike in Afghanistan →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the news:

1. The Supreme Court read down a provision limiting maternity leave for adoptive mothers to cases where the child is below three months old.

2. India supports the US-led proposal at the WTO for a permanent moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions.

3. The Durand Line dispute is a primary factor in the recent escalation of conflict between Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC read down Section 60(4) of the Social Security Code 2020 which had a three-month age limit. Statement 2 is incorrect: India OPPOSES the permanent moratorium. Statement 3 is correct: The article details how skirmishes along the Durand Line have escalated and it is a historical wound for Pashtuns.

Source: India Opposes WTO Permanent E-transmission Moratorium, Supreme Court Grants 12 Weeks Maternity Leave for Adoptive Mothers, India Condemns Pakistan Airstrike in Afghanistan →
Q31.

According to the article, what is the estimated annual loss in tax revenue for India due to the moratorium on customs duties for electronic transmissions?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$500 million
  • B.$750 million
  • C.$1 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$1.5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Experts say that India loses about $1 billion in tax revenue annually by foregoing duty on e-transmission.' The other figures are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: India Opposes WTO Permanent E-transmission Moratorium, Supreme Court Grants 12 Weeks Maternity Leave for Adoptive Mothers, India Condemns Pakistan Airstrike in Afghanistan →
Q32.

What was the primary constitutional rationale used by the Supreme Court to grant maternity leave to adoptive mothers irrespective of the child's age?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Right to Equality under Article 14
  • B.Right to Reproductive Autonomy under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 39
  • D.Right against Exploitation under Article 23
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Supreme Court stating that 'the right of reproductive autonomy is not confined to the biological act of giving birth. Adoption is an equal exercise of the right to reproductive and decisional autonomy under Article 21 of the Constitution.' While Article 14 was also cited, the core rationale was based on Article 21.

Source: India Opposes WTO Permanent E-transmission Moratorium, Supreme Court Grants 12 Weeks Maternity Leave for Adoptive Mothers, India Condemns Pakistan Airstrike in Afghanistan →
Q33.

According to the article, which Indian institution provided the estimate for the country's platform workforce in 2020-21?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • B.International Labour Organization (ILO)
  • C.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a NITI Aayog report estimated 7.7 million platform workers in India in 2020-21. The ILO provided the global estimate of 400 million workers.

Source: Digital Platform Workers in India Estimated at 7.7 Million in 2020-21, Projected to Reach 23.5 Million by 2029-30: NITI Aayog Report →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding digital labour as discussed in the article:

1. The International Labour Organization (ILO) estimates over 400 million workers are engaged in platform-based work globally.

2. Digital labour refers only to paid freelance work and excludes unpaid tasks like data annotation.

3. A key concern with digital work is that algorithmic management can treat workers as substitutable parts, potentially leading to deskilling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the ILO estimate mentioned. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article defines digital labour as including both paid and unpaid work. Statement 3 is correct, as the article discusses how digital systems can treat workers as substitutable, executing narrowly defined tasks with minimal training.

Source: Digital Platform Workers in India Estimated at 7.7 Million in 2020-21, Projected to Reach 23.5 Million by 2029-30: NITI Aayog Report →
Q35.

As per the NITI Aayog report cited in the article, what is the projected size of India's gig workforce by the year 2029-30?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.15.2 million
  • B.20.1 million
  • C.23.5 million✓ Correct Answer
  • D.28.0 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that NITI Aayog forecasts India's gig workforce to be 23.5 million by 2029-30. The other options are plausible distractors but not the specific figure mentioned.

Source: Digital Platform Workers in India Estimated at 7.7 Million in 2020-21, Projected to Reach 23.5 Million by 2029-30: NITI Aayog Report →
Q36.

What is a primary socio-economic concern raised in the article regarding the growth of digital platform work?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It leads to an immediate decrease in overall employment rates.
  • B.It necessitates continuous skill upgrading but can simultaneously lead to worker deskilling and alienation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It results in a significant reduction in government tax revenue from corporate sectors.
  • D.It primarily benefits rural agricultural workers over urban service providers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights this contradiction: digital work requires higher education and mental effort, yet the routine nature of tasks and algorithmic control can reduce skills and autonomy, making workers feel detached. The other options are not supported as primary concerns in the text.

Source: Digital Platform Workers in India Estimated at 7.7 Million in 2020-21, Projected to Reach 23.5 Million by 2029-30: NITI Aayog Report →
Q37.

The BHAVYA scheme for industrial parks will be implemented by which nodal corporation under DPIIT?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  • B.National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation Limited (NICDC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
  • D.Infrastructure Development Finance Company (IDFC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation Limited (NICDC), under DPIIT, is spearheading the development, including the BHAVYA scheme. NHAI deals with highways, SIDBI with small industries financing, and IDFC is an infrastructure finance company.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Cr BHAVYA Scheme for 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks Under DPIIT →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the BHAVYA scheme:

1. It aims to develop 100 plug-and-play industrial parks with an outlay of ₹33,660 crore.

2. Financial support under the scheme is limited to a maximum of ₹50 lakh per acre of developed land.

3. The scheme will be implemented across all states and Union Territories of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the financial support is up to ₹1 crore per acre, not ₹50 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as the Minister stated it will be implemented across all states and UTs. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Cr BHAVYA Scheme for 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks Under DPIIT →
Q39.

What is the total financial outlay approved by the Cabinet for the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹30,000 crore
  • B.₹33,000 crore
  • C.₹33,660 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹35,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the approved amount is ₹33,660 crore. The headline mentions ₹33,000 crore, but the body text provides the precise figure of ₹33,660 crore, which is the correct data point. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Cr BHAVYA Scheme for 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks Under DPIIT →
Q40.

What is a primary objective of the BHAVYA scheme's 'plug-and-play' model for industrial parks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through land leasing
  • B.To reduce entry barriers and setup time for investors✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To exclusively promote small-scale cottage industries
  • D.To replace all existing industrial clusters in the country
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated by the Minister in the article, with 'pre-approved land, ready infrastructure, and integrated services, BHAVYA will significantly reduce entry barriers for investors.' The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives; the scheme aims to attract a broad range of manufacturing investments, not just cottage industries.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹33,660 Cr BHAVYA Scheme for 100 Plug-and-Play Industrial Parks Under DPIIT →
Q41.

Which United Nations body established the Independent International Commission of Inquiry on Ukraine mentioned in the report?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • B.United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
  • C.United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the commission was established by the United Nations Human Rights Council through a resolution adopted on March 4, 2022. The UNHRC is the primary UN body responsible for human rights investigations.

Source: UN Commission Finds Russia's Deportation of 1,205 Ukrainian Children and Killing of 15,172 Civilians Constitute Crimes Against Humanity →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the UN Commission's report on Ukraine:

1. The report concluded that Russian authorities have committed crimes against humanity, including deportation and enforced disappearance of children.

2. The commission verified that over 90% of the deported Ukrainian children have been reunited with their families.

3. The commission was chaired by Norwegian judge Erik Møse and included Indian human rights lawyer Vrinda Grover.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report highlights crimes against humanity of deportation and enforced disappearance. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report notes 80% of the children have NOT been returned. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists Erik Møse as Chair and Vrinda Grover as a member.

Source: UN Commission Finds Russia's Deportation of 1,205 Ukrainian Children and Killing of 15,172 Civilians Constitute Crimes Against Humanity →
Q43.

According to the UN Commission of Inquiry report, what is the verified number of civilian deaths in Ukraine since the Russian invasion?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10,500
  • B.15,172✓ Correct Answer
  • C.18,240
  • D.22,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report found 'over 15,000 civilians were killed' and the headline gives the precise figure of 15,172. The other options are plausible but incorrect numbers not mentioned in the report.

Source: UN Commission Finds Russia's Deportation of 1,205 Ukrainian Children and Killing of 15,172 Civilians Constitute Crimes Against Humanity →
Q44.

What was the primary legal characterization by the UN Commission of Russia's transfer of Ukrainian children, presented as 'evacuations'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.A humanitarian intervention compliant with international law.
  • B.A temporary protective measure for children's safety.
  • C.A war crime but not a crime against humanity.
  • D.The crimes against humanity of deportation and forcible transfer.✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report concluded these actions constitute crimes against humanity, specifically deportation and forcible transfer, as they were not temporary and lacked consent, thus violating international humanitarian law. It explicitly rejects the 'evacuation' label.

Source: UN Commission Finds Russia's Deportation of 1,205 Ukrainian Children and Killing of 15,172 Civilians Constitute Crimes Against Humanity →
Q45.

Which regional organisation, mentioned in the article, includes both China and Iran as members?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
  • B.Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
  • C.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the SCO as one of the regional and global forums where China's support is crucial for Iran. The SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance whose members include China, Russia, and Iran.

Source: China-Iran 25-Year $400 Billion Strategic Pact 2021; China Avoids West Asia War Amid Taiwan Unification Priority →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding China's strategy towards Iran as per the article:

1. China views Iran as a strategic asset to counter US dominance in West Asia and secure discounted oil.

2. China has provided direct military assistance to Iran in its conflict with the US-Israel alliance.

3. A key reason for China's non-intervention is its higher priority on the unification of Taiwan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's threefold explanation of China's strategy. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states China has NOT provided military assistance, maintaining a strategic distance. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies Taiwan unification as a core priority that outweighs involvement in the Iran war.

Source: China-Iran 25-Year $400 Billion Strategic Pact 2021; China Avoids West Asia War Amid Taiwan Unification Priority →
Q47.

According to the article, what was the value of the bilateral trade between China and Iran in the year 2024?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$13 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • B.$24 billion
  • C.$257 billion
  • D.$400 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides specific trade data: Sino-Iranian bilateral trade totaled $13 billion in 2024. The $24 billion figure is for China-Israel trade, $257 billion is for China-Gulf trade, and $400 billion is the value of the 2021 strategic pact, not annual trade.

Source: China-Iran 25-Year $400 Billion Strategic Pact 2021; China Avoids West Asia War Amid Taiwan Unification Priority →
Q48.

What is described in the article as a primary strategic advantage for China if the US remains deeply engaged in the Middle East conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It allows China to seize control of the Strait of Hormuz.
  • B.It enables China to replace the US as Iran's primary military ally.
  • C.It diverts US attention and resources away from the Indo-Pacific region.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It forces the Gulf countries to reduce their oil prices for China.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's analysis states that a prolonged conflict imposes high costs on Washington and diverts its attention away from the Indo-Pacific. This diversion is seen as a strategic advantage for China, allowing it to enhance its military capabilities and regional influence in East Asia.

Source: China-Iran 25-Year $400 Billion Strategic Pact 2021; China Avoids West Asia War Amid Taiwan Unification Priority →
Q49.

The office memorandum extending the domestic sourcing mandate to solar wafers and ingots was issued by which Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Power
  • B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the office memorandum was issued by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). MNRE is the nodal ministry for all policies related to renewable energy in India.

Source: MNRE Extends Domestic Sourcing Mandate to Solar Wafers & Ingots from June 2028 to Curb $1.64 Billion Imports →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding India's solar manufacturing and the recent policy:

1. The domestic sourcing mandate for solar wafers and ingots will apply to all projects from June 2024.

2. India's installed manufacturing capacity for solar ingots and wafers is significantly higher than its capacity for solar modules.

3. The Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) for wafers will be notified only after at least three independent manufacturing units with a combined capacity of 15 GW are available.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The mandate for wafers and ingots begins in June 2028, not 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: India's ingot/wafer capacity is only around 2 GW, which is far lower than its 172 GW module capacity. Statement 3 is correct as per the MNRE memorandum mentioned in the article.

Source: MNRE Extends Domestic Sourcing Mandate to Solar Wafers & Ingots from June 2028 to Curb $1.64 Billion Imports →
Q51.

As per data provided by MNRE in Parliament, what was the approximate value of India's imports of solar PV cells, wafers, and polysilicon during FY25?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Around $500 million
  • B.Around $1 billion
  • C.Around $1.64 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Around $2.5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that imports of solar PV cells, wafers and polysilicon during FY25 were valued at around $1,641 million, which is approximately $1.64 billion. This highlights the significant import dependency the new policy aims to address.

Source: MNRE Extends Domestic Sourcing Mandate to Solar Wafers & Ingots from June 2028 to Curb $1.64 Billion Imports →
Q52.

What is the primary objective behind the government's extension of the domestic sourcing mandate to solar wafers and ingots?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To immediately reduce the cost of solar power generation for consumers
  • B.To reduce import dependence and build a vertically integrated domestic solar manufacturing ecosystem✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To phase out all existing solar power projects that use imported components
  • D.To centralize all solar equipment manufacturing under a single public sector unit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the aim is to 'reduce heavy import dependence' and 'boost domestic manufacturing,' specifically targeting the upstream segments (wafers, ingots) where India's capacity is currently minimal. This aligns with the broader strategic goal of creating a complete domestic value chain (vertical integration) for solar equipment.

Source: MNRE Extends Domestic Sourcing Mandate to Solar Wafers & Ingots from June 2028 to Curb $1.64 Billion Imports →
Q53.

Under which Article of the Constitution do High Courts possess the writ jurisdiction used in this case to grant relief?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 136
  • C.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and 'for any other purpose'. The Chhattisgarh HC used this inherent power under Article 226 to grant equitable relief (9% interest) in the absence of a statutory provision.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Affirms Pension as Right, Orders 9% Interest on 30-Year Delayed Retiral Benefits →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment:

1. The court held that pension is a bounty that can be withheld at the state's discretion.

2. The court awarded interest citing a specific statutory provision in the Pension Rules mandating such payment.

3. The court emphasized that administrative delays cannot deprive an employee's family of rightful dues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court held pension is NOT a bounty but a valuable right. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court granted interest using its inherent equitable powers under writ jurisdiction, noting the ABSENCE of a statutory provision. Statement 3 is correct as per the court's observation that administrative inefficiency cannot operate to the detriment of the retired employee's family.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Affirms Pension as Right, Orders 9% Interest on 30-Year Delayed Retiral Benefits →
Q55.

What annual rate of interest did the Chhattisgarh High Court uphold for the delayed retiral benefits in this case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6% per annum
  • B.9% per annum✓ Correct Answer
  • C.12% per annum
  • D.15% per annum
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Chhattisgarh High Court, in its judgment dated March 17, 2026, dismissed the state's appeal and upheld the single judge's order directing payment of interest at the rate of 9% per annum on the delayed pensionary dues.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Affirms Pension as Right, Orders 9% Interest on 30-Year Delayed Retiral Benefits →
Q56.

What was the primary legal ground used by the Chhattisgarh High Court to justify awarding interest despite no statutory provision?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Strict interpretation of the Pension Rules
  • B.Inherent powers of writ courts based on equity and fairness✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A directive from the Supreme Court
  • D.An amendment to the Payment of Wages Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court clarified that writ courts have inherent powers to grant relief based on equity, fairness, and justice. It held that the state retained money due for decades, and interest is a legitimate compensatory mechanism for such deprivation, even in the absence of an explicit statutory mandate.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Affirms Pension as Right, Orders 9% Interest on 30-Year Delayed Retiral Benefits →
Q57.

Under which article of the Constitution did the petitioners approach the Supreme Court in the Barabanki lawyers' violence case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 21
  • B.Article 32✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 226
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The petitioners filed a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution, which grants the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.

Source: SC Grants Bail, Transfers Trial to Delhi Under Article 32 Citing Violation of Article 21 in Barabanki Lawyer Violence →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment in the Barabanki lawyers' case:

1. The Court held that the denial of bail to the toll workers violated their right under Article 21.

2. The Bar Council of Uttar Pradesh supported the petitioners' request for bail.

3. The Supreme Court transferred the trial from Uttar Pradesh to a court in Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court held denial of bail violated Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bar Council of UP wrote to the Chief Minister requesting invocation of NSA against the petitioners. Statement 3 is incorrect; the trial was transferred to Tis Hazari Courts in New Delhi, not Mumbai.

Source: SC Grants Bail, Transfers Trial to Delhi Under Article 32 Citing Violation of Article 21 in Barabanki Lawyer Violence →
Q59.

On which date did the incident at the Gotona Bara Toll Plaza in Barabanki, which led to the Supreme Court case, occur?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 14, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.February 5, 2026
  • C.March 17, 2026
  • D.January 16, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the case arose from an incident on January 14, 2026, at the Gotona Bara Toll Plaza. February 5 is when an advocate filed the bail application, March 17 is when the SC made observations, and January 16 is when the petitioners were arrested.

Source: SC Grants Bail, Transfers Trial to Delhi Under Article 32 Citing Violation of Article 21 in Barabanki Lawyer Violence →
Q60.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for transferring the trial of the Barabanki toll workers to Delhi?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the backlog of cases in Uttar Pradesh courts
  • B.To ensure a fair trial and access to legal representation for the accused✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To set a precedent for trying all toll-related disputes centrally
  • D.To conduct the trial under the direct supervision of the Supreme Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly transferred the case to Tis Hazari Courts, New Delhi, 'to ensure fair trial and access to legal representation' as local lawyers in Barabanki were intimidating and refusing to represent the accused.

Source: SC Grants Bail, Transfers Trial to Delhi Under Article 32 Citing Violation of Article 21 in Barabanki Lawyer Violence →
Q61.

The US national and six Ukrainians were arrested by which central investigation agency under the UAPA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
  • C.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the individuals are in the custody of the National Investigation Agency (NIA). The NIA is India's premier counter-terrorism agency established under the NIA Act, 2008.

Source: NIA Arrests US National & 6 Ukrainians Under UAPA for Conspiracy to Train Myanmar EAGs in Drone Warfare →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent arrests made by the NIA:

1. The arrested individuals include one US national and six citizens of Ukraine.

2. They were produced before a magistrate who sent them to three days of custody, later extended until March 27.

3. The group is accused of conspiring to train Ethnic Armed Groups (EAGs) in Myanmar in conventional infantry tactics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the magistrate initially sent them to three days' custody, which was later extended until March 27. Statement 3 is incorrect; the group is accused of training EAGs specifically in 'drone warfare, drone operations, assembly and jamming technology', not conventional infantry tactics.

Source: NIA Arrests US National & 6 Ukrainians Under UAPA for Conspiracy to Train Myanmar EAGs in Drone Warfare →
Q63.

Under which specific section of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act have the seven individuals been arrested?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 16 (Punishment for terrorist act)
  • B.Section 18 (Punishment for conspiracy)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 20 (Being member of terrorist gang)
  • D.Section 38 (Offence relating to membership of a terrorist organisation)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's last paragraph clearly states the arrests were made under 'Section 18 (punishment for being part of a terrorist conspiracy) of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)'. This section deals specifically with conspiracy to commit a terrorist act.

Source: NIA Arrests US National & 6 Ukrainians Under UAPA for Conspiracy to Train Myanmar EAGs in Drone Warfare →
Q64.

What is the alleged primary objective of the group's activities in Myanmar, as per the NIA's FIR mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide humanitarian aid to Rohingya refugees.
  • B.To conduct pre-scheduled training for Myanmar-based Ethnic Armed Groups (EAGs).✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To broker a peace deal between the Myanmar Junta and ethnic rebels.
  • D.To document human rights violations in the conflict zone.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that according to the NIA's FIR, the group crossed into Myanmar with the intention of carrying out a 'pre-scheduled training for Myanmar-based Ethnic Armed Groups (EAGs)'. The other options are not mentioned in the article's description of the allegations.

Source: NIA Arrests US National & 6 Ukrainians Under UAPA for Conspiracy to Train Myanmar EAGs in Drone Warfare →
Q65.

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Fundamental Rights (Part III)
  • B.Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)
  • D.The Union (Part V)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code is enshrined in Article 44, which falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution. These principles are not enforceable by courts but are fundamental in governance.

Source: SC Bench Observes Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as Answer to Gender Bias in Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court observation was made by a three-judge Bench.

2. The plea being examined challenges the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986.

3. The Court observed that a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) could address gender bias in inheritance laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a three-judge Bench led by CJI Surya Kant. Statement 2 is incorrect; the plea challenges the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, not the 1986 Act. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of the UCC observation. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: SC Bench Observes Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as Answer to Gender Bias in Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 →
Q67.

Which specific Act is being challenged in the Supreme Court plea mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Hindu Succession Act, 1956
  • B.The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Special Marriage Act, 1954
  • D.The Indian Succession Act, 1925
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the plea challenges the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, arguing it results in unequal inheritance for women. The other acts govern other communities or are general laws.

Source: SC Bench Observes Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as Answer to Gender Bias in Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 →
Q68.

What is the primary constitutional significance of the Supreme Court's observation in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It establishes a new tax regime for religious institutions.
  • B.It directly amends the procedure for appointing High Court judges.
  • C.It highlights the tension between the right to equality and the right to religious freedom.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It mandates the immediate implementation of the Uniform Civil Code.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core issue is whether personal religious laws that treat genders differently violate the fundamental right to equality (Article 14). The Court's observation on the UCC brings this conflict between equality (Article 14) and religious freedom (Article 25) into sharp focus, which is a recurring theme in Indian constitutional law.

Source: SC Bench Observes Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as Answer to Gender Bias in Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 →
Q69.

Which Indian organizations served as the lead agencies for BRICS STI cooperation during India's chairmanship, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • B.Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and Department of Biotechnology (DBT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that during India's chairmanship, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) serve as the lead agencies for coordinating BRICS STI activities.

Source: BRICS+ STI Cooperation: 2025 AI Declaration, 2015 MoU Pillar, 2026 India Presidency Theme 'Building for Resilience' →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) cooperation:

1. Cooperation in STI was formally recognized in the BRICS agenda in 2011.

2. A Memorandum of Understanding in 2020 established STI as a core strategic pillar for the grouping.

3. The BRICS Technology Transfer Centre (TTC) has made progress in creating policy frameworks for cross-border technology commercialisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Cooperation in STI has been a part of the BRICS agenda since its early years. It was formally recognised in 2011.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the pivotal MoU that established STI as a core strategic pillar was signed in 2015, not 2020. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'The TTC has made notable progress in creating policy frameworks and institutional links for cross-border technology commercialisation.'

Source: BRICS+ STI Cooperation: 2025 AI Declaration, 2015 MoU Pillar, 2026 India Presidency Theme 'Building for Resilience' →
Q71.

According to the article, what is the theme for India's BRICS Presidency in 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Building a Shared Future in the Digital Age
  • B.Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Partnership for Global Recovery and Sustainable Development
  • D.Fostering a Secure and Innovative Future
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Under India’s 2026 Presidency, with the theme ‘Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability’...' The other options are plausible but generic distractors not mentioned in the text.

Source: BRICS+ STI Cooperation: 2025 AI Declaration, 2015 MoU Pillar, 2026 India Presidency Theme 'Building for Resilience' →
Q72.

What is identified in the article as a primary structural challenge for deepening BRICS STI cooperation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of interest from member countries in fundamental science
  • B.Over-reliance on funding from Western nations
  • C.Absence of a permanent secretariat to manage long-term collaboration✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Excessive focus on commercialisation over basic research
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's 'Way forward' section highlights that 'the lack of a permanent mechanism to manage STI cooperation' is a primary concern. The current system of annual presidential rotation is deemed unsuitable for long-term needs, leading to suggestions for a central secretariat modeled on the EU's Horizon Programme.

Source: BRICS+ STI Cooperation: 2025 AI Declaration, 2015 MoU Pillar, 2026 India Presidency Theme 'Building for Resilience' →
Q73.

The United Nations report on displacement in the West Bank was released by which specific UN office?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • B.United Nations Human Rights Office (OHCHR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  • D.United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report was issued by the 'U.N. human rights office' and mentions its office is based in Geneva, which is the headquarters of the Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR).

Source: UN Report: 36,000 Palestinians Displaced in West Bank by Israeli Settlements, 1,732 Settler Attacks in 12 Months to Oct 2025 →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the UN report on the West Bank:

1. The report covered a period of 12 months ending on October 31, 2025.

2. It stated that Israeli settlement expansion and associated violence forcibly displaced more than 36,000 Palestinians.

3. The report concluded that the scale of displacement amounted to a definitive act of genocide under international law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'report covering 12 months to October 31, 2025'. Statement 2 is correct: 'More than 36,000 Palestinians... were forcibly displaced... by Israeli settlement expansion and associated violence'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the report said the displacement 'could amount to "ethnic cleansing"', not 'genocide', which is a distinct legal term.

Source: UN Report: 36,000 Palestinians Displaced in West Bank by Israeli Settlements, 1,732 Settler Attacks in 12 Months to Oct 2025 →
Q75.

According to the UN report mentioned in the article, what was the number of settler attack incidents against Palestinians in the West Bank during the reporting period?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,400
  • B.1,600
  • C.1,732✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1,850
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Settler attacks rose to 1,732 incidents, from 1,400 in the previous reporting period'. The number 1,400 is a distractor from the previous period, while 1,732 is the correct figure for the period covered by the report (12 months to Oct 2025).

Source: UN Report: 36,000 Palestinians Displaced in West Bank by Israeli Settlements, 1,732 Settler Attacks in 12 Months to Oct 2025 →
Q76.

What is the primary strategic implication of the accelerated Israeli settlement expansion in the West Bank, as highlighted in the news report?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It boosts agricultural production in the arid region.
  • B.It fragments Palestinian territory, undermining the feasibility of a two-state solution.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It enhances regional security cooperation between Israel and Arab states.
  • D.It facilitates the implementation of the Oslo Accords.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links settlement expansion to the fragmentation of land intended for a future Palestinian state. It states: 'successive Israeli governments have expanded settlements rapidly, fragmenting the land', which is central to plans for a Palestinian state. This is the core geopolitical implication, not agricultural or security cooperation benefits.

Source: UN Report: 36,000 Palestinians Displaced in West Bank by Israeli Settlements, 1,732 Settler Attacks in 12 Months to Oct 2025 →
Q77.

As per the article, which body sets the guidelines for the university affiliation system in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
  • B.University Grants Commission (UGC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
  • D.Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that universities conduct affiliation for colleges in accordance with the University Grants Commission (UGC) guidelines. The UGC is the statutory body responsible for maintaining standards in higher education.

Source: NEP 2020 Proposes Phasing Out University Affiliation System Over 15 Years to Grant Autonomy to Colleges →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020's proposal for the affiliation system:

1. It proposes to phase out the university affiliation system over a period of 15 years.

2. It suggests that universities should act as mentors to help affiliated colleges achieve self-reliance.

3. It mandates that all affiliated colleges must follow a uniform national curriculum designed by the UGC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Teaching
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. NEP 2020 proposes a 15-year phase-out and a mentorship role for universities. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article criticizes the rigidity of the current uniform curriculum and proposes autonomy for colleges to design their own courses.

Source: NEP 2020 Proposes Phasing Out University Affiliation System Over 15 Years to Grant Autonomy to Colleges →
Q79.

According to the National Education Policy 2020, over what period is the university affiliation system proposed to be phased out?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 years
  • B.10 years
  • C.15 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the objective of NEP 2020 is to phase out the affiliation system over a period of 15 years through a process of graded autonomy. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: NEP 2020 Proposes Phasing Out University Affiliation System Over 15 Years to Grant Autonomy to Colleges →
Q80.

What is a primary expected benefit of phasing out the university affiliation system, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.To centralize control of curriculum design with the central government.
  • B.To reduce the financial burden on state governments for higher education.
  • C.To grant colleges autonomy to design courses aligned with local or industrial needs.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To standardize examination patterns across all universities in India.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies the lack of autonomy as a key challenge, where colleges cannot design their own courses. The proposed reform aims to empower colleges with the freedom to innovate and tailor education to market trends and local needs, moving away from rigid uniformity.

Source: NEP 2020 Proposes Phasing Out University Affiliation System Over 15 Years to Grant Autonomy to Colleges →
Q81.

Which international organization's physical activity guidelines are referenced in the Lancet study on climate change and inactivity?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Health Organization (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • C.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
  • D.International Labour Organization (ILO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the WHO guidelines for weekly exercise, recommending at least 150 minutes of moderate or 75 minutes of vigorous activity for adults. The study uses this as a baseline to measure the impact of climate change on physical activity levels.

Source: Climate-Driven Inactivity to Cause 0.7 Million Annual Deaths, $3.68 Billion Loss by 2050: Lancet Study →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Lancet study on climate change and physical inactivity:

1. The study analysed data from 156 countries between 2000 and 2022.

2. It projects that by 2050, climate-driven inactivity could lead to additional annual productivity losses of up to USD 5 billion.

3. For India, the study projects an attributable mortality rate of 10.62 deaths per 100,000 population by 2050 under the analysed scenarios.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the projected productivity loss is Intl$ 3.68 billion (not USD 5 billion). Statement 3 is correct as the article states India's projected mortality rate is 10.62 deaths per 100,000 population. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Climate-Driven Inactivity to Cause 0.7 Million Annual Deaths, $3.68 Billion Loss by 2050: Lancet Study →
Q83.

According to the Lancet study, what is the projected increase in global physical inactivity percentage points for each additional month with an average temperature above 27.8 degrees Celsius?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1.0 percentage point
  • B.1.5 percentage points✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2.0 percentage points
  • D.1.85 percentage points
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the model suggests each month above 27.8°C would increase physical inactivity by 1.5 percentage points globally. The value 1.85 percentage points is the increase specific to low- and middle-income countries, making it a close distractor.

Source: Climate-Driven Inactivity to Cause 0.7 Million Annual Deaths, $3.68 Billion Loss by 2050: Lancet Study →
Q84.

What is the primary recommendation of the Lancet study to address the threat of heat-driven physical inactivity?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Treat physical inactivity primarily as a discretionary lifestyle choice for public awareness campaigns.
  • B.Treat physical inactivity as a climate-sensitive necessity and integrate heat-risk messages into guidelines.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Focus exclusively on building large indoor stadiums and gyms in tropical countries.
  • D.Mandate a global reduction in working hours to encourage outdoor activity.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study's core policy argument, as stated in the article, is that 'physical inactivity needs to be treated as a climate-sensitive necessity, rather than a discretionary lifestyle choice.' This foundational shift informs other recommendations like integrating heat-risk messages into exercise guidelines.

Source: Climate-Driven Inactivity to Cause 0.7 Million Annual Deaths, $3.68 Billion Loss by 2050: Lancet Study →
Q85.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the estimation and publication of India's GDP data?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

MoSPI is the nodal ministry for national statistics, including the calculation of GDP, through institutions like the National Statistical Office (NSO). The RBI analyses this data for monetary policy.

Source: MoSPI Defends GDP Methodology Against Peterson Institute Paper, Cites Feb 2026 Revision & GST-Era Formalisation →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the debate on India's GDP estimation:

1. A recent critique argues that using CPI as a deflator instead of WPI would be more appropriate for GDP calculation.

2. The informal sector's share in Gross Value Added (GVA) is argued to be around 44%, which has sharply diverged from the formal sector post-2015.

3. The 2017-18 Economic Survey, using GST data, found that firms within the GST net accounted for nearly 80% of total economic turnover.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The critique argues against using WPI, but the rebuttal states WPI is conceptually closer to the internationally recommended Producer Price Index (PPI), not that CPI is better. Statements 2 and 3 are directly mentioned in the article as claims from the paper and the Economic Survey respectively.

Source: MoSPI Defends GDP Methodology Against Peterson Institute Paper, Cites Feb 2026 Revision & GST-Era Formalisation →
Q87.

According to the 2017-18 Economic Survey cited in the article, what percentage of total economic turnover was accounted for by firms within the GST net?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.44%
  • B.60%
  • C.80%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.87%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Chapter 2 of the Economic Survey 2017-18 found firms within the GST net accounted for nearly 80% of total economic turnover. 87% is the share of firms by number that were informal, and 44% is the paper's claimed share of informal sector in GVA.

Source: MoSPI Defends GDP Methodology Against Peterson Institute Paper, Cites Feb 2026 Revision & GST-Era Formalisation →
Q88.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for the official statisticians' use of WPI-based deflators and formal-sector corporate data in GDP estimation historically?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To deliberately overestimate economic growth figures.
  • B.Due to the structural limitations in data availability for the informal sector and a comprehensive Producer Price Index.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because these metrics are recommended by international bodies like the IMF for developing economies.
  • D.To align the GDP calculation methodology with that used by major credit rating agencies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clarifies that these methodological choices were 'driven by structural data limitations rather than analytical oversight,' citing the absence of regular data on informal-sector output and a comprehensive PPI. It describes the approach as 'pragmatic' given the constraints.

Source: MoSPI Defends GDP Methodology Against Peterson Institute Paper, Cites Feb 2026 Revision & GST-Era Formalisation →
Q89.

Which section of the Indian Penal Code creates a statutory presumption against the accused in cases of dowry death?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Section 302 IPC
  • B.Section 304B IPC✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 498A IPC
  • D.Section 326 IPC
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Section 304B of the IPC (and its equivalent Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita) as the provision that creates a statutory presumption treating dowry death as a heinous crime. Section 498A deals with cruelty, while Sections 302 and 326 deal with murder and grievous hurt respectively.

Source: Allahabad HC Justice Pankaj Bhatia Granted Bail in 508 of 510 Dowry Death Cases Citing Section 304B IPC & 'Bail Not Jail' Principle →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court criticized a bail order by the Allahabad High Court in a dowry death case as 'most shocking and disappointing'.

2. An investigation found that Justice Pankaj Bhatia granted bail in over 99% of publicly available dowry death cases he heard over three months.

3. The Supreme Court, in the State of Uttar Pradesh v. Ajmal Beg case, ruled that dowry-related violence is not a violation of fundamental rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 1 is directly quoted. Statement 2 is correct as 508 out of 510 cases is over 99%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the SC reiterated that dowry-related violence goes against constitutional guarantees of Articles 14, 15 and 21, making it a violation of fundamental rights.

Source: Allahabad HC Justice Pankaj Bhatia Granted Bail in 508 of 510 Dowry Death Cases Citing Section 304B IPC & 'Bail Not Jail' Principle →
Q91.

According to the investigation mentioned in the article, in how many of the 510 publicly available dowry death case orders did Justice Pankaj Bhatia grant bail?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.500 cases
  • B.505 cases
  • C.508 cases✓ Correct Answer
  • D.510 cases
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that in 508 of 510 publicly available orders in dowry death cases passed by Justice Bhatia, bail was routinely granted.

Source: Allahabad HC Justice Pankaj Bhatia Granted Bail in 508 of 510 Dowry Death Cases Citing Section 304B IPC & 'Bail Not Jail' Principle →
Q92.

What is the primary concern raised by the article regarding the granting of bail in dowry death cases?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It increases the financial burden on the accused.
  • B.It represents a mechanical exercise diluting due process and judicial scrutiny.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It violates the principle of 'bail, not jail'.
  • D.It leads to overcrowding in jails.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core concern is that the near-uniformity of bail orders signals a troubling lack of application of mind, reducing judicial scrutiny to a template and risking turning adjudication into a mechanical exercise divorced from specific facts. While 'bail not jail' is mentioned, the concern is its misapplication, not its violation.

Source: Allahabad HC Justice Pankaj Bhatia Granted Bail in 508 of 510 Dowry Death Cases Citing Section 304B IPC & 'Bail Not Jail' Principle →
Q93.

The news mentions a joint interpretation issued by the SEC and which other U.S. regulatory agency?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Federal Reserve (Fed)
  • B.Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
  • D.Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the SEC's new interpretation was joined by the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC). The CFTC regulates commodity derivatives, which includes certain cryptocurrencies when classified as commodities.

Source: SEC Issues Crypto Guidance: Classifies Tokens into 5 Categories, Proposes 'Safe Harbour' for Fundraising →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent U.S. crypto guidance:

1. It classifies crypto tokens into five distinct categories, with only 'digital securities' falling under federal securities laws.

2. The guidance proposes a 'safe harbour' that would automatically exempt all crypto startups from any securities regulations indefinitely.

3. A 'non-security' crypto asset can become subject to securities laws if it is promoted as an investment in a common enterprise for profit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'safe harbour' and 'startup exemption' are proposed pathways with conditions (like limits on money raised or time), not a blanket, indefinite exemption. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article as a condition under which a non-security asset could become a security.

Source: SEC Issues Crypto Guidance: Classifies Tokens into 5 Categories, Proposes 'Safe Harbour' for Fundraising →
Q95.

According to the news, into how many categories have the SEC and CFTC classified crypto tokens?

MediumSSC, Banking
  • A.Three
  • B.Four
  • C.Five✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Six
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the SEC's new interpretation classifies crypto tokens into five categories: digital commodities, digital collectibles, digital tools, stablecoins, and digital securities.

Source: SEC Issues Crypto Guidance: Classifies Tokens into 5 Categories, Proposes 'Safe Harbour' for Fundraising →
Q96.

What is the primary objective of the 'safe harbour' proposal mentioned by the SEC Chair?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To ban all cryptocurrency trading in the United States.
  • B.To provide clear, tailored pathways for crypto companies to raise capital while maintaining investor protections.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer all regulatory authority over cryptocurrencies from the SEC to the CFTC.
  • D.To mandate that all cryptocurrencies must be classified as securities.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes SEC Chair Paul Atkins saying the agency should consider a safe harbour to provide crypto companies with 'bespoke pathways' to raise capital, while maintaining appropriate investor protections. The other options are contrary to the article's content, which discusses enabling innovation within a regulated framework.

Source: SEC Issues Crypto Guidance: Classifies Tokens into 5 Categories, Proposes 'Safe Harbour' for Fundraising →
Q97.

Which High Court delivered the judgment upholding the conviction under POCSO Act and IPC for stalking?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Madhya Pradesh High Court
  • B.Chhattisgarh High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bombay High Court
  • D.Delhi High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Chhattisgarh High Court' upheld the conviction of the man under Section 354(D) IPC and Section 12 of the POCSO Act.

Source: Chhattisgarh High Court Upholds Conviction Under Section 354(D) IPC & Section 12 POCSO, Reduces Sentence After 10-Year Litigation →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Chhattisgarh High Court judgment:

1. The court upheld the conviction under Section 354(D) of IPC and Section 12 of the POCSO Act.

2. The court ruled that a victim's testimony in a POCSO case always requires independent corroboration for conviction.

3. The court reduced the sentence to the period already undergone, citing the decade-long litigation as a mitigating factor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms the conviction was upheld under IPC Section 354(D) and POCSO Section 12. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court specifically noted that reliable testimony of a victim does NOT require independent corroboration. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the sentence was reduced due to the long trial period among other factors.

Source: Chhattisgarh High Court Upholds Conviction Under Section 354(D) IPC & Section 12 POCSO, Reduces Sentence After 10-Year Litigation →
Q99.

According to the article, what was the age of the victim at the time of the incident in 2016?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15 years old
  • B.16 years old✓ Correct Answer
  • C.17 years old
  • D.18 years old
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the victim was a '16-year-old schoolgirl' and later confirms through school records that she was 'around 16 years old in January 2016'. This minor status was crucial for applying the POCSO Act.

Source: Chhattisgarh High Court Upholds Conviction Under Section 354(D) IPC & Section 12 POCSO, Reduces Sentence After 10-Year Litigation →
Q100.

What is the primary legal significance of the Chhattisgarh High Court's judgment as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates physical contact for a conviction under the POCSO Act.
  • B.It establishes that prolonged trials are a valid reason to overturn a conviction.
  • C.It clarifies that persistent verbal harassment causing distress to a minor constitutes offences under IPC and POCSO.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It rules that fines imposed by trial courts must always be enhanced on appeal.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the court's ruling highlights that 'Even seemingly verbal acts like repeated unsolicited expressions of affection can amount to stalking and sexual harassment' under the relevant sections when directed at a minor. This is the core legal interpretation established by the judgment.

Source: Chhattisgarh High Court Upholds Conviction Under Section 354(D) IPC & Section 12 POCSO, Reduces Sentence After 10-Year Litigation →
Q101.

Which maritime data and intelligence firm, mentioned in the article, provided the analysis on ship crossings in the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.MarineTraffic
  • B.Kpler
  • C.Lloyd's List Intelligence✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Reddal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the maritime data firm 'Lloyd's List Intelligence' provided the data that about 89 ships crossed the strait between March 1 and 15. Kpler is a trade data platform, MarineTraffic is a ship tracking platform, and Reddal is a consulting firm.

Source: Strait of Hormuz: 89 Ships Cross, 16+ Million Barrels Exported by Iran Amid Conflict; Oil Above $100 →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about the Strait of Hormuz:

1. Iran has exported over 16 million barrels of oil since the beginning of March 2026, with China being its largest buyer.

2. The normal pre-war daily traffic through the Strait of Hormuz was between 150 to 200 vessel passages.

3. Vessels affiliated with India and Pakistan successfully crossed the strait following diplomatic negotiations with Iran.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Kpler's estimate mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states pre-war traffic was 'roughly 100 to 135 vessel passages per day', not 150-200. Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions Indian vessels (Shivalik, Nanda Devi) and a Pakistani tanker (Karachi) crossed following talks.

Source: Strait of Hormuz: 89 Ships Cross, 16+ Million Barrels Exported by Iran Amid Conflict; Oil Above $100 →
Q103.

According to the article, approximately how many ships crossed the Strait of Hormuz between March 1 and March 15, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 70 ships
  • B.About 89 ships✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About 110 ships
  • D.About 135 ships
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific figure: 'At least 89 ships crossed the Strait of Hormuz between March 1 and 15'. The option 'About 135 ships' is a distractor representing the higher end of pre-war daily traffic.

Source: Strait of Hormuz: 89 Ships Cross, 16+ Million Barrels Exported by Iran Amid Conflict; Oil Above $100 →
Q104.

What is the primary implication of Iran's ability to maintain oil exports through the Strait of Hormuz during the conflict, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It demonstrates the complete failure of Western sanctions on Iranian oil.
  • B.It shows Iran can weaponize the chokepoint, selectively disrupting global traffic while preserving its own export revenue.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It signifies that maritime insurance risks in the region have been completely neutralized.
  • D.It proves that alternative energy routes have rendered the Strait of Hormuz obsolete.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's analysis concludes that the strait is 'closed selectively against some traffic, while still functioning for Iranian exports'. This is the core strategic implication: Iran leverages geography for economic and geopolitical gain during conflict, not that sanctions have fully failed or risks are neutralized.

Source: Strait of Hormuz: 89 Ships Cross, 16+ Million Barrels Exported by Iran Amid Conflict; Oil Above $100 →
Q105.

Exercise Sea Dragon 2026, recently in the news, is primarily led by the navy of which country?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Japan
  • C.United States✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Australia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Exercise Sea Dragon 26 is a "United States Navy-led" multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) training activity.

Source: Indian Navy Participates in US-led Sea Dragon 2026 ASW Exercise in Guam Amid MILAN 2026 Culmination on INS Vikrant →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding defence exercises mentioned in the article:

1. Exercise MILAN 2026 culminated onboard India’s indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant.

2. Exercise Varuna is the joint military exercise between India and France held on land.

3. The 6th edition of Exercise Dharma Guardian was held at the East Fuji training area in Japan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: Exercise Varuna is a bilateral joint maritime (naval) exercise, while Exercise Shakti is the joint military (army) exercise between India and France. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Source: Indian Navy Participates in US-led Sea Dragon 2026 ASW Exercise in Guam Amid MILAN 2026 Culmination on INS Vikrant →
Q107.

According to the article, how many ships and submarines participated in Exercise MILAN 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.29 ships and submarines
  • B.42 ships and submarines✓ Correct Answer
  • C.50 ships and submarines
  • D.The article does not specify a number
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Exercise MILAN 2026 "witnessed participation on an unprecedented scale, comprising 42 ships and submarines and 29 aircraft."

Source: Indian Navy Participates in US-led Sea Dragon 2026 ASW Exercise in Guam Amid MILAN 2026 Culmination on INS Vikrant →
Q108.

What is the primary objective of conducting multinational exercises like Sea Dragon, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To conduct joint space exploration missions
  • B.To strengthen cooperation and improve anti-submarine warfare capabilities among allied forces✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote cultural exchanges between participating nations
  • D.To negotiate new free trade agreements
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Sea Dragon is conducted "to strengthen cooperation among allied forces of participating nations and improve understanding for better anti-submarine warfare capabilities in the Indo-Pacific region."

Source: Indian Navy Participates in US-led Sea Dragon 2026 ASW Exercise in Guam Amid MILAN 2026 Culmination on INS Vikrant →
Q109.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for implementing the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Rural Development
  • B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) is implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, specifically through its Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS). The article mentions Union Jal Shakti Minister C R Patil presiding over the MoU signing.

Source: ₹1.51 Lakh Crore Jal Jeevan Mission Phase 2 Approved Till 2028 With MoUs For MP, Rajasthan →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission Phase 2:

1. It has been extended till 2028 with an additional outlay of ₹1.51 lakh crore.

2. States must sign MoUs outlining 11 key structural reforms to avail central funds.

3. The MoU mandates a state government-led model for rural water governance, bypassing Gram Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Union Cabinet approved the extension of JJM till 2028 with an additional outlay of ₹1.51 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct as signing MoUs covering 11 reform areas is a mandatory requirement for states. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the MoU mandates a 'Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model', not a state government-led model bypassing PRIs.

Source: ₹1.51 Lakh Crore Jal Jeevan Mission Phase 2 Approved Till 2028 With MoUs For MP, Rajasthan →
Q111.

What is the additional outlay approved by the Union Cabinet for the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) Phase 2?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1.25 lakh crore
  • B.₹1.51 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1.75 lakh crore
  • D.₹2.00 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Centre approved an additional outlay of ₹1.51 lakh crore for JJM 2.0 till 2028. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: ₹1.51 Lakh Crore Jal Jeevan Mission Phase 2 Approved Till 2028 With MoUs For MP, Rajasthan →
Q112.

What is the primary objective of the reform-linked MoU signed under Jal Jeevan Mission Phase 2, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To centralise the planning and funding of all rural water supply schemes.
  • B.To shift to a Gram Panchayat-led, service-based, and community-centred model of rural water governance.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To privatise the operation and maintenance of rural water supply infrastructure.
  • D.To reduce the financial burden on state governments by cutting central assistance.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The reform-linked MoU mandates a Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model of rural water governance." This aligns with the mission's focus on decentralisation, community participation, and long-term sustainability. The other options contradict the article's emphasis on decentralisation and community involvement.

Source: ₹1.51 Lakh Crore Jal Jeevan Mission Phase 2 Approved Till 2028 With MoUs For MP, Rajasthan →
Q113.

Which constitutional provision is cited by the government to justify the centralization of higher education regulation under the VBSA Bill?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Entry 25 of Concurrent List
  • B.Entry 66 of Union List✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 21 of the Constitution
  • D.Article 368 of the Constitution
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry, as per the article, informed the committee that Entry 66 of the Union List provides for coordination and determination of standards in higher education institutions, and the VBSA Bill makes provisions for this mandate. Entry 25 is for education generally, while Articles 21 and 368 are unrelated.

Source: Parliament Panel Debates Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill Subsuming UGC, NCTE, AICTE Under Entry 66 of Union List →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill:

1. It proposes to subsume the functions of the University Grants Commission (UGC), the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).

2. The Bill grants the new higher education commission the power to provide direct grants to institutions, replacing the UGC's funding role.

3. Opposition members have raised concerns that the Bill violates the federal character of the Constitution by centralizing appointment powers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the VBSA Bill seeks to set up an umbrella body that will subsume UGC, NCTE, and AICTE. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions 'The Bill does not provide any grant-giving powers to the regulatory council.' Statement 3 is correct as opposition members pointed out federalism concerns due to central nominees.

Source: Parliament Panel Debates Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill Subsuming UGC, NCTE, AICTE Under Entry 66 of Union List →
Q115.

How many members are there in the Joint Committee of Parliament examining the VBSA Bill, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.21 members
  • B.31 members✓ Correct Answer
  • C.41 members
  • D.51 members
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'The 31-member joint committee, with D Purandeswari as chairperson, met on Tuesday.' The other numbers are plausible distractors for committee sizes.

Source: Parliament Panel Debates Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill Subsuming UGC, NCTE, AICTE Under Entry 66 of Union List →
Q116.

What is a primary concern raised by opposition members regarding the funding mechanism under the proposed VBSA Bill?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will lead to excessive funding for private institutions.
  • B.It will create a complex, multi-layered grant approval process.
  • C.It may cause delays, bureaucratic red tape, and political discrimination as institutions deal directly with the Centre.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It will reduce overall funding for higher education by consolidating budgets.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states opposition members raised the concern that if funding is kept out of the VBSA's purview, institutions will have to deal directly with the Centre for funding, and this can entail delays, bureaucratic red tape, and 'political discrimination'. This is the direct impact mentioned.

Source: Parliament Panel Debates Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill Subsuming UGC, NCTE, AICTE Under Entry 66 of Union List →
Q117.

As per the current framework, which ministry is the final signing-off agency responsible for issuing blocking orders under Section 69(A) of the IT Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that under Section 69(A), various ministries send requests to the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), which is the final signing-off agency. The proposed change aims to decentralize this power to other ministries.

Source: IT Act Amendments Decentralize Content Blocking Under Section 69(A), Empower Multiple Ministries →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding India's online content blocking mechanisms:

1. Section 69(A) of the IT Act currently allows only the IT Ministry to issue final blocking orders to intermediaries.

2. The Sahyog portal, managed by the Home Ministry, operates under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act and has sent over 2,300 blocking orders between October 2024 and October 2025.

3. The recent amendments to IT Rules have increased the timeline for social media platforms to remove unlawful content from 36 hours to 72 hours.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the current Section 69(A) process. Statement 2 is correct as the article cites RTI data showing over 2,300 orders via the Home Ministry's Sahyog portal under Section 79(3)(b). Statement 3 is incorrect; the amendments have decreased the timeline from 36 hours to 3 hours, not increased it.

Source: IT Act Amendments Decentralize Content Blocking Under Section 69(A), Empower Multiple Ministries →
Q119.

According to the article, what is the new mandated timeline for social media platforms to remove non-consensual intimate imagery, as per the amended IT Rules?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Within 2 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Within 12 hours
  • C.Within 24 hours
  • D.Within 36 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "Platforms must now remove non-consensual intimate imagery within two hours, as opposed to 24 hours earlier." This is a key data point from the recent amendments.

Source: IT Act Amendments Decentralize Content Blocking Under Section 69(A), Empower Multiple Ministries →
Q120.

What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the decentralization of content blocking powers under Section 69(A) of the IT Act?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It will significantly increase government revenue from tech companies.
  • B.It may lead to inconsistent application of rules and over-censorship by multiple agencies.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will require a constitutional amendment to implement.
  • D.It is expected to drastically reduce the number of content takedown requests.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights concerns about an "expanding censorship regime" and notes that users have flagged posts "which were satirical or critical of the government, and not necessarily illegal" being impacted. The core implication of decentralizing power to multiple ministries is the risk of inconsistent standards and potential suppression of legitimate speech.

Source: IT Act Amendments Decentralize Content Blocking Under Section 69(A), Empower Multiple Ministries →
Q121.

Which constitutional article empowers High Courts with the power of superintendence over all courts within their jurisdiction, as distinguished from writ jurisdiction in the Orissa HC judgment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 226
  • C.Article 227✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 227 of the Constitution gives High Courts the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial jurisdiction. The Orissa HC judgment clarified that while Article 226 (writ jurisdiction) is not maintainable against civil court orders, the supervisory jurisdiction under Article 227 remains available.

Source: Orissa HC Declares Judicial Order Without Proper Roster 'Per Se Illegal', Clarifies Article 226 vs 227 Jurisdiction →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the Orissa High Court judgment on judicial orders and roster assignment:

1. The judgment declared that any judicial order passed by a bench without proper roster assignment is 'per se illegal'.

2. The judgment held that writ petitions under Article 227 of the Constitution are not maintainable against judicial orders of civil courts.

3. The judgment relied on the Supreme Court's ruling in the case of Surya Dev Rai (2003) as the binding precedent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment held that writ petitions under Article 226 (not Article 227) are not maintainable. Article 227 jurisdiction remains available. Statement 3 is incorrect; the judgment relied on Radhey Shyam vs Chhabi Nath (2015) and noted that Surya Dev Rai (2003) stands overruled to the extent it allowed interference under Article 226.

Source: Orissa HC Declares Judicial Order Without Proper Roster 'Per Se Illegal', Clarifies Article 226 vs 227 Jurisdiction →
Q123.

The Orissa High Court judgment, which clarified the scope of Articles 226 and 227, was delivered by a bench comprising:

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud and Justice Hima Kohli
  • B.Chief Justice Harish Tandon and Justice M.S. Raman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Chief Justice N.V. Ramana and Justice Surya Kant
  • D.Chief Justice U.U. Lalit and Justice S. Ravindra Bhat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the judgment was delivered by a bench comprising Chief Justice Harish Tandon and Justice M.S. Raman on March 10, 2026. The other names are Chief Justices and Judges of the Supreme Court and are distractors.

Source: Orissa HC Declares Judicial Order Without Proper Roster 'Per Se Illegal', Clarifies Article 226 vs 227 Jurisdiction →
Q124.

What is the primary legal implication of the Orissa High Court declaring a judicial order passed without proper roster assignment as 'per se illegal'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It expands the scope of public interest litigation (PIL).
  • B.It strengthens the authority of the Chief Justice as the 'master of roster' and ensures judicial discipline.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It allows litigants to directly appeal to the Supreme Court against such orders.
  • D.It mandates that all high court judgments must be delivered by a constitutional bench.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core implication is reinforcing internal judicial propriety. By linking the validity of a judicial order to proper roster assignment, the judgment strengthens the Chief Justice's administrative authority to allocate cases and prevents judges from usurping jurisdiction, thereby upholding judicial discipline and the hierarchy within the court.

Source: Orissa HC Declares Judicial Order Without Proper Roster 'Per Se Illegal', Clarifies Article 226 vs 227 Jurisdiction →
Q125.

Which organization is primarily responsible for drug regulation and pharmacovigilance in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
  • B.Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)
  • D.Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CDSCO, headed by the Drug Controller General of India, is the national regulatory body for pharmaceuticals. It approves new drugs, regulates clinical trials, and oversees drug safety standards, which is central to the challenges discussed in the article regarding generic semaglutide.

Source: Semaglutide Patent Expires, 40+ Generic Brands Expected Amid Quality & Regulatory Challenges →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on semaglutide generics:

1. The patent expiry is expected to lead to the launch of over 40 generic brands in India.

2. Semaglutide is a simple oral tablet, making its generic manufacturing relatively straightforward.

3. A past example of similar generic market flooding in India is the drug Dapagliflozin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'more than 40 pharmaceutical companies are expected to launch'. Statement 2 is incorrect because semaglutide is a 'complex peptide', a fragile protein-like molecule, making it harder to copy than a simple tablet. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites Dapagliflozin as a previous case where 'nearly 100 brands appeared'.

Source: Semaglutide Patent Expires, 40+ Generic Brands Expected Amid Quality & Regulatory Challenges →
Q127.

According to the article, what is the critical temperature range for the cold-chain storage of semaglutide during its primary supply chain to maintain shelf life?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0°C to 4°C
  • B.2°C to 8°C✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5°C to 15°C
  • D.Room temperature (15-25°C)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that semaglutide 'must be kept between 2°C and 8°C during the entire primary supply chain to maintain its multi-year shelf life.' The other options are distractors; while it can survive at room temperature for a limited period after opening, the core cold-chain requirement is 2-8°C.

Source: Semaglutide Patent Expires, 40+ Generic Brands Expected Amid Quality & Regulatory Challenges →
Q128.

What is cited in the article as a primary concern if educational guardrails do not keep pace with the availability of generic semaglutide?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A decrease in pharmaceutical company profits
  • B.Indiscriminate prescribing for cosmetic weight loss without proper evaluation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.An oversupply leading to drug wastage
  • D.Increased smuggling of the drug to neighboring countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article warns that if awareness and training do not expand with availability, 'indiscriminate prescribing could become a real concern' and the drug might drift into 'a casual or cosmetic weight-loss tool.' This highlights the risk of misuse over appropriate medical therapy for diabetes/obesity.

Source: Semaglutide Patent Expires, 40+ Generic Brands Expected Amid Quality & Regulatory Challenges →
Q129.

Which government department released the 'R&D Roadmap for CCUS' that forms the basis for the Budget 2026 carbon credit allocation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B.Department of Science and Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'R&D Roadmap for CCUS' was released by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in December 2025, and this technical document forms the basis of the budgetary provision.

Source: Union Budget 2026 Allocates ₹20,000 Cr for CCUS in 'Hard-to-Abate' Industries (Power, Steel, Cement) as per DST Roadmap →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the ₹20,000 crore carbon credit programme announced in Union Budget 2026:

1. It is based on the 'R&D Roadmap for CCUS' released by the Department of Science and Technology.

2. The fund is primarily aimed at enabling farmers to earn carbon credits through sustainable agricultural practices.

3. The target sectors include power, steel, cement, refineries, and chemicals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the fund is for CCUS in 'hard-to-abate' industries, not for farmers. The confusion stems from a parallel narrative. Statement 3 is correct as the DST roadmap explicitly identifies these sectors.

Source: Union Budget 2026 Allocates ₹20,000 Cr for CCUS in 'Hard-to-Abate' Industries (Power, Steel, Cement) as per DST Roadmap →
Q131.

What is the total outlay and time period for the carbon credit programme announced in Union Budget 2026, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹10,000 crore over three years
  • B.₹15,000 crore over four years
  • C.₹20,000 crore over five years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹25,000 crore over six years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Union Budget 2026 involved a massive ₹20,000 crore outlay for a carbon credit programme, and this amount is proposed over five years for large-scale deployment of CCUS technologies.

Source: Union Budget 2026 Allocates ₹20,000 Cr for CCUS in 'Hard-to-Abate' Industries (Power, Steel, Cement) as per DST Roadmap →
Q132.

What is the primary reason, as explained in the DST roadmap, for excluding agriculture from the Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS) strategy?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Agriculture emissions are negligible compared to industry.
  • B.Agricultural emissions are diffuse, biologically mediated, and not suited to point-source capture technology.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The technology for capturing agricultural emissions is not yet invented.
  • D.Agriculture is covered under a separate, larger funding scheme.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the DST roadmap stating that agriculture is excluded from CCUS strategies because its emissions (methane, nitrous oxide) are diffuse and biologically mediated, unlike the concentrated point-source emissions from industrial flue gases that CCUS technology is designed for.

Source: Union Budget 2026 Allocates ₹20,000 Cr for CCUS in 'Hard-to-Abate' Industries (Power, Steel, Cement) as per DST Roadmap →
Q133.

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), a key regional bloc in West Asia, comprises how many member countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Four
  • B.Five
  • C.Six✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Seven
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the GCC consists of six countries: Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Oman, and Bahrain. This is a fundamental static GK fact about West Asian geopolitics.

Source: India's West Asia Reset: Modi's 15 GCC Visits & $160 Bn Trade Underpin Hard Diplomacy Shift →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding India's West Asia policy reset:

1. It involves moving away from traditional 'please-all' mantras on issues like the two-state solution.

2. The reset is underpinned by a bilateral trade with GCC nations exceeding $200 billion.

3. A key objective is to position India as an alternative economic and security partner for GCC states seeking to reduce reliance on the US.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the new doctrine is bereft of traditional please-all mantras. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trade is 'over $160 billion', not exceeding $200 billion. Statement 3 is correct, as the article discusses the GCC's search for a new security paradigm and India's opportunity to be a viable alternative hub.

Source: India's West Asia Reset: Modi's 15 GCC Visits & $160 Bn Trade Underpin Hard Diplomacy Shift →
Q135.

According to the article, what is the approximate value of bilateral trade between India and the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over $100 billion
  • B.Over $160 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over $200 billion
  • D.Over $250 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "With over $160 billion in bilateral trade... the GCC ranks as India’s largest socio-economic partner." The other options are plausible distractors but not the figure cited in the source.

Source: India's West Asia Reset: Modi's 15 GCC Visits & $160 Bn Trade Underpin Hard Diplomacy Shift →
Q136.

What is described as a primary driver for the Gulf monarchies' current search for new security partnerships, as per the analysis in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Rising economic competition from East Asia
  • B.The failure and perceived unreliability of the decades-old US-led security umbrella (Pax Americana)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India's explicit offer to become a security guarantor for the region
  • D.The internal demand for democratic reforms within GCC states
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article attributes the GCC's search for a new security paradigm to the exceptional turmoil since October 2023, where the US failed to protect them from Iranian attacks and acted without prior consultation, making the 'eight-decade-old regional Pax Americana' seem inadequate.

Source: India's West Asia Reset: Modi's 15 GCC Visits & $160 Bn Trade Underpin Hard Diplomacy Shift →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 18 March 2026?▼

This page contains 136 current affairs questions from 18 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 18 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which Article of the Constitution is a 'Constitution Ben…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the definition of …
  3. Q3. many judges were part of the Constitution Bench that delivered…
  4. Q4. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's curre…
  5. Q5. Under which Ministry does the Enforcement Directorate (ED) fun…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the legal argument…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what is the estimated value of the c…
  8. Q8. was the primary constitutional objection raised by West Bengal…
  9. Q9. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Uniform …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Unifor…
  11. Q11. As per the Gujarat UCC Bill, 2026, what is the minimum age pre…
  12. Q12. is one of the primary constitutional challenges associated wit…
  13. Q13. national survey is the primary source for data on the prevalen…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding rural mental healt…
  15. Q15. According to the National Mental Health Survey (NMHS) data cit…
  16. Q16. According to the article, what is identified as the primary re…
  17. Q17. The BHAVYA scheme, recently approved by the Cabinet, primarily…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the BHAVYA scheme:…
  19. Q19. is the total financial outlay approved by the Cabinet for the …
  20. Q20. is a key feature of the industrial parks to be developed under…
  21. Q21. cabinet committee approved the ₹6,969 crore NH-927 highway pro…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the recently appro…
  23. Q23. is the total estimated employment generation (direct and indir…
  24. Q24. is a primary strategic objective of upgrading the Barabanki-Ba…
  25. Q25. government mission is primarily responsible for driving semico…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding India's semiconduc…
  27. Q27. According to the Deloitte report, what is the projected size o…
  28. Q28. is a primary strategic objective highlighted for India's semic…
  29. Q29. As per the news, which ministry is currently the final signing…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what is the estimated annual loss in…
  32. Q32. was the primary constitutional rationale used by the Supreme C…
  33. Q33. According to the article, which Indian institution provided th…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding digital labour as …
  35. Q35. As per the NITI Aayog report cited in the article, what is the…
  36. Q36. is a primary socio-economic concern raised in the article rega…
  37. Q37. The BHAVYA scheme for industrial parks will be implemented by …
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the BHAVYA scheme:…
  39. Q39. is the total financial outlay approved by the Cabinet for the …
  40. Q40. is a primary objective of the BHAVYA scheme's 'plug-and-play' …
  41. Q41. United Nations body established the Independent International …
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the UN Commission'…
  43. Q43. According to the UN Commission of Inquiry report, what is the …
  44. Q44. was the primary legal characterization by the UN Commission of…
  45. Q45. regional organisation, mentioned in the article, includes both…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding China's strategy t…
  47. Q47. According to the article, what was the value of the bilateral …
  48. Q48. is described in the article as a primary strategic advantage f…
  49. Q49. The office memorandum extending the domestic sourcing mandate …
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding India's solar manu…
  51. Q51. As per data provided by MNRE in Parliament, what was the appro…
  52. Q52. is the primary objective behind the government's extension of …
  53. Q53. Under which Article of the Constitution do High Courts possess…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
  55. Q55. annual rate of interest did the Chhattisgarh High Court uphold…
  56. Q56. was the primary legal ground used by the Chhattisgarh High Cou…
  57. Q57. Under which article of the Constitution did the petitioners ap…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  59. Q59. On which date did the incident at the Gotona Bara Toll Plaza i…
  60. Q60. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for transfer…
  61. Q61. The US national and six Ukrainians were arrested by which cent…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the recent arrests…
  63. Q63. Under which specific section of the Unlawful Activities (Preve…
  64. Q64. is the alleged primary objective of the group's activities in …
  65. Q65. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is mentioned in which part of the…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  67. Q67. specific Act is being challenged in the Supreme Court plea men…
  68. Q68. is the primary constitutional significance of the Supreme Cour…
  69. Q69. Indian organizations served as the lead agencies for BRICS STI…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Science, Tec…
  71. Q71. According to the article, what is the theme for India's BRICS …
  72. Q72. is identified in the article as a primary structural challenge…
  73. Q73. The United Nations report on displacement in the West Bank was…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the UN report on t…
  75. Q75. According to the UN report mentioned in the article, what was …
  76. Q76. is the primary strategic implication of the accelerated Israel…
  77. Q77. As per the article, which body sets the guidelines for the uni…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the National Educa…
  79. Q79. According to the National Education Policy 2020, over what per…
  80. Q80. is a primary expected benefit of phasing out the university af…
  81. Q81. international organization's physical activity guidelines are …
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Lancet study o…
  83. Q83. According to the Lancet study, what is the projected increase …
  84. Q84. is the primary recommendation of the Lancet study to address t…
  85. Q85. ministry is primarily responsible for the estimation and publi…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the debate on Indi…
  87. Q87. According to the 2017-18 Economic Survey cited in the article,…
  88. Q88. is a primary reason cited in the article for the official stat…
  89. Q89. section of the Indian Penal Code creates a statutory presumpti…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  91. Q91. According to the investigation mentioned in the article, in ho…
  92. Q92. is the primary concern raised by the article regarding the gra…
  93. Q93. The news mentions a joint interpretation issued by the SEC and…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the recent U.S. cr…
  95. Q95. According to the news, into how many categories have the SEC a…
  96. Q96. is the primary objective of the 'safe harbour' proposal mentio…
  97. Q97. High Court delivered the judgment upholding the conviction und…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Chhatti…
  99. Q99. According to the article, what was the age of the victim at th…
  100. Q100. is the primary legal significance of the Chhattisgarh High Cou…
  101. Q101. maritime data and intelligence firm, mentioned in the article,…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news about the…
  103. Q103. According to the article, approximately how many ships crossed…
  104. Q104. is the primary implication of Iran's ability to maintain oil e…
  105. Q105. Exercise Sea Dragon 2026, recently in the news, is primarily l…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding defence exercises …
  107. Q107. According to the article, how many ships and submarines partic…
  108. Q108. is the primary objective of conducting multinational exercises…
  109. Q109. Union Ministry is responsible for implementing the Jal Jeevan …
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission…
  111. Q111. is the additional outlay approved by the Union Cabinet for the…
  112. Q112. is the primary objective of the reform-linked MoU signed under…
  113. Q113. constitutional provision is cited by the government to justify…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
  115. Q115. many members are there in the Joint Committee of Parliament ex…
  116. Q116. is a primary concern raised by opposition members regarding th…
  117. Q117. As per the current framework, which ministry is the final sign…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding India's online con…
  119. Q119. According to the article, what is the new mandated timeline fo…
  120. Q120. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the decen…
  121. Q121. constitutional article empowers High Courts with the power of …
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Orissa High Co…
  123. Q123. The Orissa High Court judgment, which clarified the scope of A…
  124. Q124. is the primary legal implication of the Orissa High Court decl…
  125. Q125. organization is primarily responsible for drug regulation and …
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the news on semagl…
  127. Q127. According to the article, what is the critical temperature ran…
  128. Q128. is cited in the article as a primary concern if educational gu…
  129. Q129. government department released the 'R&D Roadmap for CCUS' that…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the ₹20,000 crore …
  131. Q131. is the total outlay and time period for the carbon credit prog…
  132. Q132. is the primary reason, as explained in the DST roadmap, for ex…
  133. Q133. The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), a key regional bloc in Wes…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding India's West Asia …
  135. Q135. According to the article, what is the approximate value of bil…
  136. Q136. is described as a primary driver for the Gulf monarchies' curr…