31 March 2026, Questions & Answers
160 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 160 current affairs questions with answers from 31 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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160 QsWhich constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Parliamentary Standing Committee
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Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is an independent, high-powered body established by an Act of Parliament to carry out the redrawing of electoral constituency boundaries. The Election Commission conducts elections based on these boundaries.
Consider the following statements regarding the delimitation freeze in India:
1. The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act extended the freeze on delimitation until the first census after the year 2026.
2. The freeze applies to both the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha and their distribution among States.
3. The primary objective of the freeze was to incentivize States to control population growth under family planning programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The 84th Amendment (2002) extended the freeze till the first census after 2026. Statement 2 is correct: The freeze applies to both the total seats and their inter-state distribution. Statement 3 is correct: As per the article, the freeze was a 'motivational measure' for population stabilisation.
As per the article, which of the following Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is considered necessary for population stabilisation?
- A.1.8 births per woman
- B.2.0 births per woman
- C.2.1 births per woman✓ Correct Answer
- D.2.5 births per woman
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of 2.1 births per woman is needed to stabilise population growth. This is the demographic 'replacement level'.
What is the primary objective of proposing a 'Demographic Performance (DemPer)' principle in the upcoming delimitation exercise, as discussed in the article?
- A.To increase the total number of Lok Sabha seats beyond 700
- B.To ensure delimitation is completed before the 2029 general elections
- C.To balance democratic equality (one person, one vote) with federal fairness among states✓ Correct Answer
- D.To permanently fix the number of Lok Sabha seats at the current 543
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Explanation
The article argues that pure population-based delimitation would punish states that successfully controlled population growth. The DemPer principle aims to reward such states within the new seat allocation, thereby balancing the 'one person, one vote' principle with federal fairness and stability.
Which constitutional body is responsible for redrawing parliamentary constituency boundaries based on census data?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Union Public Service Commission
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, a Delimitation Commission is expected to be set up to execute the delimitation exercise. This commission is established under the Delimitation Act to redraw Lok Sabha and assembly constituency boundaries.
Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reservation Bill:
1. It was first introduced in the Lok Sabha on September 12, 1996.
2. It was passed by both Houses of Parliament and received the President's assent in the year 2010.
3. The enacted law is officially called the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill was passed in 2023, not 2010. In 2010, it passed the Rajya Sabha but was not brought to the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct; the Bill was rechristened as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam.
According to the recent government proposal discussed in the article, what is the proposed new total strength of the Lok Sabha?
- A.543 seats
- B.650 seats
- C.750 seats
- D.816 seats✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the government has suggested increasing the number of Lok Sabha seats from 543 to 816. The additional 273 seats (one-third of the increase) are then proposed to be allocated to women.
What is the primary political rationale cited in the article for the government's proposal to use the 2011 Census data for delimitation instead of the upcoming 2026-27 Census?
- A.To expedite the process of seat increase.
- B.To avoid creating a north-south divide and penalizing southern states.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To ensure more accurate population data is used.
- D.To comply with a Supreme Court directive on representation.
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Explanation
The article explains that southern states feared delimitation based on newer population data would reward northern states with more seats while penalizing the south for successful population control. Using the 2011 Census data is proposed to defuse this tension and freeze the seat ratio between states.
Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) do High Courts exercise inherent powers to quash proceedings to prevent abuse of process or secure the ends of justice, as referenced in the Meghalaya High Court ruling?
- A.Section 300
- B.Section 482
- C.Section 528✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 154
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the core issue was whether POCSO cases could be quashed under the High Court's inherent powers under Section 528 of the BNSS (formerly Section 482 CrPC). Section 528 of the BNSS, 2023, corresponds to the inherent powers provision.
Consider the following statements regarding the Meghalaya High Court's ruling on POCSO Act cases:
1. The court held that there is an absolute legal bar on quashing proceedings under the POCSO Act as it is a special law.
2. The court emphasized that the consent of a minor is legally material and valid under the POCSO Act for quashing cases.
3. The court laid down safeguards including verification of genuine consent and independent assessment by legal services authorities before quashing such cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held the opposite: there is NO legal bar on quashing POCSO proceedings under the High Court's inherent jurisdiction. Statement 2 is incorrect. The article clearly states that while acknowledging the surge in cases, the court reiterated that 'consent of a minor is legally immaterial' under POCSO. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which mentions safeguards like verification of genuine consent and independent assessment by legal services authorities.
In the specific case referenced by the Meghalaya High Court, what were the ages of the individuals involved in the consensual relationship?
- A.20-year-old man and 17-year-old girl
- B.22-year-old man and 16-year-old girl✓ Correct Answer
- C.21-year-old man and 15-year-old girl
- D.23-year-old man and 17-year-old girl
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions: 'The case involved a 22-year-old man and a 16-year-old girl, against whom an FIR was registered on May 3, 2019, alleging offences under the POCSO Act after the girl became pregnant.' This exact data point is crucial for factual recall.
What was the primary socio-cultural factor highlighted by the Meghalaya High Court as crucial in assessing whether continuation of prosecution would serve justice in the context of consensual adolescent relationships?
- A.The prevalence of patriarchal joint family systems
- B.The high rate of urbanization and nuclear families
- C.The prevalence of cohabitation-based unions and the matrilineal system✓ Correct Answer
- D.Strong influence of religious personal laws
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Explanation
The article states under 'Unique socio-cultural factors in Meghalaya': 'Highlighting the distinct social fabric of Meghalaya, the court noted the prevalence of cohabitation-based unions... The matrilineal system, where women enjoy greater autonomy. These factors, it said, are crucial in assessing whether continuation of prosecution would serve justice.' The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the PM-KUSUM scheme?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Power
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The PM-KUSUM scheme is a flagship solar energy scheme for farmers, falling under the domain of renewable energy promotion, which is the primary mandate of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). While the Ministry of Power is also involved, MNRE is the nodal ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM-KUSUM scheme:
1. It was launched in 2019 with an overall target of adding 34,800 MW of solar capacity by March 2026.
2. Under Component C, Individual Pump Solarisation (IPS) has covered more pumps than Feeder-Level Solarisation (FLS).
3. The scheme's objectives include reducing the agriculture electricity subsidy burden on states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Feeder-Level Solarisation (FLS) has covered 'over 13 lakh pumps', while Individual Pump Solarisation (IPS) has covered 'over 12,787 pumps'. Statement 3 is correct as reducing the subsidy burden on states is listed as an objective. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
As of February 2026, what percentage of its target capacity had the PM-KUSUM scheme achieved?
- A.25%
- B.35%✓ Correct Answer
- C.50%
- D.65%
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Explanation
The article states that with 12,164 MW installed against a target of 34,800 MW, the scheme had achieved 35% of its target as of February 2026. This is a precise data point crucial for prelims.
What is the primary rationale proposed for adding a battery storage component to the revamped PM-KUSUM scheme?
- A.To reduce the overall cost of solar pumps for farmers
- B.To provide electricity for household use in rural areas
- C.To bridge the mismatch between solar generation timing and agricultural power demand✓ Correct Answer
- D.To export surplus solar energy to neighbouring countries
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Explanation
The article explains that agricultural demand is high in the morning and evening, while solar generation peaks at noon. Battery storage is proposed to store surplus noon-time solar energy for use when demand is high but generation is low, thereby solving the operational challenge of demand-supply timing mismatch.
Which constitutional article, through judicial interpretation, is most directly linked to the right of adults to choose their partners affirmed by the Karnataka Bill?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 25
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Explanation
The Supreme Court, in various judgments (like Shakti Vahini vs Union of India, 2018), has held that the right to choose a life partner is a part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. This forms the constitutional basis for laws against honour killings.
Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka's 'Eva Nammava Bill' 2026:
1. It mandates the formation of district-level bodies called 'Eva Nammava Vedike' headed by the District Judge.
2. It provides for an additional minimum imprisonment of five years for those convicted of honour killing under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
3. Offences under this legislation are cognizable and non-bailable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 'Eva Nammava Vedike' is headed by the Deputy Commissioner (executive head of district), not the District Judge. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is also correct as the article specifies offences are cognizable and non-bailable.
According to the article, approximately how many cases of honour killings were reported in Karnataka over the past five years?
- A.Around 5 cases
- B.Around 10 cases
- C.Around 15 cases✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around 20 cases
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Explanation
The article states: 'According to data, around 15 cases of honour killings were reported in Karnataka over the past five years.' This is a specific data point useful for factual recall in prelims-style questions.
What is a primary institutional mechanism established by the Karnataka 'Eva Nammava Bill' to support couples facing opposition to their marriage?
- A.Special Investigation Teams (SITs) in every police station
- B.A state-level commission for inter-caste marriages
- C.District-level 'Eva Nammava Vedike' for counseling and solemnization✓ Correct Answer
- D.Fast-track family courts in every taluk
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Bill stipulates the formation of 'Eva Nammava Vedike', a district-level body comprising officials and experts to help solemnise inter-caste marriages and offer counseling services. While fast-track courts are also created, the Vedike is the primary support mechanism mentioned.
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which conducts the decennial Census in India, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
As per the article, the Census is conducted by the Registrar General of India (RGI), which comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static fact for Polity and Governance sections.
Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the article:
1. The first phase of Census 2027, involving House listing and Housing Census, is scheduled to begin on April 1, 2026.
2. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025, removes the liquidator’s powers of admitting or rejecting claims and transfers this power to the Committee of Creditors.
3. The Reserve Bank of India has instructed banks to limit their net open exposure in the foreign exchange market to $500 million by the end of each day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The first phase of Census 2027, the Houselisting and Housing Census, is scheduled to begin on April 1 this year.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The Bill removes the liquidator’s powers of admitting or rejecting claims and determining their value. It offers to the committee of creditors (CoC) the power to appoint or remove the liquidator...' Statement 3 is incorrect; the RBI cap is $100 million, not $500 million. Hence, option C is correct.
As per the Ministry of Home Affairs review mentioned in the article, how many districts in India were categorised as 'LWE Affected' by the end of 2025?
- A.28 districts
- B.38 districts✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 200 districts
- D.Just 7 districts
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Explanation
The article states: 'The number of LWE-affected districts has shrunk from nearly 200 in the early 2000s to just 38 by the end of 2025.' Option C is the historical figure, and option D refers to the number categorised as 'Most Affected'.
What is the primary objective behind the Reserve Bank of India's directive to limit banks' net open foreign exchange exposure to $100 million?
- A.To increase the profitability of public sector banks through forex trading.
- B.To stabilize the falling value of the Indian Rupee and protect foreign exchange reserves.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align Indian banking regulations with Basel III international standards.
- D.To encourage greater foreign direct investment into the Indian economy.
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The RBI’s goal in taking this step is to stabilise the falling rupee and protect the country’s foreign exchange reserves...' This is a direct application of monetary policy tools to manage currency volatility, a core concept for Economy and Banking exams.
Which international institute publishes the annual data on global military spending and arms transfers cited in the article?
- A.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Bank
- D.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
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Explanation
The article repeatedly cites data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), an independent institute focused on conflict and armaments research. The other organizations are not the primary source for this specific data.
Consider the following statements regarding India's defence imports as per the SIPRI data mentioned:
1. India is the world's second-largest arms importer, accounting for 8.3% of global imports in 2020-24.
2. Russia remains India's largest arms supplier, but its share has fallen to around 36-38% in 2020-24 from about 60-70% earlier.
3. France has emerged as a major partner, accounting for about 29-33% of India's defence imports in the same period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'SIPRI ranks India as the second-largest arms importer, accounting for 8.3 per cent of global imports in 2020–24.' Statement 2 is correct: 'Russia remains India’s largest supplier, but its share has fallen over the years – from about 60–70 per cent in the early 2010s to around 36–38 per cent in 2020–24.' Statement 3 is correct: 'France has emerged as a major partner, accounting for about 29–33 per cent of imports.'
According to the SIPRI report cited, what was India's estimated defence spending in 2024?
- A.$86.1 billion✓ Correct Answer
- B.$100.5 billion
- C.$314 billion
- D.$10.2 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'India’s $86.1 billion defence spending places it among the top five globally...'. $314 billion is China's spending, and $10.2 billion is Pakistan's spending, making them close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary strategic objective reflected in India's shift from a single dominant arms supplier to a diversified portfolio as per the article?
- A.To reduce the overall cost of defence procurement
- B.To foster competition among global defence manufacturers
- C.To reduce dependence on a single source and manage supply chain risks✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align with the foreign policies of multiple Western nations
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Explanation
The article explains diversification as an effort 'towards reducing reliance on a single source' and to 'manage risks arising from global conflicts, such as supply disruptions linked to the war in Ukraine and West Asia.' While cost and competition might be side benefits, the primary strategic objective highlighted is risk mitigation and reducing vulnerability.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the Jal Jeevan Mission?
- A.Ministry of Rural Development
- B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
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Explanation
The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) is implemented under the aegis of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, which was formed in 2019 to handle all matters related to water resources and drinking water supply. The article mentions the 'Union Jal Shakti Ministry' in its statement.
Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
1. The Union Cabinet approved the extension of JJM till 2028 with an additional central funding of ₹1.51 lakh crore.
2. The total outlay of JJM has remained unchanged at ₹3.60 lakh crore since its launch in 2019.
3. Following scrutiny, action was taken against officials, contractors, and Third Party Inspection Agencies (TPIAs) across several states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Union Cabinet approved the extension till 2028 with ₹1.51 lakh crore additional central funding. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the total outlay increased from ₹3.60 lakh crore to ₹8.69 lakh crore. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions action against 596 officials, 822 contractors, and 152 TPIAs.
According to the Jal Shakti Ministry's latest data cited in the article, what is the current percentage of rural households with tap water supply under Jal Jeevan Mission?
- A.16.7%
- B.71.5%
- C.81.8%✓ Correct Answer
- D.92.4%
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Explanation
The article states that 'about 15.83 crore (around 81.8 per cent) households now have tap water supply in their homes' out of 19.36 crore rural households. 16.7% was the initial coverage at the mission's launch.
What is a key new feature of the Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0, as indicated by the recent fund release to states?
- A.Funds are released based on population density of states.
- B.States receive funds only after signing reform-linked Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs).✓ Correct Answer
- C.Funds are allocated solely for urban water supply projects.
- D.The mission is now entirely funded by the World Bank.
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 'after signing the reformed‑linked MoU, five states received funds under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0.' This highlights a shift towards conditional fund release linked to governance reforms, ensuring better accountability and outcomes.
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 received assent from which constitutional authority?
- A.The Prime Minister of India
- B.The President of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Chief Justice of India
- D.The Speaker of Lok Sabha
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Explanation
As per the article, the Act received the assent of President Droupadi Murmu. The President is the constitutional head of state whose assent is required for a bill to become an Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026:
1. It expands the definition of 'transgender person' to include socio-cultural identities like hijra and aravani.
2. It introduces a medical board headed by a Chief Medical Officer as the authority for legal recognition.
3. It was enacted to fully implement the principle of self-identification as laid down in the NALSA vs Union of India judgment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions inclusion of identities like kinner, hijra, aravani. Statement 2 is correct as it introduces a medical board headed by a CMO. Statement 3 is incorrect; the amendment moves towards medical certification, which contradicts the NALSA judgment's principle of self-identification, a point highlighted by the Rajasthan HC.
The Rajasthan High Court bench expressing concerns about the 2026 Amendment Act comprised Justices Arun Monga and which other judge?
- A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul
- C.Justice Yogendra Kumar Purohit✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justice S. Ravindra Bhat
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the bench consisted of Justices Arun Monga and Yogendra Kumar Purohit. The other justices are not mentioned in the context of this news.
What was the primary constitutional concern raised by the Rajasthan High Court regarding the 2026 Amendment Act?
- A.It violates the federal structure by giving excessive power to the Centre.
- B.It risks reducing the right to personhood to a state-mediated entitlement.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It contradicts the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- D.It infringes upon the freedom of trade and commerce.
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Explanation
The Rajasthan High Court, as quoted in the article, stated: 'What was recognised by the Supreme Court as an inviolable aspect of personhood now risks being reduced to a contingent, State-mediated entitlement.' This directly addresses the core constitutional concern about the right to dignity and self-identification under Article 21.
Under which Act are Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs) established?
- A.The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- B.The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
- D.The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
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Explanation
Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs) are established under Chapter XII of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. This Act provides the legal framework for compensation in road accident cases, which is the central theme of the news article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The court held that a homemaker's contribution should be valued at the level of an unskilled worker for compensation purposes.
2. The court applied a multiplier of 9 and added 10% for future prospects while recalculating compensation.
3. The judgment was delivered in an appeal filed under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly rejected equating a homemaker with an unskilled worker and valued her contribution at the level of a semi-skilled worker. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the court applied a multiplier of 9 and added 10% for future prospects. Statement 3 is correct as the appeal was filed under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act.
To what amount did the Madhya Pradesh High Court enhance the total compensation in the case?
- A.₹4,28,400
- B.₹5,44,129✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹6,00,000
- D.₹7,98,200
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Explanation
The Motor Accident Claims Tribunal had initially awarded ₹4,28,400. The Madhya Pradesh High Court reassessed the compensation and enhanced it to ₹5,44,129. The figure ₹7,982 was the reassessed monthly income, not the total compensation.
What is the primary legal significance of the Madhya Pradesh High Court's judgment as discussed in the news?
- A.It mandates higher insurance premiums for vehicle owners.
- B.It establishes a precedent for higher valuation of unpaid domestic work in compensation cases.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It reduces the burden of documentary proof for all accident victims.
- D.It transfers all accident claim cases from tribunals to high courts.
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Explanation
The core ruling of the judgment is that a homemaker's labour cannot be equated with that of an unskilled worker and must be valued realistically, at least at a semi-skilled worker's wage level. This sets a precedent for future cases, moving away from minimal valuations based on lack of formal records.
Which institution in India is primarily responsible for managing exchange rate volatility through intervention in the foreign exchange market?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the primary authority for managing the country's monetary policy and foreign exchange reserves. As mentioned in the article, the RBI intervenes in the forex market to contain volatility.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Rupee's depreciation:
1. The rupee depreciated from about 45.9 per US dollar in January 2010 to 95.04 in March 2026.
2. The Reserve Bank of India's intervention in the foreign exchange market has successfully prevented the rupee from weakening since 2022.
3. India's merchandise trade deficit widened to $27.1 billion in February 2026, nearly double the deficit recorded in February 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that despite RBI being a net seller of dollars since 2022, the rupee has continued to weaken, proving intervention cannot offset persistent imbalances. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was India's crude oil import reliance from April 2025 to January 2026?
- A.75.2%
- B.82.1%
- C.88.6%✓ Correct Answer
- D.92.3%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Energy dependence also remains elevated, with crude oil import reliance at 88.6 per cent from April 2025 to January 2026.' This is a key data point highlighting a structural vulnerability of the Indian economy.
As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as the primary reason the rupee exchange rate has been the main 'margin of adjustment' for India's external imbalances?
- A.Aggressive interest rate hikes by the RBI to defend the currency.
- B.A significant increase in merchandise exports reducing the trade gap.
- C.The persistent pressure from elevated oil imports and volatile capital flows.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Successful targeting of a specific exchange rate level by the central bank.
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Explanation
The article argues that structural factors—specifically, elevated oil prices increasing the import bill and the volatility of capital flows (FII/FPI)—create persistent external pressure. Since adjustment is not happening through trade competitiveness or production structures, the exchange rate inevitably absorbs this pressure.
Which national mission, launched in 2021, is primarily responsible for developing India's semiconductor ecosystem as mentioned in the article?
- A.National Quantum Mission
- B.India-Semiconductor Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.National AI Mission
- D.National Critical Minerals Mission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the India-Semiconductor Mission was launched in 2021 during the Covid pandemic to build a domestic semiconductor ecosystem. The other missions are related but distinct initiatives.
Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor developments mentioned in the news:
1. The Kaynes Technology OSAT facility inaugurated by PM Modi is located in Sanand, Gujarat.
2. India's current global semiconductor market size is ₹9 lakh crore.
3. The India-Semiconductor Mission is described in the article as merely an industrial policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly mentions the facility is in Sanand, Gujarat. Statement 2 is incorrect; the current market is ₹4.5 lakh crore, with a target of ₹9 lakh crore by 2030. Statement 3 is incorrect; the PM described the mission as 'a declaration of India’s self-confidence', not just an industrial policy.
According to the article, what is the estimated cost of building the Kaynes Technology OSAT facility in Sanand?
- A.₹1,500 crore
- B.₹3,300 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹4.5 lakh crore
- D.₹9 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the plant has been built at an estimated cost of Rs 3,300 crore in Sanand GIDC.' ₹1,500 crore is the scheme for mineral recycling, ₹4.5 lakh crore is the current market size, and ₹9 lakh crore is the 2030 target.
What is the primary strategic rationale, as highlighted by PM Modi in the article, for India to develop its own full-stack semiconductor ecosystem?
- A.To solely increase government revenue through exports
- B.To protect global supply chains from disruptions caused by conflicts✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace China as the world's sole semiconductor manufacturer
- D.To focus exclusively on meeting domestic demand for consumer electronics
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Explanation
The article quotes PM Modi stating that 'the biggest victim of conflicts is the global supply chain whether it is chips, rare earth minerals or energy.' The core rationale is building resilience against such geopolitical disruptions. While exports and meeting demand are benefits, the primary driver is supply chain security.
The FIMA Repo Facility, discussed in the news, is operated by which central bank?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Federal Reserve System (US Fed)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bank of Japan (BOJ)
- D.European Central Bank (ECB)
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the FIMA (Foreign and International Monetary Authorities) Repo Facility is a facility of the US Federal Reserve, which foreign central banks like the RBI can access.
Consider the following statements regarding the FIMA Repo Facility mentioned in the article:
1. It was established by the US Federal Reserve as a pandemic response measure in March 2020.
2. The facility allows central banks to permanently sell their US Treasury holdings to raise dollar liquidity.
3. It was converted into a standing facility in July 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the facility involves a temporary repurchase (repo) agreement, not a permanent sale. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions it was made into a standing facility in July 2021.
According to the article, in which year was the US Federal Reserve's FIMA Repo Facility established?
- A.2019
- B.2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.2021
- D.2022
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The FIMA was established in March 2020 as a pandemic response." The year 2021 is when it was made a standing facility, which is a close distractor.
What is the primary objective, as argued in the article, for the RBI to consider using the US Fed's FIMA Repo Facility?
- A.To permanently increase India's holdings of US Treasury securities.
- B.To directly finance the Government of India's fiscal deficit.
- C.To ensure continuous dollar liquidity in the forex market and economise on India's forex reserves.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To replace the existing bilateral swap arrangement with Japan.
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Explanation
The core argument by former DG Patra is that using FIMA would 'flush dollars continuously in and out of the market', making it liquid, while also 'economising on the use of the RBI's foreign exchange reserves' and providing space to rebuild them.
As per the news, which Indian state has declared the end of armed Maoism?
- A.Jharkhand
- B.Odisha
- C.Chhattisgarh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Madhya Pradesh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Deputy Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh declared the end of armed Maoism in the state by March 31, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Chhattisgarh:
1. The state government declared armed Maoism completely eliminated by March 31, 2026.
2. The development focus is now solely on the Surguja region.
3. The government plans to build Bastar's economy on minor forest produce and women-led self-help groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Deputy CM's declaration. Statement 2 is incorrect because the focus is on Bastar, not Surguja (Surguja is mentioned as a region that got rid of Maoism earlier). Statement 3 is correct as the article states the economy will be built on minor forest produce and women-led SHGs.
By what deadline did the Chhattisgarh government declare armed Maoism to be completely eliminated?
- A.March 30, 2026
- B.March 31, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 1, 2026
- D.December 31, 2025
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that armed Maoism was declared 'completely eliminated' in Chhattisgarh by the March 31 deadline. The other dates are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
According to the Deputy Chief Minister's statement in the article, what is the primary post-insurgency focus for the Bastar region?
- A.Increasing large-scale mining activities
- B.Rapid industrialization through special economic zones
- C.Development by preserving tribal culture and creating economic opportunities✓ Correct Answer
- D.Providing direct cash transfers to all tribal households
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Explanation
The article quotes the Deputy CM stating the focus is on 'preserving tribal culture and creating economic opportunities for youth.' He also explicitly denied plans for increasing mining, making option A incorrect. Options B and D are not mentioned as the primary focus.
Which parliamentary Act is being amended by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- A.The States Reorganisation Act, 1956
- B.The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Andhra Pradesh Statehood Act, 2013
- D.The Telangana Formation Act, 2014
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the bill proposes to amend Section 5 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014. This was the Act that bifurcated the erstwhile state.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, proposes to amend Section 6 of the original 2014 Act.
2. The expert committee formed under the 2014 Act was in favour of developing a 'super capital' for Andhra Pradesh.
3. The 'three capitals' formula was proposed by the YSRCP government led by Jagan Mohan Reddy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the bill amends Section 5, not Section 6. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the committee opposed the idea of a 'super capital'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
On which date did the Andhra Pradesh Assembly pass the resolution urging the Centre to amend the law for establishing Amaravati as the state capital?
- A.March 26, 2026
- B.March 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 30, 2026
- D.March 31, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the resolution was passed by the Andhra Pradesh Assembly on March 28, 2026. This is a factual data point examiners can test.
What is the primary objective cited in the article for introducing the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- A.To bifurcate Andhra Pradesh into two new states
- B.To officially recognise Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- C.To extend Hyderabad's status as common capital for another ten years
- D.To establish Visakhapatnam as the new executive capital
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Explanation
The article's core news is the introduction of a bill to amend the 2014 Act specifically to incorporate Amaravati as the state's sole capital, providing it legal sanctity and ending uncertainty.
Under which ministry does the subject of 'Transgender Persons' primarily fall, as evident from the minister piloting the Amendment Bill?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
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Explanation
The article mentions Union Social Justice and Empowerment Minister Virendra Kumar countering charges against the Bill. The welfare and protection of transgender persons is under the mandate of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha a day after its passage in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Bill introduces a definition of 'transgender person' that includes people with 'self-perceived sexual identities'.
3. The government's rationale for amending the 2019 Act was to address its 'existing vague definition'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on March 25, a day after the Lok Sabha cleared it on March 24. Statement 2 is incorrect: The new definition explicitly states it shall NOT include 'persons with different sexual orientations and self-perceived sexual identities'. Statement 3 is correct: The article quotes the government saying the 'existing vague definition' made it impossible to identify genuine beneficiaries.
On which date did President Droupadi Murmu give her assent to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, as per the gazette notification?
- A.March 24, 2026
- B.March 25, 2026
- C.March 30, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.March 31, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Law Ministry said in a gazette notification on Monday (March 30, 2026) that the President had given her assent. March 24 and 25 are the dates of passage in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, respectively. March 31 is the article's publication date.
What is a primary point of contention raised by critics against the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, as per the article?
- A.It increases the budgetary allocation for transgender welfare.
- B.It dilutes the right to self-identification codified in the 2019 Act.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It merges the Ministry of Social Justice with the Ministry of Health.
- D.It mandates compulsory sex reassignment surgery for legal recognition.
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Explanation
The article quotes activists saying 'the community fought to ensure that the right to self-identification was codified into law when the Act was drafted in 2019.' The new biological definition is seen as moving away from that principle. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
As per the news, which committee was constituted by SEBI following a Supreme Court order to oversee the liquidation of PACL's assets?
- A.Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee
- B.Justice R.M. Lodha Committee✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justice A.P. Shah Committee
- D.Justice J.S. Verma Committee
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Explanation
The article states that in February 2016, the Supreme Court directed SEBI to set up a committee under the chairmanship of former Chief Justice of India R.M. Lodha to dispose of PACL's assets for investor refunds.
Consider the following statements regarding the PACL case:
1. The Enforcement Directorate's probe is based on a First Information Report registered by the Central Bureau of Investigation.
2. The total money raised by PACL from investors through its illegal scheme was about ₹48,000 crore.
3. Proceedings under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act have been initiated against some of the accused.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states 'The ED probe is based on a First Information Report registered by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the total money raised was over ₹68,000 crore, while ₹48,000 crore remained unpaid. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'Proceedings under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act have been initiated against Sukhwinder Kaur and Gurpartap Singh.'
According to the news, what is the total value of assets attached by the Enforcement Directorate in the PACL case so far?
- A.₹15,582 crore
- B.₹26,324 crore
- C.₹27,030 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹48,000 crore
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Explanation
The article states: 'During the current financial year, the agency has attached assets worth about ₹26,324 Crore, taking the total attachment in the case so far to ₹27,030 crore.' ₹15,582 crore is the value of the restituted properties, and ₹48,000 crore is the amount unpaid to investors.
What is the primary objective of the Enforcement Directorate's action to transfer properties to the Justice Lodha Committee in the PACL case?
- A.To increase the government's non-tax revenue through asset sales.
- B.To return the funds invested by the victims of the alleged fraudulent scheme.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To penalize the accused by seizing their domestic and foreign assets.
- D.To demonstrate the enforcement powers of the ED under the PMLA.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the move 'is aimed at returning the funds invested by lakhs of victims in an alleged fraudulent scheme operated by the group.' While the other options are related outcomes, the stated primary objective is victim restitution as per the court directive.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 325
- C.Article 326
- D.Article 327
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Explanation
Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India, vesting it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. This is fundamental static GK for Polity sections.
Consider the following statements regarding the electoral process discussed in the article:
1. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls has been conducted for the upcoming Legislative Assembly elections in five states.
2. Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act binds the allegiance of election officials to their respective State Governments.
3. The ECI's Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) programme is aimed at enhancing voter engagement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions elections follow the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 28A binds officials' allegiance solely to the Election Commission of India, not State Governments. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states SVEEP has enhanced voter engagement.
According to the article, what is the approximate ratio of election officials to electors in the upcoming Assembly polls?
- A.1 official for every 50 electors
- B.1 official for every 70 electors✓ Correct Answer
- C.1 official for every 100 electors
- D.1 official for every 120 electors
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Explanation
The article states: 'Over 25 lakh election officials will serve a 17.4 crore electorate in these elections, making it one official for every 70 electors.' This is a direct factual data point.
What is the primary purpose of the ECI's directive for round-the-clock live webcasting of all polling stations, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To increase voter turnout through digital engagement
- B.To provide real-time results on election day
- C.To enhance transparency and monitor for electoral malpractices✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the logistical cost of deploying micro-observers
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Explanation
While the article mentions high voter turnout, the context for live webcasting is set against concerns about election-related violence and the need for vigilance, particularly in states like West Bengal. Its primary purpose is to ensure transparency and deter/record malpractices, not directly boost turnout or reduce costs.
The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) falls under the purview of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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Explanation
PMUY is a scheme related to providing Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) connections, which is under the domain of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. This ministry formulates policies for exploration, production, and distribution of petroleum products including LPG.
Consider the following statements regarding the LPG supply crisis discussed in the article:
1. The crisis was triggered by disruptions in shipping lanes due to a war in West Asia.
2. India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves have a dedicated buffer stock for LPG equivalent to 9.5 days of supply.
3. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) replaced the earlier system of kerosene distribution through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the crisis began following the war in West Asia which disrupted Strait of Hormuz shipping lanes. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves cover about 9.5 days of crude oil supply with no equivalent LPG-specific buffer. Statement 3 is correct as the article explains PMUY replaced the earlier PDS kerosene system.
According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consumption is met through imports?
- A.About 50%
- B.About 60%✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 75%
- D.About 90%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'India imports about 60% of its LPG consumption'. The 90% figure is a distractor, as it refers to the percentage of those imports that pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
What is identified as a key structural flaw in the design of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) according to the article's analysis?
- A.It provided subsidies that were too high, leading to fiscal strain.
- B.It made women formal beneficiaries but left the actual delivery of LPG outside their control.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It focused only on urban households, neglecting rural coverage.
- D.It mandated the use of Indian-made cylinders, limiting supply options.
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Explanation
The article critically analyzes that 'The scheme made women the formal beneficiaries of an entitlement while leaving its actual delivery entirely outside their control.' This is highlighted as a gendered design flaw, especially when supply fails and women revert to biomass without institutional support.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, connects which two bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- C.Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
- D.South China Sea and Java Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is a vital global oil transit route.
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran conflict as per the news article:
1. The conflict began with a U.S.-Israel attack on Iran on February 28, 2026.
2. The price of crude oil has remained stable at around $80 per barrel since the conflict started.
3. Following Ayatollah Khamenei's assassination, Iran's parliament is considering withdrawing from the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the U.S. and Israel attacked Iran on February 28. Statement 2 is incorrect; crude prices have risen from under $80 to around $114 per barrel. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Iran's parliament considering NPT withdrawal post-assassination.
According to the article, what was the approximate price of crude oil per barrel before the U.S.-Iran war began?
- A.Under $60
- B.Under $70
- C.Under $80✓ Correct Answer
- D.Under $90
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Crude prices, under $80 a barrel before the war, are now hovering around $114 a barrel.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic consequence for the United States, as highlighted in the editorial's analysis of the Iran war?
- A.Achieving a swift victory and strengthening regional alliances.
- B.Facing a difficult exit strategy with the risk of a ground invasion worsening the situation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Successfully destroying Iran's military capabilities and reopening the Strait of Hormuz.
- D.Gaining significant economic benefits from increased arms sales.
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Explanation
The editorial's core argument is that the U.S. has no easy exit, a ground invasion would be disastrous, and it is in a strategic quagmire. The other options are contradicted by the article, which states Iran continues to attack U.S. bases and the Strait remains closed.
Which constitutional article primarily guarantees the freedom of religion in India?
- A.Article 19
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 25✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. This is the core article discussed in the context of anti-conversion laws mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the new anti-conversion laws mentioned in the article:
1. The Maharashtra law requires a person intending to convert to give a 30-day prior notice to the authorities.
2. The Chhattisgarh law exempts reconversion to one's ancestral religion from its restrictive provisions.
3. These laws are currently under challenge before the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the Maharashtra law requires a 60-day notice, not 30 days. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the Chhattisgarh legislation. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a batch of petitions is pending before the Supreme Court.
As per the Maharashtra legislation discussed in the article, within how many days must a conversion be registered after notice, or else be treated as null and void?
- A.15 days
- B.25 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.30 days
- D.60 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Conversion must be registered within 25 days, or it will be treated as null and void.' The 60-day option is the notice period, and 30 days is the objection period, making them close distractors.
What is a primary constitutional concern raised by critics of the anti-conversion laws passed by Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh, as per the article?
- A.They violate the federal structure by encroaching on the Union List.
- B.They shift the burden of proof to the accused, infringing on procedural fairness and fundamental rights.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They impose unreasonable taxes on religious institutions.
- D.They mandate the use of a particular language for religious ceremonies.
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Explanation
The article criticizes the laws for 'shifting the burden of proof to the accused' and restricting 'the individual freedom of faith'. This directly relates to concerns about infringing upon the right to freedom of religion (Article 25) by creating procedural barriers that assume guilt.
The phrase 'Eva Nammava, Eva Nammava' in the title of the Karnataka Bill is associated with the teachings of which historical figure?
- A.Guru Nanak
- B.Basavanna✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ramanujacharya
- D.Shankaracharya
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the phrase harks back to a *vachana* of the 12th-century philosopher-reformer Basavanna. His teachings emphasized social equality and rejection of caste hierarchy.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Freedom of Choice in Marriage Bill, 2026:
1. It mandates police protection to couples within six hours of receiving a complaint.
2. It proposes a minimum ten-year prison sentence for killings in the name of 'honour'.
3. It establishes state-funded safe houses in every district of Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill proposes a minimum five-year sentence, not ten years. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill provides for establishment of state-funded safe houses in every district. Hence, option B is correct.
According to statistics provided by the Home Minister in the Karnataka Legislature, how many hate crimes against couples has Karnataka witnessed over the past five years?
- A.10
- B.12
- C.15✓ Correct Answer
- D.18
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that Home Minister G. Parameshwara provided statistics of 15 hate crimes against couples over the past five years in Karnataka. The other options are close distractors.
What is a key stated aim of the Karnataka Freedom of Choice in Marriage Bill, 2026, beyond preventing crimes?
- A.To increase state revenue through marriage registration fees
- B.To provide legal safeguards, remedies, and institutional mechanisms for prevention, redressal, and rehabilitation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate compulsory counselling for all marrying couples
- D.To decentralise marriage registration to village panchayats
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Explanation
The article states the Bill's aim is not only to prevent crimes but also 'to provide legal safeguards, remedies, and institutional mechanisms for prevention, redressal, and rehabilitation.' The other options are not mentioned as aims in the provided content.
As per the article, grid stability is a binding duty under which legislation?
- A.The Energy Conservation Act, 2001
- B.The Electricity Act, 2003✓ Correct Answer
- C.The National Electricity Policy
- D.The Renewable Energy Act
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that grid stability is a binding duty under the Electricity Act and the Grid Code. The Electricity Act, 2003 is the primary legislation governing the power sector in India, establishing the legal framework for grid operations.
Consider the following statements regarding the renewable energy situation discussed in the article:
1. Over 4,000 MW of fully commissioned renewable projects in Rajasthan face near-total curtailment during peak solar hours.
2. The curtailment issue is primarily attributed to an operational lapse by grid managers.
3. A joint committee identified technical remedial measures for the grid issue in July 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the curtailment is a 'planning and synchronisation gap, not an operational lapse'. Statement 3 is correct as a joint committee identified measures like STATCOMs in July 2025. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the approximate effective evacuation capacity for Rajasthan's 23 GW of renewable capacity?
- A.Approximately 15 GW
- B.Approximately 17 GW
- C.Approximately 19 GW✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 21 GW
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Explanation
The article states: 'The State has 23 GW of renewable capacity, but effective evacuation stands closer to 19 GW.' The other options are close distractors but not the figure mentioned in the source text.
What is identified as the primary cause of the significant curtailment of solar power in Rajasthan, as per the analysis in the article?
- A.Lack of investor interest in renewable projects
- B.A planning and synchronization gap between generation capacity addition and transmission commissioning✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insufficient sunlight and land resources in the state
- D.Deliberate policy to favor fossil fuel-based power plants
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The curtailment in Rajasthan is a planning and synchronisation gap, not an operational lapse. When generation outpaces transmission commissioning, mismatch appears as curtailment.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which parliamentary committee flagged concerns regarding the slow utilization of Centrally Sponsored Scheme funds for judicial infrastructure?
- A.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance
- B.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Public Grievances, Law and Justice✓ Correct Answer
- C.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs
- D.Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'Parliamentary Standing Committee on Public Grievances, Law and Justice' as the body that flagged concerns on slow CSS fund utilization for judicial infrastructure. This is a specific committee under the Rajya Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding the SNA-SPARSH system:
1. It is a Just-in-Time (JIT) funding system launched in January 2024 to release funds directly to beneficiaries.
2. It was introduced following the rationalization of Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) in 2014-15.
3. According to the article, its implementation led to a significant increase in the final utilization rate of CSS funds across all adopting states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: SNA-SPARSH is a JIT system launched in Jan 2024. Statement 2 is correct; CSS rationalization happened in 2014-15, which was a precursor reform. Statement 3 is incorrect. The article states that while SNA-SPARSH reduced idle funds, utilization rates remained low (e.g., 14% for PMAY-R), indicating it did not lead to a significant increase in final spending.
As per the Union Budget 2026-27 figures mentioned in the article, what was the share of unutilized funds in total revised estimates by December 2025?
- A.42%
- B.18%✓ Correct Answer
- C.14%
- D.50%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "The share of unutilised funds in total revised estimates declined from 42 per cent in 2024-25... to 18 per cent (Rs 69,000 crore) by December 2025." The other figures are distractors: 42% is the 2024-25 figure, 14% is the PMAY-R utilization rate, and 50% relates to the number of schemes with low utilization.
According to the article, what is identified as the primary reason for low Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) utilization despite improvements in fund flow?
- A.Lack of adequate budget allocation from the Centre
- B.Idle funds sitting in state government bank accounts
- C.Procedural bottlenecks at the scheme implementing agency level✓ Correct Answer
- D.Resistance from state governments to central schemes
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the problem is not idle funds in bank accounts (which SNA-SPARSH addressed) but that "scheme implementing agencies are not claiming and spending it in time." It cites CAG report findings of manual processes, verification delays, and beneficiary mapping errors as the procedural bottlenecks causing low utilization.
Which constitutional article empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes and is relevant for the demand to create a new schedule for Denotified and Nomadic Tribes?
- A.Article 330
- B.Article 335
- C.Article 342✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 366
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Explanation
Article 342 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify, with respect to any State or Union Territory, the tribes or tribal communities which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes. The demand for a separate schedule for DNT/NT communities would require an amendment or notification under this framework.
Consider the following statements regarding Denotified and Nomadic Tribes (DNT/NT):
1. They were stigmatized by the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, which was repealed by the Indian state in 1952.
2. The Renke Commission, appointed in 2008, provided the first population estimate for these communities.
3. The Idate Commission report of 2017 recommended their inclusion in the Census but did not provide a specific list of communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 was repealed in 1952. Statement 2 is correct: The 2008 Renke Commission report offered the first population estimate of 10.74 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Idate Commission (2017) did recommend Census inclusion and also identified 1,200 such communities from existing lists and listed 269 unclassified ones, providing a specific list.
As per the article, what is the estimated population range of Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNT/NT) in India?
- A.3-5 crore
- B.5-8 crore
- C.8-14 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.15-20 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that estimates of the DNT/NT population vary between 8 and 14 crore. This highlights the significant size of a population that remains largely uncounted and invisible in official policy.
What is the primary three-fold demand of DNT/NT community organizations as highlighted in the article?
- A.Reservation, Land Rights, and Financial Aid
- B.Cognisance, Categorisation, and Counting✓ Correct Answer
- C.Education, Employment, and Healthcare
- D.Legal Protection, Political Representation, and Cultural Preservation
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Explanation
The article states that the demands begin with three Cs: Cognisance (acknowledge existence), Categorisation (create a new constitutional schedule), and Counting (include them in the Census). This sequence addresses the foundational issue of official recognition before specific welfare measures.
As per the article, who is the ex-officio Chancellor of all state-aided universities in West Bengal?
- A.The Chief Minister of West Bengal
- B.The Governor of West Bengal✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Union Education Minister
- D.The Chairman of the University Grants Commission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the then Governor, C V Ananda Bose, was the 'ex officio Chancellor of all state-aided universities'. This is a standard constitutional provision where the Governor acts as the Chancellor of state universities.
Consider the following statements regarding the new universities established in West Bengal as discussed in the article:
1. All 16 universities established since 2011 have received their statutory recognition and are functioning from permanent campuses.
2. The Supreme Court constituted a committee on July 8, 2024, to break the stalemate between the Governor and the Chief Minister regarding university appointments.
3. Most of these universities depend on guest lecturers who are paid at the UGC-mandated rate of Rs 500 per class.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article clarifies that only Darjeeling Hill University had statutory recognition earlier; the other 10 got it only in January 2026, and seven function from temporary premises. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned: 'On July 8, 2024, the Supreme Court constituted a committee to break the stalemate.' Statement 3 is correct: The article states most depend on guest lecturers 'working at the UGC-mandated rate of Rs 500 per class.'
According to the article, what is the total approximate number of students enrolled across the eight new West Bengal universities that shared their data?
- A.Approximately 5,000 students
- B.Approximately 10,000 students
- C.Approximately 17,000 students✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 25,000 students
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'Currently, around 17,000 students are enrolled across eight of these universities, with three not sharing their exact numbers.' The other options are distractors not supported by the text.
What is identified as a primary consequence of the lack of permanent infrastructure and faculty in the newly established West Bengal universities, as per the article?
- A.A significant increase in research output and international collaborations.
- B.High student dropout rates and declining year-on-year admissions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An oversupply of highly qualified permanent teaching staff.
- D.Substantial revenue generation through high tuition fees.
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Explanation
The article details multiple instances of high dropout rates (e.g., Dakshin Dinajpur University) and declining admissions (e.g., Harichand Guruchand University), directly linking these trends to the lack of proper infrastructure and permanent faculty. The other options are opposite to the article's findings.
The home voting facility for senior citizens and PwD electors, as mentioned in the news, is provided under which Act?
- A.The Indian Constitution
- B.The Representation of the People Act, 1951✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Election Commission Act, 1991
- D.The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the home voting facility is availed as per the Representation of the People Act, 1951. This Act governs all electoral procedures in India, including postal ballots.
Consider the following statements regarding the home voting initiative:
1. The facility is available to all electors aged above 80 years.
2. Polling officials visit the homes of eligible electors to have a postal ballot filled.
3. The process for the April 9 polls will be completed by April 5.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article specifies the age criteria is 'above 85 years,' not 80. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the process. Statement 3 is correct as the EC said the process 'will be completed by April 5'.
According to the news, what percentage of total eligible electors aged above 85 years had opted for home voting?
- A.15%
- B.53%✓ Correct Answer
- C.70%
- D.85%
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Explanation
The article states: 'EC said 1.67 lakh electors above 85, or 53% of the total number of such electors, had opted for home voting.' The other percentage, 15%, refers to PwD electors.
What is the primary objective of the home voting facility announced by the Election Commission?
- A.To increase overall voter turnout by any means necessary
- B.To provide a facility for electors aged above 85 and Persons with Disabilities (PwD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace traditional polling stations entirely
- D.To allow online voting from personal computers
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Explanation
The article's core is about enabling voting access for two specific vulnerable groups facing mobility challenges: senior citizens above 85 and Persons with Disabilities. While it may increase turnout among these groups, that is a secondary effect. The facility does not replace polling stations for others.
Which state police department has the post of 'Additional Director General (Naxal Operations)' as mentioned in the article?
- A.Andhra Pradesh Police
- B.Chhattisgarh Police✓ Correct Answer
- C.Jharkhand Police
- D.Odisha Police
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Explanation
The article quotes Chhattisgarh Additional Director General (Naxal Operations) Vivekanand Sinha. This post is specifically mentioned within the Chhattisgarh Police structure to handle anti-Naxal operations in the state.
Consider the following statements regarding the anti-Maoist operations in Chhattisgarh:
1. The operations were initiated following a deadline set by the Union Home Minister for eradicating Left Wing Extremism.
2. The security forces established over 100 new police camps in the Bastar region to consolidate their gains.
3. The surrender of Politburo member Thippiri Tirupathi (Devuji) occurred before the killing of General Secretary Nambala Kesava Rao (Basavaraju).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Union Home Minister Amit Shah set March 31, 2026 as the deadline. Statement 2 is correct: 103 new police camps were set up, largely in Bastar districts. Statement 3 is incorrect: Thippiri Tirupathi surrendered in February 2026, while Nambala Kesava Rao was killed in May 2025. Therefore, the surrender happened after the killing.
According to the article, how many Maoists were killed in Chhattisgarh during the two-year intensive operations from 2024 to 2026?
- A.420
- B.500
- C.531✓ Correct Answer
- D.600
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that '531 Maoists have been killed in the state' during this period. Option B (500) is a close distractor, referring to the number killed specifically in the Bastar region, while option C is the total for the entire state.
As per the police officials quoted, what is the primary future challenge mentioned after the significant gains against Maoists in Chhattisgarh?
- A.Rehabilitation of surrendered cadres into mainstream society
- B.Clearing improvised explosive devices (IEDs) planted earlier by Maoists✓ Correct Answer
- C.Expanding administrative outreach in previously inaccessible regions
- D.Preventing the regrouping of Maoist leadership from neighboring states
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Explanation
Inspector General Sundarraj explicitly states: 'One challenge is the threat posed by improvised explosive devices (IEDs) planted earlier by Maoists.' While rehabilitation, administrative outreach, and consolidation are also mentioned as part of the way forward, the immediate and specific 'challenge' highlighted is the IED threat.
Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which government has the authority to declare a wild animal as 'vermin' for a specific area?
- A.State Government
- B.Central Government✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Board for Wildlife
- D.Supreme Court
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Explanation
As per Schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the power to declare a species as vermin for a specific area and period rests with the Central Government. This is a key point of contention mentioned in the article, where Kerala's demand to declare wild boar as vermin has been repeatedly rejected by the Centre.
Consider the following statements regarding the human-wildlife conflict in Kerala as per the article:
1. According to Kerala government data, 70 out of 140 state constituencies are grappling with wildlife attacks.
2. From 2020-21 to 2024-25, over 6,000 people were injured in attacks by wild animals.
3. The LDF government in Kerala has successfully passed and implemented an amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, to address the crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states '70 of the state’s 140 constituencies have been grappling with wildlife attacks'. Statement 2 is correct as the data mentions '6,329 people were injured'. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Assembly passed a Bill to amend the Act, the article clarifies it 'has yet to get the Centre’s approval' and is not implemented.
As per the Kerala government data cited in the article, how many incidents of crop loss due to wildlife were reported from 2020-21 to 2024-25?
- A.52,199
- B.58,199
- C.62,199✓ Correct Answer
- D.66,199
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'There had been 62,199 incidents of crop loss during this period.' The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall of the figure mentioned in the data snapshot.
What is a primary socio-economic consequence of the human-wildlife conflict in Kerala villages like Vadakkanad, as described in the article?
- A.Increased investment in agricultural technology
- B.Mass migration and abandonment of farmlands leading to village decline✓ Correct Answer
- C.Enhanced cooperation between political parties on a solution
- D.A significant rise in compensatory payments from the government
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Explanation
The article details how villages are becoming 'desolate' with 'uninhabited houses', people migrating due to fear, and youths leaving for sundry jobs. It explicitly states 'farmers have abandoned their land' and 'about 50 families are said to have moved out of the village'. While compensation is mentioned, it is described as 'meagre', and political cooperation is shown to be lacking.
The landmark ruling discussed in the news was delivered by which judicial body?
- A.The United States Supreme Court
- B.The Los Angeles Superior Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
- D.The California State Legislature
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the verdict was delivered by a jury in the Los Angeles Superior Court. The Supreme Court is mentioned in the context of a different, earlier case (Gonzalez v. Google).
Consider the following statements regarding the Meta-YouTube ruling:
1. The platforms were held liable under product liability law for designing defective and addictive features.
2. The case successfully challenged the immunity provided to platforms under Section 230 of the Indian IT Act, 2000.
3. The verdict awarded $3 million in compensatory damages, with a larger share going to YouTube.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the case framed platforms as 'defective products'. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 230 is part of the US Communications Decency Act, not the Indian IT Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; the larger share (70%) went to Meta, not YouTube.
According to the internal Meta research cited in the article, what percentage of teenage girls reported that Instagram made them feel worse about their body image?
- A.25%
- B.32%✓ Correct Answer
- C.45%
- D.51%
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the internal research reported by The Wall Street Journal, which found that '32% of teen girls said Instagram made them feel worse.' This is a key data point from the 'Facebook Files'.
What is the primary legal significance of the 'defective product' argument used against Meta and YouTube in the case?
- A.It directly repeals Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act.
- B.It shifts liability focus from user-generated content to the platform's own design and architecture.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It establishes that social media platforms are publishers, not intermediaries.
- D.It mandates the immediate shutdown of features like infinite scroll and autoplay.
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Explanation
The core legal innovation was to sidestep Section 230 immunity, which protects platforms from liability for user content, by arguing the product (the platform's design) itself was defective. This changes the fundamental basis for holding tech companies accountable.
Which ministry has proposed making its advisories legally binding on internet platforms, as per the news?
- A.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Communications
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'IT ministry' (Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology - MeitY) issued the proposed rules. It is the nodal ministry for the Information Technology Act and related policies.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed changes to IT rules:
1. Non-compliance with IT Ministry advisories would be treated as a failure to meet conditions for safe harbour.
2. The government has recently compressed the timeline for platforms to take down flagged content to 12 hours from 72 hours.
3. The proposed changes aim to strengthen enforceability and improve legal certainty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the timeline was compressed to 3 hours from 36 hours, not 12 hours from 72 hours. Statement 3 is correct as the ministry's notice mentions these aims. Hence, option C is correct.
As per the draft rules, by what date is the public feedback invited?
- A.March 31, 2026
- B.April 7, 2026
- C.April 14, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 21, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the ministry's notice is 'inviting public feedback by April 14.' The other dates are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary intended consequence of making government advisories legally binding for tech platforms, as per the proposal?
- A.To increase government revenue through fines on non-compliance.
- B.To strengthen the enforceability of government directions by linking them to safe harbour protection.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the judicial backlog by minimizing court cases against platforms.
- D.To promote Indian startups by creating a level playing field.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the ministry saying the changes are proposed to 'strengthen enforceability' and 'improve legal certainty'. The mechanism to achieve this is by treating non-compliance as a failure to meet safe harbour conditions, which is a powerful deterrent for platforms. The other options are not the primary objective stated in the article.
The Houthi rebel group, mentioned in the context of the Iran-US war, is formally known by what name?
- A.Hezbollah
- B.Islamic State
- C.Ansar Allah✓ Correct Answer
- D.Taliban
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Houthis are formally known as 'Ansar Allah', which translates to 'Partisans of God'. The other options are distinct militant or political groups in the Middle East and South Asia.
Consider the following statements regarding the strategic straits mentioned in the article:
1. The Strait of Hormuz is a vital passage for approximately 20% of the world's oil and liquefied natural gas.
2. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is approximately 50-60 km wide and serves as the sole route for Mediterranean-Indian Ocean trade.
3. Disruption at the Bab el-Mandeb Strait could force ships to take the longer route via the Cape of Good Hope in South Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bab el-Mandeb Strait is 26-32 km wide, not 50-60 km, and while it is a key route, it is not the 'sole' route (others exist, like the Suez Canal). Statement 3 is correct, as the article details the rerouting via the Cape of Good Hope.
According to the article, what percentage of global trade usually passes through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait?
- A.5-7%
- B.10-12%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15-18%
- D.20-22%
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Explanation
The article states that the Bab el-Mandeb Strait 'serves as a maritime artery for 10-12 per cent of global trade.' The 20% figure corresponds to oil/LNG through the Strait of Hormuz, making it a potential distractor.
What is the primary strategic implication of the Houthis threatening the Bab el-Mandeb Strait in the context of the US-Iran war?
- A.It directly leads to a ground invasion of Iran by US troops.
- B.It diverts international attention away from human rights issues in Yemen.
- C.It broadens the conflict into a regional energy and supply chain crisis, increasing global economic costs.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It ensures the security of Saudi Arabia's oil exports through the Red Sea.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis is that Houthi actions threaten a vital global trade chokepoint (Bab el-Mandeb), which, combined with the threat to Hormuz, escalates the war's economic impact worldwide. The other options are either incorrect (A, D) or not the primary implication discussed (B).
Which High Court delivered the judgment scrapping the bank guarantee requirement for super-specialty medical admissions?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Madras High Court
- C.Rajasthan High Court✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the 'Rajasthan High Court' has held that the state cannot impose the bank guarantee requirement. Justice Nupur Bhati of the Rajasthan High Court heard the writ petition.
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High Court judgment on bank guarantee for medical admissions:
1. The court held that the new condition could be applied to candidates who had already cleared NEET-SS.
2. The judgment relied on the principle that candidates are governed by the policy in force when the admission process began.
3. The court directed that the petitioners would be governed by the state's policy dated April 1, 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held the opposite: the new condition could NOT be applied retrospectively to candidates who had already cleared NEET-SS. Statement 2 is correct as the court ruled candidates are governed by the policy at the start of the process. Statement 3 is correct as the court disposed of the petition directing that petitioners be governed by the earlier April 1, 2025 policy.
On which date did the Rajasthan High Court pass the order quashing the bank guarantee requirement for NEET-SS admissions?
- A.January 28, 2026
- B.March 19, 2026
- C.March 25, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 1, 2025
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Explanation
The article states, 'the court said on March 25.' January 28, 2026 is the date of the challenged government order. March 19, 2026 is the date of a referenced earlier judgment (Dr Ishant Kumar Sahu case). April 1, 2025 is the date of the earlier policy that was upheld.
What was the primary legal ground on which the Rajasthan High Court struck down the bank guarantee requirement?
- A.Violation of the right to privacy
- B.Lack of legislative competence of the state government
- C.Retrospective application violating legitimate expectation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Conflict with central government's NEET guidelines
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Explanation
The court's core observation was that applying the new condition after the process had begun was a retrospective change that violated the doctrine of legitimate expectation. The article explicitly states the move 'violated the principle of legitimate expectation' and that such a change 'is legally unsustainable.'
As per the article, which entity is the Central Transmission Utility (CTU) of India, involved in the joint committee on grid remedies?
- A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
- B.Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (PGCIL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.NTPC Limited
- D.Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
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Explanation
The article mentions PGCIL as part of a joint committee. PGCIL is designated as the Central Transmission Utility (CTU) under the Electricity Act, 2003, responsible for the inter-state transmission system.
Consider the following statements regarding the renewable energy curtailment issue discussed in the article:
1. Over 4,000 MW of fully commissioned renewable projects in Rajasthan face near-total curtailment during peak solar hours.
2. The curtailment is primarily due to an operational lapse by the grid operators during peak hours.
3. A joint committee involving PGCIL and Siemens identified technical remedies like Static Synchronous Compensators in July 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the curtailment is a 'planning and synchronisation gap, not an operational lapse.' Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the joint committee and its findings in July 2025.
According to the article, what is the approximate effective evacuation capacity for renewable energy in Rajasthan, against its total installed capacity of 23 GW?
- A.Approximately 17 GW
- B.Approximately 19 GW✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approximately 21 GW
- D.Approximately 23 GW
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Explanation
The article states: 'The State has 23 GW of renewable capacity, but effective evacuation stands closer to 19 GW.' This highlights the gap between installed capacity and the transmission system's usable capability.
What is identified as a fundamental requirement to resolve the renewable energy curtailment crisis, as per the article's conclusion?
- A.Imposing stricter penalties on renewable generators for grid instability.
- B.Synchronized commissioning of transmission projects with generation capacity.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing the national target for renewable energy capacity addition.
- D.Privatizing all interstate transmission corridors.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that 'Transmission projects need to be commissioned in step with generation.' It calls for disciplined implementation and alignment to bridge the planning gap, not penalties, target reduction, or privatization.
The Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment is based on which Articles of the Constitution of India?
- A.Articles 19 and 21
- B.Articles 14 and 16✓ Correct Answer
- C.Articles 32 and 226
- D.Articles 309 and 311
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Explanation
The judgment explicitly states that the right to be considered for promotion is a fundamental right under Article 14 (Equality before law) and Article 16(1) (Equality of opportunity in public employment). Articles 19 and 21 relate to freedoms and right to life, while 32/226 are for remedies and 309/311 are for service conditions.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment:
1. It declared that getting a promotion is a fundamental right of every government employee.
2. It directed that Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC) meetings must be held every six months.
3. It cited that delayed DPCs cause financial loss and adversely impact future career progression of employees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court declared the right to be 'considered' for promotion as fundamental, not the right to 'get' promoted. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court directed quarterly (every three months) DPC meetings, not every six months. Statement 3 is correct as the order mentions that delayed promotions cause financial loss and impact future progression.
As per the Punjab and Haryana High Court's order, how frequently must the Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC) meetings be held?
- A.Monthly
- B.Every three months (Quarterly)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Every six months (Bi-annually)
- D.Annually
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Explanation
The court's order explicitly directs the respondents to hold DPCs every three months (quarterly) during every calendar year. This is also in line with the Punjab government's instructions from May 8, 2017, mentioned in the article.
What is the primary legal distinction established by the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment, as reinforced by other High Courts mentioned in the article?
- A.Promotion is a vested right but consideration is not.
- B.Consideration for promotion is a fundamental right, but promotion itself is not a vested right.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Both consideration and promotion are fundamental rights under Article 21.
- D.Promotion is a privilege, not a right of any kind.
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Explanation
The core legal principle established is that an employee has a fundamental right (under Articles 14 & 16) to be considered for promotion. However, they do not possess a vested right to actually be promoted, as the final decision depends on vacancies, merit, and DPC recommendations. This distinction is highlighted by the court's own words and references to other rulings.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 352
- C.Article 368
- D.Article 14
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Explanation
Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission and vests in it the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. This constitutional basis is central to understanding the EC's powers, as highlighted in the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Calcutta High Court judgment:
1. The Court struck down the Election Commission's orders transferring officers in West Bengal.
2. The Court held that the petitioner failed to establish that the transfers were arbitrary or caused public injury.
3. The Court observed that a transfer is an incident of service.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court did not strike down the EC's orders; it dismissed the PIL challenging them. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment explicitly states the petitioner could not establish arbitrariness or public injury. Statement 3 is correct as the Court noted that 'a transfer is an incident of service'.
When are the votes for the 2026 West Bengal Assembly elections scheduled to be counted, as per the article?
- A.April 29, 2026
- B.May 2, 2026
- C.May 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.May 6, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Votes will be counted on May 4.' The other dates are close distractors; April 29 is the second phase of polling, not counting.
What was the primary legal reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for dismissing the PIL against the Election Commission's transfer orders?
- A.The petitioner did not have the necessary political standing to file the case.
- B.The Court found the transfers to be perfectly justified and necessary.
- C.The petitioner failed to prove the transfers were arbitrary and caused injury to public interest.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The matter was outside the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court.
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Explanation
The core legal reasoning, as stated in the judgment, is that the petitioner 'could not establish that the actions were arbitrary and had hurt public interest.' This failure to meet the basic maintainability criteria for a PIL led to its dismissal. The Court did not rule on the justification or necessity of the transfers.
The 'India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)', mentioned in the news, falls under the purview of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) for driving India's strategies for developing a sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem. This is a key static fact for governance-related questions.
Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor developments mentioned in the news:
1. The Kaynes Semicon facility inaugurated in Sanand is a wafer fabrication (fab) unit.
2. India's current global semiconductor market is valued at over ₹4.5 lakh crore.
3. The 'Pax Silica' initiative is an India-led coalition focused on securing supply chains for critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the facility is for 'semiconductor assembly and test', which is an ATMP unit, not a wafer fab. Statement 2 is correct as per PM Modi's quote. Statement 3 is incorrect; Pax Silica is a U.S.-led coalition, not India-led.
According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the Kaynes Semicon facility inaugurated in Sanand?
- A.₹1,600 crore
- B.₹3,300 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹4,500 crore
- D.₹9,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The plant, built at an estimated cost of ₹3,300 crore...'. ₹1.60 lakh crore is the value of projects under ISM, ₹4.5 lakh crore is the current market size, and ₹9 lakh crore is the 2030 target.
What is the primary strategic objective behind India's push for semiconductor manufacturing, as reflected in the news?
- A.To reduce the cost of consumer electronics for the domestic market.
- B.To achieve self-reliance and build resilience in a critical technology supply chain.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To generate employment primarily in the software design sector.
- D.To export semiconductors and earn foreign exchange as the main revenue driver.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes vulnerabilities in global supply chains due to conflicts and the pandemic, and India's move to position itself as a 'reliable supplier'. This points to the core objectives of strategic autonomy (Atmanirbhar Bharat) and supply chain resilience, not merely cost reduction or forex earnings.
According to the EY report, which of the following sectors is identified as being directly impacted and employment-intensive?
- A.Information Technology and Pharmaceuticals
- B.Textiles, Paints, Chemicals, and Cement✓ Correct Answer
- C.Automobiles and Electronics
- D.Real Estate and Construction
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Explanation
The EY report explicitly mentions textiles, paints, chemicals, fertilizers, cement, and tires as sectors that could be directly impacted, noting they are employment-intensive. The other sectors are not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the EY report on the West Asia conflict's impact:
1. The report estimates that India's real GDP growth for FY27 could be eroded by around 1 percentage point from a baseline of 7%.
2. The report states that India imports nearly 75% of its crude oil requirements, making it vulnerable.
3. The government's ₹1-lakh crore Economic Stabilisation Fund (ESF) was introduced in FY26 to act as a financial buffer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India imports nearly 90% of its crude oil, not 75%. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Therefore, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the EY 'Economy Watch' report, what is the estimated potential increase in India's CPI inflation for FY27 if the West Asia conflict persists?
- A.0.5 percentage points
- B.1.0 percentage points
- C.1.5 percentage points✓ Correct Answer
- D.2.0 percentage points
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Explanation
The report clearly states that CPI inflation could rise by approximately 1.5 percentage points from its baseline estimate of 4%. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary mechanism through which the West Asia conflict is expected to impact the Indian economy, as per the EY report?
- A.Through a decline in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows.
- B.Through disruptions in global crude oil and energy markets affecting supply and prices.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Through sanctions imposed on Indian trade with the region.
- D.Through a reduction in remittances from the Indian diaspora in West Asia.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the conflict has 'significantly disrupted global crude oil and energy markets by affecting supply, storage, transportation and prices.' This is identified as the primary channel of impact, given India's high import dependency. The other options, while possible secondary effects, are not the core mechanism highlighted in the report.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which authority initially takes cognisance of a case based on a police chargesheet?
- A.The Investigating Police Officer
- B.The Magistrate or Judge✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Public Prosecutor
- D.The District Collector
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Explanation
As per the article, the stage of 'Cognisance & Summoning' involves the court (Magistrate or Judge) taking cognisance if a prima facie case exists. This is a judicial function, not an executive or investigative one.
Consider the following statements regarding the criminal trial process in India:
1. For a cognisable offence, the process begins with filing a complaint directly before a magistrate.
2. The court frames charges against the accused only after the stage of recording the prosecution evidence.
3. Under Section 351 of the BNSS, the accused is questioned by the court to explain incriminating evidence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. For cognisable offences, the process begins with filing an FIR with the police, not a complaint to a magistrate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The framing of charges happens after cognisance and supply of documents, but BEFORE the recording of prosecution evidence. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article for the stage 'Statement of Accused (Section 351 BNSS)'.
As per the infographic explained in the article, how many distinct stages are outlined in the criminal trial process from complaint to verdict?
- A.10
- B.11
- C.12✓ Correct Answer
- D.13
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Explanation
The article's title and infographic clearly state '12 step visual guide' and list 12 stages from FIR/Complaint to Judgment & Sentencing. This is a direct factual recall question.
What is the primary purpose of the 'Supply of Documents' stage in a criminal trial as described in the process?
- A.To allow the prosecution to prepare its final arguments.
- B.To ensure the accused has access to all evidence against them for a fair defence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enable the judge to write the final judgment.
- D.To formally close the police investigation.
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Explanation
The 'Supply of Documents' stage, where the 'Accused receives copies of the final report and all documents filed by the police', is a fundamental fair trial right. It allows the accused to know the case against them and prepare an effective defence, upholding the principles of natural justice.
Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) does the appropriate government have the power to suspend or remit sentences, as referenced in the Supreme Court order?
- A.Section 428
- B.Section 432✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 433A
- D.Section 482
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Gujarat government's 1992 policy was framed under Section 432 of the CrPC, 1973, which deals with the power to suspend or remit sentences.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations in the news:
1. The right to premature release is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
2. Once a State Government frames a policy for premature release, it creates a vested right for eligible prisoners.
3. The Supreme Court warned of personal contempt proceedings against the Chief Secretary of Gujarat if its order is not complied with.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states the SC said "the right for premature release is not a fundamental right." Statement 2 is correct as per the Court's observation that it becomes a "vested right." Statement 3 is correct as the order directed the personal appearance of the Chief Secretary and others to show cause.
According to the Gujarat government's 1992 policy cited by the Supreme Court, when should the process for a convict's premature release be initiated?
- A.Six months prior to completion of 14 years
- B.Three months prior to completion of 14 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.On the day of completion of 14 years
- D.One year prior to completion of 14 years
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Explanation
The Supreme Court order quotes the policy: "the process is to be initiated three months prior to the date on which the person completes 14 years of imprisonment."
What was the primary legal consequence highlighted by the Supreme Court for delaying a premature release decision beyond the statutory period?
- A.It constitutes a violation of the right to equality under Article 14.
- B.The continued detention would be considered 'illegal custody'.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It automatically reduces the convict's sentence by the period of delay.
- D.It mandates a monetary compensation to the convict from the state.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Court stating that "every day beyond the period which in law has been prescribed... the person would be considered to be in illegal custody." This is the core legal consequence emphasized.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 31 March 2026?▼
This page contains 160 current affairs questions from 31 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 31 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. constitutional body is responsible for the delimitation of par…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the delimitation f…
- Q3. As per the article, which of the following Total Fertility Rat…
- Q4. is the primary objective of proposing a 'Demographic Performan…
- Q5. constitutional body is responsible for redrawing parliamentary…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reserv…
- Q7. According to the recent government proposal discussed in the a…
- Q8. is the primary political rationale cited in the article for th…
- Q9. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita …
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Meghalaya High…
- Q11. In the specific case referenced by the Meghalaya High Court, w…
- Q12. was the primary socio-cultural factor highlighted by the Megha…
- Q13. ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the PM-KUSU…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the PM-KUSUM schem…
- Q15. As of February 2026, what percentage of its target capacity ha…
- Q16. is the primary rationale proposed for adding a battery storage…
- Q17. constitutional article, through judicial interpretation, is mo…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka's 'Eva N…
- Q19. According to the article, approximately how many cases of hono…
- Q20. is a primary institutional mechanism established by the Karnat…
- Q21. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, w…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
- Q23. As per the Ministry of Home Affairs review mentioned in the ar…
- Q24. is the primary objective behind the Reserve Bank of India's di…
- Q25. international institute publishes the annual data on global mi…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding India's defence im…
- Q27. According to the SIPRI report cited, what was India's estimate…
- Q28. is the primary strategic objective reflected in India's shift …
- Q29. ministry is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the J…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission…
- Q31. According to the Jal Shakti Ministry's latest data cited in th…
- Q32. is a key new feature of the Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0, as indicat…
- Q33. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, …
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
- Q35. The Rajasthan High Court bench expressing concerns about the 2…
- Q36. was the primary constitutional concern raised by the Rajasthan…
- Q37. Under which Act are Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs) es…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh…
- Q39. To what amount did the Madhya Pradesh High Court enhance the t…
- Q40. is the primary legal significance of the Madhya Pradesh High C…
- Q41. institution in India is primarily responsible for managing exc…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Rupee's…
- Q43. According to the article, what was India's crude oil import re…
- Q44. As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as the …
- Q45. national mission, launched in 2021, is primarily responsible f…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor …
- Q47. According to the article, what is the estimated cost of buildi…
- Q48. is the primary strategic rationale, as highlighted by PM Modi …
- Q49. The FIMA Repo Facility, discussed in the news, is operated by …
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the FIMA Repo Faci…
- Q51. According to the article, in which year was the US Federal Res…
- Q52. is the primary objective, as argued in the article, for the RB…
- Q53. As per the news, which Indian state has declared the end of ar…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Chhatt…
- Q55. By what deadline did the Chhattisgarh government declare armed…
- Q56. According to the Deputy Chief Minister's statement in the arti…
- Q57. parliamentary Act is being amended by the Andhra Pradesh Reorg…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q59. On which date did the Andhra Pradesh Assembly pass the resolut…
- Q60. is the primary objective cited in the article for introducing …
- Q61. Under which ministry does the subject of 'Transgender Persons'…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
- Q63. On which date did President Droupadi Murmu give her assent to …
- Q64. is a primary point of contention raised by critics against the…
- Q65. As per the news, which committee was constituted by SEBI follo…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the PACL case: 1.…
- Q67. According to the news, what is the total value of assets attac…
- Q68. is the primary objective of the Enforcement Directorate's acti…
- Q69. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the electoral proc…
- Q71. According to the article, what is the approximate ratio of ele…
- Q72. is the primary purpose of the ECI's directive for round-the-cl…
- Q73. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) falls under the purvi…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the LPG supply cri…
- Q75. According to the article, what percentage of India's LPG consu…
- Q76. is identified as a key structural flaw in the design of the Pr…
- Q77. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran conf…
- Q79. According to the article, what was the approximate price of cr…
- Q80. is a primary strategic consequence for the United States, as h…
- Q81. constitutional article primarily guarantees the freedom of rel…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the new anti-conve…
- Q83. As per the Maharashtra legislation discussed in the article, w…
- Q84. is a primary constitutional concern raised by critics of the a…
- Q85. The phrase 'Eva Nammava, Eva Nammava' in the title of the Karn…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Free…
- Q87. According to statistics provided by the Home Minister in the K…
- Q88. is a key stated aim of the Karnataka Freedom of Choice in Marr…
- Q89. As per the article, grid stability is a binding duty under whi…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the renewable ener…
- Q91. According to the article, what is the approximate effective ev…
- Q92. is identified as the primary cause of the significant curtailm…
- Q93. parliamentary committee flagged concerns regarding the slow ut…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the SNA-SPARSH sys…
- Q95. As per the Union Budget 2026-27 figures mentioned in the artic…
- Q96. According to the article, what is identified as the primary re…
- Q97. constitutional article empowers the President to specify Sched…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding Denotified and Nom…
- Q99. As per the article, what is the estimated population range of …
- Q100. is the primary three-fold demand of DNT/NT community organizat…
- Q101. As per the article, who is the ex-officio Chancellor of all st…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the new universiti…
- Q103. According to the article, what is the total approximate number…
- Q104. is identified as a primary consequence of the lack of permanen…
- Q105. The home voting facility for senior citizens and PwD electors,…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the home voting in…
- Q107. According to the news, what percentage of total eligible elect…
- Q108. is the primary objective of the home voting facility announced…
- Q109. state police department has the post of 'Additional Director G…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the anti-Maoist op…
- Q111. According to the article, how many Maoists were killed in Chha…
- Q112. As per the police officials quoted, what is the primary future…
- Q113. Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which government has …
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the human-wildlife…
- Q115. As per the Kerala government data cited in the article, how ma…
- Q116. is a primary socio-economic consequence of the human-wildlife …
- Q117. The landmark ruling discussed in the news was delivered by whi…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the Meta-YouTube r…
- Q119. According to the internal Meta research cited in the article, …
- Q120. is the primary legal significance of the 'defective product' a…
- Q121. ministry has proposed making its advisories legally binding on…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed chang…
- Q123. As per the draft rules, by what date is the public feedback in…
- Q124. is the primary intended consequence of making government advis…
- Q125. The Houthi rebel group, mentioned in the context of the Iran-U…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic stra…
- Q127. According to the article, what percentage of global trade usua…
- Q128. is the primary strategic implication of the Houthis threatenin…
- Q129. High Court delivered the judgment scrapping the bank guarantee…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High…
- Q131. On which date did the Rajasthan High Court pass the order quas…
- Q132. was the primary legal ground on which the Rajasthan High Court…
- Q133. As per the article, which entity is the Central Transmission U…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the renewable ener…
- Q135. According to the article, what is the approximate effective ev…
- Q136. is identified as a fundamental requirement to resolve the rene…
- Q137. The Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment is based on which A…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Punjab …
- Q139. As per the Punjab and Haryana High Court's order, how frequent…
- Q140. is the primary legal distinction established by the Punjab and…
- Q141. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Calcutt…
- Q143. are the votes for the 2026 West Bengal Assembly elections sche…
- Q144. was the primary legal reason cited by the Calcutta High Court …
- Q145. The 'India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)', mentioned in the news…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor …
- Q147. According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the Ka…
- Q148. is the primary strategic objective behind India's push for sem…
- Q149. According to the EY report, which of the following sectors is …
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the EY report on t…
- Q151. According to the EY 'Economy Watch' report, what is the estima…
- Q152. is the primary mechanism through which the West Asia conflict …
- Q153. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which aut…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the criminal trial…
- Q155. As per the infographic explained in the article, how many dist…
- Q156. is the primary purpose of the 'Supply of Documents' stage in a…
- Q157. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) d…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q159. According to the Gujarat government's 1992 policy cited by the…
- Q160. was the primary legal consequence highlighted by the Supreme C…