1 April 2026, Questions & Answers

148 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

148 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  30 min revision

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This page contains 148 current affairs questions with answers from 1 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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1 April 2026, Questions with Answers

148 Qs
Q1.

Which regulatory body issued the directive banning Non-Deliverable Derivative contracts involving the Indian Rupee?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has directed authorised dealer banks to discontinue offering non-deliverable derivative contracts. RBI is India's central bank and the primary regulator for foreign exchange markets under FEMA.

Source: RBI Bans Non-Deliverable Rupee Derivatives, Limits AD Net Open FX Exposure to $100 Million →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI directive on forex derivatives:

1. Authorised Dealer banks are prohibited from entering into any non-deliverable derivative transactions linked to the Indian Rupee.

2. The directive allows the rebooking of cancelled foreign exchange derivative contracts under specific conditions.

3. The RBI has set a net open exposure limit of $100 million for Authorised Dealers, with compliance required by April 10.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: banks are prohibited from entering into or facilitating any non-deliverable derivative transactions linked to the rupee. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the regulator has barred the rebooking of any foreign exchange derivative contract that is cancelled after the issuance of these instructions. Statement 3 is correct: the RBI told banks to limit their net open exposure to $100 million by the end of each day, with compliance required by April 10.

Source: RBI Bans Non-Deliverable Rupee Derivatives, Limits AD Net Open FX Exposure to $100 Million →
Q3.

According to the RBI directive, what is the daily net open exposure limit set for Authorised Dealer banks in the forex market?

MediumBanking, UPSC
  • A.$50 million
  • B.$100 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$150 million
  • D.$200 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The RBI last week told banks to limit their net open exposure to the currency in the forex market to $100 million by the end of each day." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: RBI Bans Non-Deliverable Rupee Derivatives, Limits AD Net Open FX Exposure to $100 Million →
Q4.

What is the primary objective of the RBI's ban on non-deliverable rupee derivative contracts?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase revenue for Authorised Dealer banks
  • B.To promote speculative trading in offshore markets
  • C.To strengthen oversight and curb speculative activity in the forex market✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To liberalize capital account convertibility
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the move is "aimed at strengthening oversight in the foreign exchange derivatives market" and is "seen as part of a broader effort to curb speculative activity and enhance transparency." The other options contradict the article's intent: the ban restricts, not promotes, speculation and is a tightening, not a liberalization, measure.

Source: RBI Bans Non-Deliverable Rupee Derivatives, Limits AD Net Open FX Exposure to $100 Million →
Q5.

As per the article, which central armed police force was designated as the primary internal security force of the country by a Group of Ministers in 2001?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Border Security Force (BSF)
  • B.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
  • D.Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CRPF was 'designated as the primary internal security force of the country by a Group of Ministers in 2001'. This is a key institutional fact for internal security questions.

Source: Naxalism 'More or Less Wiped Out' by March 31, 2026 Deadline, 12,000 km Roads Built in Abujhmarh →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the counter-Naxalism strategy discussed in the article:

1. For the first time, a Union Home Minister set a specific deadline to eliminate an insurgency.

2. The Border Roads Organisation constructed roads in Abujhmarh under the security umbrella of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police.

3. The article claims that Naxalism has been completely wiped out from India as of March 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article notes this was unique; no deadlines were set for earlier insurgencies. Statement 2 is incorrect because the security umbrella was provided by the CRPF, not the ITBP. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Home Minister said it was 'more or less wiped out', not completely, as two top leaders remain at large.

Source: Naxalism 'More or Less Wiped Out' by March 31, 2026 Deadline, 12,000 km Roads Built in Abujhmarh →
Q7.

According to the article, what was the total length of roads constructed in the Abujhmarh area, which was crucial in overcoming the Maoist challenge?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.8,000 kilometers
  • B.10,000 kilometers
  • C.12,000 kilometers✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15,000 kilometers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides a precise figure: 'a stretch of 12,000 kilometers was completed'. This factual data point is a prime candidate for a Prelims question on developmental measures in LWE areas.

Source: Naxalism 'More or Less Wiped Out' by March 31, 2026 Deadline, 12,000 km Roads Built in Abujhmarh →
Q8.

What was the primary strategic objective behind the massive road construction initiative in the Abujhmarh area, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To promote tourism in the tribal regions of Chhattisgarh
  • B.To facilitate the forces to rush anywhere in the region in a short time✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide direct connectivity for mineral transport from the forests
  • D.To implement the PM Gram Sadak Yojana in Left-Wing Extremism affected districts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that efforts to construct roads were thwarted by Maoists because it 'would facilitate the forces to rush anywhere in the region in a short time'. This directly links infrastructure development to enhancing security force mobility and response, a core counter-insurgency tactic.

Source: Naxalism 'More or Less Wiped Out' by March 31, 2026 Deadline, 12,000 km Roads Built in Abujhmarh →
Q9.

Which constitutional body is the apex decision-making authority for Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Finance Commission
  • B.GST Council✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
  • D.National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The GST Council is the constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Constitution. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes state finance ministers, and is responsible for making recommendations on GST rates, exemptions, and related matters.

Source: GST Revenue Hits ₹2 Lakh Cr in March 2026, Records 8.8% Growth and Full FY26 Collection Over ₹22.27 Lakh Cr →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding GST collections for March 2026 as per the news article:

1. Gross GST collections grew by 8.8% year-on-year to over ₹2 lakh crore.

2. Gross GST revenue from imports grew by 5.9% to over ₹1.46 lakh crore.

3. Net GST revenues after adjusting refunds stood at about ₹1.78 lakh crore, up 8.2% year-on-year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: gross collections grew 8.8% to over ₹2 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states gross domestic revenues (not import revenues) rose 5.9% to over ₹1.46 lakh crore, while import GST grew 17.8%. Statement 3 is correct: net GST revenues were about ₹1.78 lakh crore, up 8.2%.

Source: GST Revenue Hits ₹2 Lakh Cr in March 2026, Records 8.8% Growth and Full FY26 Collection Over ₹22.27 Lakh Cr →
Q11.

According to the news article, what was the total Gross GST revenue collected for the full fiscal year 2025-26 (April-March)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over ₹19.34 lakh crore
  • B.Over ₹20.00 lakh crore
  • C.Over ₹22.27 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over ₹24.50 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Gross GST revenue for the full 2025-26 (April-March) fiscal recorded a growth of 8.3% to over ₹22.27 lakh crore." ₹19.34 lakh crore is the net revenue after refunds, making it a close distractor.

Source: GST Revenue Hits ₹2 Lakh Cr in March 2026, Records 8.8% Growth and Full FY26 Collection Over ₹22.27 Lakh Cr →
Q12.

What is the primary significance of consistently high GST collection figures, as reported for March 2026 and FY26?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It indicates a reduction in direct tax reliance.
  • B.It reflects strong economic activity and improved tax compliance.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It signals an increase in tax rates by the GST Council.
  • D.It shows a decline in the share of revenue from imports.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

GST is a consumption-based tax. High and growing collections primarily indicate robust economic activity (higher consumption and production) and improved tax compliance due to the formalization of the economy under the GST regime. While it may affect tax mix, that is not the primary significance.

Source: GST Revenue Hits ₹2 Lakh Cr in March 2026, Records 8.8% Growth and Full FY26 Collection Over ₹22.27 Lakh Cr →
Q13.

The Reserve Bank of India was established based on the recommendations of which commission?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Royal Commission on Indian Currency (Hilton Young Commission)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The Finance Commission of India
  • C.The Banking Regulation Committee
  • D.The Monetary Policy Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, the RBI was set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Royal Commission on Indian Currency, also known as the Hilton Young Commission, which was set up in 1926.

Source: RBI History, New Digital Rules & Forex Measures: RBI Established 1935, Mandates 2FA from April 1, Caps Banks' Net Open Position at $100M →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India:

1. It was nationalised on 1st January, 1949 under the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.

2. The MuleHunter.AI tool, developed by the RBI, is made compulsory for all commercial banks to use.

3. The Foreign and International Monetary Authorities (FIMA) Repo Facility is a facility provided by the US Federal Reserve.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions MuleHunter.AI is an AI tool developed by RBI to help banks deal with mule accounts, but it does not state it is 'made compulsory'. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the FIMA Repo Facility is where central banks can place US Treasuries with the Fed (US Federal Reserve).

Source: RBI History, New Digital Rules & Forex Measures: RBI Established 1935, Mandates 2FA from April 1, Caps Banks' Net Open Position at $100M →
Q15.

According to the article, what is the new cap set by the RBI on the net open foreign exchange exposure that banks can hold by the end of each day?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$50 million
  • B.$100 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$250 million
  • D.25% of their total capital
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the RBI instructed banks to limit their net open exposure to the currency in the foreign exchange market to $100 million by the end of each day. The option '25% of their total capital' was the previous, higher allowance.

Source: RBI History, New Digital Rules & Forex Measures: RBI Established 1935, Mandates 2FA from April 1, Caps Banks' Net Open Position at $100M →
Q16.

What is a primary objective of the RBI's new rule making two-factor authentication mandatory for digital payments from April 1, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase transaction processing speed
  • B.To reduce transaction costs for banks
  • C.To make digital transactions safer and reduce fraud✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote the use of physical cash alternatives
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the new rules are introduced 'To make digital transitions safer and reduce fraud'. While other options might be secondary effects, the stated primary objective is enhancing security.

Source: RBI History, New Digital Rules & Forex Measures: RBI Established 1935, Mandates 2FA from April 1, Caps Banks' Net Open Position at $100M →
Q17.

Under which Articles of the Constitution are the provisions of the Sixth Schedule enacted?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Articles 244(1) and 275(1)
  • B.Articles 244(2) and 275(1)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Articles 244 and 371
  • D.Articles 275 and 371
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Sixth Schedule was enacted under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Constitution. Article 244(2) provides for the administration of tribal areas in the specified states, while Article 275(1) provides grants-in-aid for tribal welfare.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule Inclusion Under Articles 244(2) & 275(1) for Tribal Autonomy Post-2019 UT Status →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

1. It applies to the tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

2. It establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with extensive legislative, administrative, and judicial powers.

3. The elected members of an ADC hold office for a term of six years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 244(2). Statement 2 is correct as ADCs have powers to make laws on land, forests, social customs, and administer justice. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states elected members hold office for five years, not six.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule Inclusion Under Articles 244(2) & 275(1) for Tribal Autonomy Post-2019 UT Status →
Q19.

According to the article, what percentage of Ladakh's population belongs to Scheduled Tribes, which is a key argument for its demand for Sixth Schedule inclusion?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 75%
  • B.Over 80%
  • C.Over 90%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 95%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that 'over 90 per cent of Ladakh's population belongs to the Scheduled Tribes.' This demographic fact is central to the demand for constitutional safeguards under the Sixth Schedule.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule Inclusion Under Articles 244(2) & 275(1) for Tribal Autonomy Post-2019 UT Status →
Q20.

What is a primary concern raised by those apprehensive about including Ladakh under the Sixth Schedule, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Potential increase in fiscal deficit for the Union government
  • B.Risk of creating linguistic divisions within the region
  • C.Strategic and security concerns in the sensitive border region✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Incompatibility with the existing Panchayati Raj system
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that Ladakh shares borders with China and Pakistan, and from a security perspective, centralization allows swift decision-making on national defence. Hence, strategic and security concerns are a primary apprehension against granting greater autonomy.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule Inclusion Under Articles 244(2) & 275(1) for Tribal Autonomy Post-2019 UT Status →
Q21.

Through which major strategic strait does nearly 30% of the world's seaborne oil shipments pass, as mentioned in the context of the Iran conflict?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Malacca
  • B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bosporus Strait
  • D.Bab-el-Mandeb
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran is threatening a blockade of the Strait of Hormuz, through which nearly 30% of the world's shipment of oil passes. This is a critical static GK fact related to global energy security and maritime chokepoints.

Source: US-Israel Launch 'Operation Epic Fury' on Iran in 2026, Strait of Hormuz Blockade Threatens 30% Global Oil Shipments →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia conflict discussed in the article:

1. The large-scale joint military operation 'Operation Epic Fury' was launched by the United States and Israel against Iran.

2. The conflict began on February 28, 2025, escalating from a previous 12-day war in June of the same year.

3. A key Iranian retaliation strategy involves provoking an oil crisis by threatening to blockade the Strait of Hormuz.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'the United States and Israel launched large-scale joint military operations against Iran' titled 'Operation Epic Fury'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the conflict began on February 28, 2026 (not 2025), and the previous 12-day war was in June 2025. Statement 3 is correct as Iran hopes to provoke an oil crisis through a blockade of the Strait of Hormuz.

Source: US-Israel Launch 'Operation Epic Fury' on Iran in 2026, Strait of Hormuz Blockade Threatens 30% Global Oil Shipments →
Q23.

According to the article, on which date did the United States and Israel launch the large-scale joint military operations against Iran, marking the start of the major conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.June 12, 2025
  • B.February 28, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 01, 2026
  • D.June 01, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The conflict that began on February 28, 2026, when the United States and Israel launched large-scale joint military operations against Iran'. June 2025 refers to the earlier '12-day war' which was a precursor.

Source: US-Israel Launch 'Operation Epic Fury' on Iran in 2026, Strait of Hormuz Blockade Threatens 30% Global Oil Shipments →
Q24.

What is described as a central symbolic dimension that strengthens Shia resistance against external forces, as mentioned in the analysis of the Iran conflict?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The memory of the Islamic Golden Age
  • B.The narrative of the 'Battle of Karbala'✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The principles of the Iranian Revolution of 1979
  • D.The teachings of modern Ayatollahs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that Shia political culture draws heavily on the memory of the 'Battle of Karbala', which symbolises civilisational resistance, emphasising patience, sacrifice, and endurance. This historical narrative is presented as a key factor that would bolster Iranian resilience against an external war aimed at regime change.

Source: US-Israel Launch 'Operation Epic Fury' on Iran in 2026, Strait of Hormuz Blockade Threatens 30% Global Oil Shipments →
Q25.

Which constitutional body is responsible for recommending allocations to the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Disaster Management Authority
  • D.Inter-State Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Constitution, recommends the devolution of taxes and grants-in-aid, including allocations for the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF). NDMA formulates policy but does not allocate funds.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Allocates ₹2,04,401 Cr to SDRF; Flags Structural Flaws in Disaster Risk Index Formula →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance Commission's disaster funding allocation:

1. It allocated ₹2,04,401 crore to State Disaster Response Funds, representing a 59.5% increase over the 15th Finance Commission's allocation.

2. Its Disaster Risk Index formula uses total state population as the measure for 'Exposure', as recommended by the IPCC's Sixth Assessment Report.

3. Odisha, despite having the highest hazard score in the country, received the largest reduction in its disaster funding share.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the IPCC defines exposure as the population in hazard zones, not total population; the FC's use of total population is criticized. Statement 3 is correct as Odisha lost 1.57 percentage points, the largest reduction.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Allocates ₹2,04,401 Cr to SDRF; Flags Structural Flaws in Disaster Risk Index Formula →
Q27.

According to the article, what is the total allocation made by the 16th Finance Commission for State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1,28,122 crore
  • B.₹1,75,000 crore
  • C.₹2,04,401 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹2,50,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the 16th Finance Commission allocated ₹2,04,401 crore to State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF). The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Allocates ₹2,04,401 Cr to SDRF; Flags Structural Flaws in Disaster Risk Index Formula →
Q28.

What is the primary criticism of the 16th Finance Commission's Disaster Risk Index (DRI) formula as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It underestimates the hazard scores of mountainous states.
  • B.It rewards demographic size over actual hazard exposure.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ignores the vulnerability of urban centers completely.
  • D.It allocates too much funding to coastal states.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core flaw identified is that the DRI uses total state population for 'Exposure', giving highly populous states like UP a high score regardless of how many people actually live in hazard zones. This demographic bias causes high-hazard but less populous states like Odisha to lose funding share.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Allocates ₹2,04,401 Cr to SDRF; Flags Structural Flaws in Disaster Risk Index Formula →
Q29.

Which government organization is responsible for compiling and publishing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.National Statistical Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, is responsible for compiling macroeconomic data like the IIP. The RBI handles monetary data, while Commerce Ministry handles trade data.

Source: India's IIP Growth Hits 5.2% in Feb 2026, Capital Goods Surge 12.5% Amid Core Sector Slowdown →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding India's industrial performance in February 2026 as per the article:

1. The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth was lower than the growth of the Eight Core Industries index.

2. The capital goods sector recorded its highest growth in nearly 28 months.

3. Consumer non-durables witnessed a contraction for the second consecutive month.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because IIP growth (5.2%) was higher than core sector growth (2.3%). Statement 2 is correct as capital goods grew 12.5%, a 28-month high. Statement 3 is correct as consumer non-durables contracted 0.6%, the second month in a row.

Source: India's IIP Growth Hits 5.2% in Feb 2026, Capital Goods Surge 12.5% Amid Core Sector Slowdown →
Q31.

According to the article, what was the growth rate of India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in February 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.4.8%
  • B.5.2%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5.7%
  • D.6.0%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's industrial growth held a positive surprise in February 2026, coming in at 5.2%. The other options are close distractors based on other potential growth figures.

Source: India's IIP Growth Hits 5.2% in Feb 2026, Capital Goods Surge 12.5% Amid Core Sector Slowdown →
Q32.

What does the contraction in consumer non-durables, as highlighted in the news, primarily indicate about the economy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A surge in household savings and investment.
  • B.Weakness in day-to-day consumer sentiment and discretionary spending.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A shift in production towards export-oriented goods.
  • D.Increased government intervention in retail markets.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that spending on non-durables involves greater daily discretion and is a better gauge of consumer sentiment. Its contraction, therefore, signals low consumer sentiment, which correlates with national accounts data showing shrinking household expenditure contribution to GDP.

Source: India's IIP Growth Hits 5.2% in Feb 2026, Capital Goods Surge 12.5% Amid Core Sector Slowdown →
Q33.

The audit report on the 'Late marriage incentive to PVTG households' scheme was tabled by which constitutional authority?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  • B.Comptroller and Auditor General of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report is from the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, which is a constitutional body under Article 148. Its reports are tabled in the legislature.

Source: CAG Finds Odisha's PVTG Late Marriage Scheme Reached Only 58% Beneficiaries, Spending ₹95.24 Lakh Against ₹153.26 Lakh Allocation →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the CAG report on Odisha's PVTG scheme:

1. The scheme 'Late marriage incentive to PVTG households' was introduced under the Odisha PVTG Empowerment and Livelihood Improvement Programme (OPELIP).

2. According to the CAG, the scheme's financial assistance ranged between ₹2,000 and ₹20,000 per beneficiary girl.

3. The audit found that all 17 Micro Project Agencies had detailed records of child marriages in their jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the scheme was introduced under OPELIP in December 2020. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the assistance ranged between ₹2,000 and ₹20,000. Statement 3 is incorrect; the audit found most MPAs had NO details or information regarding child marriages.

Source: CAG Finds Odisha's PVTG Late Marriage Scheme Reached Only 58% Beneficiaries, Spending ₹95.24 Lakh Against ₹153.26 Lakh Allocation →
Q35.

According to the CAG report cited in the article, what percentage of the targeted 1,161 PVTG girls actually received the late marriage incentive during 2019-24?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.48%
  • B.58%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.68%
  • D.78%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that against a target of 1,161 girls, incentives were paid to 677 beneficiaries. (677/1161)*100 equals approximately 58%. This highlights the coverage gap identified by the audit.

Source: CAG Finds Odisha's PVTG Late Marriage Scheme Reached Only 58% Beneficiaries, Spending ₹95.24 Lakh Against ₹153.26 Lakh Allocation →
Q36.

What was the primary objective of the 'Late marriage incentive to PVTG households' scheme as per the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To provide direct financial support to all PVTG families
  • B.To create awareness regarding prevention of early marriage✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase school enrollment among PVTG girls
  • D.To train PVTG youth in livelihood skills
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The objective was to create awareness regarding prevention of early marriage.' The financial incentive was a means to encourage the practice of late marriage within the community, not a general welfare or education scheme.

Source: CAG Finds Odisha's PVTG Late Marriage Scheme Reached Only 58% Beneficiaries, Spending ₹95.24 Lakh Against ₹153.26 Lakh Allocation →
Q37.

Which High Court delivered the order stating that no prior permission is needed for prayer meetings in private dwellings?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Madras High Court
  • B.Chhattisgarh High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi High Court
  • D.Kerala High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Chhattisgarh High Court delivered the order in question. Justice Naresh Kumar Chandravanshi of the Chhattisgarh High Court observed that no law restricts individuals from organizing prayers in their own houses.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Rules No Prior Permission Needed for Religious Prayers in Private Homes; Allahabad HC Delivers Similar Verdict →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court order:

1. The court held that prior permission is mandatory for any religious gathering, even in private homes.

2. The case involved police notices issued under Section 94 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023.

3. The Allahabad High Court has also delivered a similar verdict on prayer meetings in private property.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court specifically said prior permission is NOT required for religious prayers in private dwellings. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which mentions notices under Section 94 of BNSS. Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions a similar order by the Allahabad High Court earlier this year.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Rules No Prior Permission Needed for Religious Prayers in Private Homes; Allahabad HC Delivers Similar Verdict →
Q39.

Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, did the police issue notices to the petitioners in the Chhattisgarh High Court case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 91
  • B.Section 94✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 100
  • D.Section 144
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Station House Officer (SHO) served notices under Section 94 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023. This section deals with the power to investigate cognizable offences.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Rules No Prior Permission Needed for Religious Prayers in Private Homes; Allahabad HC Delivers Similar Verdict →
Q40.

What is the primary condition under which authorities can take action against a religious prayer meeting in a private dwelling, as per the Chhattisgarh High Court order?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.If the meeting involves more than 10 people.
  • B.If prior permission was not sought from the local panchayat.
  • C.If it causes noise pollution or a law-and-order situation.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.If it is conducted by a religious minority group.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court order clearly states that while no prior permission is needed, authorities are free to act if they find any violation in the form of noise pollution or if any law and order situation arises. This is the key condition for state intervention post the gathering.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Rules No Prior Permission Needed for Religious Prayers in Private Homes; Allahabad HC Delivers Similar Verdict →
Q41.

Which court initially declared the election of R. Puthunainar Athithan void in this case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.Madras High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi High Court
  • D.Election Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, P.H. Pandian filed an election petition in the Madras High Court challenging Athithan's victory, and the Madras High Court in 1994 declared his election as void.

Source: Election Declared Void for ₹15,875 Undisclosed Vehicle Expense Under Section 123(6) of RPA, 1951 →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment in the case of R. Puthunainar Athithan:

1. The Court held that the standard of proof for corrupt practices requires a strict mathematical formula.

2. The Court ruled that the burden of proof in an election petition always remains solely with the petitioner.

3. The Court concluded that the candidate had committed a corrupt practice under Section 123(6) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court specifically stated 'No mathematical formula can be laid on the degree of proof.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court held that when the petitioner adduces evidence of corrupt practice, the burden shifts to the returned candidate to rebut it. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states the Apex court concluded the appellant had committed corrupt practice under Section 123(6).

Source: Election Declared Void for ₹15,875 Undisclosed Vehicle Expense Under Section 123(6) of RPA, 1951 →
Q43.

What was the statutory limit for election campaign expenses in 1991, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹25,000
  • B.₹36,350
  • C.₹50,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹75,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Athithan declared expenses of ₹36,350, which was 'well within the statutory limit of ₹50,000.' The other figures are related: ₹36,350 is the declared expense, and ₹25,000 and ₹75,000 are distractors.

Source: Election Declared Void for ₹15,875 Undisclosed Vehicle Expense Under Section 123(6) of RPA, 1951 →
Q44.

What was the primary legal consequence of not accounting for the expenditure of the second campaign vehicle (TNH-555) in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It led to a fine imposed by the Election Commission.
  • B.It constituted a corrupt practice under the law, voiding the election.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It resulted in a reduction of the candidate's victory margin.
  • D.It prompted an investigation by the Central Bureau of Investigation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court concluded that withholding the expense of the second vehicle meant the true account would have exceeded the ₹50,000 limit, which is a corrupt practice under Section 123(6) of the RPA, 1951. This corrupt practice was the grounds for declaring the election void.

Source: Election Declared Void for ₹15,875 Undisclosed Vehicle Expense Under Section 123(6) of RPA, 1951 →
Q45.

As per the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, who is the authority responsible for issuing a certificate of transgender identity?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Chief Medical Officer
  • B.District Magistrate✓ Correct Answer
  • C.State Medical Board
  • D.National Commission for Transgender Persons
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the 2026 Amendment Act mandates that a certificate of transgender identity will be issued by a district magistrate after examining the recommendation of a designated medical board. The Chief Medical Officer heads the medical board but does not issue the final certificate.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Shifts from Self-ID to Mandatory Medical Certification →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding transgender rights jurisprudence in India:

1. The Supreme Court in the NALSA case (2014) recognized transgender persons as the 'third gender' and upheld the right to self-identification.

2. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 originally required proof of surgery to change one's gender to male or female.

3. The 2026 Amendment to the Act removes the requirement for a medical board's recommendation and reinforces the self-identification principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the NALSA judgment details in the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the 2019 Act required proof of surgery for gender change. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2026 Amendment introduces a medical board recommendation, it does not remove it; it moves away from self-identification.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Shifts from Self-ID to Mandatory Medical Certification →
Q47.

In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark NALSA v. Union of India judgment that legally recognized transgender persons as the 'third gender'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2012
  • B.2014✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2018
  • D.2020
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court's landmark NALSA judgment was delivered in 2014. 2018 is the year of the Navtej Singh Johar judgment decriminalizing same-sex relations.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Shifts from Self-ID to Mandatory Medical Certification →
Q48.

What is the primary constitutional conflict highlighted by the passage of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Conflict between the Union and State lists in the Seventh Schedule.
  • B.Conflict between the judiciary's expansion of fundamental rights and the legislature's creation of bureaucratic hurdles.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Conflict between the Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights.
  • D.Conflict between parliamentary privilege and judicial review.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme is the contrast between the judiciary (Supreme Court and High Courts) consistently interpreting the law to expand transgender rights based on self-identification, and the legislative/executive approach which, through the 2019 Act and 2026 Amendment, has created certification and medical proof requirements that act as bureaucratic hurdles.

Source: Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 Shifts from Self-ID to Mandatory Medical Certification →
Q49.

Which development authority is primarily responsible for planning and executing the Mumbai Metro network expansion?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC)
  • B.Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Maharashtra State Road Development Corporation (MSRDC)
  • D.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that an official from the Urban Development department oversees progress and aids the MMRDA. The MMRDA is the statutory body responsible for infrastructure development in the Mumbai Metropolitan Region, including the metro network.

Source: Mumbai Metro Expansion to 120 Km by 2026 Under MMRDA; ₹22,862 Cr Airport Line Planned for 2029 →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai Metro expansion:

1. The operational network is expected to cross 120 km by the end of 2026.

2. Line 8, connecting Mumbai and Navi Mumbai airports, is targeted for completion in 2027.

3. The Versova-Andheri-Ghatkopar line, opened in 2014, was Mumbai's first metro corridor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Mumbai’s operational network could cross 120 km' in 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; Line 8 is targeted for 2029, not 2027. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Versova-Andheri-Ghatkopar line opened in 2014 as the city's first answer to the east-west connectivity problem.

Source: Mumbai Metro Expansion to 120 Km by 2026 Under MMRDA; ₹22,862 Cr Airport Line Planned for 2029 →
Q51.

According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the proposed Mumbai Metro Line 8 connecting the two airports?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹6,607 crore
  • B.₹14,549 crore
  • C.₹22,862 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹23,487 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Line 8 — connecting Mumbai and Navi Mumbai airports across 35 km — is targeted for 2029. With Line 8 alone estimated at Rs 22,862 crore...'. The other figures correspond to costs of other lines mentioned: ₹6,607 crore for Line 9, ₹14,549 crore for Line 4, and ₹23,487 crore for Line 11.

Source: Mumbai Metro Expansion to 120 Km by 2026 Under MMRDA; ₹22,862 Cr Airport Line Planned for 2029 →
Q52.

What is the primary urban transport problem that the Mumbai Metro network expansion aims to address?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Reducing air pollution from private vehicles.
  • B.Providing connectivity to new suburban railway stations.
  • C.Solving the east-west connectivity gap in the city.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Replacing the existing suburban railway network entirely.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that Mumbai's suburban railway runs 'almost entirely north-south', creating a gap. It states: 'Areas needing east-west connectivity had no rapid transit option... The metro was planned to fill that gap.' While reducing pollution is a benefit, the core objective is to provide east-west rapid transit.

Source: Mumbai Metro Expansion to 120 Km by 2026 Under MMRDA; ₹22,862 Cr Airport Line Planned for 2029 →
Q53.

Which ministry is the nodal agency for handling Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for India's internal security, including counter-insurgency operations against Left-Wing Extremism (LWE).

Source: Maoist Insurgency Dwindles to 2 Districts; NDA Pursues Security & Development Strategy in Former Red Corridor →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Maoist insurgency in India:

1. It originated from agrarian unrest in Naxalbari, West Bengal, in 1967.

2. In 2006, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh described it as India's single biggest internal security threat.

3. The current government's strategy relies solely on intensified security operations to combat it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the government's strategy combines security operations with development initiatives (roads, schools, banking, DBTs).

Source: Maoist Insurgency Dwindles to 2 Districts; NDA Pursues Security & Development Strategy in Former Red Corridor →
Q55.

According to the Home Minister's statement mentioned in the article, to how many districts has the Red Corridor dwindled?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.1 district
  • B.2 districts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5 districts
  • D.10 districts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes Home Minister Amit Shah stating that the Red Corridor has dwindled to two districts. This is a critical data point for factual recall.

Source: Maoist Insurgency Dwindles to 2 Districts; NDA Pursues Security & Development Strategy in Former Red Corridor →
Q56.

What is identified as the deeper, unresolved challenge for the state in the former Red Corridor areas, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Complete withdrawal of security forces
  • B.Lack of international support for rehabilitation
  • C.Uneven development, land acquisition issues, and environmental degradation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Absence of a legal framework to prosecute surrendered Maoists
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that the 'deeper challenge' not completely overcome includes uneven development, land acquisition for infrastructure projects, and environmental degradation. These are the root causes that require continuing state vigilance.

Source: Maoist Insurgency Dwindles to 2 Districts; NDA Pursues Security & Development Strategy in Former Red Corridor →
Q57.

Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article and static GK, the Census is managed by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). This is a fundamental administrative fact for Indian Polity.

Source: Census 2027: India's First Fully Digital Census with Self-Enumeration Starting April 1, 2026, Under MHA →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027:

1. It will be India's first completely digital census, with data recorded on mobile applications.

2. The self-enumeration facility allows citizens to fill information online in any of the 22 scheduled languages.

3. The first phase of the census will include questions on caste.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states self-enumeration is available in 16 languages, not necessarily all 22 scheduled languages. Statement 3 is incorrect; caste enumeration will be done in the second phase in February 2027, not the first phase.

Source: Census 2027: India's First Fully Digital Census with Self-Enumeration Starting April 1, 2026, Under MHA →
Q59.

According to the article, how many questions will be included in the first phase of Census 2027?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.28 questions
  • B.31 questions
  • C.33 questions✓ Correct Answer
  • D.35 questions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The first phase of Census 2027 will include 33 questions ranging from the sex of the head of the household..." This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Source: Census 2027: India's First Fully Digital Census with Self-Enumeration Starting April 1, 2026, Under MHA →
Q60.

What is the primary objective of introducing the self-enumeration facility for Census 2027?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To completely replace physical visits by enumerators
  • B.To offer flexibility and convenience to citizens for providing household information✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the overall cost of conducting the census
  • D.To collect more detailed economic data than previous censuses
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the facility is designed "to offer flexibility, allowing respondents to fill out the census schedule at their own convenience." While it may have secondary effects, the stated primary objective is citizen convenience and flexibility.

Source: Census 2027: India's First Fully Digital Census with Self-Enumeration Starting April 1, 2026, Under MHA →
Q61.

The Office of the Registrar General, which released the data on registered deaths for 2021, operates under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (ORGI) is responsible for conducting the Census and overseeing the Civil Registration System. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Health Ministry.

Source: COVID-19 Policy Fallout: India Recorded 1.02 Crore Deaths in 2021, 25.9% Excess Mortality, Amid Logistical and Data Failures →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding India's COVID-19 policy analysis as discussed in the article:

1. The Indian Railways suspended all passenger services during the 2020 lockdown with an immediate plan for stranded passengers.

2. During the peak of the second wave, only 38 Pressure Swing Adsorption oxygen plants were installed against a target of 500 for major hospitals.

3. The article references three books that provide clinical, systemic, and human perspectives on the pandemic response.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the Indian Railways suspended services with 'no plan for the millions already in transit'. Statement 2 is correct as per the data on PSA plants. Statement 3 is correct, naming the three books: 'Till We Win', 'The Great Shutdown', and 'Faith and Fury'.

Source: COVID-19 Policy Fallout: India Recorded 1.02 Crore Deaths in 2021, 25.9% Excess Mortality, Amid Logistical and Data Failures →
Q63.

According to the data confirmed by the Office of the Registrar General in 2025, what was the percentage increase in registered deaths in India in 2021 compared to the previous year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18.5%
  • B.22.3%
  • C.25.9%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.29.1%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India recorded a 'disproportionate 25.9% increase' in registered deaths in 2021 from the previous year. The other figures are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the text.

Source: COVID-19 Policy Fallout: India Recorded 1.02 Crore Deaths in 2021, 25.9% Excess Mortality, Amid Logistical and Data Failures →
Q64.

A central argument emerging from the analysis of India's pandemic response in the article is the state's failure in which of the following core capacities?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Military mobilization for disaster relief
  • B.Financial resource allocation for states
  • C.Transparent data collection and acknowledgment✓ Correct Answer
  • D.International coordination for vaccine procurement
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights the 'problem of counting' and concludes that a key finding is 'the Indian state’s capacity to not count what it does not wish to acknowledge.' While other options may be relevant, the core argument centers on data transparency and epistemic accountability.

Source: COVID-19 Policy Fallout: India Recorded 1.02 Crore Deaths in 2021, 25.9% Excess Mortality, Amid Logistical and Data Failures →
Q65.

Which U.S. government agency releases the annual National Trade Estimate (NTE) Report on foreign trade barriers?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.U.S. Department of Commerce
  • B.U.S. Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.U.S. International Trade Commission
  • D.Federal Trade Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the report is released by the U.S. Trade Representative's office. The USTR is the lead agency for U.S. trade policy, negotiations, and enforcement.

Source: U.S. NTE 2026 Report Criticizes India's High Tariffs Up To 300% on Agri Goods, 150% on Alcohol, Complex QCOs →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Trade Representative's 2026 NTE Report on India:

1. It criticizes India's high applied tariffs, citing examples like 150% on alcoholic beverages and 100% on walnuts.

2. It praises India's Quality Control Orders (QCOs) for being fully aligned with international standards, promoting ease of trade.

3. It highlights that India's average WTO bound tariff rate on agricultural products is 113.1%, among the highest in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's details on tariff rates. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report actually criticizes QCOs, stating BIS standards are often not fully aligned with international standards. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Source: U.S. NTE 2026 Report Criticizes India's High Tariffs Up To 300% on Agri Goods, 150% on Alcohol, Complex QCOs →
Q67.

According to the U.S. NTE 2026 Report cited in the article, what is the average World Trade Organisation (WTO) bound tariff rate on India's agricultural products?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.85.5%
  • B.100.2%
  • C.113.1%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.125.7%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "India's World Trade Organisation (WTO) bound tariff rates on agricultural products are among the 'highest' in the world, averaging 113.1%." The other options are plausible distractors given the context of high tariffs.

Source: U.S. NTE 2026 Report Criticizes India's High Tariffs Up To 300% on Agri Goods, 150% on Alcohol, Complex QCOs →
Q68.

What is a primary concern raised by the U.S. report regarding India's Quality Control Orders (QCOs)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.They are too lenient and fail to protect Indian consumers.
  • B.They are not implemented by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
  • C.They often target only finished products, leaving raw materials unregulated.
  • D.Their standards are not fully aligned with international standards, creating trade barriers.✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states U.S. concerns that "BIS standards are not fully aligned with international standards," and that these QCOs can be burdensome and trade-restrictive. The report notes QCOs target raw materials and intermediate goods as well, contradicting option C.

Source: U.S. NTE 2026 Report Criticizes India's High Tariffs Up To 300% on Agri Goods, 150% on Alcohol, Complex QCOs →
Q69.

The Artemis II mission involves an astronaut from the Canadian Space Agency. Which other major international space agency is a key partner in the broader Artemis programme, as indicated by the Artemis Accords framework?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Space Agency (ESA)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Russian Space Agency (Roscosmos)
  • C.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • D.Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions 'cascading complications for NASA's partners, including the European and Japanese space agencies,' directly indicating ESA's involvement. The Artemis Accords, also mentioned, have been signed by many nations, with ESA members like Italy and the UK being signatories, reflecting ESA's role as a key partner.

Source: NASA Artemis II Mission Launch Set for April 2026 Using SLS Rocket, Crew to Test Orion for Lunar Return Amid China's 2030 Moon Landing Target →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Artemis programme:

1. The Artemis II mission will use the Space Launch System (SLS) rocket to land a crew on the lunar surface.

2. The Artemis III mission, as per the restructured plan, will involve a crewed Orion capsule docking with prototype lunar landers in Earth orbit.

3. The Artemis IV mission is currently planned to achieve the first U.S. crewed landing on the Moon in the 21st century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Artemis II is a lunar flyby mission to test systems; it does not involve landing. Statement 2 is correct: The article states Artemis III will launch a crewed Orion to dock with landers from SpaceX and Blue Origin in orbit. Statement 3 is correct: The article confirms NASA will land American astronauts on the moon in the Artemis IV mission, planned for 2028.

Source: NASA Artemis II Mission Launch Set for April 2026 Using SLS Rocket, Crew to Test Orion for Lunar Return Amid China's 2030 Moon Landing Target →
Q71.

According to the article, by which year does China plan to land humans on the moon?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2028
  • B.2029
  • C.2030✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2035
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'China also plans to land humans on the moon by 2030.' The other options are distractors: 2028 is the target for NASA's Artemis IV landing, 2029 is the timeframe for the maiden flight of China's Lanyue lander, and 2030s is the period for its International Lunar Research Station plans.

Source: NASA Artemis II Mission Launch Set for April 2026 Using SLS Rocket, Crew to Test Orion for Lunar Return Amid China's 2030 Moon Landing Target →
Q72.

What is identified in the article as a primary geopolitical and scientific driver of the renewed U.S.-China race to the moon?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Establishing permanent human colonies for overpopulation relief
  • B.Testing new propulsion technologies for Mars missions
  • C.Claiming territorial sovereignty over the lunar surface
  • D.Accessing water ice deposits in the moon's south pole region✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the space race 'wouldn't be what it is if it weren't for a particular limited resource: water on the moon.' It explains that permanently shadowed craters at the south pole likely contain water ice, and whichever country establishes infrastructure there first could 'corner these deposits' and shape subsequent rules.

Source: NASA Artemis II Mission Launch Set for April 2026 Using SLS Rocket, Crew to Test Orion for Lunar Return Amid China's 2030 Moon Landing Target →
Q73.

The principle that 'an attack on one is an attack on all' is a foundational element of which international organization discussed in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Security Council
  • B.European Union
  • C.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Gulf Cooperation Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty, which established NATO, enshrines the principle of collective defense, stating that an armed attack against one member shall be considered an attack against them all. The article discusses strains within this alliance.

Source: US-Europe Alliance Fractures Over Iran War; Italy, Spain, France Deny Support, NATO Allies Refuse Patriot Deployment →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the developments in the article:

1. Italy denied the use of its Sicily airbase to US aircraft involved in the Iran war.

2. Poland agreed to deploy its Patriot missile systems to the Gulf region upon an unofficial US request.

3. European Union's foreign policy chief, Kaja Kallas, stated that the conflict is 'not Europe's war'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Poland refused the request, with its Defence Minister stating the systems are for protecting Polish skies and NATO's eastern flank. Statement 3 is correct as Kaja Kallas's quote is directly mentioned.

Source: US-Europe Alliance Fractures Over Iran War; Italy, Spain, France Deny Support, NATO Allies Refuse Patriot Deployment →
Q75.

According to the article, what new timeline for the war did US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth outline?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2 to 3 weeks
  • B.4 to 6 weeks
  • C.6 to 8 weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3 to 4 months
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth has now outlined a new war timeline of six to eight weeks'. Trump's indication of 2-3 weeks is a separate, conflicting statement.

Source: US-Europe Alliance Fractures Over Iran War; Italy, Spain, France Deny Support, NATO Allies Refuse Patriot Deployment →
Q76.

What is a primary concern for European policymakers arising from the Iran conflict and the closure of the Strait of Hormuz, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A surge in technological competition with the US
  • B.The risk of a new wave of refugees if Iran collapses✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A significant decrease in foreign direct investment
  • D.The need to rapidly expand nuclear energy capacity
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Many are also concerned about the economic fallout and the potential for a new wave of refugees if Iran were to collapse.' While energy prices are a major concern, the refugee issue is highlighted as a specific geopolitical risk.

Source: US-Europe Alliance Fractures Over Iran War; Italy, Spain, France Deny Support, NATO Allies Refuse Patriot Deployment →
Q77.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of MGNREGA and its proposed replacement, the VB-G RAM G scheme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

MGNREGA is a flagship rural development scheme aimed at enhancing livelihood security. The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for its implementation, and this would extend to its proposed replacement.

Source: NDA Replaces MGNREGA with VB-G RAM G Act 2025, 5.32 Cr Households Availed Scheme in FY26 (8% Decline) →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The number of households that availed MGNREGS in the 2025-26 fiscal year was 5.32 crore.

2. Under the new VB-G RAM G Act, the fund-sharing pattern between the Centre and all states is uniform at 75:25.

3. MGNREGS was extended to the entire country from the financial year 2008-09.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (5.32 crore households in FY 2025-26). Statement 2 is incorrect; the VB-G RAM G Act proposes a differential pattern: 90:10 for 11 states and 60:40 for others. Statement 3 is correct as the article states MGNREGS was extended to the entire country from FY 2008-09.

Source: NDA Replaces MGNREGA with VB-G RAM G Act 2025, 5.32 Cr Households Availed Scheme in FY26 (8% Decline) →
Q79.

According to the official data mentioned in the article, what was the approximate percentage decline in households availing MGNREGS in the 2025-26 fiscal year compared to the previous year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5%
  • B.8%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10%
  • D.12%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states there was an 8 per cent decline, from 5.78 crore households in 2024-25 to 5.32 crore in 2025-26. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: NDA Replaces MGNREGA with VB-G RAM G Act 2025, 5.32 Cr Households Availed Scheme in FY26 (8% Decline) →
Q80.

What is a key point of criticism raised against the provisions of the newly enacted VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It increases the number of guaranteed work days from 100 to 150.
  • B.It proposes a uniform fund-sharing pattern of 50:50 between Centre and all states.
  • C.It includes a pause in employment guarantee during the peak agricultural season.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It restricts the scheme's benefits to only Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Opposition has criticised provisions including 'a pause in employment guarantee during the peak agricultural season (Section 6)'. The other options describe changes not mentioned in the provided article.

Source: NDA Replaces MGNREGA with VB-G RAM G Act 2025, 5.32 Cr Households Availed Scheme in FY26 (8% Decline) →
Q81.

According to the article, which global organization released the report 'Rising Repression Meets Global Resistance: Internet Shutdowns in 2025'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Amnesty International
  • B.Human Rights Watch
  • C.Access Now✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Reporters Without Borders
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report was released by 'the global digital rights advocacy group, Access Now.' The other organizations, while also involved in human rights advocacy, are not mentioned in this context.

Source: India Imposes 65 Internet Shutdowns in 2025, Lowest Since 2017; Remains Highest Among Democracies: Access Now Report →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding internet shutdowns in 2025 as per the Access Now report:

1. India recorded its highest-ever number of internet shutdowns in a single year during 2025.

2. Myanmar was the country with the highest number of internet shutdowns recorded globally in 2025.

3. The Asia-Pacific region accounted for the majority of the internet shutdowns recorded globally in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states India's 65 shutdowns in 2025 were 'the lowest number recorded in the country since 2017.' Statement 2 is correct as the report says 'Myanmar overtook India as the world's leading perpetrator... with 95 incidents.' Statement 3 is correct as the report notes 'the Asia Pacific region accounted for the majority of these disruptions, with 195 shutdowns.'

Source: India Imposes 65 Internet Shutdowns in 2025, Lowest Since 2017; Remains Highest Among Democracies: Access Now Report →
Q83.

According to the Access Now report cited in the article, what was the total number of internet shutdowns recorded by the organization worldwide since it began compiling data in 2016?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.920
  • B.1,250
  • C.2,102✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3,130
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Out of the 2,102 internet shutdowns recorded by Access Now worldwide since 2016, 920 have occurred in India.' Option A (920) is the number for India only, making it a close distractor.

Source: India Imposes 65 Internet Shutdowns in 2025, Lowest Since 2017; Remains Highest Among Democracies: Access Now Report →
Q84.

What was the primary legal justification used by authorities in Jammu and Kashmir in December 2025 to impose a ban on unauthorized VPN use, as mentioned in the report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enforce cybersecurity protocols under the IT Act, 2000.
  • B.To maintain public tranquillity under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To prevent terrorist activities under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
  • D.To ensure data localization under the proposed Data Protection Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that Jammu and Kashmir invoked 'Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita – a provision used by magistrates to issue prohibitory orders to maintain public tranquillity – to impose a 'two-month ban on unauthorized VPN use.'' The other acts, while relevant to security and data, are not mentioned in this specific context within the article.

Source: India Imposes 65 Internet Shutdowns in 2025, Lowest Since 2017; Remains Highest Among Democracies: Access Now Report →
Q85.

Under which article of the Constitution does the Election Commission of India derive its powers of superintendence and control over elections?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 280
  • B.Article 315
  • C.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 356
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. This is the foundational provision for the ECI's authority, as referenced in the news context of transferring officers.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds ECI's Transfer of 313 Officers for Free & Fair West Bengal Assembly Elections 2026 →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court order on ECI's transfers:

1. The court held that the Election Commission must provide detailed reasons for every officer transfer during elections.

2. The petitioner was a practicing advocate who filed the PIL challenging the transfers.

3. The court observed that transfers for a short period till elections do not paralyze the state's administrative machinery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court specifically held there is no obligation on ECI to give reasons for such transfers. Statement 2 is correct as the petitioner was Advocate Arka Kumar Nag. Statement 3 is correct as per the court's observation that short-term transfers do not create a paralyzed administrative situation.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds ECI's Transfer of 313 Officers for Free & Fair West Bengal Assembly Elections 2026 →
Q87.

According to the news, what was the total number of officers (including IAS, IPS, and police) whose transfers were challenged in the PILs before the Calcutta High Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.267 officers
  • B.313 officers✓ Correct Answer
  • C.46 officers
  • D.294 officers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The first PIL challenged transfers of 46 IAS and IPS officers. The second PIL challenged transfers of 267 police station and block development officers. Therefore, the total is 46 + 267 = 313 officers, as covered by the combined petitions.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds ECI's Transfer of 313 Officers for Free & Fair West Bengal Assembly Elections 2026 →
Q88.

What was the primary rationale given by the Calcutta High Court for upholding the Election Commission's power to transfer officers?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To punish underperforming officers before elections.
  • B.To ensure the continuity of the state's administrative machinery.
  • C.To conduct free and fair elections as per Article 324.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To implement the ruling party's manifesto in the state.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's order stated that transfer orders must be understood in the context of conducting free and fair elections. This aligns with the ECI's constitutional mandate under Article 324, making electoral integrity the core justification, not administrative continuity or political implementation.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds ECI's Transfer of 313 Officers for Free & Fair West Bengal Assembly Elections 2026 →
Q89.

Which ministry, in consultation with the Ministry of Civil Aviation, decided on the partial pass-through of ATF price hikes for domestic airlines?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the decision was taken by the public sector oil marketing companies (OMCs) of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG), in consultation with the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).

Source: Govt Caps ATF Price Hike at 25% (₹15/litre) for Domestic Airlines, International Routes Pay 107% More Amid Global Surge →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) price revision:

1. The price of ATF for scheduled domestic airlines was increased by approximately 115% in line with global prices.

2. The government has imposed an export duty on ATF to ensure its adequate availability in the domestic market.

3. ATF prices in India are benchmarked against the Mean of Platts Arab Gulf (MOPAG) assessment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The hike for domestic scheduled airlines was capped at 25% (₹15/litre), not 115%. The 115% hike was the full market price. Statement 2 is correct: An export duty of Rs 29.5 per litre was imposed. Statement 3 is correct: ATF pricing is linked to the MOPAG benchmark.

Source: Govt Caps ATF Price Hike at 25% (₹15/litre) for Domestic Airlines, International Routes Pay 107% More Amid Global Surge →
Q91.

According to the article, what was the approximate percentage increase in the price of Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) for international flights from Delhi in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25%
  • B.86%
  • C.107%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.115%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'For airlines on international run, the price of ATF in Delhi jumped 107% to $1,690.81 per kilolitre.' The 115% figure is the month-on-month jump to the full price, not specifically for international flights. The 25% is for domestic flights.

Source: Govt Caps ATF Price Hike at 25% (₹15/litre) for Domestic Airlines, International Routes Pay 107% More Amid Global Surge →
Q92.

What is the primary rationale cited by the government for allowing only a partial pass-through of ATF price hikes to domestic scheduled airlines?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue from fuel exports
  • B.To shield domestic passengers from sharp fare increases and prevent demand destruction✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote the use of sustainable aviation fuels in the domestic sector
  • D.To provide a direct subsidy to public sector oil marketing companies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the MoPNG stating the move is 'to insulate the domestic travel costs' and the Civil Aviation Minister saying it will 'shield passengers from sharp fare increases'. The core objective is to protect domestic air travel demand and sector stability, not revenue generation or promoting alternative fuels.

Source: Govt Caps ATF Price Hike at 25% (₹15/litre) for Domestic Airlines, International Routes Pay 107% More Amid Global Surge →
Q93.

Which committee is responsible for setting India's benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate)?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
  • B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
  • D.Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India is the statutory body mandated to determine the policy repo rate. The article mentions the MPC is expected to maintain an extended pause on policy rates through the fiscal year.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Push FY27 Inflation to 4.5-5%, GDP Growth Down to 6.5-7%, CAD to 2% of GDP: RBI on Hold →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact of the West Asia conflict as discussed in the article:

1. A $10 per barrel increase in crude oil prices could widen India's current account deficit by approximately $16.7 billion.

2. The primary reason for the expected pause in RBI's policy rates is the sharp contraction in GDP growth to below 5%.

3. India's remittance inflows are significantly exposed, with 38% of such flows originating from the Gulf region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per India Ratings' Chief Economist. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states GDP growth is moderating to 6.5-7%, not contracting below 5%, and the rate pause is due to fiscal policy absorbing the inflation shock and the need to support growth. Statement 3 is correctly cited from the article regarding remittance exposure.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Push FY27 Inflation to 4.5-5%, GDP Growth Down to 6.5-7%, CAD to 2% of GDP: RBI on Hold →
Q95.

According to HDFC Bank's baseline scenario in the article, what is the revised average inflation forecast for FY27 if the West Asia conflict resolves quickly?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.3.7-4.2%
  • B.4.1%
  • C.4.5-5%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Above 5%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

HDFC Bank's Treasury Research Desk revised its FY27 inflation forecast to 4.5-5% under its new baseline scenario, up from an earlier forecast of 4.2%. Option B (4.1%) is India Ratings' revised average forecast, not HDFC Bank's.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Push FY27 Inflation to 4.5-5%, GDP Growth Down to 6.5-7%, CAD to 2% of GDP: RBI on Hold →
Q96.

What is a key reason cited in the article for the Indian government's ability to initially shield the economy from direct inflation pass-through from high global oil prices?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Strategic petroleum reserves were released to cap prices.
  • B.Fiscal policy is absorbing the shock through measures like excise duty cuts.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The RBI intervened heavily in the currency market to strengthen the rupee.
  • D.Long-term fixed-price contracts with oil exporters were activated.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that fiscal policy is doing 'much of the heavy-lifting' by shielding the economy, with recent excise duty cuts being a prime example. This intervention eases pressure on the RBI to act immediately via monetary policy.

Source: West Asia Conflict May Push FY27 Inflation to 4.5-5%, GDP Growth Down to 6.5-7%, CAD to 2% of GDP: RBI on Hold →
Q97.

The Noida International Airport is located in which district of Uttar Pradesh?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Gautam Buddha Nagar✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ghaziabad
  • C.Meerut
  • D.Bulandshahr
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Noida International Airport is being developed in Jewar, which is located in the Gautam Buddha Nagar district of Uttar Pradesh. This is a key static geography fact for exams.

Source: Noida International Airport Inauguration Highlights Development Politics, Land Valuation and Fragmented Identities in Western Uttar Pradesh →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the political transformation in Western Uttar Pradesh as discussed in the article:

1. The region's politics is now primarily driven by stable ideological commitments of political parties.

2. Economic development has led to the fragmentation of the cohesive 'farmer' identity into groups with divergent economic interests.

3. Caste continues to be a stable and singular predictor of political voting behavior in the region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states politics is 'less about ideological commitment and more about mediating differentiated experiences of change'. Statement 2 is correct, as the article explains the 'farmer' category has fragmented internally. Statement 3 is incorrect, as caste is 'being reconfigured' and 'no longer functions as a stable predictor' due to mediation by economic opportunity.

Source: Noida International Airport Inauguration Highlights Development Politics, Land Valuation and Fragmented Identities in Western Uttar Pradesh →
Q99.

According to the article, which upcoming election year is highlighted as a critical juncture for Western Uttar Pradesh?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2024
  • B.2025
  • C.2026
  • D.2027✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the political questions crystallized by the airport will shape Western UP 'in the run-up to the 2027 elections' and later states 'As 2027 approaches, the region stands at a critical juncture.'

Source: Noida International Airport Inauguration Highlights Development Politics, Land Valuation and Fragmented Identities in Western Uttar Pradesh →
Q100.

What is the primary political implication of the 'double movement' concept as applied to Western Uttar Pradesh in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It leads to the complete rejection of market-based development models by the electorate.
  • B.It results in politics shifting from a pro/anti-development binary to a negotiation over its terms and distribution.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ensures that economic growth automatically translates into stable political moderation and social harmony.
  • D.It reinforces traditional caste-based voting patterns by providing economic security to all groups.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Politics thus shifts from a binary of pro- or anti-development to a negotiation over its terms and distribution.' This is the core implication of the 'double movement' where market expansion coexists with societal counter-pressures.

Source: Noida International Airport Inauguration Highlights Development Politics, Land Valuation and Fragmented Identities in Western Uttar Pradesh →
Q101.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment discussed illegal sand mining. Under which central act are state governments empowered to make rules for preventing illegal mining and transportation of minerals?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • B.The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Indian Forest Act, 1927
  • D.The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The MMDR Act, 1957 is the central legislation governing mining. Section 15 empowers state governments to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation, and storage of minerals. The article mentions offences under this Act and the Madhya Pradesh Mineral Rules, 2022 made under it.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Terms Sand Mafia 'Systemic Danger', Denies Relief Citing BNS & MMDR Act in Singrauli Case →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment on illegal sand mining:

1. The Court invoked its inherent powers under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023.

2. The vehicle was seized for transporting sand without a valid permit, an offence registered under the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

3. The Court noted that the state's 2022 Mineral Rules provide a mechanism for compounding offences upon payment of a penalty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the applicant moved the High Court under Section 528 of BNSS, 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect: Offences were registered under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and the MMDR Act, 1957, not the IPC. Statement 3 is correct: The state argued that proceedings were initiated under Section 19 of the MP Mineral Rules, 2022, which provides for compounding offences.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Terms Sand Mafia 'Systemic Danger', Denies Relief Citing BNS & MMDR Act in Singrauli Case →
Q103.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment, on which date was the Hyva truck intercepted by authorities in Singrauli district?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 20
  • B.January 21✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 29
  • D.March 18
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The vehicle was intercepted on January 21 at around 4.30pm'. January 20 is the start date of the transport permit, January 29 is the date of the JMFC order, and March 18 is the date of the High Court judgment.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Terms Sand Mafia 'Systemic Danger', Denies Relief Citing BNS & MMDR Act in Singrauli Case →
Q104.

What was the primary reason cited by the Madhya Pradesh High Court for refusing interim custody of the seized sand transport vehicle?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The owner failed to pay the compounding penalty under state rules.
  • B.The vehicle's GPS data proved it was used for illegal mining.
  • C.The transport permit had expired and no intimation of breakdown was given to authorities.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The vehicle was found to be overloaded beyond the permissible limit.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's analysis highlighted that the permit expired at 2 am on January 21, but the vehicle was intercepted nearly 14 hours later at 4:30 pm. Crucially, no material was shown to prove the applicant informed the competent authority about the alleged breakdown. This gap justified denying custody. While overloaded vehicles were mentioned as a general menace, it was not the specific reason in this case.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Terms Sand Mafia 'Systemic Danger', Denies Relief Citing BNS & MMDR Act in Singrauli Case →
Q105.

Which government body issued the notification allowing concessional DTA sales by SEZ units?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Finance release mentioned that 'the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) today introduced a special one-time relief measure'. CBIC is the nodal body for customs and indirect tax policies.

Source: SEZ Export Units Allowed DTA Sales at Concessional Duty: 30% Cap, 20% Value Addition, Valid FY 2026-27 →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the new relief measure for SEZ units:

1. The concessional duty window is valid for a period of two financial years.

2. To be eligible, a unit must have begun production on or after April 1, 2025.

3. The goods sold in DTA must have a minimum value addition of 20% over the inputs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The window is for one year (April 1, 2026 to March 31, 2027). Statement 2 is incorrect: The unit must have begun production on or before March 31, 2025. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's condition: 'The goods manufactured... should have undergone value addition of minimum 20% over the inputs.'

Source: SEZ Export Units Allowed DTA Sales at Concessional Duty: 30% Cap, 20% Value Addition, Valid FY 2026-27 →
Q107.

What is the maximum permissible limit for Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) sales by an SEZ unit under the new concessional window?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.20% of the average export value of the last 5 years
  • B.25% of the export value in the immediately preceding year
  • C.30% of the highest annual FOB export value in any of the three immediately preceding financial years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.50% of the total production capacity of the unit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the condition: 'DTA sales at concessional rates... shall not be more than 30% of the highest annual Free On Board (FOB) value of exports in any of three immediately preceding financial years.' All other options are incorrect distractors.

Source: SEZ Export Units Allowed DTA Sales at Concessional Duty: 30% Cap, 20% Value Addition, Valid FY 2026-27 →
Q108.

What is the primary rationale behind introducing the one-time relief measure for SEZ units, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To permanently shift the focus of SEZs from exports to domestic market
  • B.To provide a long-term tax holiday for all manufacturing units in India
  • C.To address immediate external challenges like global trade uncertainty and supply chain disruptions✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To replace the existing SEZ Act of 2005 with a new legislation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes a Finance Ministry official stating, 'The relief is primarily driven by immediate external challenges rather than a long-term policy shift' and mentions the backdrop of 'global trade uncertainty, geopolitical disruptions, and weakening export demand'. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: SEZ Export Units Allowed DTA Sales at Concessional Duty: 30% Cap, 20% Value Addition, Valid FY 2026-27 →
Q109.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the analysis, is located between which two countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Saudi Arabia and Qatar
  • B.Iran and Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Arab Emirates and Iran
  • D.Kuwait and Iraq
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel linking the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is bordered to the north by Iran and to the south by the Musandam Peninsula of Oman.

Source: Iran-Israel War: Strait of Hormuz Closure Pressures Global Economy, U.S. Faces Strategic Dead End →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the analysis of the Iran war by Vali Nasr:

1. The U.S. strategy failed because it anticipated a prolonged conflict and prepared for defending the Strait of Hormuz.

2. Iran's strategic response is rooted in a historical narrative of resisting foreign imperialism to protect its sovereignty.

3. A key consequence of the war is the likely strengthening and unification of the U.S.-led security architecture in the Persian Gulf.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The analysis states the U.S. was unprepared and did not anticipate the prolonged conflict or Iran's ability to close the Strait. Statement 2 is correct, as Nasr links Iran's actions to its post-revolutionary identity of fighting imperialism. Statement 3 is incorrect; the analysis predicts a fragmentation and reassessment, not a strengthening, of the U.S.-led security umbrella.

Source: Iran-Israel War: Strait of Hormuz Closure Pressures Global Economy, U.S. Faces Strategic Dead End →
Q111.

According to the analysis citing the New York Times, how many U.S. military bases in the region were rendered "basically uninhabitable" due to the conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5
  • B.9
  • C.13✓ Correct Answer
  • D.17
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "according to the New York Times, 13 U.S. military bases have become basically uninhabitable." This highlights the severe operational impact of Iran's asymmetric attacks on U.S. assets in the Gulf region.

Source: Iran-Israel War: Strait of Hormuz Closure Pressures Global Economy, U.S. Faces Strategic Dead End →
Q112.

What is identified as the primary reason compelling Gulf Arab monarchies to reassess their security relations with the United States after the war?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The U.S. demanding they pay for the cost of the war.
  • B.A ideological shift towards aligning with Iran's revolutionary model.
  • C.The demonstrated inability or unwillingness of the U.S. to protect them from Iranian attacks.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A new U.S. policy to withdraw all military bases from the region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the reassessment, as per the analysis, is the loss of trust in the U.S. security guarantee. Gulf states were directly attacked, their economies damaged, and the U.S. failed to defend them, proving the existing security architecture is flawed. While the U.S. asking for payment is mentioned, it is not the primary driver for the strategic reassessment.

Source: Iran-Israel War: Strait of Hormuz Closure Pressures Global Economy, U.S. Faces Strategic Dead End →
Q113.

As per the news, which country currently holds the chairmanship of BRICS and is hosting the 2026 summit?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Brazil
  • B.Russia
  • C.India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.South Africa
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India is the BRICS chair for 2026 and is hosting the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi in September 2026.

Source: Russia Confirms Putin's BRICS Summit 2026 Participation in Delhi, to Honour Oil Contracts Despite Gasoline Export Ban →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Russia's Deputy Foreign Minister confirmed President Putin's likely participation in the BRICS Summit in Delhi.

2. Russia has decided to ban the export of diesel with effect from April 1, 2026.

3. India's imports of Russian oil reached a nine-month high in March 2026 after a US waiver.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ban is on 'gasoline' exports, not 'diesel'. This is a classic examiner trap swapping fuel types. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Source: Russia Confirms Putin's BRICS Summit 2026 Participation in Delhi, to Honour Oil Contracts Despite Gasoline Export Ban →
Q115.

From which date did Russia's ban on gasoline exports, as mentioned in the article, come into effect?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 1, 2026
  • B.April 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 1, 2026
  • D.September 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Russia's decision to ban the export of gasoline is 'with effect from April 1, 2026'. The other dates are plausible distractors related to other events in the news cycle.

Source: Russia Confirms Putin's BRICS Summit 2026 Participation in Delhi, to Honour Oil Contracts Despite Gasoline Export Ban →
Q116.

What was the primary reason cited by the Russian official for the challenges in building consensus within BRICS?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Lack of a permanent secretariat
  • B.Members being on different sides of geopolitical conflicts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insufficient funding for joint projects
  • D.Dominance of a single member's agenda
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Russian Deputy Foreign Minister stated that building consensus is difficult when members are 'on different sides of the frontline,' explicitly citing the growing wedge between Iran and its Arab neighbours due to the West Asia conflict.

Source: Russia Confirms Putin's BRICS Summit 2026 Participation in Delhi, to Honour Oil Contracts Despite Gasoline Export Ban →
Q117.

Under which constitutional article is the Election Commission of India established?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 352
  • C.Article 368
  • D.Article 14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India, vesting it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. This is a fundamental static GK fact for polity.

Source: Supreme Court Monitors Bengal Electoral Roll SIR: 47 Lakh of 60 Lakh Objections Cleared, 19 Administrative Tribunals Established →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on West Bengal's electoral roll revision:

1. The Supreme Court was informed that about 47 lakh out of 60 lakh logical discrepancy cases have been adjudicated.

2. The Election Commission of India notified the constitution of 29 Administrative Tribunals in West Bengal for this process.

3. The Administrative Tribunals are headed by former Chief Justices or senior judges of high courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions 19 Administrative Tribunals, not 29. Statement 3 is correct as the tribunals are headed by former Chief Justices/senior judges. Hence, option B is correct.

Source: Supreme Court Monitors Bengal Electoral Roll SIR: 47 Lakh of 60 Lakh Objections Cleared, 19 Administrative Tribunals Established →
Q119.

As per the Supreme Court proceedings reported, by what date is the adjudication of logical discrepancy cases in West Bengal's SIR expected to be completed?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 31
  • B.April 7✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 20
  • D.May 1
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Calcutta High Court Chief Justice informed the Supreme Court that judicial officers are expected to complete the adjudication exercise by April 7. This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Source: Supreme Court Monitors Bengal Electoral Roll SIR: 47 Lakh of 60 Lakh Objections Cleared, 19 Administrative Tribunals Established →
Q120.

What was a key concern addressed by the Supreme Court regarding the functioning of the newly established Administrative Tribunals?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Their location outside Kolkata
  • B.The training being provided by the ECI to tribunal members✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The lack of experience of the presiding officers
  • D.The absence of an online appeal filing system
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the court rejected the state's objections to the 'training' being provided by the ECI to the presiding officers. The Court, noting the officers' vast experience, clarified that such orientation would not lead to ECI interference, directly addressing this concern.

Source: Supreme Court Monitors Bengal Electoral Roll SIR: 47 Lakh of 60 Lakh Objections Cleared, 19 Administrative Tribunals Established →
Q121.

Under which Ministry does the Ishapore Metal and Steel Factory, involved in the case, primarily function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Heavy Industries
  • C.Ministry of Steel
  • D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ishapore Metal and Steel Factory is an Ordnance Factory, which comes under the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence. Ordnance Factories are government-owned units producing defence hardware for the Indian Armed Forces.

Source: Calcutta HC Strikes Down Discriminatory Pay Policy Under Articles 14 & 16, Orders Revised Pay Scale for Ordnance Factory Staff →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court ruling on discriminatory pay:

1. The court invoked Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution to strike down the pay policy.

2. The case pertained to laboratory technicians at the Ishapore Ordnance Factory who were appointed after the 2005 recruitment rules.

3. The court directed that the revised pay scale be granted with effect from January 2006.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment explicitly cites violation of Articles 14 and 16. Statement 2 is incorrect because the petitioners were appointed prior to the 2005 recruitment rules, under the 1979 rules. Statement 3 is correct as the court ordered the grant of the revised pay scale effective from January 2006.

Source: Calcutta HC Strikes Down Discriminatory Pay Policy Under Articles 14 & 16, Orders Revised Pay Scale for Ordnance Factory Staff →
Q123.

What was the revised pay scale (including grade pay) that the Calcutta High Court directed to be granted to the laboratory technicians?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 5,200-20,200 with Grade Pay Rs 2,800
  • B.Rs 9,300-34,800 with Grade Pay Rs 4,200✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 15,600-39,100 with Grade Pay Rs 5,400
  • D.Rs 9,300-34,800 with Grade Pay Rs 4,600
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the revised pay scale was pay band Rs 9,300 to Rs 34,800 with grade pay of Rs 4,200. Option A is the old pay scale. Options C and D are close distractors with incorrect grade pay figures.

Source: Calcutta HC Strikes Down Discriminatory Pay Policy Under Articles 14 & 16, Orders Revised Pay Scale for Ordnance Factory Staff →
Q124.

What is the core legal principle reinforced by the Calcutta High Court's judgment in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The supremacy of recruitment rules over constitutional rights.
  • B.The government's absolute discretion in framing pay policies.
  • C.Equal pay for equal work, prohibiting discrimination among similarly placed employees.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The retrospective applicability of enhanced qualification criteria for pay benefits.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's ruling reinforces the principle of 'equal pay for equal work' under Articles 14 and 16. It held that denying pay revision to existing employees based on qualifications introduced after their appointment, while they perform the same work as newer recruits, constitutes unconstitutional discrimination.

Source: Calcutta HC Strikes Down Discriminatory Pay Policy Under Articles 14 & 16, Orders Revised Pay Scale for Ordnance Factory Staff →
Q125.

Which regulatory body has introduced the new two-factor authentication rule for UPI transactions?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
  • D.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the updated guidelines are from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). RBI is India's central bank and the primary regulator for banking and payment systems.

Source: RBI Mandates Two-Factor Authentication for UPI/Card Payments from April 1, 2026 to Curb Fraud →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the new RBI guidelines on UPI transactions:

1. Two-factor authentication is now mandatory for all online transactions without any exception.

2. Banks and payment platforms are liable to compensate users for frauds caused by system failures.

3. UPI withdrawals at ATMs are now counted towards the free monthly ATM transaction limit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article mentions that banks may allow quick transactions from trusted devices as an exception. Statement 2 is correct as the article says institutions must compensate users for fraud due to system failure. Statement 3 is correct as UPI ATM withdrawals are now counted as regular ATM transactions.

Source: RBI Mandates Two-Factor Authentication for UPI/Card Payments from April 1, 2026 to Curb Fraud →
Q127.

What is the charge (excluding taxes) for a UPI ATM transaction once the monthly free limit is exhausted, according to the new RBI guidelines?

MediumBanking, SSC
  • A.₹15
  • B.₹20
  • C.₹23✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹25
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that users will be charged ₹23 plus taxes for each UPI ATM transaction after exhausting the free monthly limit. This is a specific data point examiners can test.

Source: RBI Mandates Two-Factor Authentication for UPI/Card Payments from April 1, 2026 to Curb Fraud →
Q128.

What is the primary objective behind the RBI's mandate for two-factor authentication in UPI transactions?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase transaction speed and user convenience
  • B.To reduce bank fraud and improve accountability in digital payments✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote the use of credit cards over UPI
  • D.To generate additional revenue for banks through transaction fees
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the updated guidelines are 'designed to reduce bank fraud and improve accountability'. While it may affect speed (negatively) and involves fees, the primary stated objective is enhancing security and accountability.

Source: RBI Mandates Two-Factor Authentication for UPI/Card Payments from April 1, 2026 to Curb Fraud →
Q129.

The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) are administrative under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

All five Central Armed Police Forces (BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP, SSB) function under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which is responsible for internal security, police, and border management.

Source: Rajya Sabha Passes Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 For Unified Legal Framework →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026:

1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha via a voice vote.

2. The Bill seeks to create separate service rules for each of the five CAPFs.

3. The Opposition staged a walkout demanding that the Bill be sent to a Standing Committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill aims to create a unified legal framework, not separate rules. Statement 3 is a trap; the Opposition demanded a 'Select Committee', not a 'Standing Committee'. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Source: Rajya Sabha Passes Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 For Unified Legal Framework →
Q131.

The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, replaces separate service rules for how many Central Armed Police Forces?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Three
  • B.Four
  • C.Five✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Six
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill 'replaces the current system of separate service rules for five Central Armed Police Forces.' These are BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB.

Source: Rajya Sabha Passes Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 For Unified Legal Framework →
Q132.

A primary criticism from the Opposition regarding the CAPF (General Administration) Bill, 2026, as per the article, was that it:

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Would lead to excessive financial burden on the states.
  • B.Was being used to override a directive of the Supreme Court.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Lacked provisions for the welfare of retired personnel.
  • D.Did not include Assam Rifles within its purview.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Congress MP Fauzia Khan accusing the government of 'using Parliament to override a Supreme Court verdict,' referring to the 2025 verdict on IPS deputation. Other options, like financial burden or Assam Rifles, are not mentioned as primary criticisms in the provided text.

Source: Rajya Sabha Passes Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 For Unified Legal Framework →
Q133.

Which Union Minister piloted the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill 2026 in the Lok Sabha debate?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Minister of Law and Justice
  • B.Minister of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
  • D.Minister of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Union Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal replied to the debate on the Bill in the Lok Sabha. This is a factual recall from the news content.

Source: Jan Vishwas (Amendment) Bill 2026 Amends 80 Central Acts, Replaces Criminal Penalties with Civil Fines →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill 2026:

1. It seeks to amend 80 Central Acts to decriminalise certain offences.

2. It proposes to replace criminal penalties with graded civil penalties across all offences in these Acts.

3. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha through a voice vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's first paragraph. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bill replaces criminal penalties with graded civil penalties for specific offences, not 'all offences'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Bill was passed by a voice vote.

Source: Jan Vishwas (Amendment) Bill 2026 Amends 80 Central Acts, Replaces Criminal Penalties with Civil Fines →
Q135.

According to the news article, how many Central Acts does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill 2026 aim to amend?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 Acts
  • B.75 Acts
  • C.80 Acts✓ Correct Answer
  • D.100 Acts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states in its opening line: '...the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill 2026, which amends 80 Central Acts...'. This is a direct data point from the source.

Source: Jan Vishwas (Amendment) Bill 2026 Amends 80 Central Acts, Replaces Criminal Penalties with Civil Fines →
Q136.

What is a primary criticism raised by Opposition members against the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill 2026, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It increases the financial burden on small businesses.
  • B.It transfers judicial functions to the bureaucracy and lets corporations escape with fines.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It violates the federal structure by overriding state laws.
  • D.It lacks provisions for public consultation during its formulation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Opposition members stating that converting criminal liability to a penalty makes it 'easy' for corporations to get away with a fine and that it would 'take away the work of the courts and hand it over to the bureaucracy'. This matches option B.

Source: Jan Vishwas (Amendment) Bill 2026 Amends 80 Central Acts, Replaces Criminal Penalties with Civil Fines →
Q137.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 356
  • C.Article 368
  • D.Article 14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India and vests in it the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. The NLU experts' suggestions to limit the EC's powers relate directly to its mandate under this article.

Source: NLUs Propose Constructive No-Confidence Vote & Limit EC's Power Under 'One Nation, One Election' Bill →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding the suggestions made by NLU experts to the Parliamentary Committee on 'One Nation, One Election':

1. They suggested introducing a constructive vote of no-confidence, similar to the mechanism used in Germany.

2. They proposed that the Election Commission's power to defer Assembly elections should be unlimited to ensure flexibility.

3. They recommended appointing Election Commissioners through a collegium comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition, and the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the suggestion for a constructive no-confidence vote citing examples like Germany. Statement 2 is incorrect; the experts suggested LIMITING the EC's power by defining circumstances and a timeline, not making it unlimited. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of a collegium for appointments.

Source: NLUs Propose Constructive No-Confidence Vote & Limit EC's Power Under 'One Nation, One Election' Bill →
Q139.

How many National Law Universities (NLUs) made presentations to the Joint Parliamentary Committee on 'One Nation, One Election', as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5
  • B.6
  • C.8✓ Correct Answer
  • D.10
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Vice-Chancellors and representatives of eight NLUs (Jodhpur, Kochi, Patna, Odisha, Himachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Maharashtra, and Lucknow) met the House panel.

Source: NLUs Propose Constructive No-Confidence Vote & Limit EC's Power Under 'One Nation, One Election' Bill →
Q140.

What is the primary constitutional concern raised by NLU experts regarding the Election Commission's power under the 'One Nation, One Election' Bills?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It infringes upon the fundamental rights of political parties.
  • B.It goes beyond the powers given to the EC under the Constitution and affects the federal structure.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It reduces the transparency of the electoral process.
  • D.It conflicts with the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the NLU experts flagging that giving the EC broad power to defer Assembly elections 'goes beyond the powers given to the EC under the Constitution and affects federal structure.' This is the core constitutional concern highlighted.

Source: NLUs Propose Constructive No-Confidence Vote & Limit EC's Power Under 'One Nation, One Election' Bill →
Q141.

Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI), responsible for conducting the Census, function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the notification for Census 2027 was issued by the Office of Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Census is a Union subject related to internal governance.

Source: Census 2027 Begins With First Digital Enumeration; Reference Date March 1, 2027; Under Ministry of Home Affairs →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027:

1. Its first phase, the Houselisting and Housing Census (HLO), started with self-enumeration on April 1, 2026.

2. The reference date for the census for all parts of India is uniformly March 1, 2027.

3. The Census is listed as a subject in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the reference date for snow-bound areas like Ladakh is October 1, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Census is listed at serial number 69 in the Union List, not the Concurrent List.

Source: Census 2027 Begins With First Digital Enumeration; Reference Date March 1, 2027; Under Ministry of Home Affairs →
Q143.

What is the reference date set for Census 2027 for most parts of the country?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 1, 2027
  • B.March 1, 2027✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 1, 2027
  • D.October 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the reference date for the Census is set for March 1, 2027, for most parts of the country." October 1, 2026, is the reference date for snow-bound areas only.

Source: Census 2027 Begins With First Digital Enumeration; Reference Date March 1, 2027; Under Ministry of Home Affairs →
Q144.

What is a key feature distinguishing Census 2027 from previous censuses in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will be conducted by a private agency for the first time.
  • B.It is the first census where data collection is being done through digital means.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will not collect caste-based data.
  • D.It will be completed within a single month.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Prime Minister's statement quoted in the article says: "This census is the first time data collection is being done through digital means." This marks a significant methodological shift, enabling self-enumeration. The other options are not supported by the article.

Source: Census 2027 Begins With First Digital Enumeration; Reference Date March 1, 2027; Under Ministry of Home Affairs →
Q145.

Which state government agency is primarily responsible for the redesign and implementation of the Shaktipeeth Expressway project?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  • B.Maharashtra State Roads Development Corporation (MSRDC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Public Works Department (PWD), Maharashtra
  • D.National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation (NHIDCL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in August 2025, the Maharashtra State Roads Development Corporation (MSRDC) was asked to study and redesign alternative alignments for the expressway. An MSRDC official also commented on the land acquisition process.

Source: Maharashtra Approves Shaktipeeth Expressway Revised Alignment At ₹1 Lakh Cr For 856.765 Km Nagpur-Goa Corridor →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding the revised Shaktipeeth Expressway project:

1. The revised alignment increases the expressway's length by approximately 54 km, bringing it to 856.765 km.

2. The project cost has been revised downwards from the initial estimate of around ₹80,000 crore.

3. The expressway will pass through the Satara district, connecting the villages of Gondawale and Shikhar Shinganapur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the length increased from 802.592 km to 856.765 km (an increase of ~54 km). Statement 2 is incorrect; the cost was revised upwards to ₹1 lakh crore from ~₹80,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the new alignment introduces 40 km in Satara in the two named villages.

Source: Maharashtra Approves Shaktipeeth Expressway Revised Alignment At ₹1 Lakh Cr For 856.765 Km Nagpur-Goa Corridor →
Q147.

According to the news article, what is the total land area required for acquisition for the revised Shaktipeeth Expressway project?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.8,560 hectares
  • B.8,760 hectares✓ Correct Answer
  • C.9,120 hectares
  • D.8,420 hectares
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that with the revised alignment, land acquisition of 8,760 hectares will be required. The other options are close distractors based on common numerical confusion.

Source: Maharashtra Approves Shaktipeeth Expressway Revised Alignment At ₹1 Lakh Cr For 856.765 Km Nagpur-Goa Corridor →
Q148.

What was a primary reason cited in the article for the initial opposition and subsequent redesign of the Shaktipeeth Expressway alignment?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Technical challenges in tunneling through the Western Ghats.
  • B.Lack of sufficient central government funding for the project.
  • C.Protests by farmers unwilling to part with fertile sugarcane land.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Environmental concerns regarding its impact on tiger corridors.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the previous alignment faced resistance from farmers along the route, specifically because the expressway went through fertile land yielding high-value cash crops like sugarcane. This made it a major electoral issue, leading to the cancellation of the initial land acquisition notification.

Source: Maharashtra Approves Shaktipeeth Expressway Revised Alignment At ₹1 Lakh Cr For 856.765 Km Nagpur-Goa Corridor →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 1 April 2026?▼

This page contains 148 current affairs questions from 1 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 1 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. regulatory body issued the directive banning Non-Deliverable D…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI dir…
  3. Q3. According to the RBI directive, what is the daily net open exp…
  4. Q4. is the primary objective of the RBI's ban on non-deliverable r…
  5. Q5. As per the article, which central armed police force was desig…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the counter-Naxali…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what was the total length of roads c…
  8. Q8. was the primary strategic objective behind the massive road co…
  9. Q9. constitutional body is the apex decision-making authority for …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding GST collections fo…
  11. Q11. According to the news article, what was the total Gross GST re…
  12. Q12. is the primary significance of consistently high GST collectio…
  13. Q13. The Reserve Bank of India was established based on the recomme…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank o…
  15. Q15. According to the article, what is the new cap set by the RBI o…
  16. Q16. is a primary objective of the RBI's new rule making two-factor…
  17. Q17. Under which Articles of the Constitution are the provisions of…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule…
  19. Q19. According to the article, what percentage of Ladakh's populati…
  20. Q20. is a primary concern raised by those apprehensive about includ…
  21. Q21. Through which major strategic strait does nearly 30% of the wo…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia conf…
  23. Q23. According to the article, on which date did the United States …
  24. Q24. is described as a central symbolic dimension that strengthens …
  25. Q25. constitutional body is responsible for recommending allocation…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the 16th Finance C…
  27. Q27. According to the article, what is the total allocation made by…
  28. Q28. is the primary criticism of the 16th Finance Commission's Disa…
  29. Q29. government organization is responsible for compiling and publi…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding India's industrial…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what was the growth rate of India's …
  32. Q32. does the contraction in consumer non-durables, as highlighted …
  33. Q33. The audit report on the 'Late marriage incentive to PVTG house…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the CAG report on …
  35. Q35. According to the CAG report cited in the article, what percent…
  36. Q36. was the primary objective of the 'Late marriage incentive to P…
  37. Q37. High Court delivered the order stating that no prior permissio…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
  39. Q39. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita …
  40. Q40. is the primary condition under which authorities can take acti…
  41. Q41. court initially declared the election of R. Puthunainar Athith…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  43. Q43. was the statutory limit for election campaign expenses in 1991…
  44. Q44. was the primary legal consequence of not accounting for the ex…
  45. Q45. As per the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendmen…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding transgender rights…
  47. Q47. In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark NALSA…
  48. Q48. is the primary constitutional conflict highlighted by the pass…
  49. Q49. development authority is primarily responsible for planning an…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai Metro e…
  51. Q51. According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the pr…
  52. Q52. is the primary urban transport problem that the Mumbai Metro n…
  53. Q53. ministry is the nodal agency for handling Left-Wing Extremism …
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Maoist insurge…
  55. Q55. According to the Home Minister's statement mentioned in the ar…
  56. Q56. is identified as the deeper, unresolved challenge for the stat…
  57. Q57. Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027: 1. I…
  59. Q59. According to the article, how many questions will be included …
  60. Q60. is the primary objective of introducing the self-enumeration f…
  61. Q61. The Office of the Registrar General, which released the data o…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding India's COVID-19 p…
  63. Q63. According to the data confirmed by the Office of the Registrar…
  64. Q64. A central argument emerging from the analysis of India's pande…
  65. Q65. U.S. government agency releases the annual National Trade Esti…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Trade Rep…
  67. Q67. According to the U.S. NTE 2026 Report cited in the article, wh…
  68. Q68. is a primary concern raised by the U.S. report regarding India…
  69. Q69. The Artemis II mission involves an astronaut from the Canadian…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Artemis pro…
  71. Q71. According to the article, by which year does China plan to lan…
  72. Q72. is identified in the article as a primary geopolitical and sci…
  73. Q73. The principle that 'an attack on one is an attack on all' is a…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the developments i…
  75. Q75. According to the article, what new timeline for the war did US…
  76. Q76. is a primary concern for European policymakers arising from th…
  77. Q77. ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of MG…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  79. Q79. According to the official data mentioned in the article, what …
  80. Q80. is a key point of criticism raised against the provisions of t…
  81. Q81. According to the article, which global organization released t…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding internet shutdowns…
  83. Q83. According to the Access Now report cited in the article, what …
  84. Q84. was the primary legal justification used by authorities in Jam…
  85. Q85. Under which article of the Constitution does the Election Comm…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
  87. Q87. According to the news, what was the total number of officers (…
  88. Q88. was the primary rationale given by the Calcutta High Court for…
  89. Q89. ministry, in consultation with the Ministry of Civil Aviation,…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Aviatio…
  91. Q91. According to the article, what was the approximate percentage …
  92. Q92. is the primary rationale cited by the government for allowing …
  93. Q93. committee is responsible for setting India's benchmark policy …
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the economic impac…
  95. Q95. According to HDFC Bank's baseline scenario in the article, wha…
  96. Q96. is a key reason cited in the article for the Indian government…
  97. Q97. The Noida International Airport is located in which district o…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the political tran…
  99. Q99. According to the article, which upcoming election year is high…
  100. Q100. is the primary political implication of the 'double movement' …
  101. Q101. The Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment discussed illegal sand …
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh…
  103. Q103. According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment, on which …
  104. Q104. was the primary reason cited by the Madhya Pradesh High Court …
  105. Q105. government body issued the notification allowing concessional …
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the new relief mea…
  107. Q107. is the maximum permissible limit for Domestic Tariff Area (DTA…
  108. Q108. is the primary rationale behind introducing the one-time relie…
  109. Q109. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the a…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the analysis of th…
  111. Q111. According to the analysis citing the New York Times, how many …
  112. Q112. is identified as the primary reason compelling Gulf Arab monar…
  113. Q113. As per the news, which country currently holds the chairmanshi…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Russ…
  115. Q115. From which date did Russia's ban on gasoline exports, as menti…
  116. Q116. was the primary reason cited by the Russian official for the c…
  117. Q117. Under which constitutional article is the Election Commission …
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news on West B…
  119. Q119. As per the Supreme Court proceedings reported, by what date is…
  120. Q120. was a key concern addressed by the Supreme Court regarding the…
  121. Q121. Under which Ministry does the Ishapore Metal and Steel Factory…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
  123. Q123. was the revised pay scale (including grade pay) that the Calcu…
  124. Q124. is the core legal principle reinforced by the Calcutta High Co…
  125. Q125. regulatory body has introduced the new two-factor authenticati…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the new RBI guidel…
  127. Q127. is the charge (excluding taxes) for a UPI ATM transaction once…
  128. Q128. is the primary objective behind the RBI's mandate for two-fact…
  129. Q129. The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) are administrative und…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed …
  131. Q131. The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill,…
  132. Q132. A primary criticism from the Opposition regarding the CAPF (Ge…
  133. Q133. Union Minister piloted the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provision…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (A…
  135. Q135. According to the news article, how many Central Acts does the …
  136. Q136. is a primary criticism raised by Opposition members against th…
  137. Q137. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Election…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the suggestions ma…
  139. Q139. many National Law Universities (NLUs) made presentations to th…
  140. Q140. is the primary constitutional concern raised by NLU experts re…
  141. Q141. Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General …
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027: 1. I…
  143. Q143. is the reference date set for Census 2027 for most parts of th…
  144. Q144. is a key feature distinguishing Census 2027 from previous cens…
  145. Q145. state government agency is primarily responsible for the redes…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the revised Shakti…
  147. Q147. According to the news article, what is the total land area req…
  148. Q148. was a primary reason cited in the article for the initial oppo…