27 March 2026, Questions & Answers
164 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 164 current affairs questions with answers from 27 March 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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164 QsUnder which Article of the Constitution is a Money Bill, such as the Finance Bill, defined?
- A.Article 108
- B.Article 109
- C.Article 110✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 111
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Explanation
Article 110 of the Indian Constitution specifically defines a Money Bill. The Finance Bill, which contains tax proposals, is categorized as a Money Bill and can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Bill 2026 as per the news:
1. The Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill 2026 on March 25, 2026, with 32 amendments.
2. The total expenditure proposed for FY 2026-27 is ₹453.47 lakh crore, which is a decrease from the previous fiscal year.
3. The fiscal deficit for FY27 is projected to be higher than the deficit for the current fiscal year (FY26).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the total expenditure of ₹453.47 lakh crore is a 7.7% increase, not a decrease. Statement 3 is incorrect as the fiscal deficit for FY27 is projected at 4.3%, which is lower than the 4.4% for FY26.
According to the Union Budget 2026-27 mentioned in the news, what is the projected fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP for the financial year 2026-27 (FY27)?
- A.4.1%
- B.4.2%
- C.4.3%✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.4%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the fiscal deficit for FY27 is projected at 4.3% of GDP. The figure 4.4% is the deficit for the current fiscal year (FY26), making it a close distractor.
What is the primary constitutional significance of the Rajya Sabha's role in the passage of the Finance Bill, as evidenced in the news?
- A.It can amend the Bill before returning it to the Lok Sabha.
- B.It can reject the Bill if it disagrees with the tax proposals.
- C.It can only discuss the Bill and return it to the Lok Sabha.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It has equal power to the Lok Sabha in passing the Bill.
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Explanation
The Finance Bill is a Money Bill under Article 110. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers; it can only discuss and make recommendations. It must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, and the Lok Sabha may accept or reject its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject it.
According to the article, which military force poses a serious challenge requiring India to pursue a robust industrial strategy?
- A.United States Armed Forces
- B.Pakistan Army
- C.People's Liberation Army (PLA) of China✓ Correct Answer
- D.Russian Armed Forces
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'China’s military poses a serious challenge to India' and that India needs a strategy 'to deter the People’s Liberation Army (PLA).'
Consider the following statements regarding India's strategic choices for defence-industrial strategy as discussed in the article:
1. A bold approach entails betting on new war-fighting technologies but risks creating acute capability vulnerabilities.
2. A conservative strategy involves integrating emerging technologies with legacy systems and is more suited for a protracted conflict with China.
3. The middle-path focuses on investing in enabling layers like C2, ISR, and deep-strike to evolve a multi-domain force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the bold approach. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the conservative strategy is 'more suited to fight a short war with Pakistan, not a protracted conflict.' Statement 3 is correct as it accurately describes the middle-path approach.
According to the article, what is the expanded acronym for the critical system India needs to dominate, described as 'the side that can see can continue to fight'?
- A.C2ISR (Command, Control, Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance)
- B.C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance)✓ Correct Answer
- C.C3ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance)
- D.C5ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Cyber, Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance)' as a critical concern and states dominating the C4ISR battle is key.
What is the primary objective of India focusing on 'critical enabling layers' in its deterrence system, as advocated in the article?
- A.To win a short war with Pakistan through technological superiority.
- B.To alter China's military confidence and prevent it from assuming any single capability could prove decisive.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To achieve complete self-reliance (Atmanirbharta) in all defence equipment.
- D.To reduce fiscal deficit by cutting defence expenditure.
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Explanation
The article states: 'Strengthening India’s deterrence would mean altering China’s military confidence, while preventing it from assuming that any single capability could prove decisive.' This is achieved by creating and operationalising the enabling layers.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to specify Scheduled Castes?
- A.Article 340
- B.Article 341✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 342
- D.Article 366
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Explanation
Article 341 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify, by public notification, the castes, races or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes for the purposes of the Constitution. Article 342 is for Scheduled Tribes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on SC status:
1. It upheld that SC status is available only to those practising Hinduism, Sikhism, and Buddhism.
2. It ruled that the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 was issued under Article 340 of the Constitution.
3. The judgment was delivered in March 2026 in a case involving a Christian pastor from Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 1950 Order was issued under Article 341, not Article 340 (which is for appointment of a commission to investigate conditions of backward classes). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
In which year were Buddhists brought under the purview of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order?
- A.1950
- B.1956
- C.1990✓ Correct Answer
- D.2000
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Explanation
As per the article, the original 1950 Order included only Hindus. Sikhs were included in 1956, and Buddhists were included later in 1990 through amendments.
What is the primary constitutional rationale for limiting SC status to Hindus, Sikhs, and Buddhists, as reiterated by the Supreme Court?
- A.It is based on the theological equality inherent in Christianity and Islam.
- B.It stems from the Presidential Order of 1950 issued under Article 341, which defines SCs by religion.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is because these three religions are recognized as state religions under the Constitution.
- D.It is due to an international treaty obligation on the definition of minorities.
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Explanation
The legal basis is purely statutory and constitutional. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, issued under Article 341, explicitly specifies the religions. The Court's role is to interpret this existing law, not to make theological judgments.
The implementation of the women's reservation Act for Parliament is contingent upon an exercise carried out by which constitutional body?
- A.Election Commission of India
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Union Public Service Commission
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Explanation
As per the article, the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam's implementation is tied to a delimitation exercise. The Delimitation Commission is the independent constitutional authority responsible for redrawing constituency boundaries based on population data, which is a prerequisite for allocating the reserved seats.
Consider the following statements regarding women's reservation in India:
1. The 106th Constitution Amendment Act provides for one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. The discourse on women's reservation began in the 1970s with the Committee on the Status of Women in India.
3. Early women leaders like Sarojini Naidu supported the idea of legislative reservation to ensure political justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the discourse began in the 1920s-30s, though it resurfaced in the 1970s. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly mentions that leaders like Sarojini Naidu repudiated the idea of reservation, fearing it would portray women as inferior.
According to the article, what percentage of India's total population did women constitute at the time of Independence?
- A.45.6%
- B.48.04%✓ Correct Answer
- C.49.2%
- D.50.1%
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that women constituted 48.04% of India's total population at the time of Independence. This historical demographic fact was part of the argument for political reservation.
What is identified in the article as a major systemic flaw hindering the effectiveness of women's reservation in Panchayati Raj Institutions?
- A.Lack of financial allocation for women-led Panchayats
- B.The practice of proxy representation or 'Sarpanch-Pati'✓ Correct Answer
- C.Absence of training programs conducted by the Central Government
- D.Restriction preventing women from contesting general seats
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Explanation
The article details 'proxy representation' or 'Sarpanch-Pati' as a major lacuna, where women in reserved seats become tokens, and actual power is exercised by male family members, undermining the goal of substantive representation and perpetuating 'public patriarchy'.
Under which international agreement are countries required to submit Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)?
- A.Kyoto Protocol
- B.Paris Agreement✓ Correct Answer
- C.Montreal Protocol
- D.UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
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Explanation
The Paris Agreement, adopted in 2015, is the international treaty that mandates countries to prepare, communicate, and maintain successive NDCs every five years. The UNFCCC is the parent treaty, but the NDC mechanism is specifically established under the Paris Agreement.
Consider the following statements regarding India's new climate targets for 2035:
1. It targets ensuring at least 60% of its electricity generation from non-fossil fuel sources.
2. It promises a 47% reduction in the emissions intensity of its GDP from 2005 levels.
3. The targets were announced amidst global concerns over energy security triggered by the US-Israeli war on Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The target is for 60% of installed electricity capacity, not generation. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct; the article mentions the US-Israeli war on Iran leading to the closure of the Strait of Hormuz, creating energy security concerns.
According to the article, what annual climate finance amount did developed countries agree to raise for developing countries from 2035, as per the COP29 outcome in Baku (2024)?
- A.$100 billion
- B.$300 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$500 billion
- D.$1.3 trillion
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Explanation
The article states that at the climate finance negotiations in Baku in 2024, developed countries agreed to raise about $300 billion a year for developing countries, but only from 2035. The $1.3 trillion option was the demand by developing countries.
What is identified as a primary reason for India setting relatively modest 2035 climate targets despite being capable of more, as per the article?
- A.Lack of domestic technological capability
- B.Insufficient renewable energy potential
- C.Disappointment over unmet climate finance from developed nations✓ Correct Answer
- D.Prioritization of economic growth over environmental concerns
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Explanation
The article clearly links India's modest target enhancement to its disappointment with the climate finance outcome at COP29 in Baku, where developed countries pledged far less than what developing countries demanded. India argues that lack of adequate finance compels scaling down ambition.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to specify Scheduled Castes?
- A.Article 340
- B.Article 341✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 342
- D.Article 343
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Explanation
Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to specify, by public notification, the castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed Scheduled Castes. This is the constitutional basis for the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, which is central to the news article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on SC status for religious converts:
1. The Court upheld that the religion bar in the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, is absolute.
2. The judgment stated that a person who converts to Christianity can retain their SC status if they face social discrimination.
3. The Court noted that the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, does not prescribe any religious exclusion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court ruled the religion bar is "absolute". Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court held that conversion to Christianity results in immediate loss of SC status, irrespective of social discrimination. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Scheduled Tribes Order does not prescribe religious exclusion.
According to the news, who is heading the Commission of Inquiry constituted to examine extending Scheduled Caste status to Dalit converts to Islam and Christianity?
- A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.Justice K.G. Balakrishnan✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justice N.V. Ramana
- D.Justice S.A. Bobde
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in October 2022, the Centre constituted a Commission of Inquiry headed by former Chief Justice of India K.G. Balakrishnan. The other names are former CJIs not mentioned in the article in this context.
What is a key implication of the Supreme Court's ruling that conversion results in 'immediate and complete loss of Scheduled Caste status'?
- A.Converts can still avail of educational reservations under the Economically Weaker Sections quota.
- B.Converts lose protections against caste-based atrocities under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Converts automatically gain eligibility for benefits under the OBC category.
- D.Converts must reapply for SC status after a waiting period of five years.
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the loss of SC status entails the automatic termination of all statutory benefits and protections, including those under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. The other options are not mentioned or implied in the article.
Which Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the policy decision to cut excise duty on petrol and diesel as per the news?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The article quotes Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri explaining the policy, and the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for policies related to fuel pricing and excise duties on petroleum products in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent government measures on fuel:
1. The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on both petrol and diesel was reduced by Rs 10 per litre.
2. An export duty was levied on petrol to ensure its adequate availability in the domestic market.
3. The annualized fiscal impact of the excise duty cuts is estimated to be around Rs 1.55 lakh crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the export duty was imposed on diesel and Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF), not on petrol. Statement 3 is correct as per the estimate by Chief Economist Madhavi Arora mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what is the amount of export duty imposed per litre on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF)?
- A.Rs 10.0 per litre
- B.Rs 21.5 per litre
- C.Rs 29.5 per litre✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rs 30.0 per litre
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "a levy of Rs 21.5 per litre has been imposed on diesel, and Rs 29.5 per litre on ATF." The other options are distractors: Rs 10 is the SAED cut, Rs 21.5 is the duty on diesel, and Rs 30 is the per-litre loss on diesel sales for OMCs.
What was the primary objective behind the government imposing export duties on diesel and ATF alongside the excise duty cut?
- A.To completely eliminate the fiscal deficit caused by the excise cut.
- B.To discourage exports and ensure adequate domestic availability of these fuels.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of alternative fuels like ethanol and compressed natural gas.
- D.To align Indian fuel prices directly with international benchmark prices.
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Explanation
The article clearly states the objective was "ensuring adequate availability of these fuels in the domestic market" and "disincentivising the exports." While the duties generate some revenue, the primary goal was supply management, not deficit elimination (option A). The article does not mention promoting alternatives (C) or direct price alignment (D).
Which constitutional body has directed the Registrar Generals of all State High Courts to ensure strict compliance with the non-disclosure of sexual assault survivor identities?
- A.The Parliament of India
- B.The Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.The Law Commission of India
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Explanation
As per the article, a Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Justice Sanjay Karol directed its March 24 judgment to be sent to the Registrar Generals of State High Courts. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the legal provisions discussed in the news:
1. Disclosure of a sexual assault survivor's identity is a criminal offence punishable with simple imprisonment.
2. The relevant legal provision was originally Section 228A of the Indian Penal Code and is now Section 72 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
3. The 1983 legal reforms that introduced this provision were triggered by the public outrage following the Mathura custodial rape case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the punishment is 'rigorous imprisonment', not 'simple imprisonment'. Statement 2 is correct as the article states Section 228A IPC corresponds to Section 72 BNS. Statement 3 is correct as the 1983 reforms were triggered by the Mathura case.
According to the news, what is the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence of disclosing the identity of a sexual assault survivor?
- A.6 months imprisonment
- B.1 year rigorous imprisonment
- C.2 years rigorous imprisonment✓ Correct Answer
- D.3 years simple imprisonment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the provision (Section 228A IPC/Section 72 BNS) makes the disclosure a criminal offence 'punishable with up to two years’ rigorous imprisonment'.
What was the primary objective of the 1983 legal reforms that introduced Section 228A of the IPC, as discussed in the article?
- A.To increase the conviction rate for sexual offences
- B.To introduce a victim-centric orientation in criminal law and protect survivors✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate faster trials for sexual assault cases
- D.To provide financial compensation to all survivors
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Explanation
The article states these reforms 'were designed to reduce the barriers and fears that previously discouraged survivors from reporting crimes and stifled effective prosecution'. This indicates a shift towards protecting and empowering victims, making the law more victim-centric.
Which Indian law, recently replaced by a new Adhiniyam, contained provisions regarding presumptions in cases of abetment of suicide by a married woman?
- A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
- B.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- D.The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
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Explanation
The article mentions Section 114 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Section 113A of the old Evidence Act dealt with the presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment mentioned in the news:
1. The Court cancelled the bail granted by the Patna High Court in a dowry death case.
2. The Court held that the High Court failed to consider the presumption under Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code.
3. The Supreme Court directed the accused to surrender and ordered the trial court to complete proceedings within six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC cancelled the bail. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court referred to the presumption under Section 114 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, not Section 304B IPC. Statement 3 is correct as per the final directions of the Court.
According to the news article, what was the total alleged dowry given at the time of marriage in the case before the Supreme Court?
- A.₹20 lakh in cash only
- B.₹20 lakh cash and gold/silver worth ₹5 lakh
- C.₹20 lakh cash and gold/silver worth ₹6 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹26 lakh in cash and valuables
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to the FIR, the bride's family had allegedly paid Rs 20 lakh in cash along with gold and silver worth Rs 6 lakh at the time of marriage.
What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for criticizing the Patna High Court's bail order in the dowry death case?
- A.The High Court granted bail without hearing the victim's mother.
- B.The High Court adopted a 'mechanical approach' and failed to consider critical evidence like the post-mortem report.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The High Court ignored the fact that the accused was a habitual offender.
- D.The High Court did not impose strict bail conditions like surrendering the passport.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court stated the bail order was 'wholly unsustainable' and criticized the High Court for a 'mechanical approach' that failed to consider critical evidence, including the nature of injuries in the post-mortem report, focusing only on custody duration and slow trial pace.
Group Captain Rajiv Kumar Narang (retired), quoted in the article, is a senior fellow at which Indian defense think tank?
- A.Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS)
- B.Manohar Parrikar Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (MP-IDSA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Centre for Air Power Studies (CAPS)
- D.United Service Institution of India (USI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Narang is a senior fellow at the Manohar Parrikar Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses. This is a key static GK fact about a prominent Indian defense and strategic affairs think tank.
Consider the following statements regarding the Shahed drone and modern warfare as discussed in the article:
1. The Shahed is a reusable drone that returns to base after reconnaissance.
2. A key strategic dilemma highlighted is that the cost of defense has skyrocketed relative to the cost of attack.
3. Ukraine's economical response to drone swarms included developing an interceptor drone called 'Sting'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article clearly states the Shahed is a 'one-way drone' that does not return to base. Statement 2 is correct, as summed up by Reuters: 'Attacking has grown cheap while the relative cost of defending has skyrocketed.' Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions Ukraine developed the 'Sting' interceptor drone worth $2,000-4,000.
According to the article, what is the approximate cost per hour to keep an F-16 fighter jet in the air?
- A.$10,000
- B.$15,000
- C.$25,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.$35,000
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Explanation
The article provides a direct comparison, stating: 'just keeping an F-16 in the air costs over $25,000 per hour.' This is a critical data point illustrating the operational cost imbalance against cheap drones.
What is the primary strategic implication of Iran's use of low-cost Shahed drones, as analyzed in the article?
- A.It has made manned fighter jets completely obsolete in modern conflicts.
- B.It has forced a shift towards diplomatic resolutions in the Gulf region.
- C.It has created an unsustainable economic imbalance, making traditional air defense prohibitively expensive.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It has proven that only fifth-generation stealth fighters like the F-35 are effective for air defense.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis is about the shifting economics of warfare. It repeatedly highlights the cost imbalance where cheap drones force the use of multi-million dollar defense systems, making such defense financially and logistically unsustainable in the long term, which is the primary strategic implication.
The analysis on India's carbon emissions slowdown in 2025 was published by which research organization?
- A.Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
- B.The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
- C.Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.International Energy Agency (IEA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the analysis was conducted by the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA). The other organizations, while prominent in the environmental research space, are not mentioned in the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding India's carbon emissions as per the CREA analysis:
1. India's CO2 emissions grew by 0.7% in the year 2025 as a whole.
2. The fall in power-sector emissions in 2025 was primarily due to a decline in hydro and nuclear power generation.
3. The consumption of imported coal at power plants fell by 20% in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states emissions grew by 0.7% in 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect; the fall was due to record clean-energy growth (solar, wind) and weak electricity demand, not a decline in hydro/nuclear (which actually saw additions). Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
According to the CREA analysis, what was the approximate amount of new solar power capacity added in India in 2025?
- A.6.3 Gigawatts
- B.4.0 Gigawatts
- C.47 Gigawatts✓ Correct Answer
- D.90 Gigawatts
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Explanation
The article clearly states that India added 47 gigawatts (GW) of solar power capacity in 2025. 6.3 GW refers to wind capacity, 4.0 GW to hydropower, and 90 TWh (Terawatt-hours) refers to the annual electricity generation from the new clean capacity, not its power rating.
What is the primary significance of the 'inflection point' mentioned in the CREA analysis regarding India's power sector?
- A.It marks the year when India will achieve net-zero carbon emissions.
- B.It is the point where clean-energy growth can meet or exceed the growth in electricity demand.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It signifies the complete phase-out of coal-based power plants in India.
- D.It indicates a shift where India will become a net exporter of electricity.
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Explanation
The article defines the inflection point as a scenario where clean-energy additions can meet or exceed the growth in electricity demand, potentially leading to sustained falls in coal-fired power output and CO2 emissions. The other options describe more ambitious or unrelated outcomes not supported by the article's analysis.
Who announced the fortnightly review of the Special Additional Excise Duty on diesel and ATF?
- A.Finance Minister
- B.RBI Governor
- C.CBIC Chairman✓ Correct Answer
- D.Petroleum Minister
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Explanation
The article states that CBIC Chairman Vivek Chaturvedi announced the fortnightly review of the Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED). CBIC stands for Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, which administers indirect taxes in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent fiscal measures on fuel:
1. The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on diesel and ATF exports is expected to generate ₹7,000 crore in revenue in the first fortnight.
2. The excise duty cut on petrol and diesel is aimed at reducing the under-recoveries of Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs).
3. The SAED was first introduced in July 2022 following geopolitical events and was withdrawn in December 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The SAED is expected to generate ₹1,500 crore, not ₹7,000 crore (which is the revenue loss from the excise cut). Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as it accurately describes the history of SAED.
What is the amount of export duty imposed per litre on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) as per the recent announcement?
- A.₹10.0
- B.₹21.5
- C.₹24.0
- D.₹29.5✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government has imposed an export duty of ₹29.5 per litre on ATF (Aviation Turbine Fuel). ₹21.5 is the duty on diesel, and ₹10 is the excise duty cut on petrol and diesel.
What is the primary objective of imposing the Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on diesel and ATF exports?
- A.To increase government revenue for social sector schemes
- B.To discourage exports and improve domestic supply✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of cleaner alternative fuels
- D.To align Indian fuel prices with international benchmarks
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Explanation
As stated by CBIC Chairman Vivek Chaturvedi in the article, the move to levy SAED is 'to ensure domestic availability of diesel and ATF'. This is achieved by making exports less profitable, thereby discouraging them and retaining supply within the country.
Who is the chairperson of the Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the bills related to the removal of PM and CMs?
- A.Om Birla
- B.Amit Shah
- C.Aparajita Sarangi✓ Correct Answer
- D.Narendra Modi
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the committee is chaired by BJP leader Aparajita Sarangi. Om Birla is the Lok Sabha Speaker, Amit Shah is the Home Minister who introduced the bills, and Narendra Modi is the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Joint Parliamentary Committee has been granted an extension until the Winter Session of 2026 to submit its report.
2. The bills propose the removal of a Prime Minister or Chief Minister if they are under arrest for 30 consecutive days.
3. The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the extension is until the Monsoon Session of 2026, not the Winter Session. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the bills. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the bills were introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Home Minister.
According to the news, for how many consecutive days of arrest do the proposed bills trigger the removal process for the Prime Minister or Chief Ministers?
- A.15 days
- B.30 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.45 days
- D.60 days
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the bills are for the removal of the Prime Minister, Chief Ministers and Ministers if they are under arrest for 30 consecutive days on serious charges. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary constitutional significance of the bills being examined by the Joint Parliamentary Committee, as per the news?
- A.To increase the financial powers of the Union Territories.
- B.To establish a new process for the appointment of Governors.
- C.To create a legal mechanism for the removal of top executives upon prolonged arrest.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To amend the procedure for conducting elections to the Lok Sabha.
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Explanation
The core objective of the bills, as described in the article, is to provide for the removal of the Prime Minister, Chief Ministers, and Ministers if they are under arrest for 30 consecutive days. This aims to address a gap in the current constitutional framework regarding executive accountability during incarceration.
The national adoption of the Banas Bio-CNG model is being facilitated by which Union Ministries, as per the article?
- A.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and Ministry of Agriculture
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas and Ministry of Rural Development
- C.Ministry of Jal Shakti and Ministry of Cooperation✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the initiative is being taken up by nearly 15 States through the Union Ministries of Jal Shakti and Cooperation. While other ministries work on related areas like renewable energy (MNRE) or biofuels (MoPNG), the article specifies these two as the facilitating bodies for this model's adoption.
Consider the following statements regarding the Banas Bio-CNG model:
1. The existing plant in Banaskantha has a daily dung processing capacity of 40 metric tonnes.
2. Farmers supplying dung to the plants are paid at the rate of ₹2 per kilogram.
3. Each new plant is designed to handle about 100 metric tonnes of dung per day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The existing plant... has been operational... with a daily processing capacity of 40 metric tonnes of dung.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states farmers are paid ₹1 per kg of dung, not ₹2. Statement 3 is correct: 'New plants are designed to handle about 100 metric tonnes per day.' Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
What is the estimated annual carbon emission reduction contributed by a Banas Bio-CNG plant, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Approximately 4,500 tonnes
- B.Approximately 5,250 tonnes
- C.Approximately 6,750 tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 8,100 tonnes
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'The project is expected to reduce carbon emissions by approximately 6,750 tonnes annually.' The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the specific figure provided in the content.
What is a primary objective of expanding the Banas Bio-CNG model in Gujarat, as inferred from the article?
- A.To primarily increase the export of organic fertilisers to foreign markets
- B.To integrate clean energy production with the dairy sector while providing additional rural income✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all conventional natural gas consumption in Gujarat's industrial sector
- D.To centralise dung collection from across the country for large-scale processing
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Explanation
The article states the initiative 'aims to integrate clean energy production with the dairy sector while providing additional income opportunities in rural areas.' While organic fertiliser is a by-product, export is not mentioned as a primary goal. Replacing all natural gas or centralising national dung collection are extreme interpretations not supported by the article's focus on local, scalable models.
Which Union Ministry tabled the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, in Parliament?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
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Explanation
As per the article, the Bill was tabled on March 13 by Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment Virender Kumar. This ministry is the nodal agency for policies related to the welfare of transgender persons.
Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It introduces a medical board whose recommendation is mandatory for issuing a certificate of identity to a transgender person.
2. The Bill's definition of a transgender person includes those with 'self-perceived sexual identities'.
3. The penalty for kidnapping a child and causing grievous injury to force them into a transgender identity is mandatory life imprisonment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Bill inserts a medical board headed by a chief medical officer. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the definition excludes 'self-perceived sexual identities'. Statement 3 is correct as the penalty for a child victim is 'mandatory life and a minimum Rs 5 lakh fine'.
According to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, what is the minimum fine for kidnapping an adult and causing grievous injury to force them into a transgender identity?
- A.₹1 lakh
- B.₹2 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹5 lakh
- D.₹10 lakh
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Explanation
The article states: 'kidnapping an adult and causing grievous injury for this purpose carries 10 years to life imprisonment and a minimum Rs 2 lakh fine'. The other amounts are distractors; ₹5 lakh is the fine for a child victim.
What is a primary criticism from the transgender community regarding the 2026 Amendment Bill's requirement for a medical board recommendation for identity certificates?
- A.It will lead to excessive government expenditure on medical infrastructure.
- B.It is seen as 'medical gatekeeping' that attacks the dignity and self-determination of transgender persons.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will delay the issuance of certificates due to a shortage of medical officers.
- D.It violates international treaties on medical ethics to which India is a signatory.
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Explanation
As per the article, the introduction of the medical board has been termed 'medical gatekeeping' by activists like Mumbai Queer Pride, who stated it was designed to erase transgender persons under the guise of 'medical scrutiny'. This directly challenges the right to self-determination affirmed in the NALSA judgment.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the Supreme Court reaffirm the right to die with dignity in the Harish Rana case?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the right to die with dignity is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedoms, and Article 32 with remedies for enforcing fundamental rights.
Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for passive euthanasia in India:
1. The Supreme Court first recognized passive euthanasia in the Aruna Shanbaug case in 2011.
2. The Common Cause v. Union of India judgment in 2018 was delivered by a Constitution Bench and introduced the concept of 'living wills'.
3. India has a comprehensive legislation, passed by Parliament, that fully governs end-of-life care decisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct; the 2018 Common Cause judgment was by a Constitution Bench and upheld advance directives. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article repeatedly highlights the absence of a comprehensive law, with the SC guidelines being interim measures awaiting parliamentary legislation.
For how many years had Harish Rana remained in a persistent vegetative state before the Supreme Court permitted the withdrawal of life support?
- A.More than 5 years
- B.More than 10 years
- C.More than 13 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.More than 15 years
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Explanation
The article states: "a young man who had remained in a persistent vegetative state for more than 13 years." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors based on the specific factual detail provided.
What is a primary practical challenge in implementing 'living wills' or advance medical directives in India, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Lack of judicial recognition for such documents.
- B.Absence of a nationally accessible digital registry for the documents.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A constitutional bar against refusing medical treatment.
- D.Mandatory requirement for family consent overrides the individual's will.
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Explanation
The article specifically discusses the need for a "nationally accessible digital registry of living wills" to ensure documents can be located when needed, especially if treatment is required in a different city. The other options are incorrect: living wills are judicially recognized (Common Cause case), there is no constitutional bar (right is upheld under Article 21), and the article discusses family consent in the absence of a directive, not an override.
Which US official's remarks form the basis for the analysis of the new logic in India-US ties in the article?
- A.US Secretary of State
- B.US Under Secretary of War for Policy✓ Correct Answer
- C.US National Security Advisor
- D.US Ambassador to India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that US Under Secretary of War for Policy Elbridge Colby's recent remarks in New Delhi clarify the evolving character of India-US relations. The other officials, while important, are not mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the new US approach towards India as discussed in the article:
1. It is rooted in legacy ideas of broad strategic partnership and moral positioning.
2. It seeks to link defence cooperation and economic engagement in a coordinated manner to reinforce leverage.
3. It emphasizes alignment without formal alliance structures, placing a premium on capability and delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states the framework is 'not rooted in legacy ideas of partnership' and that assumptions about 'moral positioning' are less useful. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article's description of the US aligning instruments of power and seeking 'alignment without formal alliance structures'.
According to the article, where was the US Under Secretary of War for Policy Elbridge Colby when he made the remarks discussed?
- A.Washington D.C.
- B.New Delhi✓ Correct Answer
- C.At a virtual summit
- D.The article does not specify the location
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Explanation
The article's second paragraph begins: 'US Under Secretary of War for Policy Elbridge Colby’s recent remarks in New Delhi clarify...' This provides the specific location of the remarks.
What is identified as a key domestic political challenge for India in adapting to the new US doctrine, as per the article?
- A.Securing funding for new defence procurements
- B.Managing potential backlash from sections of industry, agriculture, and strategic communities✓ Correct Answer
- C.Amending the Constitution to facilitate closer ties
- D.Reducing diplomatic engagement with other partner nations
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Explanation
The article's 'Politically, this shift creates new pressures' section explicitly states that sections of industry, agriculture, and strategic communities may respond adversely to perceived concessions, making managing these responses a challenge. The other options are not mentioned as specific challenges in the article.
Which international institute publishes data on global arms transfers and military expenditure?
- A.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.World Bank
- C.Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
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Explanation
SIPRI, based in Stockholm, is an independent institute focused on conflict and disarmament research. The article explicitly mentions SIPRI publishing the data on March 9, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the SIPRI report and Garrison State concept:
1. Global arms transfers increased by 9.2% between 2016–2020 and 2021–2025.
2. Harold Dwight Lasswell introduced the concept of 'Garrison State' in 1941.
3. According to the SIPRI report, Ukraine and India are among the top five recipients of arms imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect; the increase was between 2021–2025 compared to 2016–2020, not between those two periods. Statement 2 is correct as Lasswell introduced the concept in 1941. Statement 3 is correct as Ukraine and India are listed among the top five recipients.
According to the SIPRI report mentioned in the article, what is the share of the United States in total global arms exports?
- A.27%
- B.35%
- C.42%✓ Correct Answer
- D.70%
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Explanation
The article states that the US has a 42% share of total global arms exports. 27% is the increase in US exports, 35% is the share received by the top five recipients, and 70% is the share of the top five suppliers.
What is a key characteristic of a 'Garrison State' as described by Harold Lasswell?
- A.High levels of democratic participation and civilian oversight.
- B.Priority given to economic development over security concerns.
- C.Dominance of 'specialists on violence' in state decision-making.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Focus on international diplomacy and treaty-based conflict resolution.
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Explanation
Lasswell's garrison state is characterized by the overwhelming power of 'specialists on violence' within state institutions, with security prioritized over socio-political concerns, as defined in the article.
The Knanaya community case was adjudicated by which High Court?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Kerala High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madras High Court
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Kerala High Court delivered the judgment regarding the Knanaya community's practice. The community is based in Kerala, making its High Court the natural forum.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court judgment on the Knanaya community:
1. The court held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is a fundamental right.
2. The court upheld the Knanaya community's ecclesiastical bye-law allowing excommunication for marrying outside the community.
3. The court referred to the Biblical tenet "there is neither Jew nor Greek... for you are all one in Christ Jesus" in its judgment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the judgment explicitly declares the right to marry as a fundamental right. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court struck down the bye-law, declaring it void. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court quoted this specific line from the Bible.
In which year was the Papal Bull issued that led to the creation of the Kottayam Diocese, as discussed in the Kerala HC judgment?
- A.1905
- B.1911✓ Correct Answer
- C.1920
- D.1947
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Papal Bull was issued by Pope Pius X in the year 1911, which led to the creation of the Kottayam Diocese. The other options are incorrect historical distractors.
What was the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Kerala High Court in its judgment on the Knanaya community's marriage practice?
- A.The supremacy of religious personal laws over constitutional rights.
- B.The enforceability of fundamental rights even against non-state actions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The exclusive power of religious heads to regulate community membership.
- D.The validity of endogamy as an essential religious practice for all communities.
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Explanation
The core of the judgment is that fundamental rights (like the right to marry) are enforceable and cannot be infringed upon by religious institutions (non-state actors). The court stated that the 'principle that fundamental rights are enforceable even in the interstices of non-state action stands firmly affirmed'.
Under which article of the Constitution do State Legislatures derive powers and privileges equivalent to the UK House of Commons, as cited in the Gujarat Assembly case?
- A.Article 105
- B.Article 194✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 32
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
Article 194 of the Constitution specifically deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of State Legislatures and their members. It states these shall be those of the House of Commons of the UK Parliament at the commencement of the Constitution, which is the legal basis cited by the Gujarat Assembly Secretariat.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Gujarat Assembly proceedings:
1. The Gujarat Assembly is the only state legislature in India that does not allow any form of public dissemination of its proceedings.
2. The Assembly Secretariat has argued that Section 8 of the RTI Act allows exemption from disclosure if it breaches legislative privilege.
3. The National eVidhan Application (NeVA) is used by the Gujarat Assembly to host documents but not for live video streaming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states the Assembly provides a daily program 'Lokshahi Na Dhabkara' on TV and documents on NeVA. Statement 2 is correct as per the affidavit citing Section 8. Statement 3 is correct as the article clarifies NeVA is used for documents, and the lack of livestreaming is the core issue.
According to the article, for how many years has the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) seeking live telecast of Gujarat Assembly proceedings been pending in the Gujarat High Court as of March 2026?
- A.4 years
- B.5 years
- C.6 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.8 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The PIL has been pending in the court for six years now.' It was filed in 2020, and the hearing date mentioned is March 2026, confirming the six-year duration.
What is the primary legal argument used by the Gujarat Assembly Secretariat to oppose the mandatory live telecast of its proceedings?
- A.That live telecast would violate the model code of conduct.
- B.That it lacks the necessary technological infrastructure for broadcasting.
- C.That legislative privilege under Article 194 allows it to control publication of proceedings.✓ Correct Answer
- D.That the RTI Act does not apply to state legislative bodies.
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Explanation
The article details that the Assembly's defense relies on the privileges of the UK House of Commons, which are applicable to Indian legislatures via Article 194 of the Constitution. This includes the privilege to control or prohibit the publication of its proceedings, as argued in their affidavit.
Which organization developed India's first hydrogen trainset mentioned in the article?
- A.Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO)
- B.Integral Coach Factory (ICF), Chennai✓ Correct Answer
- C.Railway Board
- D.Central Railway
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the hydrogen trainset was developed by the Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF). RDSO conducted the oscillation trial, but ICF is the developer.
Consider the following statements regarding India's first hydrogen trainset:
1. It has successfully completed its oscillation trial conducted by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO).
2. It is currently the world's shortest hydrogen trainset on the Broad Gauge platform.
3. A dedicated hydrogen production plant has been set up at Jind to supply fuel via the electrolysis process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says it is the world's longest (10 coaches) hydrogen trainset, not shortest. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, what is the total power output of India's first hydrogen trainset?
- A.1200 kW
- B.1800 kW
- C.2400 kW✓ Correct Answer
- D.3000 kW
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Explanation
The article states that the trainset is the most powerful with 2400 kW, comprising two Driving Power Cars (DPCs) of 1200 kW each. The other options are distractors.
What is the primary environmental advantage of the hydrogen trainset as highlighted in the article?
- A.It reduces noise pollution significantly.
- B.It operates at higher speeds than conventional trains.
- C.It produces zero CO2 emissions, with water vapour as the only emission.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It uses significantly less electricity than electric trains.
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Explanation
The core environmental benefit of hydrogen fuel cell technology, as stated in the article, is zero CO2 emissions. The only by-product is water vapour, making it a clean alternative to diesel or coal-based power.
The excise duty on petrol and diesel, as mentioned in the news, is levied by which level of government in India?
- A.Central Government✓ Correct Answer
- B.State Governments
- C.Local Municipal Bodies
- D.Concurrent List (Both Centre and State)
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Explanation
Excise duty (now subsumed under Central GST for most goods but still applicable on petroleum products) is a levy imposed by the Central Government under the Central Excise Act, 1944. Petroleum products are currently outside the GST regime.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Finance Bill 2026 was returned by the Rajya Sabha via a voice vote.
2. The excise duty on diesel was reduced from ₹10 per litre to ₹3 per litre.
3. The Finance Minister stated that international crude oil prices surged due to disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the Finance Bill was returned by the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) with a voice vote. Statement 2 is incorrect: Diesel duty was removed entirely, from ₹10 to ₹0 per litre, not reduced to ₹3. Statement 3 is correct: The Finance Minister attributed the price surge to the West Asia conflict and disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz.
As per the Finance Minister's statement in the article, what is the government's targeted fiscal deficit for the relevant financial year?
- A.3.5% of GDP
- B.4.0% of GDP
- C.4.3% of GDP✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.5% of GDP
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Explanation
The Finance Minister, while addressing concerns about revenue loss from excise duty cuts, stated the government aims to ensure a fiscal deficit of 4.3% of GDP. The other options are common fiscal deficit targets used as distractors.
What was the primary rationale provided by the government for the immediate excise duty cuts on petrol and diesel?
- A.To increase government tax revenue
- B.To comply with international trade agreements
- C.To shield citizens from global oil price volatility and prevent a burden on them✓ Correct Answer
- D.To promote the use of electric vehicles
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Explanation
The Finance Minister explicitly stated that the decision was taken on the Prime Minister's guidance that "there shouldn't be a burden on the citizens" and to ensure "volatility outside does not hit the ordinary citizen." The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons in the article.
Which body, headed by the Defence Minister, grants the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for major defence capital procurements in India?
- A.Defence Procurement Board
- B.Defence Acquisition Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cabinet Committee on Security
- D.National Security Council
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Explanation
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence for capital acquisition proposals. It is headed by the Defence Minister and grants the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN), as mentioned in the article regarding the ₹2.38 lakh crore approvals.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) approvals:
1. The DAC cleared proposals worth approximately ₹2.38 lakh crore, including five additional S-400 missile systems.
2. The remotely piloted strike aircraft approved is a joint venture project with the United States.
3. The DAC also accorded Acceptance of Necessity for heavy duty air cushion vehicles for the Indian Coast Guard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states DAC cleared proposals worth about ₹2.38 lakh crore, including five additional S-400 systems. Statement 2 is incorrect; the remotely piloted strike aircraft is a programme of the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation), not a joint venture with the US. Statement 3 is correct as AoN was accorded for heavy duty air cushion vehicles for the Coast Guard.
According to the article, what was the total value of the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) granted by the DAC in the 2025-26 financial year?
- A.₹2.38 lakh crore
- B.₹2.28 lakh crore
- C.₹5.43 billion
- D.₹6.73 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in the 2025-26 financial year, the DAC accorded Acceptance of Necessity for 55 proposals amounting to ₹6.73 lakh crore. ₹2.38 lakh crore is the value of the specific approvals mentioned in the news, ₹2.28 lakh crore is the value of capital contracts signed, and $5.43 billion is the value of the original 2018 S-400 deal.
What is the primary strategic objective behind procuring the S-400 long-range surface-to-air missile systems, as per the Ministry of Defence statement in the article?
- A.To replace the ageing air defence systems of the Indian Army
- B.To counter enemy long-range air vectors targeting vital areas✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enhance offensive strike capabilities against neighbouring countries
- D.To provide a technological edge in electronic warfare
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Explanation
The Ministry of Defence statement, as quoted in the article, notes that the S-400s will 'counter enemy long-range air vectors targeting vital areas.' This defines its primary role as a defensive, area-denial system against airborne threats like aircraft and missiles, not offensive strike or electronic warfare.
Which U.S. office is responsible for conducting the 'Special 301' trade investigations mentioned in the article?
- A.Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Department of Commerce
- C.Department of State
- D.Department of Homeland Security
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Special 301 investigations are conducted by the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR). This is the statutory body under U.S. trade law tasked with investigating unfair foreign trade practices.
Consider the following statements regarding the trade developments discussed in the article:
1. The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the application of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) for 'reciprocal tariffs' was unlawful.
2. Section 122 of the U.S. Trade Act allows for tariffs to be applied temporarily for up to 180 days and can exceed 20%.
3. India and the U.S. have aligned positions on making the WTO's moratorium on e-commerce tariffs permanent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Section 122 tariffs can be applied for no more than 150 days and cannot exceed 15%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states Indian and American positions are "not aligned" on this issue.
According to the article, what is the maximum percentage tariff that can be applied under Section 122 of the U.S. Trade Act?
- A.10%
- B.12%
- C.15%✓ Correct Answer
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article specifies that tariffs applied under Section 122 "cannot exceed 15% as per law." The other options are distractors; 10% is the current universal tariff rate mentioned, while 12% and 20% are not referenced.
What is one of the primary contentious issues creating a 'gap' in the India-U.S. interim trade deal negotiations, as per the article?
- A.Market access for Information Technology services
- B.Tariff reductions on automotive parts
- C.Market access for pulses and staging of tariff reductions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Intellectual Property Rights protections
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Explanation
The article clearly identifies pulses market access and the 'staging' (speed) of tariff reductions as key gaps in the negotiations. The other options, while potential trade issues, are not mentioned as the specific gaps in this article.
Which landmark Supreme Court judgment is cited in the article as recognizing the right of transgender persons to self-identify their gender?
- A.Navtej Singh Johar vs Union of India (2018)
- B.NALSA vs Union of India (2014)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Shayara Bano vs Union of India (2017)
- D.Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the NALSA Vs. Union of India judgment in 2014 recognized the right of transgender persons to self-identify their gender. The Navtej Singh Johar case (2018) dealt with Section 377 decriminalization.
Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. It defines 'transgender person' to include only socio-cultural identities like hijra and kinner, and persons with intersex variations.
2. It mandates a government-appointed Medical Board to provide recommendations before granting legal recognition, replacing the self-declaration process.
3. Karnataka became the first state to introduce reservation for transgender individuals in government jobs following this Bill's passage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Bill limits definition to socio-cultural identities and intersex variations. Statement 2 is correct: it mandates a Medical Board, replacing self-declaration. Statement 3 is incorrect: Karnataka introduced 1% reservation in 2021, years before the 2026 Bill.
According to the 2011 Census data mentioned in the article, what is the number of transgender persons in Karnataka?
- A.15,000
- B.20,266✓ Correct Answer
- C.25,500
- D.30,000
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Explanation
The article states: 'According to the 2011 Census, Karnataka is home to 20,266 transgender persons.' The other figures are close distractors; 30,000 is the approximate number of transgender cards issued nationally.
What is a key criticism raised by activists regarding the criminalization provision in the Trans Bill 2026?
- A.It does not prescribe any punishment for crimes against transgender persons.
- B.It could be interpreted to criminalize community elders and support groups who help individuals join transgender communities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It applies only to forced surgical interventions, not to psychological coercion.
- D.It mandates life imprisonment for all offences, which is deemed too harsh.
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Explanation
The article explains that the offence of 'enticement' to assume a transgender identity could criminalize the support provided by community elders and organizations to individuals forced out of their homes, as highlighted by lawyer Arvind Narrain.
Under the Paris Agreement framework, which ministry is primarily responsible for submitting India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal ministry for climate change policy and international negotiations, including the submission of NDCs under the UNFCCC and Paris Agreement.
Consider the following statements regarding India's updated climate commitments:
1. India's 2035 NDC targets 60% of installed electric capacity from non-fossil sources.
2. India has committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 47% below 2025 levels by 2035.
3. India achieved its 2030 target of 50% non-fossil installed electric capacity in the year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the updated 2035 NDC. Statement 2 is incorrect; the reduction is from 2005 levels, not 2025 levels. Statement 3 is correct as the article states India met its 2030 non-fossil target (50%) last year (2025).
As per India's updated 2035 NDC, what is the targeted range for creating an additional carbon sink?
- A.1.5 - 2 Billion Tonnes CO2
- B.2.5 - 3 Billion Tonnes CO2
- C.3.5 - 4 Billion Tonnes CO2✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.5 - 5 Billion Tonnes CO2
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's latest NDC commits to having a '3.5 billion tonne-4 billion tonne CO2 carbon sink' by 2035. The 2.5-3 Bn tonne target was part of the 2020 NDC.
What is identified in the article as the primary reason for the significant gap between India's installed non-fossil capacity and the actual non-fossil power generation?
- A.Lack of sufficient renewable energy sources like sun and wind
- B.High cost of non-fossil power generation technology
- C.Insufficient battery storage and grid integration challenges✓ Correct Answer
- D.Policy uncertainty and delays in project clearances
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Explanation
The article directly attributes the gap ('the rub is that only about 25% of the power generated is non-fossil') to 'insufficient battery storage which is unable to harness all the available solar and wind power', highlighting a critical infrastructure challenge.
Which statutory body cleared the proposal by Bentley Asia Holdings to acquire an additional stake in Baby Memorial Hospital, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Competition Commission of India (CCI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Competition Commission of India (CCI) cleared the proposal on March 17, 2026. The CCI is responsible for reviewing mergers and acquisitions to ensure they do not adversely affect competition in the market.
Consider the following statements regarding health expenditure trends in Kerala:
1. The per capita private health expenditure in Kerala decreased from ₹13,343 in 2013-14 to ₹7,636 in 2021-22.
2. In 2021-22, private expenditure accounted for 59.1% of the total health expenditure in Kerala.
3. The share of government expenditure in total health spending in Kerala increased between 2013-14 and 2021-22.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as per capita private health expenditure increased from ₹7,636 (2013-14) to ₹13,343 (2021-22). Statement 2 is correct as per the National Health Accounts Report cited. Statement 3 is correct as government share increased from 24% (2013-14) to 32.5% (2021-22).
According to the National Health Accounts Report cited in the article, what was the per capita private health expenditure in Kerala for the year 2021-22?
- A.₹7,636
- B.₹10,000
- C.₹13,343✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹18,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states the per capita private health expenditure in Kerala was ₹13,343 for 2021-22, as per the National Health Accounts Report. ₹7,636 is the figure for 2013-14, while ₹10,000 is an anecdotal bill amount mentioned, and ₹18,000 is a distractor.
What is identified as a primary consequence of the corporatisation of healthcare in India, as discussed in the article?
- A.A significant increase in the number of family doctors and general practitioners.
- B.The introduction of managerial oversight driven by business principles, often limiting doctors' professional autonomy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A uniform reduction in treatment costs across all types of hospitals.
- D.A decrease in the number of corporate hospitals with over 500 beds.
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Explanation
The article, referencing a UNU-IIGH background paper, states that corporatisation introduces a layer of managerial oversight driven by business principles, which often limits doctors' professional autonomy. This leads to revenue-linked targets. The other options are contradicted: small hospitals are shutting down, costs are rising, and the number of large corporate hospitals is increasing.
The article mentions the success of predictable policies and actions through which government corporation in the renewable energy sector?
- A.Power Grid Corporation of India (PGCIL)
- B.Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
- D.NTPC Limited
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's renewable sector attracted private capital due to predictable policies and actions through the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI).
Consider the following statements regarding the energy security proposals in the article:
1. It proposes revising India's renewable energy target to 1500 GW by 2030.
2. It recommends full electrification of new two-wheelers and three-wheelers by 2035.
3. It sets a target of achieving 100 GW of nuclear capacity by the year 2047.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article proposes a revised RE target of 1500 GW by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article calls for full electrification of new two-wheelers and three-wheelers by 2030, not 2035. Statement 3 is correct as it mentions India's ambition to reach 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047.
According to the article, what percentage of its crude oil does India import, making it systemically vulnerable to geopolitical volatility?
- A.Over 75%
- B.Over 80%
- C.Over 85%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 90%
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Explanation
The article states a key structural reality: "For a country that imports over 85 per cent of its crude oil, geopolitical volatility is not an external risk." This is a critical data point for understanding India's energy insecurity.
What is identified as a primary reason for restructuring the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for advanced chemistry cells, as per the article?
- A.To reduce the overall fiscal burden on the exchequer.
- B.To align it with new environmental, social, and governance (ESG) norms.
- C.Because the scheme has not succeeded and is underperforming.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To exclusively promote foreign direct investment in the sector.
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Explanation
The article directly states: "The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for advanced chemistry cells has not succeeded and must be urgently restructured." It further says underperformance must be addressed, making this the core reason for the proposed restructuring.
The recent compensation case related to an unfenced water tank was adjudicated by which High Court?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Punjab and Haryana High Court
- D.Uttarakhand High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court delivered the judgment directing compensation. This is the common high court for the two Union Territories.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent High Court judgment on the drowning case:
1. The court awarded a compensation of Rs 2 lakh in total to the father of the deceased children.
2. The court held that the deaths were a consequence of parental negligence and not administrative failure.
3. The court linked the administrative failure to a violation of the fundamental right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the compensation was Rs 2 lakh *each* for three children (total Rs 6 lakh), not Rs 2 lakh in total. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court explicitly rejected the defense of parental negligence. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment states the failure constitutes a breach of duty resulting in violation of Article 21.
According to the news, what was the total compensation amount directed by the High Court to be paid to Arjun Kumar Sharma?
- A.Rs 2 lakh
- B.Rs 4 lakh
- C.Rs 6 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rs 15 lakh
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Explanation
The court directed the UT administration to pay Rs 2 lakh compensation *each* for the three children. Therefore, the total compensation amounts to Rs 6 lakh. Rs 15 lakh was the amount initially sought by the father.
What was the primary legal principle established by the High Court judgment in this case?
- A.Parents are solely responsible for supervising their children at all times.
- B.A 2-foot parapet wall is a legally sufficient safety measure for water reservoirs.
- C.Authorities have a 'duty of care' to secure hazardous public structures, and its breach violates Article 21.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Compensation for accidents can only be granted if there is proof of intentional harm.
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Explanation
The core of the judgment is that public authorities owe a 'duty of care' to citizens. Their failure to adopt basic precautions (like proper fencing) around hazardous structures constitutes a breach of this duty, which results in a violation of the fundamental right to life under Article 21.
Which international body's declaration is cited in the article as permitting countries to relax patent rules for public health threats?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.World Trade Organization (WTO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- D.World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'Doha Declaration, adopted by the World Trade Organisation in 2001, permits countries to relax patent rules to counter major public health threats.' This is a key static GK point linking trade rules to public health.
Consider the following statements regarding the anti-obesity drugs discussed in the article:
1. Semaglutide, a GLP-1 agonist, was included in the WHO's list of essential drugs in the year 2025.
2. A common side effect reported in 25-40% of users is pancreatitis.
3. The Director General of Health Services (DGHS) has justified initial prescribing restrictions for these drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the common side effect in 25-40% of users is sarcopenia (muscle loss), while pancreatitis is listed as a potential but not the most common adverse effect. Statement 3 is correct as the article says 'recent prescribing restrictions imposed by the Director General of Health Services are justified.'
According to the article, what is the estimated annual global death toll from cardiovascular diseases and diabetes combined?
- A.15-18 million
- B.18-21 million
- C.23-25 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.28-30 million
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Explanation
The article provides a specific data point: 'Together, they are the leading cause of death worldwide, accounting for 23,000,000 to 25,000,000 deaths annually.' This is a precise figure crucial for prelims factual recall.
What is the primary rationale cited in the article for the initial restriction of GLP-1 agonist prescriptions to endocrinology specialists?
- A.To ensure maximum profit for pharmaceutical companies
- B.To limit the supply of drugs in the market
- C.To prevent misuse due to complex side effects and risks✓ Correct Answer
- D.To conduct a nationwide clinical trial on the Indian population
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Explanation
The article argues that 'prescriptions by doctors or dieticians who are not well versed with the effects of these drugs will pose dangers of misuse.' Therefore, the DGHS restrictions are a regulatory measure grounded in safety and prudence, not profit, supply limitation, or research.
The article mentions that major Indian pharmaceutical firms have moved to launch generic versions of semaglutide. Which of the following is NOT one of the firms mentioned?
- A.Sun Pharma
- B.Dr. Reddy's Laboratories
- C.Cipla✓ Correct Answer
- D.Zydus Lifesciences
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists Sun Pharma, Dr. Reddy's Laboratories, Zydus Lifesciences, and Lupin as firms moving to launch generic versions. Cipla is not mentioned in the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on semaglutide patent expiry:
1. The patent for semaglutide expired in India on March 20, 2026, opening the market for generic versions.
2. Before patent expiry, the monthly treatment cost for branded GLP-1 drugs was between Rs 1,500 and Rs 5,000.
3. GLP-1 receptor agonists are complex peptide-based therapies that mimic natural hormones to regulate blood sugar and appetite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the pre-expiry cost was Rs 8,500 to over Rs 16,000, while Rs 1,500–5,000 is the projected post-expiry generic cost. Statement 3 is a correct description of GLP-1 therapies as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what is the projected reduction in the cost of GLP-1 drug treatment in India following the entry of generic versions?
- A.20-40%
- B.30-60%
- C.50-80%✓ Correct Answer
- D.70-90%
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Explanation
The article states that with the entry of generic versions, costs are projected to 'plummet by 50-80 per cent'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is identified as the primary public health benefit of wider access to affordable generic GLP-1 drugs in India?
- A.Boosting pharmaceutical exports to a $10 billion US market
- B.Shifting the healthcare system from reactive to preventive care✓ Correct Answer
- C.Creating jobs in the advanced drug delivery systems sector
- D.Reducing the need for gym trainers and fitness programs
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that affordable generics can help manage diabetes/obesity early, preventing costly complications like heart and kidney disease, thus shifting the system from reactive treatment of complications to preventive care. While export potential is mentioned, it is not the primary public health benefit.
The recent amendments to the regulations were notified by which state-level regulatory authority?
- A.Uttar Pradesh Real Estate Regulatory Authority (UP RERA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Maharashtra Real Estate Regulatory Authority (MahaRERA)
- C.Real Estate Regulatory Authority of India (RERAI)
- D.National Housing Bank (NHB)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Uttar Pradesh Real Estate Regulatory Authority (UP RERA) has notified the 10th amendment to its General Regulations, 2019.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent UP RERA amendments:
1. The amendments allow homebuyers in projects not registered with RERA to file complaints with the authority.
2. The amendments were issued under Section 80 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.
3. In case of an allottee's death, a promoter can charge a maximum processing fee of ₹25,000 if the successor is a family member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendments were issued under Section 85, not Section 80. Statement 3 is incorrect; the fee for a family member successor is capped at ₹1,000, not ₹25,000.
According to the UP RERA amendments, what is the maximum processing fee a promoter can charge for the transfer of allotment to a person other than a family member?
- A.₹500
- B.₹1,000
- C.₹10,000
- D.₹25,000✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'If the transfer is made in favour of a person other than a family member, the promoter can charge a maximum processing fee of Rs 25,000.'
What is the primary objective of the 10th amendment to the UP RERA General Regulations as highlighted in the news?
- A.To increase government revenue from real estate transactions
- B.To protect consumer interests and enhance transparency for homebuyers in unregistered projects✓ Correct Answer
- C.To simplify the process for real estate promoters to register new projects
- D.To delegate more powers to the central government over state RERAs
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Explanation
The article states the amendments aim 'to protect consumer interests and enhance transparency in the state’s real estate sector,' specifically by clarifying provisions for allottees of unregistered projects.
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) consultation mentioned in the news was scheduled for which date?
- A.March 23, 2026
- B.March 26, 2026
- C.March 27, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.March 28, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UN Security Council scheduled closed consultations on Iran for Friday, March 27, 2026. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic developments in the news:
1. The United States proposed a 15-point ceasefire plan to Iran, using Pakistan as an intermediary.
2. Iran accepted the U.S. proposal but demanded immediate withdrawal of all Israeli troops from the region.
3. Iran put forth its own five-point proposal which included recognition of its sovereignty over the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the U.S. delivered a 15-point 'action list' using Pakistan as an intermediary. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Iran rejected the U.S. offer. Statement 3 is correct as Iran's own five-point proposal included recognition of its sovereignty over the Strait of Hormuz.
According to the news, approximately how many U.S. Marines were reported to be drawing closer to the region aboard ships?
- A.1,000
- B.1,500
- C.2,000
- D.2,500✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifies that a group of U.S. ships drew closer to the region with some 2,500 Marines. The other figures are distractors; 1,000 refers to the paratroopers from the 82nd Airborne also mentioned.
What is described as Iran's primary strategic objective in imposing a stranglehold on the Strait of Hormuz, according to the news article?
- A.To increase its oil export revenues directly
- B.To force a global energy crisis and pressure the U.S. to back down✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a new international shipping tariff regime
- D.To prevent Israeli naval vessels from entering the Persian Gulf
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Explanation
The article states that Iran's control of the Strait 'appears part of a strategy to get the U.S. to back down by roiling the world economy.' This indicates the objective is coercive diplomacy through economic pressure, not merely revenue generation or regional blockade.
Under which Union Ministry does the Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) programme primarily function?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The ASHA programme is a key component of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Anganwadi workers, mentioned alongside ASHAs in the article, are under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Consider the following statements regarding India's digital health landscape as discussed in the article:
1. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has issued over 80 crore health IDs.
2. The national telemedicine service, eSanjeevani, has conducted over 39 crore consultations.
3. Frontline health workers like ASHAs have seen a significant increase in their fixed monthly honorarium following the 2025 adjustment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article's data. Statement 3 is incorrect. The article states that despite a 2025 adjustment, the fixed monthly honorarium for ASHAs remains at around ₹3,500, indicating stagnation rather than a significant increase.
According to the article, what is the approximate strength of Anganwadi workers forming part of India's community health network?
- A.Over 5 lakh
- B.Over 10 lakh
- C.Over 13 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 20 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that there are over 13 lakh Anganwadi workers providing last-mile healthcare in India. The strength of ASHA workers is over 10 lakh, a common distractor.
What is the primary critique leveled against the current model of 'dashboard governance' in India's digital health push, as per the article?
- A.It relies on outdated technology that is not scalable.
- B.It prioritizes data extraction and efficiency metrics over genuine care and community engagement.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It excludes the private sector from participating in health data management.
- D.It is too expensive to maintain for a developing country like India.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that 'dashboard governance' uses technology to replace trust with objectives and measurement with engagement. This leads to an extraction model where the unpaid labor of frontline workers is used to mine data, shifting focus from care delivery to data entry and performance alerts.
Which Chinese company, as mentioned in the news, is accused of supplying chipmaking technology to Iran's military?
- A.Huawei Technologies
- B.Semiconductor Manufacturing International Corporation (SMIC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.ZTE Corporation
- D.Xiaomi Corporation
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Explanation
The article explicitly names SMIC (Semiconductor Manufacturing International Corporation) as China's largest chipmaker accused by U.S. officials of supplying chipmaking tools to Iran's military. Huawei is mentioned as a customer of SMIC, not the accused supplier.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. U.S. officials allege that SMIC's collaboration with Iran included technical training on semiconductor technology.
2. SMIC was first added to the U.S. trade blacklist known as the Entity List in the year 2024.
3. The U.S.-Israeli conflict with Iran, mentioned in the context of these allegations, began on February 28, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the collaboration 'almost certainly included technical training'. Statement 2 is incorrect because SMIC was added to the blacklist in 2020, not 2024 (2024 is when the Biden administration tightened restrictions). Statement 3 is correct as the article states the war was 'launched by the U.S. and Israel on February 28'.
In which year was the Chinese chipmaker SMIC added to the U.S. trade blacklist that restricts its access to U.S. exports, as per the article?
- A.2018
- B.2019
- C.2020✓ Correct Answer
- D.2021
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'SMIC, which was added to a trade blacklist in 2020 that restricts its access to U.S. exports...'. The year 2024 is a distractor, as it is mentioned for tightened restrictions, not the initial blacklisting.
What is a primary implication of the alleged supply of chipmaking tools from SMIC to Iran's military, as discussed in the article?
- A.It would significantly boost Iran's civilian electronics manufacturing sector.
- B.It could enhance Iran's military capabilities in areas like drones and missile guidance systems.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is likely to lead to an immediate peace treaty in the West Asia conflict.
- D.It will result in the lifting of all U.S. sanctions on Chinese technology companies.
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Explanation
The article quotes an official stating the tools 'could be used for any electronics that require chips.' Advanced semiconductors are critical for modern military systems, including drones, missiles, and communication devices. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The 'Low-Altitude Economy' was recently highlighted as a new economic pillar in the official policy document of which country?
- A.United States of America
- B.Japan
- C.China✓ Correct Answer
- D.Germany
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the low-altitude economy was mentioned in China's Government Work Report released on March 5, 2026. This report is the annual policy document of the Chinese government.
Consider the following statements regarding the Electric Vehicle (EV) sector in China as discussed in the article:
1. The competition is shifting from being solely price-based to focusing on technology, capabilities, and systems.
2. Traditional automakers have an inherent DNA of software-defined vehicles and AI-driven experiences from the start.
3. Humanoid robots and automobiles share a strong commonality, with an overlap of around 90% in software.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the founder emphasizes meaningful competition lies in technology, not price alone. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that new automakers from the Internet have this inherent DNA, while traditional automakers build from hardware to software. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's discussion on embodied intelligence.
According to the article, what was the electric vehicle (EV) penetration rate in China for the year 2025?
- A.45%
- B.52%
- C.57%✓ Correct Answer
- D.63%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that China's EV penetration rate reached 57% in 2025. This is a key data point highlighting the maturity of the Chinese EV market.
What is identified as a primary strategic reason for the success of companies like Xpeng in China's EV market, according to the article?
- A.Heavy reliance on imported core technologies and components.
- B.Focus on long-term price wars to capture market share.
- C.Popularisation of high-level intelligent driving through in-house R&D.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Exclusive partnerships with traditional automotive manufacturing giants.
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Explanation
The founder explicitly states that one key reason for their success is the popularisation of high-level intelligent driving, achieved by sticking to full-stack, in-house R&D. This shifts competition from price to technology and long-term value.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, is located between which two bodies of water?
- A.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
- B.The Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea
- D.The South China Sea and the Philippine Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway that connects the Gulf of Oman (to the east) with the Persian Gulf (to the west). It is bordered by Iran and Oman. This geographical fact is crucial for understanding its strategic importance in global energy transit.
Consider the following statements regarding the supply chain crisis discussed in the article:
1. The primary raw material facing acute shortage due to the conflict is crude oil.
2. Asia is particularly vulnerable because it is less reliant on West Asian energy imports compared to other regions.
3. The packaging for products like instant ramen noodles is heavily reliant on Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article highlights the most acute shortages are in oil derivatives like naphtha, not crude oil itself. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article states Asia relies MORE heavily on West Asian supplies. Statement 3 is correct, as explicitly mentioned regarding ramen noodle packaging.
According to the article, approximately what proportion of the world's oil and liquefied natural gas normally passes through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.One-tenth
- B.One-fifth✓ Correct Answer
- C.One-third
- D.One-half
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that "roughly one-fifth of the world’s oil and liquefied natural gas normally passes" through the Strait of Hormuz. This is a key factual data point for Prelims-style questions on global geography and energy security.
What is the most significant immediate economic impact of the West Asian conflict, as described in the article?
- A.A surge in tourism to safer Asian countries.
- B.Disruption in the supply of critical petrochemical feedstocks like naphtha.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A decrease in global demand for consumer electronics.
- D.Increased agricultural production in South Asia due to higher fertilizer prices.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis revolves around the disruption of naphtha supply from the Gulf. This shortage cascades into production cuts for plastics and synthetic rubber, impacting a vast array of consumer goods across Asia, making it the most significant immediate economic impact.
The Allahabad High Court judgment dealt with eviction from Gram Sabha land. At the village level, who is the custodian of Gram Sabha land?
- A.District Magistrate
- B.Gram Panchayat✓ Correct Answer
- C.Tehsildar
- D.State Revenue Department
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Explanation
As per the Panchayati Raj system, the Gram Sabha consists of all adult members of a village, and the Gram Panchayat (the executive body) is responsible for managing and controlling the Gram Sabha's property, including common land.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment on mosque eviction:
1. The court upheld the eviction order because the mosque was constructed on land recorded as 'Khalihan', which is Gram Sabha land.
2. The court also upheld the penalty of ₹36,000 imposed on the petitioners for the illegal construction.
3. The court found that the revenue authorities had followed the procedure under the relevant rules of the UP Revenue Code.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the land was recorded as 'Khalihan' (threshing floor), a type of Gram Sabha land. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court set aside the ₹36,000 penalty, finding no evidence linking the petitioners to the construction. Statement 3 is correct as the court observed that Rules 66 and 67 of the UP Revenue Code Rules were followed.
What was the monetary penalty imposed by the district authorities and later set aside by the Allahabad High Court in the mosque eviction case?
- A.₹25,000
- B.₹30,000
- C.₹36,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹50,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the district authorities had imposed a penalty of ₹36,000, which the Allahabad High Court set aside because there was no material to link the petitioners to the construction or occupation of the mosque.
What is the primary legal principle reinforced by the Allahabad High Court's decision to uphold the eviction from Gram Sabha land?
- A.Freedom of religion allows construction of religious structures on any land.
- B.Long-term occupation grants automatic ownership rights.
- C.Absence of legal title negates the right to occupy the land.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Only the state government can order eviction from public land.
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Explanation
The court's reasoning, as quoted in the article ("Petitioners were unable to demonstrate that they had any right, title, or interest in the said land"), reinforces the core property law principle that lawful occupation requires a demonstrable legal title or interest. This principle applies uniformly to all types of encroachments.
Which Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the policy of central excise duty on petrol and diesel?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The central excise duty is a form of taxation under the Union List. Tax policy, including rates of excise duty, falls under the purview of the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue). The Petroleum Ministry manages supply and operations of OMCs.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent excise duty cuts on fuel:
1. The excise duty on petrol was reduced by ₹10 per litre, bringing it down to ₹3 per litre.
2. The primary objective stated by the government is to increase its tax revenue from fuel sales.
3. An export tax was also levied to ensure adequate domestic availability of fuels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: duty was cut from ₹13 to ₹3, a reduction of ₹10. Statement 2 is incorrect; the objective is to protect consumers and OMCs, not increase revenue (the government is taking a 'huge hit' on revenues). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions an export tax was levied on ATF to ensure its domestic availability.
According to the news, what is the new central excise duty rate on diesel after the recent reduction?
- A.₹3 per litre
- B.₹0 per litre✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹10 per litre
- D.₹13 per litre
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the excise duty on diesel is now zero, down from the previous ₹10 per litre. ₹3 per litre is the new rate for petrol, while ₹10 and ₹13 are the previous rates for diesel and petrol respectively.
What was a key reason cited by the government for levying an export tax on fuels like ATF (Aviation Turbine Fuel) alongside cutting excise duties?
- A.To boost foreign exchange earnings from fuel exports
- B.To penalize private refineries for over-production
- C.To ensure adequate availability of fuel within the country✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align with environmental commitments under the Paris Agreement
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Explanation
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman stated, "We have raised the excise duty on export of ATF to ensure its availability in the country." This is a supply-side measure to discourage exports when international prices are high, thereby prioritizing domestic supply and energy security.
Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure did the Calcutta High Court exercise its inherent power to reduce the sentence in the POCSO case?
- A.Section 154
- B.Section 320
- C.Section 482✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 156
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the court exercised its "inherent power" under Section 482 of the CrPC to prevent abuse of the process of law. This section grants High Courts inherent powers to secure the ends of justice.
Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court's POCSO ruling:
1. The court reduced the sentence because the minor victim had married the convict.
2. The court upheld the trial court's finding of guilt under Section 6 of the POCSO Act.
3. The court cited the state's failure to provide compensation and shelter as a key reason for sentence reduction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the victim understood the appellant as her husband and led a conjugal life, but there is no mention of marriage. Statement 2 is correct: The court upheld the guilt under Section 6. Statement 3 is correct: The court explicitly criticized the state's failure to provide social security.
What was the original sentence awarded by the trial court to the convict under Section 6 of the POCSO Act in the Calcutta High Court case?
- A.10 years rigorous imprisonment
- B.Life imprisonment
- C.20 years rigorous imprisonment and a fine of ₹20,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.14 years rigorous imprisonment
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Explanation
The article clearly states the trial court sentenced him to "20 years of rigorous imprisonment and a fine of Rs 20,000" under Section 6 for aggravated penetrative sexual assault. This is the mandatory minimum prescribed under POCSO.
What was the primary legal rationale used by the Calcutta High Court to justify reducing the POCSO convict's sentence?
- A.The convict had already served a year in jail in a prior 2021 case involving the same survivor.
- B.The victim's consent, though she was a minor, was considered valid by the court.
- C.The state's failure to provide social security to the minor survivor amounted to an abuse of the process of law.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The medical evidence presented by the prosecution was found to be insufficient.
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Explanation
The court's order states that due to the state's failure to provide any social security, and the victim's deposition, they were exercising inherent power "to prevent the abuse of the process of law". The other options are either incorrect (consent of minor is never valid) or secondary facts mentioned in the article.
The Parliamentary Standing Committee report on the Demands for Grants (2026–27) of which ministry raised concerns about road black spots?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Urban Development
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the report is on the 'Demands for Grants (2026–27) of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)'. Road safety and black spot rectification fall under the mandate of this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding road accident 'black spots' in India:
1. A 500-meter stretch is classified as a black spot if it records five or more accidents involving fatalities or grievous injuries within a three-year period.
2. The Electronic Detail Accident Record System (eDAR) provides near real-time accident data used for identifying these black spots.
3. As per the article, long-term rectification measures like design improvements have been implemented for more than half of the total identified black spots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition. Statement 2 is correct as eDAR is mentioned for black-spot identification. Statement 3 is incorrect: 16,500 spots were identified, and long-term measures were introduced for 6,650 spots, which is less than half (approximately 40%).
According to the 2026 Parliamentary Committee report cited in the article, how many accident-prone black spots had been identified across the country based on 2016-2023 data?
- A.12,500
- B.14,138
- C.16,500✓ Correct Answer
- D.18,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states that '16,500 accident-prone black spots have been identified across the country based on 2016-2023 data.' The figure 14,138 refers to spots where short-term rectification was implemented, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary recommendation of the Parliamentary Committee regarding the evaluation of rectified road accident black spots?
- A.To increase the budget for identifying new black spots
- B.To conduct a structured Post-Rectification Safety Audit✓ Correct Answer
- C.To privatize the maintenance of all national highways
- D.To reduce the speed limit on all identified stretches
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Explanation
The committee's core concern was the lack of verification for treated black spots. It specifically recommended 'a structured Post-Rectification Safety Audit' to assess if accident rates have reduced and to reclassify failing spots for higher-order solutions. The other options are not mentioned as primary recommendations.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 27 March 2026?▼
This page contains 164 current affairs questions from 27 March 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 27 March 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
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Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. Under which Article of the Constitution is a Money Bill, such …
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Bill 2…
- Q3. According to the Union Budget 2026-27 mentioned in the news, w…
- Q4. is the primary constitutional significance of the Rajya Sabha'…
- Q5. According to the article, which military force poses a serious…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding India's strategic …
- Q7. According to the article, what is the expanded acronym for the…
- Q8. is the primary objective of India focusing on 'critical enabli…
- Q9. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empow…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q11. In which year were Buddhists brought under the purview of the …
- Q12. is the primary constitutional rationale for limiting SC status…
- Q13. The implementation of the women's reservation Act for Parliame…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding women's reservatio…
- Q15. According to the article, what percentage of India's total pop…
- Q16. is identified in the article as a major systemic flaw hinderin…
- Q17. Under which international agreement are countries required to …
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding India's new climat…
- Q19. According to the article, what annual climate finance amount d…
- Q20. is identified as a primary reason for India setting relatively…
- Q21. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empow…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q23. According to the news, who is heading the Commission of Inquir…
- Q24. is a key implication of the Supreme Court's ruling that conver…
- Q25. Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the policy decisio…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the recent governm…
- Q27. According to the article, what is the amount of export duty im…
- Q28. was the primary objective behind the government imposing expor…
- Q29. constitutional body has directed the Registrar Generals of all…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the legal provisio…
- Q31. According to the news, what is the maximum punishment prescrib…
- Q32. was the primary objective of the 1983 legal reforms that intro…
- Q33. Indian law, recently replaced by a new Adhiniyam, contained pr…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q35. According to the news article, what was the total alleged dowr…
- Q36. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for criticiz…
- Q37. Group Captain Rajiv Kumar Narang (retired), quoted in the arti…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Shahed drone a…
- Q39. According to the article, what is the approximate cost per hou…
- Q40. is the primary strategic implication of Iran's use of low-cost…
- Q41. The analysis on India's carbon emissions slowdown in 2025 was …
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding India's carbon emi…
- Q43. According to the CREA analysis, what was the approximate amoun…
- Q44. is the primary significance of the 'inflection point' mentione…
- Q45. announced the fortnightly review of the Special Additional Exc…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the recent fiscal …
- Q47. is the amount of export duty imposed per litre on Aviation Tur…
- Q48. is the primary objective of imposing the Special Additional Ex…
- Q49. is the chairperson of the Joint Parliamentary Committee examin…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q51. According to the news, for how many consecutive days of arrest…
- Q52. is the primary constitutional significance of the bills being …
- Q53. The national adoption of the Banas Bio-CNG model is being faci…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Banas Bio-CNG …
- Q55. is the estimated annual carbon emission reduction contributed …
- Q56. is a primary objective of expanding the Banas Bio-CNG model in…
- Q57. Union Ministry tabled the Transgender Persons (Protection of R…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
- Q59. According to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Am…
- Q60. is a primary criticism from the transgender community regardin…
- Q61. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the Supreme…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the legal framewor…
- Q63. For how many years had Harish Rana remained in a persistent ve…
- Q64. is a primary practical challenge in implementing 'living wills…
- Q65. US official's remarks form the basis for the analysis of the n…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the new US approac…
- Q67. According to the article, where was the US Under Secretary of …
- Q68. is identified as a key domestic political challenge for India …
- Q69. international institute publishes data on global arms transfer…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the SIPRI report a…
- Q71. According to the SIPRI report mentioned in the article, what i…
- Q72. is a key characteristic of a 'Garrison State' as described by …
- Q73. The Knanaya community case was adjudicated by which High Court?
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Co…
- Q75. In which year was the Papal Bull issued that led to the creati…
- Q76. was the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Ker…
- Q77. Under which article of the Constitution do State Legislatures …
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Gujara…
- Q79. According to the article, for how many years has the Public In…
- Q80. is the primary legal argument used by the Gujarat Assembly Sec…
- Q81. organization developed India's first hydrogen trainset mention…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding India's first hydr…
- Q83. According to the article, what is the total power output of In…
- Q84. is the primary environmental advantage of the hydrogen trainse…
- Q85. The excise duty on petrol and diesel, as mentioned in the news…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q87. As per the Finance Minister's statement in the article, what i…
- Q88. was the primary rationale provided by the government for the i…
- Q89. body, headed by the Defence Minister, grants the Acceptance of…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Defence…
- Q91. According to the article, what was the total value of the Acce…
- Q92. is the primary strategic objective behind procuring the S-400 …
- Q93. U.S. office is responsible for conducting the 'Special 301' tr…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the trade developm…
- Q95. According to the article, what is the maximum percentage tarif…
- Q96. is one of the primary contentious issues creating a 'gap' in t…
- Q97. landmark Supreme Court judgment is cited in the article as rec…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Transgender Pe…
- Q99. According to the 2011 Census data mentioned in the article, wh…
- Q100. is a key criticism raised by activists regarding the criminali…
- Q101. Under the Paris Agreement framework, which ministry is primari…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding India's updated cl…
- Q103. As per India's updated 2035 NDC, what is the targeted range fo…
- Q104. is identified in the article as the primary reason for the sig…
- Q105. statutory body cleared the proposal by Bentley Asia Holdings t…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding health expenditure…
- Q107. According to the National Health Accounts Report cited in the …
- Q108. is identified as a primary consequence of the corporatisation …
- Q109. The article mentions the success of predictable policies and a…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the energy securit…
- Q111. According to the article, what percentage of its crude oil doe…
- Q112. is identified as a primary reason for restructuring the Produc…
- Q113. The recent compensation case related to an unfenced water tank…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the recent High Co…
- Q115. According to the news, what was the total compensation amount …
- Q116. was the primary legal principle established by the High Court …
- Q117. international body's declaration is cited in the article as pe…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the anti-obesity d…
- Q119. According to the article, what is the estimated annual global …
- Q120. is the primary rationale cited in the article for the initial …
- Q121. The article mentions that major Indian pharmaceutical firms ha…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the news on semagl…
- Q123. According to the article, what is the projected reduction in t…
- Q124. is identified as the primary public health benefit of wider ac…
- Q125. The recent amendments to the regulations were notified by whic…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the recent UP RERA…
- Q127. According to the UP RERA amendments, what is the maximum proce…
- Q128. is the primary objective of the 10th amendment to the UP RERA …
- Q129. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) consultation mentio…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic dev…
- Q131. According to the news, approximately how many U.S. Marines wer…
- Q132. is described as Iran's primary strategic objective in imposing…
- Q133. Under which Union Ministry does the Accredited Social Health A…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding India's digital he…
- Q135. According to the article, what is the approximate strength of …
- Q136. is the primary critique leveled against the current model of '…
- Q137. Chinese company, as mentioned in the news, is accused of suppl…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. U.S.…
- Q139. In which year was the Chinese chipmaker SMIC added to the U.S.…
- Q140. is a primary implication of the alleged supply of chipmaking t…
- Q141. The 'Low-Altitude Economy' was recently highlighted as a new e…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the Electric Vehic…
- Q143. According to the article, what was the electric vehicle (EV) p…
- Q144. is identified as a primary strategic reason for the success of…
- Q145. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the supply chain c…
- Q147. According to the article, approximately what proportion of the…
- Q148. is the most significant immediate economic impact of the West …
- Q149. The Allahabad High Court judgment dealt with eviction from Gra…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
- Q151. was the monetary penalty imposed by the district authorities a…
- Q152. is the primary legal principle reinforced by the Allahabad Hig…
- Q153. Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the policy of cent…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the recent excise …
- Q155. According to the news, what is the new central excise duty rat…
- Q156. was a key reason cited by the government for levying an export…
- Q157. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure did the …
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
- Q159. was the original sentence awarded by the trial court to the co…
- Q160. was the primary legal rationale used by the Calcutta High Cour…
- Q161. The Parliamentary Standing Committee report on the Demands for…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding road accident 'bla…
- Q163. According to the 2026 Parliamentary Committee report cited in …
- Q164. is the primary recommendation of the Parliamentary Committee r…