2 April 2026, Questions & Answers
188 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 188 current affairs questions with answers from 2 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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188 QsWhich ministry is primarily responsible for internal security operations against Left Wing Extremism in India?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security, including policy and coordination of operations against Left Wing Extremism (LWE). The article mentions the Home Minister making the declaration.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Left Wing Extremism (LWE):
1. Home Minister Amit Shah declared India 'Naxal-free' in the Lok Sabha on March 30, 2026.
2. The previous UPA government's approach to LWE was named 'Operation Red Hunt'.
3. According to the article, the belt of Maoist influence at its peak touched over 180 districts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the UPA's operation was 'Operation Green Hunt', not 'Red Hunt'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'over 180 districts' at peak influence.
According to the article, how many Maoists were 'neutralised' in encounters during the three years of intensive operations leading to the 'Naxal-free' declaration?
- A.2,218
- B.706✓ Correct Answer
- C.4,839
- D.180
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that '706 were neutralised in encounters'. 2,218 is the number arrested, 4,839 is the number who surrendered, and 180 refers to the number of districts affected at peak.
As per the editorial's argument, what is the critical next step after the operational defeat of Left Wing Extremism?
- A.Intensifying paramilitary presence in all former conflict zones.
- B.Focusing on inclusive development and genuine expansion of tribal rights.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Accelerating the extraction of natural resources by private corporations.
- D.Dissolving all special laws used during the counter-insurgency.
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Explanation
The editorial strongly argues that the defeat of LWE 'must lead to the genuine expansion of the rights of tribals' and that 'inclusive development is imperative for a stable, peaceful society', warning against crony capitalism.
Which constitutional article deals with the power of the Governor to grant pardons and remissions?
- A.Article 72
- B.Article 161✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 163
- D.Article 167
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Explanation
Article 161 of the Indian Constitution specifically empowers the Governor of a State to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment. Article 72 deals with the President's similar power, Article 163 deals with the Council of Ministers aiding the Governor, and Article 167 deals with the duties of the Chief Minister.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Madras High Court ruling:
1. The Full Bench held that the Governor can exercise discretion under Article 161 in matters of remission.
2. The ruling relied on the Supreme Court's judgment in the 1980 Maru Ramu case.
3. The case was referred to the Full Bench to resolve conflicting decisions delivered by the Supreme Court in 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The ruling held the Governor is bound by Cabinet advice and has NO discretion under Article 161. Statement 2 is correct as the Full Bench concurred with the precedent set by the 1980 Maru Ramu SC case. Statement 3 is incorrect because the conflicting decisions were from two Division Benches of the Madras High Court in 2024, not the Supreme Court.
The Madras High Court Full Bench delivered its ruling clarifying the Governor's power under Article 161 on which date?
- A.September 2025
- B.April 2, 2024
- C.April 2, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 2, 2025
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Explanation
The article states the Full Bench of the Madras High Court held its ruling on Thursday, April 2, 2026. September 2025 is when the matter was referred to the larger bench, and 2024 is when the conflicting Division Bench decisions were delivered.
What is the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Madras High Court's ruling that the Governor is bound by the Cabinet's advice under Article 161?
- A.The principle of judicial review over executive actions.
- B.The principle of the Governor being the real executive head of the state.
- C.The principle of the parliamentary system where the real executive power rests with the Council of Ministers.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The principle of the Governor's absolute discretion in certain constitutional functions.
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Explanation
The ruling reinforces the core tenet of India's parliamentary democracy established by the Constitution. The Governor is the nominal (constitutional) head, while the Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, is the real executive. The Governor must act on the aid and advice of this Council in most matters, including those under Article 161.
Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India function?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which conducts the decennial census, functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static GK fact for governance-related questions.
Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027:
1. Participation in the census is voluntary for all citizens.
2. The self-enumeration portal for Census 2027 supports English and 15 other Indian languages.
3. The data collection is conducted in a single phase covering both housing and population details.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as participation is compulsory under the Census Act, 1948. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which states the portal supports English and 15 other Indian languages. Statement 3 is incorrect because data collection is in two phases: house-listing and population enumeration.
From which date was the self-enumeration facility for Census 2027 made available to citizens?
- A.March 1, 2026
- B.April 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 1, 2027
- D.April 1, 2027
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the self-enumeration facility for Census 2027 has been introduced and will be available from April 1, 2026. This is a direct factual data point from the news.
What is a primary intended benefit of introducing the self-enumeration option in Census 2027?
- A.To make census participation voluntary
- B.To reduce the workload and improve the efficiency of field enumerators✓ Correct Answer
- C.To eliminate the need for the Census Act, 1948
- D.To collect documentary proof from every household
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Explanation
As per the article, benefits of self-enumeration include allowing individuals to enter information at their convenience, improving accuracy, offering greater privacy, and reducing the workload of enumerators, thereby contributing to a more efficient census process.
Which ministry is primarily associated with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, as per the article?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
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Explanation
Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal was replying to the discussion on the bill in Rajya Sabha, indicating the Ministry of Commerce and Industry's lead role. While such legislative reforms involve multiple ministries, the primary piloting ministry is Commerce and Industry.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026:
1. It aims to amend 784 provisions across 79 central laws.
2. It removes prison sentences in 158 provisions and fines in 57 provisions.
3. It introduces amendments to the Motor Vehicle Act for statewide vehicle registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; it swaps the numbers. The bill removes prison sentences in 57 provisions and fines in 158 provisions. Statement 3 is correct as the bill makes changes to the Motor Vehicle Act to allow vehicle registration throughout the state.
According to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, how many provisions will have prison sentences completely done away with?
- A.57 provisions✓ Correct Answer
- B.113 provisions
- C.158 provisions
- D.183 provisions
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The bill will do away with prison sentences in 57 provisions'. 113 provisions refer to those where prison term and fine are changed to a penalty, and 158 provisions refer to where fines are removed. 183 is the number from the 2023 Act.
What is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, as articulated in the news?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher fines
- B.To decriminalize minor procedural offences and reduce compliance burden✓ Correct Answer
- C.To introduce stricter penalties for all economic offences
- D.To transfer regulatory powers from states to the centre
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Explanation
The bill's core objective, as stated by Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal, is to decriminalize minor offences and bring 'swift and proportionate penalties'. It aims to reduce fear for those making honest mistakes while retaining strict punishment for intentional law-breaking, thereby reducing the compliance burden.
Which space agency launched the Artemis II mission mentioned in the news?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.European Space Agency (ESA)
- D.Roscosmos (Russian State Space Corporation)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Artemis II mission is a NASA program. NASA is the United States government agency responsible for the civilian space program.
Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mission:
1. It is the first crewed mission to the Moon since the end of the Apollo program.
2. The mission will land astronauts on the lunar surface near the South Pole.
3. The crew includes the first woman to travel to the Moon's vicinity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Artemis II is the first human mission to the Moon's vicinity since Apollo ended over five decades ago. Statement 2 is incorrect: Artemis II is a flyby mission that will loop around the Moon but not land; a landing is planned for Artemis III in 2028. Statement 3 is correct: Astronaut Christina Koch will be the first woman to reach the Moon's neighborhood.
What is the planned duration of the Artemis II crewed mission around the Moon?
- A.About 5 days
- B.About 10 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 14 days
- D.About 21 days
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Explanation
The article specifies that the astronauts will 'return to Earth in about ten days.' The other options are plausible distractors for different space mission durations.
What is a primary strategic objective of the Artemis program, as highlighted in the article, that distinguishes it from the earlier Apollo program?
- A.To achieve a faster transit time to the Moon.
- B.To demonstrate superior rocket technology over other nations.
- C.To prepare for establishing a sustainable, long-term human presence on the Moon.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To collect more lunar rock samples than the Apollo missions.
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Explanation
The article states the Artemis program aims 'to prepare the ground for frequent and prolonged stays, creation of a permanent base, and explore possibilities of exploitation of local resources for sustainable long-term human presence.' This focus on sustainability and permanence is the key strategic shift from the short-term Apollo visits.
Which ministry is primarily associated with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, as per the news article?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
As per the article, Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal replied to the debate on the Bill. While the Bill amends Acts across 23 ministries, the primary piloting ministry for this 'ease of doing business' initiative is the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026:
1. It proposes to decriminalise 717 provisions across various Central Acts.
2. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha through a division vote.
3. It seeks to rationalise more than 1,000 offences to improve the regulatory environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the Bill seeks to decriminalise 717 provisions. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Bill was passed by 'voice vote', not a division vote. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Bill seeks to rationalise more than 1,000 offences. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news article, how many Central Acts does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, propose to amend?
- A.23
- B.67
- C.79✓ Correct Answer
- D.717
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Bill proposes to amend provisions of '79 Central Acts'. The number 23 refers to the ministries involved, 67 refers to provisions being amended (not decriminalised), and 717 refers to provisions being decriminalised.
What is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, as highlighted in the news article?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher penalties.
- B.To decriminalise and rationalise minor offences to promote ease of doing business and living.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To introduce new criminal provisions for corporate fraud.
- D.To transfer legislative powers from states to the centre.
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Explanation
The article's sub-heading and content clearly state the Bill seeks to amend laws 'for decriminalising and rationalising minor offences to further promote ease of doing business and living'. It is a deregulatory measure aimed at reducing compliance burden, not increasing revenue or introducing new crimes.
Who is the constitutional head of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
- A.Chief Minister
- B.Governor
- C.Lieutenant Governor✓ Correct Answer
- D.President
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Explanation
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, Jammu and Kashmir is a Union Territory with a legislature. The constitutional head of such a Union Territory is the Lieutenant Governor, appointed by the President of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The 'J&K Land Grants (Restoration and Protection) Bill, 2025' was introduced by a legislator from the ruling National Conference.
2. The amendments made by the Lieutenant Governor in 2022 allowed for the automatic renewal of expired land leases.
3. The Bill aims to restore the original rules of the J&K Land Grants Act as they existed prior to 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Bill was introduced by NC legislator Tanvir Ali Sadiq. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2022 amendments ended automatic renewals and mandated fresh auctions. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill aims to restore the pre-2022 rules of the Land Grants Act, 1960.
Which of the following tourist destinations in Jammu and Kashmir was NOT explicitly mentioned in the article as being impacted by the Land Grants Act amendments?
- A.Gulmarg
- B.Pahalgam
- C.Sonamarg✓ Correct Answer
- D.Patnitop
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Gulmarg, Pahalgam, and Patnitop (and later Reasi) as tourist places where hotels on lease land were threatened by eviction under the 2022 rules. Sonamarg, although a popular destination, is not mentioned in the provided article text.
What was a key criticism levied by BJP legislators against the J&K Land Grants (Restoration and Protection) Bill, 2025?
- A.It would increase government revenue significantly.
- B.It would unfairly benefit a privileged few at the cost of public assets.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would discourage tourism investment in the region.
- D.It was introduced without proper discussion in the House.
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Explanation
BJP legislator Sunil Sharma criticized the Bill, stating it 'amounted to a betrayal of trust' and that the mandate was being used 'to protect a privileged few' by potentially releasing government land at low rates, instead of safeguarding public assets.
Which international agency's data on electric vehicle adoption and oil demand displacement is cited in the article?
- A.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.World Bank
- C.International Energy Agency (IEA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, 'The International Energy Agency has underlined that transport electrification is firmly underway...' and provides the data on oil demand displacement by EVs for 2023 and 2024.
Consider the following statements regarding the global energy transition as discussed in the article:
1. Electric vehicles displaced about 1.3 million barrels per day of oil demand in 2024, a rise of over 30% from 2023.
2. The Democratic Republic of Congo accounts for over 70% of global nickel production.
3. The 'petrodollar' system was forged in the aftermath of the 1970s oil shocks through a U.S.-Gulf strategic alignment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'electric vehicles displacing about 0.9 million barrels per day (mb/d) of oil demand in 2023, rising over 30% to about 1.3 mb/d in 2024.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the DRC accounts for over 70% of global cobalt production, not nickel. Indonesia dominates the nickel market. Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, by how much did electric vehicles displace global oil demand in the year 2023?
- A.0.5 mb/d
- B.0.9 mb/d✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.1 mb/d
- D.1.3 mb/d
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: 'electric vehicles displacing about 0.9 million barrels per day (mb/d) of oil demand in 2023'. The figure for 2024 is 1.3 mb/d, which is a close distractor.
What is the core strategic dilemma for India, as highlighted in the article regarding the global energy transition?
- A.Choosing between increasing domestic coal production and importing more LNG.
- B.Balancing the need for rapid urbanization with the conservation of forest land for carbon sinks.
- C.Reducing fossil fuel dependence while avoiding new technological and supply chain dependencies on critical minerals.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Deciding whether to join Western-led climate alliances or remain part of the OPEC+ grouping.
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Explanation
The article states, 'For countries such as India, this presents a dilemma. The transition offers an opportunity to reduce fossil fuel dependence, but also risks creating new technological and supply chain dependencies.' This captures the essence of the strategic challenge.
As per the article, which ministry releases the official data on Maoist surrenders in India?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'As per the Union Home Ministry...' when providing the data on Maoist surrenders. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for internal security, including Left-Wing Extremism.
Consider the following statements regarding the decline of Maoist violence as discussed in the article:
1. Maoist violence has declined by almost 90% over the past 15 years.
2. The article credits the success solely to the ideological loss of traction among the local population.
3. A key surrendered leader, Thippari Tirupati, demanded recognition of the Communist Party of India (Maoist) as a political party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that while ideological traction waned, it would be 'misplaced' to assume surrender was due solely to loss of belief, highlighting military pressure as a key factor. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the Union Home Ministry data cited in the article, how many Maoists surrendered in the year 2025?
- A.1,337
- B.2,337✓ Correct Answer
- C.2,970
- D.633
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'As per the Union Home Ministry, 2,337 Maoists surrendered in 2025 alone.' The figure 633 refers to surrenders by March of the current year (2026), making it a close distractor.
As per the article's analysis, what is the primary challenge for the government after the 'clearing' of Maoist strongholds?
- A.Increasing the budget for security operations
- B.The 'holding' and 'building' phase to establish positive peace✓ Correct Answer
- C.Negotiating with international bodies on human rights
- D.Relocating the tribal population from forest areas
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that while the ground is 'cleared', the challenge ahead is that of 'holding' and 'building'. It further elaborates that accomplishing 'positive peace' (social justice, equity) is the unfinished agenda, moving beyond just the absence of violence ('negative peace').
Which of the following is a Credit Rating Agency mentioned in the article that released its H2 FY26 outlook?
- A.SEBI
- B.CRISIL✓ Correct Answer
- C.RBI
- D.CAG
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Explanation
CRISIL, along with India Ratings and ICRA, are the credit rating agencies mentioned in the article that released their outlooks. SEBI is the market regulator, RBI is the central bank, and CAG is the auditor general.
Consider the following statements regarding the credit rating outlooks mentioned in the article:
1. Crisil's upgrade-to-downgrade (U/D) ratio decreased in the second half of FY26 compared to the first half.
2. India Ratings reported that its U/D ratio for the full FY26 increased compared to FY25.
3. ICRA's U/D ratio for FY26 showed an improvement compared to the previous two financial years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Crisil's U/D ratio fell to 1.5 in H2 from 2.17 in H1. Statement 2 is incorrect: India Ratings' ratio dipped to 3.1 in FY26 from 3.5 in FY25, so it decreased, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: ICRA's ratio increased to 3.1 in FY26 from 2.0 in FY25 and 2.1 in FY24.
According to the article, what was the upgrade-to-downgrade (U/D) ratio reported by Crisil for the second half of fiscal year 2025-26?
- A.1.5✓ Correct Answer
- B.2.17
- C.3.1
- D.3.5
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that "Crisil proportion of upgrade to downgrades stood at 1.5 in the second half of fiscal 2026". 2.17 was the ratio for the first half, while 3.1 and 3.5 were ratios for India Ratings and ICRA.
What is the primary reason cited by credit rating agencies for a potential test of corporate India's financial buffers in the coming fiscal year (FY27)?
- A.Implementation of the UK Free Trade Agreement
- B.The effects of US reciprocal tariffs
- C.A prolonged and escalating crisis in West Asia✓ Correct Answer
- D.Domestic inflationary pressures
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Explanation
The article's central theme is that the "West Asia crisis" may test corporate India's buffers. While US tariffs and the UK FTA are mentioned as secondary factors, the primary and repeated risk factor identified is the escalating conflict in West Asia and its potential to continue into FY27.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 is primarily associated with which of the following?
- A.Urban Local Self-Government
- B.Rural Local Self-Government (Panchayati Raj)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections
- D.Formation of Union Territories
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Explanation
The 73rd Amendment Act gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), establishing a three-tier system of rural local self-government. The 74th Amendment deals with Urban Local Bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Rajasthan High Court had directed the state government to conduct local body elections by April 15, 2026.
2. The OBC Political Representation Commission was constituted on May 9, 2025, to examine reservation for Scheduled Tribes.
3. The 'triple test' mandated by the Supreme Court includes ensuring that OBC reservation does not exceed a 50% ceiling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the commission was constituted to examine reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs), not Scheduled Tribes. Statement 3 is correct; the 'triple test' includes the 50% ceiling rule.
Until what date has the tenure of the OBC Political Representation Commission in Rajasthan been extended, as per the news?
- A.March 31, 2026
- B.April 15, 2026
- C.September 30, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.December 31, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the State government extended the tenure of the OBC Political Representation Commission till September 30, 2026. April 15 was the High Court's election deadline.
What is the primary reason cited for the delay in local body elections in Rajasthan, as per the article?
- A.Lack of financial allocation from the central government.
- B.Incomplete and inaccurate population data submitted to the OBC Commission.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A directive from the Election Commission of India.
- D.Ongoing litigation regarding the delimitation of constituencies.
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Explanation
The article states that population data submitted from districts to the OBC Commission were found to be 'incomplete and inaccurate', which is a key reason for extending the commission's tenure and delaying the elections to comply with the Supreme Court's 'triple test'.
The article mentions that Kuwait's Foreign Minister criticized which regional organization for struggling with fast-moving challenges?
- A.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
- B.Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)
- C.Arab League✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Kuwait's Foreign Minister criticized the Arab League in an address to other Arab Foreign Ministers, saying it struggled to address fast-moving challenges. The GCC and OIC are not mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia security scenario discussed in the article:
1. The Strait of Hormuz has been closed due to the ongoing conflict, impacting global energy flows.
2. Pakistan is the only Muslim-majority country in West Asia possessing nuclear weapons.
3. In 2023, a détente between Iran and Saudi Arabia was brokered by the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the closure of the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is incorrect; Pakistan is the only Muslim-majority country with nuclear weapons, but it is in South Asia, not West Asia. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2023 détente was brokered by China, not the United States.
According to the article, in which year did China broker a public détente between Saudi Arabia and Iran?
- A.2019
- B.2021
- C.2023✓ Correct Answer
- D.2025
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "in Saudi Arabia’s case, a very public détente brokered by China in 2023". The other years are distractors: 2019 is mentioned for Houthi drone attacks, and 2025 for an Israeli strike in Qatar.
What is a primary implication for India, as suggested by the article's analysis of the West Asia security rethink?
- A.India will need to increase its military presence in the Persian Gulf.
- B.India's role as a major oil and gas buyer may involve it in regional security hedging.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India should join the Arab League to protect its interests.
- D.India must broker a peace deal between the U.S. and Iran directly.
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Explanation
The article's 'Future Outlook' section explicitly questions: "Will hedging security demands to Asian countries, including India — the main buyers of oil and gas — in the coming decades, be a successful tactic?" This identifies India's potential involvement in security hedging due to its energy dependency. The other options are not supported by the article's analysis.
Which professional medical body recommended the screen time guidelines mentioned in the article?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.Indian Academy of Paediatrics (IAP)
- C.American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended guidelines for children's screen time. While WHO and IAP also have guidelines, the specific source cited is AAP.
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of early screen use as discussed in the article:
1. It can lead to missed opportunities for sensory development through real-world interaction.
2. A study in the Journal of the American Medical Association (JAMA) reported teenagers spend an average of about 8.5 hours a day on screen-based entertainment.
3. Research by Sapien Labs found that getting a phone after the age of 15 correlates with higher mental health issues in adulthood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article details the 'opportunity cost' of screen time hindering sensory exploration. Statement 2 is correct as per the JAMA study cited. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Sapien Labs research correlates getting a phone BEFORE age 13 (not after 15) with increased mental health issues.
According to the article, what is the average daily screen time for teenagers as reported in a recent study published in JAMA?
- A.5.5 hours
- B.6.8 hours
- C.8.5 hours✓ Correct Answer
- D.10.2 hours
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Explanation
The article states, 'One recent study in the Journal of the American Medical Association on U.S. youth reported that teenagers spend an average of about 8.5 hours a day on screen-based entertainment.' The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.
What is identified as a primary reason for the drastic mental health consequences of early phone access, according to researcher Tara Thiagarajan in the article?
- A.Increased exposure to blue light affecting sleep cycles
- B.Children being brought up by technology instead of human beings✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of physical exercise leading to obesity
- D.Cyberbullying and online harassment
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Explanation
The article quotes Tara Thiagarajan saying, 'One reason for such drastic consequences could be that kids are being brought up by technology instead of human beings.' This highlights the core issue of missing human-led social skill development. While other options are related concerns, the primary reason emphasized in the source is the substitution of human interaction with technology.
The 1973 oil price crisis was initiated by members of which international organization imposing an embargo?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
- C.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)✓ Correct Answer
- D.International Energy Agency (IEA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Arab members of OPEC announced the trade embargo and production cuts in 1973. OPEC is the intergovernmental organization responsible for coordinating petroleum policies among its member nations.
Consider the following statements regarding the 1973 oil crisis and its impact:
1. It was triggered by Arab OPEC nations in response to Western support for Israel during the Yom Kippur War.
2. The crisis led to the creation of the 'petrodollar' system, where Saudi Arabia agreed to price its oil in US dollars.
3. In India, the crisis resulted in a significant current account deficit and contributed to the political climate leading to the Emergency of 1975.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Arab members of OPEC announced a trade embargo against countries that had supported Israel during the Yom Kippur War.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The kingdom priced its oil exports exclusively in dollars...birthing what we know today as the ‘petrodollar’ arrangement.' Statement 3 is correct: The article details India's rising oil bill, inflation, and mentions the political discontent that 'paved the way for the Prime Minister’s decision to impose the Emergency.'
According to the article, by how much did India's oil import bill rise from 1973 to 1974 due to the oil price shock?
- A.From $414 million to $1,000 million
- B.From $414 million to $1,350 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.From $500 million to $1,500 million
- D.From $350 million to $1,200 million
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figures: 'its bill, which stood at $414 million in 1973, was set to rise to $1,350 million in 1974.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What was a significant long-term global economic consequence of the 1973 oil crisis, as described in the article?
- A.The establishment of the gold standard for international trade.
- B.The formation of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- C.The creation of the 'petrodollar' system linking oil trade to the US dollar.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The widespread adoption of renewable energy sources.
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Explanation
The article states that following the crisis, the US negotiated a deal with Saudi Arabia where the kingdom priced oil in dollars and reinvested surpluses in the US, creating the 'petrodollar' arrangement. This had a lasting impact on global finance, creating unceasing demand for the US dollar.
Which article of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principle of State Policy for a Uniform Civil Code?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 51A
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Explanation
Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' This is the constitutional basis for the UCC debate mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding personal laws mentioned in the article:
1. The Muslim Shariat (Application) Act, 1937, was enacted to override customs denying daughters inheritance.
2. Under Muslim Personal Law, a person can will away their entire property without any restrictions.
3. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act was enacted in 1939, providing grounds for judicial divorce to Muslim women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Shariat Act was enacted because many Muslim communities were denying daughters inheritance. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article clearly states Muslim law restricts testamentary power to one-third of property. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, as a progressive reform allowing women to seek judicial divorce.
According to the Muslim Personal Law as discussed in the article, what is the maximum portion of a person's property that can be disposed of through a will?
- A.One-half
- B.One-third✓ Correct Answer
- C.Two-thirds
- D.The entire property
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'under the Shariat Act, as per MPL rules, a Muslim person cannot will away more than one-third of their property.' This is a key protective feature for heirs, especially women.
What is a key concern raised in the article regarding the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) without restrictions on testamentary powers?
- A.It would increase litigation related to property disputes.
- B.It could disadvantage Muslim women by removing existing inheritance safeguards.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would violate the fundamental right to equality under Article 14.
- D.It would require a constitutional amendment to Article 44.
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Explanation
The article's central argument is that MPL's restriction on testamentary powers (one-third limit) protects women's inheritance shares. A UCC that grants absolute testamentary freedom, like the Hindu Succession Act, might leave Muslim women 'worse off' by stripping this protection, even if it grants equal shares on paper.
Which organization, mentioned in the article, published a report on renewable energy curtailment and the Minimum Technical Load of thermal plants?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Power Grid Corporation of India
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions a report by a committee of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) which analysed the 23 GW RE curtailment and linked it to coal plants failing to operate below 55% Minimum Technical Load.
Consider the following statements regarding India's power sector as per the article:
1. Coal-based power plants contribute over 70% to India's electricity generation mix.
2. Gas-based power plants, though contributing only 1-2% to overall generation, provide nearly 10 GW of flexible capacity crucial during summer evening peaks.
3. The government has directed Tata Power to operate its 4 GW imported coal-based plant in Gujarat at full capacity to help meet summer demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states coal contributes over 70%. Statement 2 is correct: It mentions gas contributes around 1-2% but provides nearly 10 GW of flexible capacity during high-demand months. Statement 3 is correct: The article says the government directed Tata Power to operate its 4 GW plant in Gujarat.
According to the article, how much renewable energy was curtailed by India's grid operator between May and November last year to maintain grid stability?
- A.10 GW
- B.15 GW
- C.23 GW✓ Correct Answer
- D.30 GW
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Explanation
The article states that between May and November last year, India's grid operator curtailed as much as 23 gigawatts (GW) of renewable energy. The other figures are distractors.
What is the primary operational challenge of coal-based power plants that leads to renewable energy curtailment, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Their high fuel cost compared to solar and wind.
- B.Their inability to quickly start up during peak demand.
- C.Their operational inflexibility due to a high Minimum Technical Load (MTL).✓ Correct Answer
- D.Their significant greenhouse gas emissions.
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Explanation
The core issue discussed is that coal plants have a Minimum Technical Load (MTL) of around 55%, meaning they cannot ramp down below this level. This inflexibility prevents them from reducing output during high solar generation periods, forcing grid operators to curtail cheaper solar power instead.
Which institution is responsible for managing India's foreign exchange reserves and intervening in the forex market to manage rupee volatility?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and monetary authority. One of its key functions is managing the country's foreign exchange reserves and intervening in the forex market to curb excessive volatility, as mentioned in the article regarding its recent actions.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent pressures on the Indian Rupee:
1. The rupee depreciated by approximately 9.6% against the US dollar during the financial year 2025-26.
2. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) were net buyers in the Indian market in March 2026, bringing in significant capital.
3. The Reserve Bank of India's foreign currency assets declined from $573 billion to $557 billion between late February and mid-March 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the rupee fell by around 9.6% over 2025-26. Statement 2 is incorrect; FPIs took out a staggering $13.6 billion in March 2026, making them net sellers, not buyers. Statement 3 is correct as per the data on RBI's forex assets declining from $573 billion to $557 billion between February 27 and March 20.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of India's crude oil basket per barrel in March 2026?
- A.$93.5 per barrel
- B.$100.5 per barrel
- C.$113.5 per barrel✓ Correct Answer
- D.$120.5 per barrel
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India's crude basket averaged $113.5 per barrel in March. This high price is cited as a key factor exerting pressure on the current account deficit and the rupee.
What is the primary argument presented in the article regarding the Reserve Bank of India's role in managing the exchange rate?
- A.The RBI should aggressively defend the rupee at the ₹95/$ level using all its reserves.
- B.The RBI should stop all intervention and allow the rupee to float freely without any management.
- C.The RBI should use intervention only to smoothen excessive volatility and not defend any particular level.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The RBI should immediately hike interest rates to attract foreign capital and strengthen the rupee.
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Explanation
The article's core argument, as stated in the last lines, is that while the RBI intervenes to 'smoothen excessive volatility,' it 'should refrain from defending any particular level' and let 'the exchange rate should work as a shock absorber.' This advocates for a managed float rather than a fixed target.
Who is the current Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS) of India as mentioned in the article?
- A.Admiral R. Hari Kumar
- B.Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Admiral Karambir Singh
- D.Admiral Sunil Lanba
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Chief of the Naval Staff Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi as the one speaking about Operation Sindoor. This is a factual recall question based directly on the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Indian Navy was minutes away from striking Pakistan from the sea during Operation Sindoor.
2. The Navy Chief stated that seas have become secondary theatres where continental conflicts spill over.
3. Daily traffic through the Strait of Hormuz has fallen to 6-7 transits from a pre-conflict average of about 130.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Navy Chief's direct quote. Statement 2 is incorrect because he stated seas are 'no longer secondary theatres'. Statement 3 is correct as per the data provided in the article about the Strait of Hormuz traffic.
According to the Navy Chief, how many ships and submarines were commissioned by the Indian Navy in a single year as part of its 'Builder's Navy' transformation?
- A.8
- B.10
- C.12✓ Correct Answer
- D.15
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Explanation
The article clearly states that a sustained focus on 'Atmanirbharta' helped in 'commissioning of 12 ships and submarines in a single year'. This is a direct data point from the news.
What is the primary strategic implication of the Navy Chief's revelation about Operation Sindoor, as inferred from the article?
- A.To announce a new joint military exercise with friendly nations.
- B.To signal India's maritime deterrence capability and resolve to adversaries.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To criticize the government's defence procurement policy.
- D.To propose a reduction in the Navy's budget for surface vessels.
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Explanation
The revelation serves as a public signal of India's military readiness and willingness to escalate, thereby reinforcing deterrence. This aligns with the article's theme of showcasing 'exemplary readiness and resolve' and 'reinforcing the nation’s confidence'.
Which constitutional article guarantees that a person arrested shall be informed of the grounds for arrest?
- A.Article 20
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 22✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. This provision was referenced in the article regarding the Kerala High Court's observation on WhatsApp intimation.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Rajasthan High Court judgment:
1. It declared that a notice sent via WhatsApp satisfies the statutory requirement of service under Section 41-A of CrPC.
2. It convicted an Additional Superintendent of Police for contempt of court for violating Supreme Court guidelines.
3. It relied on the Supreme Court's directions in the Satender Kumar Antil vs CBI case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Rajasthan HC specifically held that a WhatsApp notice does NOT satisfy the statutory requirement under Section 41-A CrPC. Statement 2 is correct as ASP Pushpendra Singh Rathod was convicted for contempt. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment cited the SC's directions in Satender Kumar Antil vs CBI (2022), along with Arnesh Kumar vs State of Bihar (2014).
As per the Rajasthan High Court judgment, for which category of offences does Section 41-A of CrPC mandate issuing a notice of appearance instead of immediate arrest?
- A.Offences punishable with imprisonment of less than three years
- B.Offences punishable with imprisonment of less than five years
- C.Offences punishable with imprisonment of less than seven years✓ Correct Answer
- D.All cognizable offences irrespective of punishment
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Explanation
Section 41-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure applies to cognizable offences where the punishment is imprisonment for a term which may be less than seven years. The article explicitly states this condition.
What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court guidelines referenced in the Arnesh Kumar vs State of Bihar case?
- A.To expedite the trial process for economic offences
- B.To prevent arbitrary arrests and protect personal liberty✓ Correct Answer
- C.To empower police with more discretionary arrest powers
- D.To mandate the use of technology in serving legal notices
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Explanation
The Arnesh Kumar guidelines were issued by the Supreme Court to curb the misuse of arrest powers by police and prevent unnecessary detention, thereby protecting the fundamental right to personal liberty under Article 21. The Rajasthan HC judgment reinforces this objective by striking down informal arrest procedures.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the article, connects which two bodies of water?
- A.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
- B.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
- D.The South China Sea and the Philippine Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow passage that connects the Persian Gulf (where major oil producers like Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar are located) to the Gulf of Oman and the wider Arabian Sea, making it a vital route for global oil shipments.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic implications of the Strait of Hormuz closure as discussed in the article:
1. It has been described as the largest disruption to the world's energy supply since the 1970s energy crisis.
2. About one-third of the world's helium supply, critical for semiconductor manufacturing and MRI machines, transits through the strait.
3. The closure has led to a 50% increase in urea prices, threatening the Northern Hemisphere spring planting season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states 'A third of the world's helium supply' transits the strait, not 'one-third'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions urea prices rose 50% from $482 to $720/ton, impacting spring planting.
According to the article, what percentage of India's LNG (Liquefied Natural Gas) imports transits through the Strait of Hormuz from Qatar and the UAE?
- A.42%
- B.53%✓ Correct Answer
- C.65%
- D.72%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Qatar and the UAE account for 53% of India's LNG imports. The other percentages are distractors: 72% is for Bangladesh's LNG imports and 99% for Pakistan's, as mentioned in the same context.
What is the primary critique of the international response to the West Asia crisis as highlighted in the article?
- A.A lack of military preparedness among Western powers.
- B.An over-reliance on economic sanctions as a tool of statecraft.
- C.A 'collective drift' and lack of urgent, coordinated diplomatic action despite high stakes.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The unilateral actions of the United States without consulting its NATO allies.
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Explanation
The article criticizes the 'strange, collective drift' in international diplomacy, where statements are issued and envoys dispatched, but the 'underlying momentum of escalation remains unchecked.' It contrasts the scale of the threat with the lack of intensity in crisis management.
Which High Court deprecated the lawyer for attaching indecent screenshots to a bail plea?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bombay High Court
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Allahabad High Court, with Justice Krishan Pahal presiding, deprecated the lawyer's conduct. This is a factual recall question based directly on the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The accused was charged with spiking the victim's drink and recording the act.
2. The court granted bail to the accused but imposed strict conditions.
3. The court directed the trial court to expedite the case, citing Supreme Court judgments from 2015 and 2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the prosecution's allegations mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court rejected the bail plea, not granted it. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed expeditious trial citing Vinod Kumar vs. State of Punjab (2015) and Hussain & Another vs. Union of India (2017).
According to the article, what was the amount of money the accused allegedly demanded from the victim for deleting the video?
- A.₹5 Lakh
- B.₹10 Lakh
- C.₹20 Lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹50 Lakh
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Explanation
The article clearly states the accused allegedly demanded Rs 20 lakh (₹20 Lakh) for deleting the video. This is a direct data point from the news.
What was the primary reason the Allahabad High Court deprecated the lawyer's action of attaching screenshots to the bail plea?
- A.It violated court decorum and procedural rules.
- B.It was an attempt to influence judicial proceedings and violated the victim's dignity and privacy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The screenshots were not authenticated or legally obtained evidence.
- D.It delayed the hearing of the bail application.
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Explanation
The court's observation, as quoted in the article, explicitly states that such material violates the dignity and privacy of the victim and appears to be an attempt to influence judicial proceedings. This is the core legal and ethical reasoning provided by the court.
Which constitutional body has the Supreme Court directed to requisition central forces for protecting judicial officers involved in the SIR process?
- A.National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
- B.Election Commission of India (ECI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
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Explanation
As per the article, the Supreme Court directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to requisition central forces and deploy them to protect judicial officers involved in the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process. The ECI is the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections under Article 324.
Consider the following statements regarding the incident mentioned in the news:
1. The Supreme Court took suo motu cognisance of the gheraoing of judicial officers in West Bengal.
2. The judicial officers were involved in the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls.
3. The Supreme Court directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to immediately take over the investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Bench 'took suo motu cognisance of the incident'. Statement 2 is correct as the officers were 'involved in the special intensive revision of electoral rolls (SIR)'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says the court was 'inclined to order a CBI or independent investigation', but a final order was yet to be passed. It did not direct an immediate takeover.
For how many hours were the seven judicial officers held hostage by a mob in West Bengal's Malda district, according to the Supreme Court's observation?
- A.Over 6 hours
- B.Over 9 hours✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 12 hours
- D.Over 24 hours
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the judicial officers were 'held hostage for over nine hours'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What was the Supreme Court's primary rationale for directing the Election Commission to deploy central forces, as inferred from the news?
- A.To investigate the financial irregularities of the state government.
- B.To protect the judicial officers, their families, and government offices involved in the electoral roll revision exercise.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To directly administer the Malda district under the President's Rule.
- D.To conduct a fresh election in the Malda constituency immediately.
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Explanation
The article states the Court 'directed the ECI to requisition central forces and deploy them to protect judicial officers involved in the SIR process and government offices that host the electoral roll revision exercise' and that 'The family members of the judicial officers must be protected.' This indicates the primary rationale was protection of personnel and process, not investigation, President's Rule, or immediate elections.
Which government body is primarily responsible for implementing customs duty exemptions in India?
- A.Department of Commerce
- B.Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
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Explanation
The CBIC, under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is the apex body responsible for administering customs laws, including granting exemptions. The Department of Commerce handles trade policy, RBI manages monetary policy, and SEBI regulates securities markets.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent news on customs duty exemption:
1. The government has exempted customs duty on 40 petrochemical products.
2. This exemption was announced to boost exports of these products.
3. The primary reason cited for this exemption is the ongoing crisis in West Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the news mentions an exemption for 40 petrochemical products. Statement 2 is incorrect; the exemption is to safeguard domestic supply and control input costs, not primarily to boost exports. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly links the exemption to the West Asia crisis.
According to the news, how many petrochemical products have been exempted from customs duty?
- A.30
- B.35
- C.40✓ Correct Answer
- D.45
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Explanation
The article headline and content specify that customs duty has been exempted for 40 petrochemical products. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the exact figure mentioned in the source material.
What is the primary economic objective of the government's decision to exempt customs duty on these petrochemical products?
- A.To increase government revenue from imports
- B.To promote the export of finished petrochemical goods
- C.To protect domestic industries from supply chain disruptions and input cost inflation✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by rationalizing subsidies
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Explanation
The exemption, announced amid the West Asia crisis, is aimed at reducing the cost of critical imported raw materials. This helps shield downstream industries from supply shocks and prevents cost-push inflation, thereby protecting domestic production and economic stability.
Which regulatory body's Secretary, Anjan Kumar Mishra, stated that domestic natural gas production could cater to 30 crore PNG connections?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG)
- B.Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
- D.Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Anjan Kumar Mishra as the Secretary at the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB). PNGRB is the statutory regulator for the downstream petroleum and natural gas sector.
Consider the following statements regarding India's push for Piped Natural Gas (PNG):
1. A recent government gazette notification mandates that households cannot hold both LPG and PNG connections.
2. India's current gas pipeline network spans about 25,000 kilometres, with an additional 10,500 kilometres under construction.
3. The primary reason for India's historical preference for LPG over PNG has been the ease of building an extensive pipeline network compared to cylinder delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions the gazette notification. Statement 2 is correct as it directly quotes the article's data. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the opposite: 'Last-mile delivery of LPG is easier through cylinders... than building an extensive pipeline network... This has been a key reason why India adopted LPG.'
According to the article, what is the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas's target for the number of PNG connections by 2034?
- A.5 crore connections
- B.12 crore connections✓ Correct Answer
- C.20 crore connections
- D.30 crore connections
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Explanation
The article states: 'The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG)... told the Parliamentary Standing Committee... that it is targeting to have in place a pipeline network that would cover 12 crore PNG connections by 2034.'
What is a primary strategic advantage of shifting from LPG to PNG for India's energy security, as highlighted in the article?
- A.PNG is significantly cheaper to produce domestically than LPG.
- B.LNG, the source for PNG, has more diversified global sources compared to LPG, reducing supply chain vulnerability.✓ Correct Answer
- C.PNG pipelines require less maintenance and are more environmentally friendly than LPG cylinders.
- D.The technology for PNG distribution is indigenous, while LPG relies on foreign technology.
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'If gas is to be imported, LNG has many more sources across the world. In LPG, India was largely reliant on Saudi Arabia and Qatar and the supplies had to pass through the Strait...' This diversification enhances energy security.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the policy framework governing India's defence exports, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article quotes the Defence Minister, Rajnath Singh, announcing the export figures. The Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry responsible for defence production, procurement, and export policies in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's defence exports for FY 2025-26 as per the news article:
1. The total defence exports touched a record ₹38,424 crore.
2. This figure marks a growth of over 60% compared to the exports in FY 2024-25.
3. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) contributed more than half of the total export value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states exports reached ₹38,424 crore. Statement 2 is correct as the growth is specified as 62.66%, which is over 60%. Statement 3 is correct as DPSUs contributed 54.84%, which is more than half (50%).
According to the Defence Minister, what was the approximate value of India's defence exports in the financial year 2024-25?
- A.₹21,083 crore
- B.₹23,622 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹38,424 crore
- D.₹14,802 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "India's defence exports in 2024-25 was ₹23,622 crore in 2024-25." ₹21,083 crore is the figure for FY 2023-24, ₹38,424 crore is for FY 2025-26, and ₹14,802 crore is the absolute increase from FY 2024-25 to FY 2025-26.
What does the significant growth in India's defence exports, as highlighted in the news, primarily signify?
- A.A shift in India's focus from domestic security to global arms trade.
- B.Growing global trust in India's indigenous defence manufacturing capabilities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A reduction in the budget allocation for the Indian Armed Forces.
- D.The complete phasing out of defence imports into the country.
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Explanation
The Defence Minister is quoted saying the "big jump" reflects "growing global trust in India's indigenous capabilities and advanced manufacturing strength." This is the core implication stated in the article. While it may reduce import dependency, the article does not claim a complete phase-out of imports or a reduction in the defence budget.
Which state agency is the nodal body for implementing renewable energy projects like the PM Surya Ghar Yojana in Uttar Pradesh, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited (UPPCL)
- B.Uttar Pradesh Electricity Regulatory Commission (UPERC)
- C.Uttar Pradesh New and Renewable Energy Development Agency (UPNEDA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Uttar Pradesh Energy Department
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes Inderjit Singh, Director of the Uttar Pradesh New and Renewable Energy Development Agency (UPNEDA), making it the correct nodal body. UPPCL is the distribution company, UPERC is the regulator, and the Energy Department is a broader administrative unit.
Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's performance under the PM Surya Ghar Yojana as per the article:
1. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest monthly deployment of rooftop solar installations by any state in March 2026.
2. The state's cumulative rooftop solar installations rank it first in India.
3. The progress under the scheme has created more than 60,000 jobs across the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states UP set a new national benchmark with 52,729 installations in March 2026, the highest monthly deployment. Statement 2 is incorrect: UP's cumulative installations of 4,48,233 place it third in India, not first. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the progress has created more than 60,000 jobs across the state.
According to the article, what was the total installed rooftop solar capacity achieved by Uttar Pradesh under the PM Surya Ghar Yojana as of March 2026?
- A.Approximately 1,000 MW
- B.1,524.61 MW✓ Correct Answer
- C.Around 2,000 MW
- D.1,250 MW
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: 'The total installed capacity has now reached 1,524.61 MW.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is a key socio-economic benefit of Uttar Pradesh's rooftop solar expansion, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Significant reduction in state's fiscal deficit
- B.Creation of over 60,000 jobs across the state✓ Correct Answer
- C.Complete elimination of coal-based power generation
- D.Substantial increase in exports of solar panels
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the progress has enabled the 'creating more than 60,000 jobs across the State.' While consumer savings and land conservation are also benefits, job creation is the direct socio-economic impact listed among the options. The other benefits mentioned are not supported by the article's text.
Operation Sankalp, mentioned in the context of securing maritime trade routes, is an initiative of which Indian service?
- A.Indian Army
- B.Indian Navy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Air Force
- D.Indian Coast Guard
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Explanation
Operation Sankalp is a maritime security operation conducted by the Indian Navy in the Gulf region to ensure the safe passage of Indian-flagged vessels. It was initiated in response to security threats to commercial shipping.
Consider the following statements regarding the energy crisis discussed in the article:
1. Over 80% of the oil and LNG moving through the Strait of Hormuz is destined for markets in the Asia-Pacific region.
2. The crisis has prompted Japan to tap its strategic petroleum reserves and South Korea to increase nuclear plant utilisation above 80%.
3. The conflict in West Asia has led to the redeployment of US military assets, including THAAD system components, from the South China Sea to the Gulf region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'A large share of oil and LNG moving through the Strait of Hormuz, roughly 80 per cent, is for Asia-Pacific markets.' Statement 2 is also correct: 'Japan has already started tapping its strategic oil reserves. South Korea has increased nuclear plant utilisation above 80 per cent...' Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states THAAD components were redeployed from the Korean Peninsula, not the South China Sea.
According to the article, what approximate percentage of the oil and LNG transiting the Strait of Hormuz is destined for Asia-Pacific markets?
- A.Approximately 60%
- B.Approximately 70%
- C.Approximately 80%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 90%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'A large share of oil and LNG moving through the Strait of Hormuz, roughly 80 per cent, is for Asia-Pacific markets.' This is a critical data point highlighting the region's energy dependence.
What is identified in the article as a primary strategic lesson from the West Asian crisis for Indo-Pacific nations?
- A.The need to increase military spending to match US capabilities.
- B.The importance of integrating West Asian security into a holistic Indo-Pacific strategy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The necessity to reduce all trade dependencies on the Middle East.
- D.The urgency to form a new military alliance separate from the United States.
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Explanation
The article concludes that 'an Indo-Pacific strategy that ignores West Asia is incomplete, as the region’s prosperity and stability still depend on developments there.' The core lesson is the interconnectedness of security across the wider region, not isolation or merely increasing military spending.
Under which Act has NCERT been granted the 'Deemed to be University' status?
- A.The Right to Education Act, 2009
- B.The University Grants Commission Act, 1956✓ Correct Answer
- C.The National Education Policy Act, 2020
- D.The NCERT Act, 1961
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Explanation
The notification issued by the Ministry of Education declares NCERT as an institution deemed to be university under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission (UGC) Act, 1956. This is the primary legislation governing higher education and granting of university status in India.
Consider the following statements regarding NCERT's new 'Deemed to be University' status:
1. The status was granted under a 'distinct category' as per the UGC Act.
2. It allows NCERT to launch doctoral programs but bars it from commercial activities.
3. The status application process began with NCERT's submission on the UGC portal in 2022 and was approved in the UGC's 595th meeting in January 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the notification declares NCERT as an institution deemed to be university under a 'distinct category'. Statement 2 is correct as the notification mandates NCERT to commence doctoral programs and states it 'shall not engage... in any activities that are of commercial and profit making in nature'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the process began with NCERT's application on the UGC portal (implied 2022 from context), followed by a Letter of Intent in August 2023, compliance report in November 2025, and approval in the UGC's 595th meeting on January 30, 2026.
How many regional institutes of education are constituent units of NCERT as per its new deemed university structure?
- A.Four
- B.Five
- C.Six✓ Correct Answer
- D.Seven
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Explanation
The notification declares NCERT, along with its six constituent units, as a deemed university. These six units are the regional institutes of education in Ajmer, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Mysuru, and Shillong, along with the Pandit Sunderlal Sharma Central Institute of Vocational Education in Bhopal.
What is a key implication of NCERT's new deemed university status regarding its regulatory oversight?
- A.It gains complete financial and academic autonomy from all government bodies.
- B.It now falls under the direct regulatory control of the University Grants Commission (UGC).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It becomes primarily accountable to the state governments where its institutes are located.
- D.It is exempted from national ranking systems like NIRF and accreditation by NAAC.
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Explanation
The notification clearly states that NCERT's 'academic programmes... shall conform to the norms and standards prescribed by the UGC' and that any new courses must follow UGC guidelines. This brings NCERT squarely within UGC's regulatory ambit, a key concern raised by critics who feared loss of autonomy. The article also mentions NCERT must participate in NIRF rankings and seek NAAC/NBA accreditation, contrary to the last option.
Which High Court delivered the landmark judgment expanding the scope of the Kerala Anti-Social Activities (Prevention) Act, 2007?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Delhi High Court
- C.Kerala High Court✓ Correct Answer
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that a five-judge bench of the Kerala High Court delivered this judgment on March 31, 2026, overruling its earlier Suhana v. State of Kerala decision.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Kerala High Court judgment on KAAPA:
1. The court overruled its own 2024 full bench decision in Suhana v. State of Kerala.
2. The judgment held that possession of a 'small quantity' of drugs for personal use automatically attracts the provisions of the NDPS Act but not KAAPA.
3. The court emphasized India's obligations under three Core United Nations Conventions on narcotic drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the five-judge bench overruled the 2024 Suhana judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the core ruling was that possession of even a 'small quantity' CAN bring a person under KAAPA as a 'drug offender', expanding its scope. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment specifically mentions India's obligations under the three UN Core Conventions (1961, 1971, 1988).
According to the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, as highlighted in the judgment, what is the maximum imprisonment for a first offence involving possession of a 'small quantity' of drugs?
- A.Up to 6 months
- B.Up to 1 year✓ Correct Answer
- C.Up to 2 years
- D.Up to 3 years
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Explanation
The article states: 'even for a first offence of possessing a small quantity, the NDPS Act provides for up to one year of imprisonment.' The other options are distractors related to other quantities or repeat offences.
What was the primary legal interpretation made by the Kerala High Court that led to the expansion of KAAPA's applicability?
- A.Interpreting 'possession' under the NDPS Act to include 'consumption'.
- B.Interpreting the word 'stock' in KAAPA as broader than 'possess' to include personal use.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Declaring that 'small quantity' under NDPS Act is unconstitutional.
- D.Making the punishment under KAAPA more severe than under the NDPS Act.
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Explanation
The article clearly explains the court's reasoning: 'Court rules 'stock' was always meant to cast a wider net than mere 'possession'... Stocking drugs for personal consumption is now sufficient grounds for detention under KAAPA.' This interpretation is central to the ruling.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 323
- B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 325
- D.Article 326
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India, a permanent constitutional body, is established under Article 324 of the Constitution. It is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of all elections.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court order on the hostage crisis of judicial officers in West Bengal:
1. The Supreme Court termed the incident an 'abdication of duty' by the West Bengal Government.
2. The Court directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to take over the investigation immediately.
3. The judicial officers were involved in the revision of electoral rolls for the Lok Sabha elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC bench said it was an 'abdication of duty' by the West Bengal Government. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC directed the Election Commission of India to entrust the investigation to an independent agency like CBI or NIA, not the CBI directly. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article specifies the officers were deciding cases for the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, not specifically for Lok Sabha elections.
The Supreme Court bench that heard the matter regarding the hostage crisis of judicial officers in West Bengal was headed by which Chief Justice of India?
- A.Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.Chief Justice Surya Kant✓ Correct Answer
- C.Chief Justice N.V. Ramana
- D.Chief Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the bench was headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, along with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M Pancholi.
What was the primary constitutional principle underscored by the Supreme Court's reaction to the hostage crisis of judicial officers?
- A.The principle of Federalism and state autonomy.
- B.The principle of an independent judiciary free from intimidation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The principle of Popular Sovereignty and the will of the people.
- D.The principle of Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's strong stance, calling the incident a challenge to its authority and criminal contempt, primarily underscores the constitutional principle of an independent judiciary. The Court's orders aim to protect judicial officers from intimidation to ensure they can perform their duties without fear, which is fundamental to the rule of law.
Which department under the Ministry of Defence is primarily responsible for promoting defence exports, as mentioned in the news?
- A.Department of Defence Production✓ Correct Answer
- B.Department of Defence Research and Development
- C.Department of Ex-servicemen Welfare
- D.Department of Military Affairs
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Explanation
The article mentions Defence Minister Rajnath Singh lauding the Department of Defence Production for the export achievement. This department formulates policies and promotes the production and export of defence equipment.
Consider the following statements regarding India's defence exports for FY 2025-26:
1. The total defence exports reached a record ₹38,424 crore.
2. The private sector contributed a larger share (over 50%) of the exports compared to Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs).
3. India exports defence equipment to more than 80 countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as exports were ₹38,424 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because DPSUs contributed 54.84% (majority share), not the private sector (45.16%). Statement 3 is correct as the article states exports go to 'more than 80 countries'.
According to the news, what was the value of defence exports contributed by Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) in FY 2025-26?
- A.₹17,353 crore
- B.₹21,071 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹23,622 crore
- D.₹38,424 crore
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Explanation
The article states DPSUs contributed ₹21,071 crore, which is 54.84% of the total ₹38,424 crore. ₹17,353 crore is the private sector's contribution, ₹23,622 crore is last year's total, and ₹38,424 crore is this year's total.
What does the significant surge in India's defence exports primarily indicate, as per the analysis in the news?
- A.A reduction in India's own defence procurement budget.
- B.Growing global trust in India's indigenous manufacturing capabilities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A shift in focus from domestic production to purely export-oriented manufacturing.
- D.The complete phasing out of defence imports into the country.
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Explanation
The Defence Minister and the Ministry statement highlight that the export jump 'reflects the growing global trust in India’s indigenous capabilities and advanced manufacturing strength.' The other options are either incorrect or extreme interpretations not supported by the article.
Which two national bodies are mentioned as institutionalizing the new AI and Computational Thinking curriculum framework?
- A.CBSE and UGC
- B.NCERT and AICTE
- C.CBSE and NCERT✓ Correct Answer
- D.NTA and NCERT
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'CBSE and NCERT [are] institutionalising this forward-looking framework.' CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Education) and NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) are the key national bodies responsible for school curriculum design and implementation in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the new AI curriculum in schools:
1. It introduces Artificial Intelligence and Computational Thinking as a formal curriculum for Classes 3 to 8.
2. Before this launch, AI education was available only as a 15-hour module starting from Class 9.
3. The initiative is aligned with the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article headline and content. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the previous AI module was a '15-hour skill module beginning in Class 6', not Class 9. Statement 3 is correct as Union Minister Jayant Chaudhary explicitly linked the move to 'the vision of NEP 2020'.
According to the article, from which class did the earlier 15-hour skill module on Artificial Intelligence begin?
- A.Class 3
- B.Class 6✓ Correct Answer
- C.Class 8
- D.Class 9
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Until now, AI has been introduced as a 15-hour skill module beginning in Class 6...' This is a key data point highlighting the expansion of AI education to earlier grades (Class 3) with the new curriculum.
What is the primary objective behind introducing Computational Thinking from an early stage in schools, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To reduce the overall school curriculum load for students.
- B.To lay a foundation for a generation that can learn, unlearn, and re-learn continuously.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To immediately prepare students for jobs in the software industry.
- D.To replace traditional subjects like Mathematics and Science.
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Explanation
Union Minister of State Jayant Chaudhary is quoted saying, 'By introducing computational thinking from an early stage, we are laying the foundation for a generation that can learn, unlearn, and re-learn continuously...' This captures the core objective of building adaptive, future-ready minds, not just immediate job preparation or curriculum reduction.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) established?
- A.Article 76
- B.Article 148✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 324
- D.Article 280
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Explanation
Article 148 of the Indian Constitution establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. Article 76 deals with the Attorney General, Article 324 with the Election Commission, and Article 280 with the Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding the CAG report on cess transfers mentioned in the news:
1. The total shortfall in cess transfers identified by the CAG as of FY 2023-24 is ₹3.69 lakh crore.
2. The earliest lapse in cess fund transfer identified dates back to the financial year 1974-75.
3. The Finance Ministry's claimed transfer amount matched exactly with the amount reflected in government accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article highlights a discrepancy: the Finance Ministry claimed ₹3.66 lakh crore was transferred (2018-24), but government accounts reflected only ₹2.65 lakh crore.
According to the CAG report cited in the news, what was the approximate shortfall in cess transfers for the health and education sector between 2018-19 and 2023-24?
- A.₹2,505.5 crore
- B.₹5,968.1 crore
- C.₹37,537 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹902.40 crore
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Explanation
The article states: 'In the health and education sector, ₹37,537 crore remained un-transferred between 2018-19 and 2023-24.' The other figures relate to different funds: ₹2,505.5 crore for Investor Education and Protection Fund, ₹5,968.1 crore for Monetisation of National Highways Fund, and ₹902.40 crore collected for Oil Industry Development Board (not the shortfall).
What is the primary implication of the CAG's finding of a large cess transfer shortfall, as highlighted in the Rajya Sabha?
- A.It indicates an increase in the overall tax burden on citizens.
- B.It suggests a failure in earmarking funds for their intended development purposes.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows a reduction in the fiscal deficit of the government.
- D.It demonstrates efficient utilization of resources by the government.
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Explanation
The core issue raised is that cesses are collected for specific purposes (like health, education, infrastructure), but the failure to transfer them to the designated funds means the money is not being used for its intended welfare and development objectives. This undermines the principle of earmarked taxation.
Under which article of the Indian Constitution are Scheduled Castes specified?
- A.Article 340
- B.Article 341✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 342
- D.Article 343
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Explanation
Article 341 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify castes, races, or tribes as Scheduled Castes in a state or union territory. Article 342 is for Scheduled Tribes, while Article 340 is for the appointment of a commission to investigate backward classes.
Consider the following statements regarding the sub-classification of Scheduled Castes in Maharashtra:
1. It is based on a 2024 Supreme Court ruling that permits states to create sub-categories within SC reservations.
2. The new committee examining the issue is headed by retired judge Anant Manohar Badar.
3. The demand arises from concerns that Neo-Buddhist Dalits have benefited disproportionately compared to groups like Matangs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the new committee is headed by Chief Secretary Rajesh Agrawal. The Badar committee was the earlier one. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions concerns about disproportionate benefits to Neo-Buddhists versus marginalized groups like Matangs.
According to the 2011 Census, what percentage of Maharashtra's population belongs to Scheduled Castes?
- A.9.45%
- B.10.21%
- C.11.81%✓ Correct Answer
- D.13.42%
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Explanation
The article states that Scheduled Castes in Maharashtra account for 11.81% of the population, numbering around 1.32 crore. The other options are distractors close to the actual figure.
What is the primary political objective behind the Maharashtra government's push for SC sub-classification, as indicated in the article?
- A.To consolidate Ambedkarite Dalit votes behind the ruling alliance
- B.To address long-standing demands for a more equitable distribution of reservation benefits among marginalized SC groups✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the overall reservation quota for Scheduled Castes in the state
- D.To implement the recommendations of the Sachar Committee report
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Explanation
The article states the demand arises from concerns that better-off groups have benefited disproportionately, while smaller communities like Matangs have lagged behind. Sub-classification is seen as a way to ensure a more equitable distribution. While political recalibration is a factor, the primary stated objective is equitable distribution. The article does not mention increasing the overall quota or implementing the Sachar Committee report.
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI mentioned in the news is compiled by which global financial information services company?
- A.Moody's Analytics
- B.S&P Global✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bloomberg
- D.Refinitiv
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Explanation
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI is compiled by S&P Global based on survey data. While HSBC sponsors the report, the data collection and index compilation are done by S&P Global (formerly IHS Markit).
Consider the following statements regarding the news about India's Manufacturing PMI:
1. The PMI fell to 53.9 in March 2026, marking its lowest level since June 2022.
2. A reading above 50 for the PMI indicates a contraction in the manufacturing sector.
3. The report highlighted that input prices increased at the slowest pace in over three and a half years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because a PMI reading above 50 indicates expansion, not contraction. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states input prices increased at the 'greatest extent' (steepest pace), not the slowest pace.
What was the value of the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI in February 2026, as mentioned in the article?
- A.53.9
- B.55.5
- C.56.9✓ Correct Answer
- D.57.5
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the PMI fell sharply from 56.9 in February to 53.9 in March 2026. The other options are distractors close to the actual figures.
According to the article, what was a key positive highlight for Indian manufacturers in March 2026 despite the overall PMI slowdown?
- A.A sharp decline in employment costs
- B.The strongest expansion in external sales since the previous September✓ Correct Answer
- C.A significant reduction in corporate tax rates by the government
- D.Record high levels of domestic new orders
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Explanation
The article mentions that on a positive note, Indian manufacturers saw the strongest expansion in external sales since last September. This indicates resilience in export demand despite domestic and cost-side challenges.
Which ministry conducts the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE)?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- D.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the latest findings are from the 'Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s (MoSPI) Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2025'. MoSPI is the nodal body for statistical surveys in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of ASUSE 2025:
1. The unincorporated sector comprises 7.92 crore establishments and employs 12.81 crore workers.
2. The Gross Value Added (GVA) of the sector grew by 10.9% between 2023-24 and 2025.
3. The manufacturing sector accounts for the largest share (42%) in the GVA of the unincorporated economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'this sector comprises 7.92 crore establishments and employs 12.81 crore workers'. Statement 2 is also correct: 'Gross Value Added (GVA) grew by 10.9 per cent between 2023-24 and 2025'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states 'services account for the largest share in GVA (42%) followed by trade (37%) and manufacturing (21%)'. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
According to ASUSE 2025, what percentage of workers in the unincorporated non-agricultural sector are owner-operators?
- A.54%
- B.62%✓ Correct Answer
- C.71%
- D.24%
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Explanation
The article states: 'Around 62 per cent of workers are owner-operators, while only 24 per cent are hired workers.' This highlights the self-employment-dominated nature of growth in the informal sector.
What is a key implication of the finding that wage growth (3.88%) in the informal sector lags behind GVA growth (10.9%), as per ASUSE 2025?
- A.It indicates a rapid formalization of the workforce.
- B.It suggests that the benefits of higher output are not translating into higher earnings for workers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows that productivity improvements are directly driving wage increases.
- D.It reflects strong collective bargaining power of informal sector unions.
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'this increase is relatively small when compared to the growth in GVA. This suggests that the benefits of higher output are not translating into higher earnings for workers. It also reflects the limited bargaining power of labour within informal settings.' This decoupling of productivity gains from wage growth is a critical challenge for equitable development.
Under which constitutional article does the State have the power to make special provisions for the advancement of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) in education?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 15(4)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 16
- D.Article 29
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Explanation
Article 15(4) of the Constitution specifically empowers the State to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. This is the foundational provision for reservations in educational institutions.
Consider the following statements regarding the 5% reservation for Muslims in Maharashtra as mentioned in the news:
1. It was introduced in 2014 by the Congress-NCP government under the SEBC category.
2. The Bombay High Court, in 2014, upheld this reservation for both government jobs and private unaided educational institutions.
3. The reservation lapsed in December 2014 after the BJP-led government took over, without being converted into a permanent law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Congress-NCP government introduced the 5% quota in July 2014. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Bombay High Court upheld the quota only for government and government-aided educational institutions and stayed its application in private unaided institutions. Statement 3 is correct as the ordinance lapsed in December 2014 when the BJP-led government took over.
According to the article, what was the percentage of reservation for Muslims in education that was scrapped by the Maharashtra Government Resolution of February 17, 2026?
- A.3%
- B.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.10%
- D.16%
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the challenged Government Resolution scrapped the '5 per cent reservation for Muslims in education'. The 16% figure refers to the Maratha reservation introduced alongside it in 2014.
What is the primary legal ground on which the petitioner in the news article has challenged the scrapping of the Muslim reservation quota?
- A.Violation of the Right to Equality under Article 14.
- B.Lack of legislative competence of the state government.
- C.The decision being deliberate, arbitrary, and amounting to racial discrimination.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Non-compliance with the procedure for amending the Constitution.
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Explanation
The article states the petitioner argued the scrapping was made 'deliberately and arbitrarily' amid 'racial discrimination against minorities.' While Article 14 (Right to Equality) is the underlying constitutional principle, the specific legal ground cited in the plea is arbitrariness and discrimination.
Which country holds the presidency of the United Nations Security Council for the month of April, as mentioned in the article regarding the Strait of Hormuz resolution?
- A.United States
- B.China
- C.Bahrain✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Kingdom
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Bahrain holds the Security Council presidency for April and is pressing a draft resolution on reopening the Strait of Hormuz. The UNSC presidency rotates monthly among its members.
Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic developments in the US-Iran war:
1. The Chinese Foreign Minister and Pakistani Foreign Minister released a five-point initiative calling for an immediate ceasefire.
2. The United Kingdom is convening a conference of 35 nations, including India, focused on restoring freedom of navigation in the Strait of Hormuz.
3. President Trump has declared that the core US strategic objective of 'regime change' in Iran has been fully achieved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: China and Pakistan released a five-point initiative. Statement 2 is correct as the UK is convening a 35-nation conference. Statement 3 is incorrect; Trump claimed regime change 'has already taken place' as a redefinition of victory, but the article does not state he declared it 'fully achieved' as a strategic objective.
According to the article, approximately how many Indian citizens live and work across the Gulf states, making them a key stakeholder in the region's stability?
- A.Nearly 5 million
- B.Nearly 7 million
- C.Nearly 9 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 12 million
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'Nearly nine million Indian citizens live and work across the Gulf states.' This is a critical data point highlighting India's human and economic stakes in the region.
What is described in the article as the 'single most important strategic chokepoint in the global energy system', the future of which is central to the ongoing Gulf war diplomacy?
- A.The Suez Canal
- B.The Strait of Malacca
- C.The Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
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Explanation
The article concludes by stating: 'diplomacy is increasingly focused on the single most important strategic chokepoint in the global energy system. The future of the Strait of Hormuz... is fast becoming the key question of the Gulf war.' This underscores its paramount geopolitical and economic significance.
Which organization is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) corridor?
- A.Indian Railways
- B.National High-Speed Rail Corporation Ltd (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
- D.Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Ltd (DFCCIL)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the NHSRCL is working on the completion of India's first bullet train corridor. NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle set up for planning and implementing high-speed rail projects in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train project:
1. The total length of the corridor is 508 km.
2. The tunneling work for the project is being carried out using the Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) method.
3. As of March 2026, more than 6900 OHE masts have been installed covering approximately 159 route km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the corridor is 508-km-long. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the New Austrian Tunneling Method (NATM) is being used, not TBM. Statement 3 is correct as per the data provided in the article.
As per the latest update, how many kilometers of the 21-km tunnel in the MAHSR corridor have been fully excavated?
- A.2 km
- B.5 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 km
- D.15 km
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Explanation
The article states that according to NHSRCL, 5 km of the total 21 km tunnel has been fully excavated. This is a precise data point from the news.
What is a primary advantage of using the New Austrian Tunneling Method (NATM) for the bullet train tunnel, as implied by its application in the MAHSR project?
- A.It is the cheapest tunneling method available.
- B.It allows for faster completion compared to all other methods.
- C.It is well-suited for varying ground conditions and provides flexibility.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It requires the least amount of technical expertise.
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Explanation
While the article does not explicitly list advantages, the choice of NATM for a major project like this implies its technical suitability. NATM is known for its flexibility and adaptability to different geological conditions, which is crucial for a long tunnel like the 21-km one in the MAHSR corridor.
Which US government agency released the 2026 report criticizing India's IT Rules for 'politically motivated' takedown requests?
- A.The White House Press Office
- B.Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Department of State
- D.US Department of Commerce
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the '2026 National Trade Estimate Report on Foreign Trade Barriers' was released by the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR). The USTR is responsible for such trade policy reports.
Consider the following statements regarding the USTR's 2026 report on India's digital trade barriers:
1. The report criticizes the IT Rules, 2021 for imposing personal criminal liability on employees of non-compliant firms.
2. It notes that blocking orders for online content in India can only be issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
3. The report highlights that India has proposed reducing the content takedown timeline for social media platforms to 2-3 hours.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the USTR report's concern about 'personal criminal liability on individual employees'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions blocking orders can be issued by 'a host of Central and state level agencies' via the MHA's Sahyog portal, not just the IT Ministry. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the IT Ministry notified amendments requiring takedown 'within two-three hours as opposed to 24-36 hours before'.
According to data obtained through an RTI request mentioned in the article, how many blocking orders were sent to online platforms between October 2024 and October 2025 via the Home Ministry's Sahyog portal?
- A.Over 1,500
- B.Over 2,000
- C.Over 2,300✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 3,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Last year, The Indian Express reported that more than 2,300 blocking orders were sent to 19 online platforms... between October 2024 and October 2025 through the Union Home Ministry’s Sahyog portal.' The other options are distractors close to the actual figure.
What is a primary concern raised by the USTR report regarding the proposed amendments to India's IT Rules?
- A.They will increase government revenue through digital taxation.
- B.They will empower multiple ministries to issue content blocking orders, expanding censorship.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They will mandate local data storage for all foreign social media companies.
- D.They will require platforms to share user data with law enforcement without warrants.
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Explanation
The article discusses the report's context alongside India's plan to 'decentralise a key online content takedown framework and empower multiple ministries and regulators to start sending blocking orders', raising concerns over an 'expanding censorship regime'. While data storage or revenue are broader issues, the report's cited concern, as per the article, is the expansion of the censorship mechanism.
Which regulatory body issued the directive banning banks from Non-Deliverable Derivative (NDD) contracts for the rupee?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the directive to bar banks from non-deliverable derivative contracts in the rupee. The RBI is India's central bank and the primary regulator for the foreign exchange market.
Consider the following statements regarding Non-Deliverable Derivative (NDD) contracts:
1. NDD contracts for the rupee are typically traded within India's domestic market.
2. These contracts involve settlement through the physical delivery of the Indian rupee.
3. The RBI's ban on banks dealing in rupee NDDs aims to curb offshore speculation and bring price discovery onshore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as NDDs are traded outside India in offshore hubs like Singapore and London. Statement 2 is incorrect because NDDs settle the difference in cash (usually USD), not through physical delivery of the rupee. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states the ban is aimed at curbing offshore speculation that leads to rupee volatility.
Following the RBI's ban on NDD contracts, to what level did the Indian rupee strengthen against the US dollar on April 2, as mentioned in the article?
- A.92.50
- B.93.10✓ Correct Answer
- C.94.25
- D.95.00
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Explanation
The article states the rupee strengthened to 93.10 against the US dollar following the RBI's directive. It had fallen below the 95 level before the announcement.
What is the primary objective behind the RBI's move to ban banks from Non-Deliverable Derivative (NDD) contracts for the rupee?
- A.To promote offshore trading of the Indian rupee
- B.To increase the volume of derivative trading in domestic markets
- C.To curb offshore speculation and stabilize the currency's onshore price discovery✓ Correct Answer
- D.To allow greater foreign institutional investment in government securities
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Explanation
The article clearly states the ban is aimed at curbing offshore speculation that often leads to rupee volatility and reinforcing the primacy of the onshore market. It aims to close a loophole that enabled regulatory arbitrage and distorted price discovery.
Which ministry was responsible for issuing the official statement on India's participation in the meeting on the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
- D.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) issued the statement detailing Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri's participation and remarks. The MEA handles India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about the Strait of Hormuz:
1. The virtual meeting of over 60 countries was convened by the United Kingdom.
2. Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri emphasized that India was the only country to have lost mariners in attacks on merchant shipping in the Gulf region.
3. The Strait of Hormuz is a critical channel for over 30% of the global natural gas supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says the meeting was 'convened Thursday by the UK.' Statement 2 is correct as the MEA statement noted 'India remains the only country to have lost mariners in attacks on merchant shipping in the Gulf.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Strait carries '20 per cent of the global energy supply – and majority of the gas supply from Qatar,' not over 30% of global gas supply.
According to the article, how many Indian-flagged vessels with Indian seafarers continue to remain trapped in the western Persian Gulf region due to the closure of the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.12 vessels with 350 seafarers
- B.15 vessels with 420 seafarers
- C.18 vessels with 485 seafarers✓ Correct Answer
- D.20 vessels with 500 seafarers
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figures: 'A total of 18 Indian-flagged vessels with 485 Indian seafarers continue to remain in the western Persian Gulf region.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What was the primary objective of the 60-nation meeting convened by the UK, as per the article?
- A.To impose immediate military sanctions on Iran
- B.To assess measures to restore freedom of navigation and resume shipping through the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
- C.To form a new permanent naval alliance for the Persian Gulf
- D.To solely discuss compensation for the families of affected seafarers
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Explanation
The article quotes British PM Keir Starmer saying the meeting would 'assess all viable diplomatic and political measures we can take to restore freedom of navigation, guarantee the safety of trapped ships and seafarers and to resume the movement of vital commodities.' The other options are either too narrow, not mentioned, or incorrect interpretations of the meeting's scope.
The new CBSE curriculum discussed in the news is aligned with the recommendations of which national policy?
- A.National Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005
- B.National Education Policy (NEP) 2020✓ Correct Answer
- C.Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009
- D.New National Policy on Education 1986
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the changes in the CBSE curriculum are 'in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020' which recommends students learn three languages up to Class 10.
Consider the following statements regarding the new CBSE curriculum:
1. A third language will be made compulsory for students starting from Class 9 in the academic year 2026-27.
2. Vocational education will be introduced as a compulsory subject with a board exam for Class 10 students from the 2027-28 session.
3. Computational Thinking and Artificial Intelligence will become a compulsory board exam subject for Class 10 starting from the year 2029.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The third language (R3) is made compulsory from Class 6, not Class 9, as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: vocational education becomes a compulsory subject with an annual/board exam from 2027-28. Statement 3 is correct: Computational Thinking and AI will become a compulsory board exam subject for Class 10 in 2029.
According to the new CBSE curriculum, from which academic session will vocational education be a compulsory subject with an annual or board exam for Class 10?
- A.2025-26
- B.2026-27
- C.2027-28✓ Correct Answer
- D.2028-29
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'In the 2027-28 academic session, they will have vocational education as a compulsory subject with an annual or board exam.' The other options are distractors based on other timelines mentioned, like the third language starting in 2026-27.
What is a key implication of the new CBSE rule requiring students to study 'at least two Indian languages' as part of the three-language formula?
- A.It will make Sanskrit compulsory for all students.
- B.It will likely prevent students from taking both English and a foreign language as second/third languages.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will reduce the total number of languages offered by the CBSE board.
- D.It will apply only to schools located in metropolitan cities.
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Explanation
The article mentions that with the requirement of at least two Indian languages, and English being considered a foreign language under the new curriculum which allows only one foreign language, students taking the Class 10 board exam in 2031 are 'not likely to be able to take the exam in both the English subject and a foreign language as the second or third language.'
Under which article of the Constitution can a Governor reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President?
- A.Article 123
- B.Article 200✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 213
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
Article 200 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of the Governor regarding assent to Bills passed by the State Legislature. It explicitly provides for the option to reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President.
Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and constitutional provisions mentioned in the news:
1. The UCC is a Fundamental Right enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.
2. Subjects like marriage and divorce fall exclusively under the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
3. Article 200 empowers the Governor to reserve a Bill for the President's consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: UCC is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 44 (Part IV), not a Fundamental Right (Part III). Statement 2 is incorrect: Subjects like marriage and divorce are in the Concurrent List (List III), not the State List. Statement 3 is correct as per Article 200, which is the core legal point raised in the news article.
Which state's Governor has been urged to withhold assent to a Uniform Civil Code Bill, as per the news article?
- A.Uttarakhand
- B.Gujarat✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madhya Pradesh
- D.Assam
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the Minority Coordination Committee (MCC) Gujarat has requested Governor Acharya Devvrat (the Governor of Gujarat) to withhold assent to the UCC legislation.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the MCC Gujarat regarding the state-level UCC enactment, as per the article?
- A.It violates the Fundamental Right to Equality under Article 14.
- B.It encroaches upon the Union List subjects reserved for Parliament.
- C.It raises questions about consistency with central laws on Concurrent List subjects.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It undermines the financial autonomy of the state.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the MCC convener stating that the enactment 'raises questions about consistency with central laws and the possibility of legal fragmentation across states' because matters like marriage and divorce fall within the Concurrent List. This is the core federalism concern highlighted.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), mentioned in the news, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Civil Aviation
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is a Defence Public Sector Undertaking (DPSU) owned by the Government of India and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. It is responsible for the design and manufacture of aircraft and aerospace equipment for the Indian armed forces.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. HAL CMD stated that military supplies from Israel are delayed due to the ongoing conflict, but India has adequate stocks for the current year.
2. The CATS Warrior UCAV being developed by HAL is a high-cost, low-observable drone similar to the Iranian Shahed drones.
3. For the Tejas Mk 1A aircraft, HAL has five jets ready and is awaiting the delivery of 20 engines from GE Aerospace between June and December.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states HAL is NOT going into the space of small, low-cost drones like Shahed, but is focusing on the larger, more complex CATS Warrior. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article regarding the Tejas Mk 1A status.
According to the HAL CMD, what is the weight class of the CATS Warrior UCAV prototype currently under development?
- A.1-tonne
- B.3-tonne✓ Correct Answer
- C.5-tonne
- D.7-tonne
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the HAL CMD stating, "Today, we are building a 3-tonne prototype, and then this will gradually increase in class, from 3 tonne to five and seven tonne." The other options are target future weight classes.
What is a key strategic lesson that HAL is drawing from the ongoing conflicts, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To focus on manufacturing small, low-cost swarm drones similar to the Iranian Shahed.
- B.To reduce dependency on all foreign suppliers immediately.
- C.To prioritize the indigenous development of larger, more complex Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicles (UCAVs).✓ Correct Answer
- D.To halt all imports from conflict-prone regions.
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Explanation
The article states that HAL is putting its weight behind the CATS Warrior UCAV project and explicitly mentions it is NOT going into the space of small, low-cost drones (like Shahed) where many players already exist. This indicates a strategic choice to focus on higher-end, indigenous UCAV development.
Which US governmental office is responsible for conducting the Section 301 investigations mentioned in the news?
- A.United States Department of Commerce
- B.Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United States International Trade Commission
- D.United States Department of the Treasury
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions USTR (United States Trade Representative) as the body launching the Section 301 investigations. USTR is the lead agency for developing and coordinating US international trade policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. India is seeking preferential market access for its products in the US under a trade agreement.
2. The US has initiated Section 301 investigations against India citing structural excess capacity and failure to prohibit forced labor imports.
3. India supported a permanent extension of the WTO moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions at the MC14.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal's remarks. Statement 2 is correct as the article details the two Section 301 investigations. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India was against a permanent moratorium and backed only a 4-5 year extension.
According to the USTR, what was the value of India's bilateral trade surplus with the United States in 2025?
- A.$48 billion
- B.$58 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$68 billion
- D.$78 billion
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Explanation
The article states: "USTR said, in 2025, India had a bilateral trade surplus with the United States of $58 billion." The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is a primary reason cited by the US for initiating a Section 301 investigation against India, as per the article?
- A.India's imposition of high tariffs on US agricultural products.
- B.India's structural excess capacity and overproduction in sectors like solar modules and steel.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India's violation of intellectual property rights related to pharmaceuticals.
- D.India's restrictions on data localization for US tech companies.
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions one investigation cited "structural excess capacity and overproduction in certain manufacturing sectors" and gives examples like solar modules and steel. The other options, while potential trade issues, are not mentioned in this specific article.
According to the article, which institution is the lead author of the Global Burden of Disease (GBD) 2023 study on childhood cancer?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- C.Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states Lisa Force, the lead author, is from the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation at the University of Washington School of Medicine. The GBD study is coordinated by IHME.
Consider the following statements regarding childhood cancer burden as per the GBD 2023 study:
1. Childhood cancer was the eighth leading cause of death among children globally in 2023.
2. In India, childhood cancer was the tenth leading cause of death among children in 2023.
3. The national cancer control programme in India includes screening for childhood cancers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: childhood cancers were the eighth leading cause of death globally. Statement 2 is also correct: in India, childhood cancers were the tenth leading cause. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states childhood cancer is NOT included in India's national cancer control planning, which screens only for oral, cervical, and breast cancers.
According to the GBD 2023 study published in The Lancet, what percentage of global childhood cancer deaths in 2023 were concentrated in low and middle-income countries?
- A.85%
- B.90%
- C.94%✓ Correct Answer
- D.96%
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Explanation
The article states: "94% of the deaths in 2023 were concentrated in low and middle income countries." 85% is the percentage of new cases, not deaths. 90% and 96% are close distractors not mentioned.
What is the primary reason, as highlighted by the study authors, for the disproportionate burden of childhood cancer deaths in low and middle-income countries?
- A.Higher genetic predisposition to cancer in these populations.
- B.Lack of inclusion in national cancer control plans and health system limitations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Increased environmental pollution exclusively in these regions.
- D.Lower vaccination rates leading to compromised immunity.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that outcomes are determined by resource availability and highlights delays in diagnosis, lack of access to treatment, and other health system limitations as key contributors. Dr. Radhakrishnan specifically calls for urgent inclusion in national plans. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 2 April 2026?▼
This page contains 188 current affairs questions from 2 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 2 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. ministry is primarily responsible for internal security operat…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Left W…
- Q3. According to the article, how many Maoists were 'neutralised' …
- Q4. As per the editorial's argument, what is the critical next ste…
- Q5. constitutional article deals with the power of the Governor to…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Madras …
- Q7. The Madras High Court Full Bench delivered its ruling clarifyi…
- Q8. is the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Madr…
- Q9. Under which ministry does the Office of the Registrar General …
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2027: 1. P…
- Q11. From which date was the self-enumeration facility for Census 2…
- Q12. is a primary intended benefit of introducing the self-enumerat…
- Q13. ministry is primarily associated with the Jan Vishwas (Amendme…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (A…
- Q15. According to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2…
- Q16. is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Prov…
- Q17. space agency launched the Artemis II mission mentioned in the …
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mis…
- Q19. is the planned duration of the Artemis II crewed mission aroun…
- Q20. is a primary strategic objective of the Artemis program, as hi…
- Q21. ministry is primarily associated with the Jan Vishwas (Amendme…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (A…
- Q23. According to the news article, how many Central Acts does the …
- Q24. is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Prov…
- Q25. is the constitutional head of the Union Territory of Jammu and…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q27. of the following tourist destinations in Jammu and Kashmir was…
- Q28. was a key criticism levied by BJP legislators against the J&K …
- Q29. international agency's data on electric vehicle adoption and o…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the global energy …
- Q31. According to the article, by how much did electric vehicles di…
- Q32. is the core strategic dilemma for India, as highlighted in the…
- Q33. As per the article, which ministry releases the official data …
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the decline of Mao…
- Q35. According to the Union Home Ministry data cited in the article…
- Q36. As per the article's analysis, what is the primary challenge f…
- Q37. of the following is a Credit Rating Agency mentioned in the ar…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the credit rating …
- Q39. According to the article, what was the upgrade-to-downgrade (U…
- Q40. is the primary reason cited by credit rating agencies for a po…
- Q41. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 is primarily assoc…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q43. Until what date has the tenure of the OBC Political Representa…
- Q44. is the primary reason cited for the delay in local body electi…
- Q45. The article mentions that Kuwait's Foreign Minister criticized…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the West Asia secu…
- Q47. According to the article, in which year did China broker a pub…
- Q48. is a primary implication for India, as suggested by the articl…
- Q49. professional medical body recommended the screen time guidelin…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of earl…
- Q51. According to the article, what is the average daily screen tim…
- Q52. is identified as a primary reason for the drastic mental healt…
- Q53. The 1973 oil price crisis was initiated by members of which in…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the 1973 oil crisi…
- Q55. According to the article, by how much did India's oil import b…
- Q56. was a significant long-term global economic consequence of the…
- Q57. article of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Prin…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding personal laws ment…
- Q59. According to the Muslim Personal Law as discussed in the artic…
- Q60. is a key concern raised in the article regarding the implement…
- Q61. organization, mentioned in the article, published a report on …
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding India's power sect…
- Q63. According to the article, how much renewable energy was curtai…
- Q64. is the primary operational challenge of coal-based power plant…
- Q65. institution is responsible for managing India's foreign exchan…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent pressur…
- Q67. According to the article, what was the approximate value of In…
- Q68. is the primary argument presented in the article regarding the…
- Q69. is the current Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS) of India as ment…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q71. According to the Navy Chief, how many ships and submarines wer…
- Q72. is the primary strategic implication of the Navy Chief's revel…
- Q73. constitutional article guarantees that a person arrested shall…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Rajasth…
- Q75. As per the Rajasthan High Court judgment, for which category o…
- Q76. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court guidelines refer…
- Q77. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the a…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the economic impli…
- Q79. According to the article, what percentage of India's LNG (Liqu…
- Q80. is the primary critique of the international response to the W…
- Q81. High Court deprecated the lawyer for attaching indecent screen…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q83. According to the article, what was the amount of money the acc…
- Q84. was the primary reason the Allahabad High Court deprecated the…
- Q85. constitutional body has the Supreme Court directed to requisit…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the incident menti…
- Q87. For how many hours were the seven judicial officers held hosta…
- Q88. was the Supreme Court's primary rationale for directing the El…
- Q89. government body is primarily responsible for implementing cust…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the recent news on…
- Q91. According to the news, how many petrochemical products have be…
- Q92. is the primary economic objective of the government's decision…
- Q93. regulatory body's Secretary, Anjan Kumar Mishra, stated that d…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding India's push for P…
- Q95. According to the article, what is the Ministry of Petroleum an…
- Q96. is a primary strategic advantage of shifting from LPG to PNG f…
- Q97. ministry is primarily responsible for the policy framework gov…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding India's defence ex…
- Q99. According to the Defence Minister, what was the approximate va…
- Q100. does the significant growth in India's defence exports, as hig…
- Q101. state agency is the nodal body for implementing renewable ener…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's pe…
- Q103. According to the article, what was the total installed rooftop…
- Q104. is a key socio-economic benefit of Uttar Pradesh's rooftop sol…
- Q105. Operation Sankalp, mentioned in the context of securing mariti…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the energy crisis …
- Q107. According to the article, what approximate percentage of the o…
- Q108. is identified in the article as a primary strategic lesson fro…
- Q109. Under which Act has NCERT been granted the 'Deemed to be Unive…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding NCERT's new 'Deeme…
- Q111. many regional institutes of education are constituent units of…
- Q112. is a key implication of NCERT's new deemed university status r…
- Q113. High Court delivered the landmark judgment expanding the scope…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Kerala …
- Q115. According to the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (N…
- Q116. was the primary legal interpretation made by the Kerala High C…
- Q117. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q119. The Supreme Court bench that heard the matter regarding the ho…
- Q120. was the primary constitutional principle underscored by the Su…
- Q121. department under the Ministry of Defence is primarily responsi…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding India's defence ex…
- Q123. According to the news, what was the value of defence exports c…
- Q124. does the significant surge in India's defence exports primaril…
- Q125. two national bodies are mentioned as institutionalizing the ne…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the new AI curricu…
- Q127. According to the article, from which class did the earlier 15-…
- Q128. is the primary objective behind introducing Computational Thin…
- Q129. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the office o…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the CAG report on …
- Q131. According to the CAG report cited in the news, what was the ap…
- Q132. is the primary implication of the CAG's finding of a large ces…
- Q133. Under which article of the Indian Constitution are Scheduled C…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the sub-classifica…
- Q135. According to the 2011 Census, what percentage of Maharashtra's…
- Q136. is the primary political objective behind the Maharashtra gove…
- Q137. The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI mentioned in the news is comp…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the news about Ind…
- Q139. was the value of the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI in February …
- Q140. According to the article, what was a key positive highlight fo…
- Q141. ministry conducts the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector E…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of AS…
- Q143. According to ASUSE 2025, what percentage of workers in the uni…
- Q144. is a key implication of the finding that wage growth (3.88%) i…
- Q145. Under which constitutional article does the State have the pow…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the 5% reservation…
- Q147. According to the article, what was the percentage of reservati…
- Q148. is the primary legal ground on which the petitioner in the new…
- Q149. country holds the presidency of the United Nations Security Co…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic dev…
- Q151. According to the article, approximately how many Indian citize…
- Q152. is described in the article as the 'single most important stra…
- Q153. organization is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmeda…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
- Q155. As per the latest update, how many kilometers of the 21-km tun…
- Q156. is a primary advantage of using the New Austrian Tunneling Met…
- Q157. US government agency released the 2026 report criticizing Indi…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the USTR's 2026 re…
- Q159. According to data obtained through an RTI request mentioned in…
- Q160. is a primary concern raised by the USTR report regarding the p…
- Q161. regulatory body issued the directive banning banks from Non-De…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding Non-Deliverable De…
- Q163. Following the RBI's ban on NDD contracts, to what level did th…
- Q164. is the primary objective behind the RBI's move to ban banks fr…
- Q165. ministry was responsible for issuing the official statement on…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the news about the…
- Q167. According to the article, how many Indian-flagged vessels with…
- Q168. was the primary objective of the 60-nation meeting convened by…
- Q169. The new CBSE curriculum discussed in the news is aligned with …
- Q170. Consider the following statements regarding the new CBSE curri…
- Q171. According to the new CBSE curriculum, from which academic sess…
- Q172. is a key implication of the new CBSE rule requiring students t…
- Q173. Under which article of the Constitution can a Governor reserve…
- Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil …
- Q175. state's Governor has been urged to withhold assent to a Unifor…
- Q176. is the primary constitutional concern raised by the MCC Gujara…
- Q177. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), mentioned in the news, op…
- Q178. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q179. According to the HAL CMD, what is the weight class of the CATS…
- Q180. is a key strategic lesson that HAL is drawing from the ongoing…
- Q181. US governmental office is responsible for conducting the Secti…
- Q182. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
- Q183. According to the USTR, what was the value of India's bilateral…
- Q184. is a primary reason cited by the US for initiating a Section 3…
- Q185. According to the article, which institution is the lead author…
- Q186. Consider the following statements regarding childhood cancer b…
- Q187. According to the GBD 2023 study published in The Lancet, what …
- Q188. is the primary reason, as highlighted by the study authors, fo…