4 April 2026, Questions & Answers

116 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

116 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  24 min revision

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This page contains 116 current affairs questions with answers from 4 April 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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4 April 2026, Questions with Answers

116 Qs
Q1.

The development of India's nuclear-powered submarine program, including INS Aridaman, has involved collaboration with which foreign country, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United States of America
  • B.France
  • C.Russia✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Germany
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India's nuclear-powered submarine project was initiated more than three decades ago with help from Russia. Germany is mentioned in the context of the conventional submarine Project-75I, not the nuclear submarine program.

Source: INS Aridaman (SSBN) Inducted, Boosts India's Nuclear Triad with 8 Missile Tubes & 7,000-tonne Vessel →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines (SSBNs):

1. INS Arihant, commissioned in 2016, conducted India's first nuclear deterrence patrol in 2018.

2. INS Aridaman is powered by an 83 MW pressurised light-water nuclear reactor, similar to its predecessors.

3. The K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM), which can be carried by INS Aridaman, has a range of over 3,500 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states INS Aridaman is powered by advanced reactors understood to be an upgrade, and that the 83 MW reactors power INS Arihant and INS Arighaat. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Source: INS Aridaman (SSBN) Inducted, Boosts India's Nuclear Triad with 8 Missile Tubes & 7,000-tonne Vessel →
Q3.

As per the article, what is the displacement (tonnage) of the newly inducted nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine, INS Aridaman?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6,000 tonnes
  • B.7,000 tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.8,000 tonnes
  • D.9,000 tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that INS Aridaman is a 7,000-tonne vessel. INS Arighaat is noted as a 6,000-tonne vessel, making it a close distractor.

Source: INS Aridaman (SSBN) Inducted, Boosts India's Nuclear Triad with 8 Missile Tubes & 7,000-tonne Vessel →
Q4.

What is the primary strategic significance of inducting INS Aridaman, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enhance India's blue-water naval capabilities for conventional warfare.
  • B.To provide a credible sea-based second-strike capability, reinforcing nuclear deterrence.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To directly counter the conventional submarine strength of neighboring countries.
  • D.To lead international peacekeeping operations in the Indian Ocean.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that SSBNs like INS Aridaman guarantee India's second-strike capability, establishing deterrence as per its 'No First Use' policy. This is their primary strategic role, distinct from conventional warfare or peacekeeping.

Source: INS Aridaman (SSBN) Inducted, Boosts India's Nuclear Triad with 8 Missile Tubes & 7,000-tonne Vessel →
Q5.

Which Indian organization, mentioned in the article, was involved in the nuclear submarine project alongside private firms and with Russian help?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
  • D.Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India's nuclear-powered submarine project was initiated more than three decades ago, involving both private firms and the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), with help from Russia.

Source: INS Aridaman (7,000-tonne) Inducted: India's 3rd SSBN Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 Missiles (3,500 km range) →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding INS Aridaman:

1. It is India's third indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN).

2. It is powered by an 83 MW pressurised light-water nuclear reactor, similar to its predecessors.

3. It can carry the K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missile which has a range of more than 700 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; while INS Arihant and INS Arighaat have 83 MW reactors, INS Aridaman is powered by advanced reactors understood to be an upgrade. Statement 3 is incorrect; the K-4 missile has a range of 3,500 km, while the K-15 missile has a range of more than 700 km.

Source: INS Aridaman (7,000-tonne) Inducted: India's 3rd SSBN Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 Missiles (3,500 km range) →
Q7.

As per the article, what is the displacement tonnage of the newly inducted INS Aridaman?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6,000 tonnes
  • B.7,000 tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.8,000 tonnes
  • D.9,000 tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that INS Aridaman is a 7,000-tonne vessel. INS Arighaat, inducted in 2024, is a 6,000-tonne vessel.

Source: INS Aridaman (7,000-tonne) Inducted: India's 3rd SSBN Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 Missiles (3,500 km range) →
Q8.

What is the primary strategic significance of inducting a nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) like INS Aridaman, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enhance India's blue-water navy capabilities for humanitarian missions.
  • B.To guarantee India's second-strike capability and strengthen nuclear deterrence.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace the ageing fleet of conventional diesel-electric submarines.
  • D.To conduct deep-sea research and exploration missions.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that SSBNs guarantee India's second-strike capability. Should an adversary deliver a first nuclear strike, an SSBN can launch a retaliatory attack, which is central to India's nuclear doctrine of 'No First Use' and establishes credible deterrence.

Source: INS Aridaman (7,000-tonne) Inducted: India's 3rd SSBN Strengthens Nuclear Triad with K-4 Missiles (3,500 km range) →
Q9.

Which ministry is responsible for the classification of districts affected by Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Defence
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has re-categorised the LWE-affected districts. The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security, including matters related to extremism and insurgency.

Source: INS Aridhaman (S4) Commissioned as 3rd Arihant-class SSBN, India's Nuclear Triad Strengthened →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. INS Aridhaman is India's second indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine.

2. The number of districts categorised as affected by Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) in 2026 is 38.

3. The Supreme Court has ruled that election petitions can be stalled until fresh evidence is unearthed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: INS Aridhaman is the third, not the second, indigenously built SSBN (after Arihant and Arighat). Statement 2 is correct: The article states the number of LWE-affected districts remains 38. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court observed it was impermissible to stall election petition proceedings for fresh evidence; they must be decided on the material on record.

Source: INS Aridhaman (S4) Commissioned as 3rd Arihant-class SSBN, India's Nuclear Triad Strengthened →
Q11.

According to the news, how many districts in India were categorised as affected by Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) in 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.35
  • B.38✓ Correct Answer
  • C.42
  • D.45
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the number of districts in the LWE category remains unchanged at 38 compared to 2024–25. This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Source: INS Aridhaman (S4) Commissioned as 3rd Arihant-class SSBN, India's Nuclear Triad Strengthened →
Q12.

What is the primary strategic significance of commissioning INS Aridhaman, as per the news?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To enhance India's coastal surveillance capabilities
  • B.To strengthen the sea-based leg of India's nuclear triad✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To counter piracy in the Indian Ocean Region
  • D.To serve as a training platform for naval personnel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the submarine "falls under the domain of the Strategic Forces and is part of the country’s nuclear triad." Its primary role is to provide a secure, second-strike capability from the sea, which is the core of a nuclear triad's submarine leg. The other options are secondary or unrelated functions.

Source: INS Aridhaman (S4) Commissioned as 3rd Arihant-class SSBN, India's Nuclear Triad Strengthened →
Q13.

Which body oversees the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • D.Competition Commission of India (CCI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the IBC framework mentioned in the article, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) oversees the corporate insolvency resolution process. The amendment Bill mandates NCLT to admit applications once default is proven.

Source: India Inducts 7,000-tonne Nuclear Submarine INS Aridaman; Passes IBC Amendment Bill 2026 & US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the news:

1. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026 introduces a Creditor-initiated Insolvency Resolution Process (CIIRP) requiring agreement from at least 51% of financial creditors.

2. The US tariff of 100% applies to both patented and generic pharmaceutical imports from India starting July 31.

3. INS Aridaman is India's first nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), commissioned in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the US tariff applies only to patented pharmaceuticals, with generic drugs exempt 'at this time'. Statement 3 is incorrect; INS Aridaman is the third SSBN, not the first. INS Arihant was the first, commissioned in 2016.

Source: India Inducts 7,000-tonne Nuclear Submarine INS Aridaman; Passes IBC Amendment Bill 2026 & US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma →
Q15.

According to the article, what is the financial outlay for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Pharmaceuticals approved by the Union Cabinet?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹5,000 crore
  • B.₹10,000 crore
  • C.₹15,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹20,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the PLI Scheme for Pharmaceuticals was approved with a financial outlay of Rs 15,000 crore. This scheme runs from FY 2022-23 to FY 2027-28.

Source: India Inducts 7,000-tonne Nuclear Submarine INS Aridaman; Passes IBC Amendment Bill 2026 & US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma →
Q16.

What is a primary strategic implication of India's 'No First Use' (NFU) nuclear policy, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It mandates India to always retaliate with nuclear weapons if attacked with chemical weapons.
  • B.It forms the cornerstone of India's nuclear doctrine, emphasizing retaliation only against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or forces.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It allows India to use nuclear weapons preemptively if its conventional forces face imminent defeat.
  • D.It commits India to complete nuclear disarmament within a specified timeframe.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the official release from the 2003 CCS meeting defining NFU: "Nuclear weapons will only be used in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere." This defines the policy's retaliatory and defensive posture.

Source: India Inducts 7,000-tonne Nuclear Submarine INS Aridaman; Passes IBC Amendment Bill 2026 & US Imposes 100% Tariff on Patented Pharma →
Q17.

Which department under the Commerce and Industry Ministry is coordinating the review of pending cases under the Jan Vishwas Bill?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Commerce
  • B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion
  • D.Department of Economic Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Secretary Amardeep Singh Bhatia of DPIIT speaking about coordinating with the law ministry and departments regarding the withdrawal of cases. DPIIT is the nodal department for this initiative.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 Decriminalises 1000 Offences in 79 Laws; 5 Crore Cases to be Reviewed for Withdrawal →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026:

1. It decriminalises minor offences by amending provisions in 79 central laws.

2. It proposes amendments only under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

3. An estimated five crore pending court cases relate to the minor offences covered by the bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill amends 79 central laws. Statement 2 is incorrect; the bill proposes amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994, AND the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (among others), not only the MV Act. Statement 3 is correct as Minister Piyush Goyal cited the estimate of 5 crore pending cases.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 Decriminalises 1000 Offences in 79 Laws; 5 Crore Cases to be Reviewed for Withdrawal →
Q19.

According to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, how many provisions across central laws are being amended for decriminalisation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.500 provisions
  • B.684 provisions
  • C.784 provisions✓ Correct Answer
  • D.900 provisions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bill amends 784 provisions in 79 central laws. The other numbers are close distractors.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 Decriminalises 1000 Offences in 79 Laws; 5 Crore Cases to be Reviewed for Withdrawal →
Q20.

What is a primary expected outcome of the directive to withdraw pending cases under the decriminalised offences of the Jan Vishwas Bill?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue from fines
  • B.To significantly reduce the load on the judiciary✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer cases from civil to criminal courts
  • D.To centralise all legal proceedings in Delhi
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Commerce Ministry official stating that withdrawing such cases would 'significantly reduce load on the judiciary'. Easing the judicial backlog is a core objective, alongside promoting ease of living and business.

Source: Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 Decriminalises 1000 Offences in 79 Laws; 5 Crore Cases to be Reviewed for Withdrawal →
Q21.

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) falls primarily under the administrative control of which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA grants FCRA registration and monitors compliance, making it the nodal ministry for regulating foreign contributions in India.

Source: FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 Proposes 'Designated Authority' to Seize Assets of NGOs Losing Registration →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed FCRA amendments mentioned in the article:

1. The amendment proposes a 'designated authority' to seize assets of organisations that lose their FCRA licence.

2. The asset seizure process requires a prior judicial determination or court order.

3. The FCRA was first enacted in the year 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the process is 'automatic and instantaneous... requiring no judicial determination'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the FCRA was first enacted in 1976, not 2010 (2010 was the year of reenactment).

Source: FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 Proposes 'Designated Authority' to Seize Assets of NGOs Losing Registration →
Q23.

According to the article, in which year was the Bill to amend the FCRA introduced in the Lok Sabha?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2020
  • B.2024
  • C.2025
  • D.2026✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Introduced in the Lok Sabha on March 25, 2026'. The years 2020 and 2024 are related to previous amendments and data disallowance respectively, making them close distractors.

Source: FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 Proposes 'Designated Authority' to Seize Assets of NGOs Losing Registration →
Q24.

What is a primary criticism, as per the article, of the proposed FCRA amendment regarding asset seizure?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will increase the administrative burden on the judiciary.
  • B.It violates principles of natural justice by lacking judicial oversight.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It applies only to religious institutions and not secular NGOs.
  • D.It mandates prior parliamentary approval for each seizure case.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core criticism is procedural unfairness. It argues that automatic seizure 'requiring no judicial determination' violates natural justice. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 Proposes 'Designated Authority' to Seize Assets of NGOs Losing Registration →
Q25.

As per the article, which body in Kerala is responsible for formal state planning and is headed by a Vice-Chairperson?

EasyUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Kerala State Finance Commission
  • B.Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board
  • C.Kerala State Planning Board✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Kerala State Development Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions V.K. Ramachandran as the Vice-Chairperson of the Kerala State Planning Board. This body is highlighted as enabling Kerala to sustain a formal planning process.

Source: Kerala's 2016-26 Development Decade Achieves 5 IMR, 5 Lakh LIFE Houses, 147% Startup Growth Despite Fiscal Constraints →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's development as mentioned in the article:

1. Kerala is the only Indian state to sustain a formal planning process after the dissolution of the Planning Commission.

2. The share of budgetary funds for SC/ST communities in Kerala is less than their population share in the state.

3. The Kerala Bank was created by consolidating urban cooperative banks into a single institution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the share of funds 'exceeded' the population share. Statement 3 is incorrect; Kerala Bank was created by consolidating 'district cooperative banks', not urban cooperative banks.

Source: Kerala's 2016-26 Development Decade Achieves 5 IMR, 5 Lakh LIFE Houses, 147% Startup Growth Despite Fiscal Constraints →
Q27.

According to the article, what is the infant mortality rate (IMR) achieved by Kerala, as highlighted in its public health performance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 per 1,000 live births✓ Correct Answer
  • B.12 per 1,000 live births
  • C.22 per 1,000 live births
  • D.30 per 1,000 live births
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Kerala's key health indicators include an infant mortality rate of just five per 1,000 live births, which is noted to be better than the United States.

Source: Kerala's 2016-26 Development Decade Achieves 5 IMR, 5 Lakh LIFE Houses, 147% Startup Growth Despite Fiscal Constraints →
Q28.

What is identified as a primary constraint on Kerala's capacity to finance its development model, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of private sector investment
  • B.Structurally imbalanced federal fiscal architecture✓ Correct Answer
  • C.High levels of state government debt
  • D.Inadequate revenue from state GST
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details that Kerala's development is constrained by a structurally imbalanced federal fiscal architecture, citing centralisation under GST, withdrawal of compensation, restrictive borrowing limits, and reliance on conditional transfers as key challenges.

Source: Kerala's 2016-26 Development Decade Achieves 5 IMR, 5 Lakh LIFE Houses, 147% Startup Growth Despite Fiscal Constraints →
Q29.

As per the news, which state's Health Department issued the directive on mandatory reporting of minor pregnancies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Maharashtra
  • B.Karnataka✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Tamil Nadu
  • D.Kerala
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'Karnataka's Health Department' has issued the directive. This is a direct factual recall from the news text.

Source: Karnataka Health Dept Mandates POCSO Reporting for Minor Pregnancies in Private Hospitals, Legal Action for Non-Compliance →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the directive issued by Karnataka Health Department:

1. It mandates private hospitals to report pregnancies in girls below 21 years of age.

2. Failure to report will invite legal action against doctors but not hospital managements.

3. Hospitals must also report such cases to Child Helpline 1098.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the reporting age is 'below 18 years', not 21. Statement 2 is incorrect as legal action is against 'both doctors and hospital managements'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's instruction to dial Childline 1098.

Source: Karnataka Health Dept Mandates POCSO Reporting for Minor Pregnancies in Private Hospitals, Legal Action for Non-Compliance →
Q31.

According to the news, what is the emergency helpline number to be dialed for reporting cases of minor pregnancy for child protection?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100
  • B.108
  • C.1098✓ Correct Answer
  • D.112
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly instructs reporting to the 'Child Helpline by dialling Childline 1098'. 100 is police, 108 is for medical emergencies, and 112 is the single emergency number.

Source: Karnataka Health Dept Mandates POCSO Reporting for Minor Pregnancies in Private Hospitals, Legal Action for Non-Compliance →
Q32.

What is the primary objective of the Karnataka Health Department's directive making POCSO reporting mandatory for private hospitals?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase hospital revenue through government schemes
  • B.To reduce the workload of public hospitals
  • C.To ensure legal reporting of minor pregnancies for child protection and rehabilitation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote private health insurance among minors
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The directive aims to close the reporting gap in private healthcare, ensuring all cases of minor pregnancy are reported to authorities (police and Childline) as required by the POCSO Act, thereby facilitating protection and rehabilitation for the child victim.

Source: Karnataka Health Dept Mandates POCSO Reporting for Minor Pregnancies in Private Hospitals, Legal Action for Non-Compliance →
Q33.

Which political party in Taiwan, mentioned in the article, supports peaceful reunification with China and is being engaged by President Xi Jinping?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Democratic Progressive Party (DPP)
  • B.Kuomintang (KMT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Taiwan People's Party (TPP)
  • D.New Power Party (NPP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China uses its strong relationship with Taiwan's main opposition party, the KMT, to propagate its views on unification. It further mentions KMT Chairperson Cheng Li-wun accepting an invitation from Xi.

Source: China’s 5-Point Taiwan Constraint Strategy: Strait Terrain, 90% Chip Supply, PRC Centenary 2049 Goal →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding constraints on China's actions towards Taiwan as per the article:

1. The difficult terrain and lack of viable landing beaches across the Taiwan Strait pose a significant military challenge.

2. A successful invasion of Taiwan is a guaranteed outcome that would enhance President Xi Jinping's domestic stature.

3. Disruption of Taiwan's semiconductor industry, which produces a majority of the world's advanced chips, would severely impact global supply chains and China itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article cites the 'wide expanse of the Taiwan Strait, along with difficult terrain and the lack of viable landing beaches' as challenges. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the opposite—a military failure would 'dent China’s image and put pressure on the Communist Party', diminishing Xi's stature. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes Taiwan produces '90 per cent of the world’s most advanced semiconductors' and a conflict would damage global supply chains impacting China.

Source: China’s 5-Point Taiwan Constraint Strategy: Strait Terrain, 90% Chip Supply, PRC Centenary 2049 Goal →
Q35.

According to the article, what percentage of the world's most advanced semiconductors does Taiwan produce?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.60%
  • B.75%
  • C.90%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.95%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'Taiwan produces 90 per cent of the world’s most advanced semiconductors'. This is a critical fact highlighting Taiwan's economic and strategic significance.

Source: China’s 5-Point Taiwan Constraint Strategy: Strait Terrain, 90% Chip Supply, PRC Centenary 2049 Goal →
Q36.

What is a primary reason, as discussed in the article, that constrains China from launching a full-scale military invasion of Taiwan despite its stated goal of unification?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of international recognition for the 'One China Policy'.
  • B.The guaranteed and immediate military intervention by the United States.
  • C.The catastrophic disruption of the global advanced semiconductor supply chain, which would also harm China's interests.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Taiwan's overwhelming conventional military superiority in naval and air forces.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies economic interdependence, specifically in semiconductors, as a key constraint. It states a military conflict would 'severely damage its capabilities, leading to a complete breakdown of the global supply chain that would impact China as well'. While other factors like US deterrence exist, the article highlights the semiconductor dependency as a distinct and primary economic constraint.

Source: China’s 5-Point Taiwan Constraint Strategy: Strait Terrain, 90% Chip Supply, PRC Centenary 2049 Goal →
Q37.

The Jan Vishwas initiative involves the review and amendment of which major corporate law mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Companies Act✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Factories Act
  • C.Environment Protection Act
  • D.Labour Codes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Jan Vishwas project has 'amended the Companies Act' as part of its decriminalization efforts.

Source: Jan Vishwas Law Decriminalizes 12,500+ Offenses, Amends Companies Act Under World's Largest Compliance Reform →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas initiative:

1. It has decriminalized over 12,500 compliance offenses across more than 950 laws.

2. It was inspired by PM Modi's 2024 address at the Director Generals of Police conference.

3. A single jail provision in the repealed Central Factories Act led to over 8,500 compliance obligations with criminal penalties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is correct as the PM's 2024 DGP conference speech emphasized 'danda with data'. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites this example of bureaucratic rule multiplication.

Source: Jan Vishwas Law Decriminalizes 12,500+ Offenses, Amends Companies Act Under World's Largest Compliance Reform →
Q39.

According to the article, how many cases in the Indian judicial backlog are attributed to the policy of prescribing jail for cheque bouncing?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 lakh
  • B.43 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.12 lakh
  • D.1 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'one act of policy irrationality — prescribing jail for cheque bouncing — accounts for 43 lakh cases' within the 5 crore case backlog.

Source: Jan Vishwas Law Decriminalizes 12,500+ Offenses, Amends Companies Act Under World's Largest Compliance Reform →
Q40.

What is the primary constitutional philosophy shift highlighted by the Jan Vishwas initiative, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.From centralization to decentralization of power.
  • B.From 'Due Process' to 'Procedure Established by Law'.
  • C.From state control and punishment to trust and citizen dignity.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.From judicial activism to legislative supremacy.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that Jan Vishwas represents a shift where the state 'adjusts its grip' and prioritizes trust (jan vishwas) and justice (nyaya) over control (niti) and punishment (danda).

Source: Jan Vishwas Law Decriminalizes 12,500+ Offenses, Amends Companies Act Under World's Largest Compliance Reform →
Q41.

The 'Act East Policy', mentioned in the article as needing reinvigoration, is primarily focused on deepening India's engagement with which region?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Asia and the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
  • B.The Middle East and Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries
  • C.Southeast Asia and the wider Indo-Pacific✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Africa and the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Act East Policy, launched in 2014, is India's foreign policy initiative aimed at strengthening economic and strategic ties with countries in Southeast Asia and the broader Indo-Pacific region, succeeding the earlier Look East Policy.

Source: India's Strategic Imperatives Amid US-China Recalibration: Focus on AI Stack, LAC Deterrence, and Neighbourhood First Policy →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the strategic shifts discussed in the article:

1. The US under Trump views China primarily as a systemic rival in the Indo-Pacific theatre.

2. China's response to the Iran war has been to call for a ceasefire and invoke international law, presenting itself as responsible.

3. India's strategic salience has increased in both Washington and Beijing due to the US-China recalibration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states that in the second Trump administration, China is being seen primarily as an economic competitor rather than a systemic rival, and the Western Hemisphere is elevated above Asia. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that 'India's salience has declined in both capitals', exposing a strategic vulnerability.

Source: India's Strategic Imperatives Amid US-China Recalibration: Focus on AI Stack, LAC Deterrence, and Neighbourhood First Policy →
Q43.

According to the article's analysis, what is the primary reason China currently seeks stability in its relationship with the US?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To prepare for a military conflict over Taiwan
  • B.To deal with economic headwinds and complete its technological self-reliance drive✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a new alliance against European powers
  • D.To reduce its dependence on renewable energy supply chains
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'China seeks stability to deal with economic headwinds, complete its technological self-reliance drive, and buy time in the domains in which it lags.' The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.

Source: India's Strategic Imperatives Amid US-China Recalibration: Focus on AI Stack, LAC Deterrence, and Neighbourhood First Policy →
Q44.

What is the core strategic imperative for India regarding economic and technological resilience, as outlined in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Complete alignment with the US technological stack to counter China
  • B.Pursue 'dual de-risking' to reduce dependencies on both China and the US✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Join middle-power coalitions to set global technology rules
  • D.Increase dependency on Chinese critical inputs for cost efficiency
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states India must 'build economic and technological resilience through dual de-risking, vis-à-vis both China and the US.' This involves reducing dependencies on China while avoiding new dependencies on the US in domains like AI, and investing in a sovereign AI stack.

Source: India's Strategic Imperatives Amid US-China Recalibration: Focus on AI Stack, LAC Deterrence, and Neighbourhood First Policy →
Q45.

Which space agency is the primary leader of the Artemis program mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.European Space Agency (ESA)
  • D.Roscosmos (Russian Space Agency)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Artemis program is a NASA-led international human spaceflight program. While it involves collaboration with other agencies and countries, NASA is the primary architect and lead, as indicated by the mission's context and objectives.

Source: Artemis II Mission to Test Moon South Pole Exploration for 2028 Landing, 50+ Nations Signed Artemis Accords →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mission:

1. It aims to land astronauts on the Moon's South Pole.

2. It is the first crewed mission to head towards the Moon since the Apollo program ended in 1972.

3. The mission operates under the binding legal framework of the Outer Space Treaty of 1967 only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Artemis II is a preparatory mission to test systems; it does not involve a landing (planned for Artemis III in 2028). Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: while the Outer Space Treaty applies, the mission specifically operates under the principles of the non-binding Artemis Accords, which involve over 50 countries.

Source: Artemis II Mission to Test Moon South Pole Exploration for 2028 Landing, 50+ Nations Signed Artemis Accords →
Q47.

According to the article, how many years had passed since the last human mission headed towards the Moon before the Artemis II launch?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 years
  • B.51 years
  • C.52 years
  • D.53 years✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The last time humans headed toward the Moon was more than 53 years ago." The last Apollo mission was in 1972, and Artemis II launched in 2026, making it a gap of 54 years, but the article's phrasing "more than 53 years" closely aligns with the 53-year option as the most accurate choice given.

Source: Artemis II Mission to Test Moon South Pole Exploration for 2028 Landing, 50+ Nations Signed Artemis Accords →
Q48.

What is the primary strategic significance of exploring the Moon's South Pole, as highlighted in the Artemis mission?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish permanent human colonies for tourism
  • B.To mine rare minerals for terrestrial economic use
  • C.To access water ice for producing fuel and life support✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To win a new space race against a single competitor
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that deposits of ice at the South Pole "can provide drinking water and produce oxygen and hydrogen, which can then fuel rockets." This in-situ resource utilization (ISRU) is key to sustainable exploration, making the Moon a launchpad for deeper space missions, which is the core strategic objective mentioned.

Source: Artemis II Mission to Test Moon South Pole Exploration for 2028 Landing, 50+ Nations Signed Artemis Accords →
Q49.

Which regulatory body of China issued the draft rules to govern 'digital humans'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Industry and Information Technology (MIIT)
  • B.Cyberspace Administration of China (CAC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Development and Reform Commission (NDRC)
  • D.State Administration for Market Regulation (SAMR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Cyberspace Administration of China (CAC) issued the draft regulations. The CAC is China's central internet regulator, making it the nodal body for such cyberspace governance rules.

Source: China's CAC Issues Draft Rules: Mandates 'Digital Human' Labeling, Bans Virtual Intimate Services for Under-18s Until May 6 →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the draft regulations on digital humans issued by China:

1. They mandate prominent 'digital human' labels on all virtual human content.

2. They prohibit the use of digital humans to bypass identity verification systems.

3. They allow digital humans to provide virtual intimate relationships to minors under strict parental supervision.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the rules require prominent labeling. Statement 2 is correct as the draft bans using virtual humans to bypass identity verification. Statement 3 is incorrect; the rules explicitly prohibit digital humans from providing 'virtual intimate relationships' to those under 18 without any exception for supervision.

Source: China's CAC Issues Draft Rules: Mandates 'Digital Human' Labeling, Bans Virtual Intimate Services for Under-18s Until May 6 →
Q51.

Until what date is the draft regulation on digital humans open for public comment, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 30, 2026
  • B.May 6, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 15, 2026
  • D.June 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the rules were published for public comment until May 6. This is a precise data point often targeted in prelims-style questions.

Source: China's CAC Issues Draft Rules: Mandates 'Digital Human' Labeling, Bans Virtual Intimate Services for Under-18s Until May 6 →
Q52.

What is a primary objective of China's draft regulations on digital humans, as inferred from the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote unrestricted innovation in the AI and virtual human industry.
  • B.To fill the governance gap and set clear boundaries for the industry's development.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ban all forms of digital human services for national security reasons.
  • D.To transfer regulatory control of the internet to private corporations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the rules aim to 'fill a gap in governance' and set 'clear red lines for the healthy development of the industry'. While other options mention elements (like national security), the primary objective is establishing a regulatory framework for controlled growth.

Source: China's CAC Issues Draft Rules: Mandates 'Digital Human' Labeling, Bans Virtual Intimate Services for Under-18s Until May 6 →
Q53.

Which ISRO centre is leading the recently announced Mission MITRA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC)
  • B.Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC)
  • D.Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Mission MITRA is led by ISRO's Human Space Flight Centre. HSFC, based in Bangalore, is the nodal centre for the Gaganyaan human spaceflight program.

Source: ISRO Launches Mission MITRA to Test 4 Gaganyaan Astronauts in Ladakh's Extreme Conditions for Crew Interoperability →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding Mission MITRA:

1. It is an analog mission being conducted in the wilderness of Ladakh to test gaganyatris.

2. Its primary objective is to test the new launch vehicle technology for the Gaganyaan mission.

3. It is being conducted in partnership with the Institute of Aerospace Medicine of the Indian Air Force.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states Mission MITRA is testing astronauts in Ladakh's extreme conditions. Statement 2 is incorrect: The objective is to assess crew interoperability and human performance, not launch vehicle technology. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions partnership with the Institute of Aerospace Medicine of the IAF.

Source: ISRO Launches Mission MITRA to Test 4 Gaganyaan Astronauts in Ladakh's Extreme Conditions for Crew Interoperability →
Q55.

According to the news, in which month and year is Mission MITRA scheduled to take place in Leh?

MediumSSC, Banking
  • A.March 2026
  • B.April 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 2026
  • D.June 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Mission MITRA is taking place between April 2-9, 2026, in Leh. The published date of the article is also April 04, 2026, confirming the timeframe.

Source: ISRO Launches Mission MITRA to Test 4 Gaganyaan Astronauts in Ladakh's Extreme Conditions for Crew Interoperability →
Q56.

What is the primary rationale cited by ISRO for choosing Ladakh as the location for Mission MITRA?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Proximity to ISRO's launch facilities
  • B.Availability of advanced medical infrastructure
  • C.Its environmental conditions are analogous to spaceflight✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Lower cost of operations compared to other locations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ladakh's low temperatures, hypoxia, and isolation are analogous to spaceflight conditions, making it an ideal testbed. This is the core reason for selecting the location, not cost or infrastructure.

Source: ISRO Launches Mission MITRA to Test 4 Gaganyaan Astronauts in Ladakh's Extreme Conditions for Crew Interoperability →
Q57.

Under which article of the Constitution does the Supreme Court have the power to grant special leave to appeal, as exercised in this bank manager dismissal case?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 136✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 142
  • D.Article 226
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 136 grants the Supreme Court special leave to appeal from any judgment or order by any court or tribunal in India. This discretionary power was the basis for the Supreme Court hearing the bank's appeal against the Delhi High Court order.

Source: SC Restores Dismissal of Punjab & Sind Bank Senior Manager, Rejects Parity Principle Between Manager and Gunman →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment in the Punjab & Sind Bank dismissal case:

1. The Court held that the principle of parity in punishment can be applied uniformly regardless of an employee's rank.

2. The judgment stated that courts can act as appellate authorities over disciplinary decisions on compassionate grounds.

3. The Court emphasized that the 'Doctrine of Proportionality' is a recognized ground for judicial interference but must be applied sparingly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court explicitly rejected applying parity uniformly, stressing that rank and responsibility matter. Statement 2 is incorrect, as the Court reaffirmed limits on judicial review and stated courts should not substitute their views. Statement 3 is correct, as the judgment detailed the application of the Doctrine of Proportionality.

Source: SC Restores Dismissal of Punjab & Sind Bank Senior Manager, Rejects Parity Principle Between Manager and Gunman →
Q59.

In the Supreme Court case regarding the Punjab & Sind Bank manager, what was the original punishment imposed by the disciplinary authority in 2014?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Compulsory Retirement
  • B.Reduction in Pay
  • C.Dismissal from Service✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Suspension without Pay
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The departmental inquiry culminated in the senior manager's dismissal from service on November 25, 2014. The Delhi High Court later modified this to compulsory retirement, which the Supreme Court set aside, restoring the original dismissal order.

Source: SC Restores Dismissal of Punjab & Sind Bank Senior Manager, Rejects Parity Principle Between Manager and Gunman →
Q60.

What was the core legal reason the Supreme Court gave for rejecting the Delhi High Court's equating of the senior manager with the gunman?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Both were first-time offenders.
  • B.The misconduct involved different amounts of money.
  • C.Higher rank entails greater responsibility and trust.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The gunman was not a permanent employee.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the senior manager's rank was not merely titular but carried an increased degree of responsibility, integrity, and supervisory duty over subordinates. This placed him in a distinct category from the gunman, making the principle of parity inapplicable.

Source: SC Restores Dismissal of Punjab & Sind Bank Senior Manager, Rejects Parity Principle Between Manager and Gunman →
Q61.

Under which article of the Constitution do High Courts have the power to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 226✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 142
  • D.Article 136
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 226 of the Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 gives the Supreme Court this power specifically for fundamental rights, which is a common distractor.

Source: Telangana HC Allows Private Colleges to Collect Fees Directly Over ₹1,500 Cr Govt Dues Under SC/ST/BC/EBC/Minority Welfare Scheme →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Telangana High Court allowed colleges to collect fees directly from students due to unpaid government dues.

2. The interim order applies to all students, including those from general categories.

3. The court directed the colleges to refund the collected fees if their writ petitions are ultimately dismissed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the relief specifically pertains to eligible students under the reimbursement scheme (SC, ST, BC, EBC, MW) and suspends GOs that prohibited collection from them. Statement 3 is correct as the court clarified that colleges will have to refund fees if the petitions are dismissed.

Source: Telangana HC Allows Private Colleges to Collect Fees Directly Over ₹1,500 Cr Govt Dues Under SC/ST/BC/EBC/Minority Welfare Scheme →
Q63.

According to the article, what is the approximate amount of dues the Telangana government owes to colleges under the fee reimbursement scheme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹500 crore
  • B.₹1,000 crore
  • C.₹1,500 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹2,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government dues run to about ₹1,500 crore. The other figures are plausible distractors given the scale of such schemes.

Source: Telangana HC Allows Private Colleges to Collect Fees Directly Over ₹1,500 Cr Govt Dues Under SC/ST/BC/EBC/Minority Welfare Scheme →
Q64.

What was the primary reason cited by the petitioners (colleges) for seeking the High Court's intervention?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase the tuition fees for all students
  • B.To challenge the constitutional validity of the reimbursement scheme
  • C.To alleviate financial strain caused by delayed government reimbursements✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To seek exemption from following the Right to Education Act norms
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the colleges approached the court 'citing financial strain due to amounts due from the state government'. The relief sought was interim permission to collect fees to manage day-to-day administration, not to increase fees generally or challenge the scheme's validity.

Source: Telangana HC Allows Private Colleges to Collect Fees Directly Over ₹1,500 Cr Govt Dues Under SC/ST/BC/EBC/Minority Welfare Scheme →
Q65.

The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria, mentioned in the context of the U.S. aid transition, is headquartered in which city?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.New York, USA
  • B.Geneva, Switzerland✓ Correct Answer
  • C.London, United Kingdom
  • D.Brussels, Belgium
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that The Global Fund is a 'Geneva-based health initiative'. This is a key static fact about a major international organization relevant to global health governance.

Source: U.S. Halts $5 Billion Global Health Supply Chain Program for HIV/Malaria, Shifts to Bilateral Aid Under 'America First' Strategy →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. global health supply programme:

1. It was managed by the private contractor Chemonics and delivered products worth over $5 billion from 2016 to 2024.

2. The programme provided medical supplies for HIV, Tuberculosis, and Malaria to countries in sub-Saharan Africa and Asia.

3. Its official end date is in November 2026, but the contract with Chemonics is ending on September 30, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the U.S. programme specifically delivered HIV and malaria products. Tuberculosis is part of The Global Fund's mandate, not the specific U.S. programme mentioned. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the contract ends Sept 30 'in line with all USAID awards - although its official end date is in November'.

Source: U.S. Halts $5 Billion Global Health Supply Chain Program for HIV/Malaria, Shifts to Bilateral Aid Under 'America First' Strategy →
Q67.

According to the article, to how many countries did the U.S. Global Health Supply Chain Program deliver HIV and malaria products?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.75 countries
  • B.90 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.110 countries
  • D.125 countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'it delivered a total of more than $5 billion of HIV and malaria products to 90 countries'. This is a precise figure testable in prelims.

Source: U.S. Halts $5 Billion Global Health Supply Chain Program for HIV/Malaria, Shifts to Bilateral Aid Under 'America First' Strategy →
Q68.

What is the primary risk associated with the U.S.'s rapid transition away from its Global Health Supply Chain Program, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increase in the cost of pharmaceutical products globally.
  • B.Shortages or gaps in the provision of life-saving products in recipient countries.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A decline in medical research funding for tropical diseases.
  • D.Legal challenges from the private contractor Chemonics for breach of contract.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core concern raised by sources in the article is that 'the speed of the change could cause shortages or gaps in the provision of life-saving products in some countries, with grave impacts'. The other options, while plausible, are not the primary risk explicitly stated in the provided content.

Source: U.S. Halts $5 Billion Global Health Supply Chain Program for HIV/Malaria, Shifts to Bilateral Aid Under 'America First' Strategy →
Q69.

Which ministry's report is cited in the article regarding the number of Indian students going abroad?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'As the Ministry of External Affairs reports, the number of Indian students going abroad has surged...' This ministry handles India's foreign relations and tracks such diaspora data.

Source: Indian Student Exodus Surges to 1.8 Mn in 2025, Causing $6 Billion Deficit; Need for Academic & Economic Ecosystem Reform →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the 'brain drain' issue discussed in the article:

1. The number of Indian students abroad increased from 1.3 million in 2023 to more than 1.8 million in 2025.

2. This outward movement of students has contributed to a surplus in India's balance of payments.

3. The article identifies the lack of post-study work visas in foreign countries as a key reason for the exodus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the exodus contributed to a $6-billion deficit, not a surplus. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions post-study work visas abroad as a pull factor, not their lack.

Source: Indian Student Exodus Surges to 1.8 Mn in 2025, Causing $6 Billion Deficit; Need for Academic & Economic Ecosystem Reform →
Q71.

According to the Reserve Bank of India's data mentioned in the article, what was the financial impact of the student exodus on India's balance of payments?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$3 billion surplus
  • B.$6 billion deficit✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$10 billion deficit
  • D.$1.8 billion surplus
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Data from the Reserve Bank of India’s quarterly balance of payments further shows that this outward push has contributed to a $6-billion deficit.' The other figures are distractors.

Source: Indian Student Exodus Surges to 1.8 Mn in 2025, Causing $6 Billion Deficit; Need for Academic & Economic Ecosystem Reform →
Q72.

What, according to the article, is the fundamental solution proposed to address the talent exodus from India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Restricting the number of students allowed to go abroad for studies.
  • B.Building an academic ecosystem and a dynamic economic landscape that matches student ambitions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Increasing the number of seats only in existing elite institutions like IITs and IIMs.
  • D.Mandating that all students who study abroad must return to India for work.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that educational renewal alone is insufficient. It must be matched by an economy that can absorb and reward talent. The solution lies in creating a broader landscape of quality institutions and a labor market that offers dignified opportunities.

Source: Indian Student Exodus Surges to 1.8 Mn in 2025, Causing $6 Billion Deficit; Need for Academic & Economic Ecosystem Reform →
Q73.

The Supreme Court judgment mentioned that a punishment bordering on arbitrariness would offend which Article of the Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 19
  • B.Article 14✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 21
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment explicitly states that a strikingly disproportionate punishment 'would border on arbitrariness and offend Article 14 of the Constitution.' Article 14 guarantees equality before law and protects against arbitrary state action.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Dismissal of Senior Bank Manager, Upholds 'Higher Authority = Higher Accountability' Under Article 14 →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on the bank manager's dismissal:

1. The Court restored the punishment of compulsory retirement imposed by the disciplinary authority.

2. The Court held that the principle of parity in punishment must be applied irrespective of the rank of the delinquent employees.

3. The Court stated that judicial interference in disciplinary punishment is warranted if it appears the authority used a 'sledgehammer for cracking a nut'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court restored the punishment of 'dismissal from service', not compulsory retirement. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Court rejected the parity argument, stating higher rank justifies stricter punishment. Statement 3 is correct, as the judgment mentions this phrase to describe warranted judicial interference.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Dismissal of Senior Bank Manager, Upholds 'Higher Authority = Higher Accountability' Under Article 14 →
Q75.

According to the Supreme Court judgment, what was the specific scale/grade held by the senior manager who was dismissed?

MediumBanking, SSC
  • A.JMGS-I
  • B.MMGS-II
  • C.MMGS-III✓ Correct Answer
  • D.SMGS-IV
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the respondent (senior manager) was holding the post of 'senior manager in MMGS-III scale'. This detail is crucial as the Court used his higher rank compared to the co-delinquents as a ground for the harsher punishment.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Dismissal of Senior Bank Manager, Upholds 'Higher Authority = Higher Accountability' Under Article 14 →
Q76.

What is the primary legal principle established by the Supreme Court's ruling that 'authority carries accountability' in this case?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.All employees must receive identical punishment for identical misconduct.
  • B.Judicial review should be the first recourse for challenging disciplinary actions.
  • C.Higher-ranking officials can be held to a stricter standard of conduct and face harsher penalties.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Disciplinary authorities have unlimited power to impose any punishment they deem fit.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the judgment is that with higher authority comes greater responsibility (accountability). Therefore, a senior official's misconduct, given their position of trust and supervisory role, can legitimately attract a more severe punishment than a junior employee involved in the same act, without violating Article 14.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Dismissal of Senior Bank Manager, Upholds 'Higher Authority = Higher Accountability' Under Article 14 →
Q77.

Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India, as mentioned in Justice Nagarathna's lecture?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Dr B.R. Ambedkar
  • B.Dr Rajendra Prasad✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Jawaharlal Nehru
  • D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Justice Nagarathna recalled Dr Rajendra Prasad's role as the President of the Constituent Assembly (1946–1950). Dr B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Proposes 30% Reservation for Women as Law Officers in Central & State Governments →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Justice B V Nagarathna:

1. She proposed that at least 30% of law officers in Central and State governments must be women.

2. She stated that more than 50% of recent entrants into judicial services are women.

3. She argued that the 'Basic Structure' doctrine is solely about protecting individual fundamental rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as she noted 'more than 50 per cent of recent entrants into judicial services are women'. Statement 3 is incorrect because she specifically stated the Basic Structure doctrine is 'not about protecting individual rights alone; it is about preserving the structural integrity of the Constitution.'

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Proposes 30% Reservation for Women as Law Officers in Central & State Governments →
Q79.

What percentage of reservation for women as law officers did Justice Nagarathna propose for public sector organizations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25%
  • B.30%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.33%
  • D.40%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justice Nagarathna clearly stated, '30 per cent of the panel advocates in public sector organisations must be women.' The other options are common reservation percentages used as distractors.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Proposes 30% Reservation for Women as Law Officers in Central & State Governments →
Q80.

According to Justice Nagarathna, what is the primary reason advocating for increased representation of women as law officers and panel advocates?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the backlog of cases in courts
  • B.To improve the quality of legal arguments presented to the government
  • C.To enhance their visibility and prospects for judicial appointments✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To comply with international gender equality conventions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that increasing women's presence as law officers would 'significantly improve their visibility, thereby enhancing their prospects for judicial appointments.' She linked courtroom visibility directly to elevation to the bench.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Proposes 30% Reservation for Women as Law Officers in Central & State Governments →
Q81.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution was the Right to Education Act, 2009, enacted?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21A✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Right to Education Act, 2009, is the enabling legislation for Article 21A of the Constitution, which was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002 to make education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14.

Source: Delhi High Court Clarifies RTE Act: Education Right ≠ School Choice, Upholds Social Inclusion →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Delhi High Court judgment on the Right to Education Act:

1. The court ruled that the RTE Act guarantees the right to choose a specific school for admission.

2. The judgment emphasized that the RTE Act is a beneficial legislation aimed at social inclusion.

3. The court held that a student's right to admission in a particular school persists indefinitely, regardless of the academic year's conclusion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court explicitly ruled that the right to education does NOT include the right to select a particular school. Statement 2 is correct, as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court stated that the right to admission perishes once the academic year is over, in the absence of an interim order.

Source: Delhi High Court Clarifies RTE Act: Education Right ≠ School Choice, Upholds Social Inclusion →
Q83.

On which date did the Delhi High Court bench deliver the judgment clarifying that the RTE Act does not include the right to choose a school?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 04, 2026
  • B.March 25, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.March 25, 2023
  • D.April 04, 2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Delhi High Court ruled on March 25. The year is 2026, as the article was published on April 04, 2026, and references this judgment. March 25, 2023, is the date of the draw of lots mentioned in the case, not the judgment.

Source: Delhi High Court Clarifies RTE Act: Education Right ≠ School Choice, Upholds Social Inclusion →
Q84.

What was the primary rationale given by the Delhi High Court for ruling that the RTE Act does not grant a right to choose a specific school?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To reduce the administrative burden on the Directorate of Education
  • B.To uphold the constitutional principle of equality before law
  • C.To achieve the objectives of social inclusion and prevent school segregation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To protect the autonomy of private unaided schools
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court stated that the RTE Act is a beneficial legislation enacted to achieve social inclusion and ensure schools become common spaces not differentiated by barriers of caste or economic lines. Granting a right to choose a specific school could undermine this objective by allowing segregation.

Source: Delhi High Court Clarifies RTE Act: Education Right ≠ School Choice, Upholds Social Inclusion →
Q85.

The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC), mentioned in the context of releasing a video of a US aircraft shootdown, is a branch of the armed forces of which country?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Saudi Arabia
  • B.Iran✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Iraq
  • D.Syria
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) is a branch of the Iranian Armed Forces, founded after the Iranian Revolution. The article explicitly mentions the IRGC releasing a video of a US F-15 shootdown.

Source: Iran's Layered Air Defence Shoots Down US F-15E & A-10, Claims 17 Aircraft Losses Over 35 Days →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran conflict as per the article:

1. The incidents involving the downing of a US F-15E and an A-10 occurred just two days after a US declaration of victory.

2. Iran's Bavar-373 air defence system is a short-range system effective only below 15,000 feet.

3. The closure of the Strait of Hormuz has impacted approximately 20% of global oil and LNG shipments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the incidents occurred just 48 hours after President Trump declared the US had 'beaten and completely decimated Iran'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Bavar-373 is a long-range system capable of engaging targets beyond 200 km; MANPADS are the short-range systems effective below 15,000 feet. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the Hormuz closure blocks '~20% global oil/LNG'.

Source: Iran's Layered Air Defence Shoots Down US F-15E & A-10, Claims 17 Aircraft Losses Over 35 Days →
Q87.

According to the article, what was the approximate price of Brent crude oil per barrel as a result of the conflict and the Strait of Hormuz disruption?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$80+
  • B.$90+
  • C.$100+✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$110+
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's data tracker explicitly lists 'Oil Price/bbl' as '$100+' and the summary states 'Brent $100+' as a result of the Hormuz closure. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Iran's Layered Air Defence Shoots Down US F-15E & A-10, Claims 17 Aircraft Losses Over 35 Days →
Q88.

What is identified as the 'key reason' for Iran's air defence network remaining a significant threat despite early US strikes, according to the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Superior technology provided by Russia.
  • B.A single, centralized command and control system.
  • C.Its layered architecture designed for survivability and redundancy.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The complete absence of US electronic warfare capabilities.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The key reason lies in Iran’s architecture. Rather than relying on a single, centralized system, Iran operates a layered air defence network designed for survivability and redundancy.' This is the core strategic reason highlighted, not external technology or US failures.

Source: Iran's Layered Air Defence Shoots Down US F-15E & A-10, Claims 17 Aircraft Losses Over 35 Days →
Q89.

Which Indian business organization's 'Arab Desk' did basmati exporters approach to seek government intervention on the Gulf crisis?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
  • B.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
  • D.National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that exporters approached the Arab desk of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). FICCI is a key apex business organization in India that often acts as an interface between industry and government.

Source: Basmati Exporters Seek ‘Force Majeure’ Waiver, ₹30 Lakh Charges Hit MSMEs Amid Gulf Shipping Crisis →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about basmati exports and the Gulf crisis:

1. Exporters have requested the government to declare a 'force majeure' event with effect from 1st March 2026.

2. By the end of January 2026, India had already exported 5.4 million tonnes of basmati rice.

3. The doctrine of 'frustration of contract' is invoked when performance becomes impossible due to unforeseen events, as per the Indian Contract Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions exporters urged formal recognition of force majeure 'with effect from 1 March'. Statement 2 is correct as the article states 'By the end of January, India had already exported 5.4 million tonnes of basmati rice'. Statement 3 is correct; the doctrine of frustration of contract is indeed covered under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Source: Basmati Exporters Seek ‘Force Majeure’ Waiver, ₹30 Lakh Charges Hit MSMEs Amid Gulf Shipping Crisis →
Q91.

According to the article, approximately how much basmati rice was targeted for export by the end of the 2025–26 financial year, beyond the 5.4 million tonnes already exported by January?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.5 million tonnes
  • B.1 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1.5 million tonnes
  • D.2 million tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that after exporting 5.4 million tonnes by January, there was 'approximately one million tonnes more to be exported by the end of the 2025–26 financial year'. This is a direct data point from the news.

Source: Basmati Exporters Seek ‘Force Majeure’ Waiver, ₹30 Lakh Charges Hit MSMEs Amid Gulf Shipping Crisis →
Q92.

What is the primary legal principle invoked by basmati exporters to seek relief from contractual obligations disrupted by the Gulf crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Doctrine of Estoppel
  • B.Doctrine of Force Majeure✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Principle of Quantum Meruit
  • D.Doctrine of Ultra Vires
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The central legal argument of the exporters, as detailed in the article, is based on 'force majeure', a clause that frees parties from liability when extraordinary, unforeseen events prevent contract fulfillment. While the 'doctrine of frustration' is also mentioned, the primary and explicit request is for a force majeure declaration.

Source: Basmati Exporters Seek ‘Force Majeure’ Waiver, ₹30 Lakh Charges Hit MSMEs Amid Gulf Shipping Crisis →
Q93.

Which constitutional articles are primarily under examination by the nine-judge Supreme Court bench in the Sabarimala review case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Articles 14 and 15 (Right to Equality)
  • B.Articles 19 and 21 (Right to Freedom and Life)
  • C.Articles 25 and 26 (Right to Freedom of Religion)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Articles 32 and 226 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the nine-judge bench has framed questions specifically concerning the scope and interplay of Articles 25 (freedom of religion for persons) and 26 (rights of religious denominations). These are the core constitutional provisions at issue.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench to Hear Sabarimala Review Pleas on April 7, Examining Articles 25 & 26 →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala case:

1. A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, in September 2018, struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Rules, 1965.

2. The review petitions were declared maintainable by a nine-judge bench constituted in January 2020 under then CJI S.A. Bobde.

3. The Left Democratic Front government of Kerala had opposed the 2018 judgment lifting age restrictions on women's entry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the 5-judge bench struck down Rule 3(b). Statement 2 is correct: the article states a 9-judge bench under CJI S.A. Bobde held review petitions maintainable. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says the LDF government 'supported' the 2018 decision, not opposed it.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench to Hear Sabarimala Review Pleas on April 7, Examining Articles 25 & 26 →
Q95.

When will the nine-judge Supreme Court bench commence hearing the Sabarimala review pleas?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 4, 2026
  • B.April 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April 10, 2026
  • D.April 15, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The bench will commence hearing in the matter from April 7.' The other dates are close distractors, with April 4 being the publication date of the news.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench to Hear Sabarimala Review Pleas on April 7, Examining Articles 25 & 26 →
Q96.

What is one of the key constitutional questions framed by the nine-judge bench for the Sabarimala review hearing?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Whether the right to freedom of religion includes the right to convert others.
  • B.What is the scope and extent of the word 'morality' under Articles 25 and 26, and whether it includes constitutional morality.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Whether religious denominations have the right to receive state funding.
  • D.What is the procedure for appointing judges to the Supreme Court.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists seven framed questions. Question 4 is precisely: 'What is the scope and extent of the word ‘morality’ under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution, and whether it is meant to include constitutional morality?' The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench to Hear Sabarimala Review Pleas on April 7, Examining Articles 25 & 26 →
Q97.

The independence of which of the following constitutional bodies was specifically highlighted by Justice Nagarathna as being central to the political process?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
  • B.The Election Commission of India (ECI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
  • D.The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justice Nagarathna's lecture explicitly stated that the independence of the Election Commission of India is central to the conduct of elections and the political process. While other bodies are important, the article specifically mentions the EC alongside the CAG and Finance Commission.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Stresses Structural Independence for EC, CAG, Finance Commission Under Constitutional Checks & Balances →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Supreme Court Justice B V Nagarathna:

1. She argued that the independence of bodies like the Election Commission is incidental rather than structural.

2. She stated that constitutional breakdown can occur within legality through the gradual hollowing-out of institutional structure.

3. She cited Dr Rajendra Prasad's disagreement with the Hindu Code Bill as an example of independent constitutional responsibility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Justice Nagarathna stated the independence of these bodies is "not incidental but structural." Statement 2 is correct, as she explicitly said, "Constitutional breakdown can occur within legality through gradual hollowing-out of structure." Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions she referred to Prasad's disagreement with the Hindu Code Bill.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Stresses Structural Independence for EC, CAG, Finance Commission Under Constitutional Checks & Balances →
Q99.

Where was the first Dr Rajendra Prasad Memorial Lecture, mentioned in the article, delivered by Justice B V Nagarathna?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Law School of India University, Bengaluru
  • B.Chanakya National Law University, Patna✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rajiv Gandhi National Law University, Patiala
  • D.NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Justice Nagarathna delivered the lecture at Chanakya National Law University in Patna. The other options are other prominent national law universities in India.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Stresses Structural Independence for EC, CAG, Finance Commission Under Constitutional Checks & Balances →
Q100.

According to Justice Nagarathna's lecture, what is the primary risk to a constitutional system highlighted in the news article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The explicit suspension of fundamental rights by the executive.
  • B.The weakening of institutions that enforce limits on power, even while rights remain formally untouched.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The frequent use of judicial overreach by the Supreme Court.
  • D.The inability of the legislature to pass new laws.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument of the lecture, as reported, is that the risk lies "not only in the violation of rights but also in the weakening of institutions that enforce limits on power." She elaborates that a constitutional identity can be lost through the 'hollowing-out' of structure while rights exist formally untouched.

Source: SC Justice Nagarathna Stresses Structural Independence for EC, CAG, Finance Commission Under Constitutional Checks & Balances →
Q101.

Which regulatory body is primarily responsible for overseeing banking operations and internal controls, as highlighted in the fraud case?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution responsible for regulating commercial banks, their internal controls, and financial stability. The article discusses fraud within banks, making RBI the relevant regulator.

Source: Multi-State Banking Fraud Exposes Systemic Weaknesses in Public Fund Management and Fixed Deposit Security →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the financial fraud uncovered in Chandigarh and Haryana:

1. The fraud targeted government funds parked in fixed deposits of departments like the Panchayat department and Smart City missions.

2. The modus operandi involved creating fake fixed deposits to show reinvestment, thereby delaying detection.

3. The fraud network included bank officials, government employees, and private intermediaries who routed funds into personal accounts only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the fraud targeted government departments' FDs. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions fake reinvestments to delay detection. Statement 3 is incorrect because funds were routed into shell firms and real estate, not just personal accounts.

Source: Multi-State Banking Fraud Exposes Systemic Weaknesses in Public Fund Management and Fixed Deposit Security →
Q103.

According to the article, which bank's Sector 32 branch in Chandigarh is at the heart of the probe where the prime accused was the branch manager?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.AU Small Finance Bank
  • B.Kotak Mahindra Bank
  • C.IDFC First Bank✓ Correct Answer
  • D.State Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "At the heart of the probe is the IDFC First Bank’s Sector 32 branch, where the prime accused, Ribhav Rishi, worked as branch manager."

Source: Multi-State Banking Fraud Exposes Systemic Weaknesses in Public Fund Management and Fixed Deposit Security →
Q104.

What was the primary technique used by the accused to obscure the money trail after liquidating the fixed deposits?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Placement of funds into foreign accounts
  • B.Integration into legitimate businesses
  • C.Layering through multiple intermediary and shell company accounts✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Direct cash withdrawals and physical hoarding
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article describes Step 5 of the fraud: "funds were transferred into multiple intermediary accounts... belonging to shell entities... The purpose was layering, a classic money-laundering technique."

Source: Multi-State Banking Fraud Exposes Systemic Weaknesses in Public Fund Management and Fixed Deposit Security →
Q105.

Which central investigative agency has been requested by the Haryana government to take over the probe into the banking frauds?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • B.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  • D.Income Tax Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Haryana government has written to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to take over the probe. The ED is already investigating, but the request is for the CBI to take over.

Source: IDFC First Bank & Kotak Mahindra Bank Fraud Cases: ₹950 Crore Siphoned via Fake FDs, ED & CBI Probe →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the banking frauds mentioned in the news:

1. The total amount siphoned in the series of frauds is approximately Rs 950 crore.

2. The fraud involving Panchkula Municipal Corporation pertains to Kotak Mahindra Bank and amounts to Rs 158 crore.

3. AU Small Finance Bank was directly accused of fraud and was de-empanelled along with IDFC First Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Public funds worth nearly Rs 950 crore were siphoned off'. Statement 2 is correct as the Kotak Mahindra Bank fraud of Rs 158 crore involves Panchkula Municipal Corporation. Statement 3 is incorrect; AU Small Finance Bank came under scrutiny for suspicious transactions but is not directly accused, and it was de-empanelled as a precaution.

Source: IDFC First Bank & Kotak Mahindra Bank Fraud Cases: ₹950 Crore Siphoned via Fake FDs, ED & CBI Probe →
Q107.

What is the approximate amount of funds involved in the fraud case concerning Chandigarh Smart City Limited (CSCL) with IDFC First Bank?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 83 crore
  • B.Rs 116.84 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 158 crore
  • D.Rs 590 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The case involves about Rs 116.84 crore belonging to Chandigarh Smart City Limited (CSCL) and linked to the IDFC First Bank’s Sector-32 branch.' The other amounts correspond to different fraud cases mentioned.

Source: IDFC First Bank & Kotak Mahindra Bank Fraud Cases: ₹950 Crore Siphoned via Fake FDs, ED & CBI Probe →
Q108.

What was the primary method used to conceal the frauds in the cases described?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Unauthorized digital transfers through payment gateways
  • B.Creation of fake Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) and forged documents✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Misuse of government subsidy schemes
  • D.Manipulation of stock market transactions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions fake FDRs, forged signatures and seals, and fabricated documents as the key methods to conceal the frauds. For example, it states 'FDRs issued by the bank were found to be fake, with no corresponding deposits' and 'fake confirmations, fabricated FDRs and misleading statements were allegedly used.'

Source: IDFC First Bank & Kotak Mahindra Bank Fraud Cases: ₹950 Crore Siphoned via Fake FDs, ED & CBI Probe →
Q109.

Under which railway zone does the New Delhi (NDLS) railway station fall?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Railway
  • B.Northern Railway✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Western Railway
  • D.Eastern Railway
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the New Delhi station falls under the administrative control of Northern Railway's Delhi Division.

Source: New Delhi Railway Station Redevelopment Under Amrit Bharat Scheme To Handle 7 Lakh Passengers Daily With 1,500 AI Cameras →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the redevelopment of New Delhi railway station:

1. It is being redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS).

2. The new station building is designed to handle up to 5 lakh passengers daily.

3. An AI-powered control room will process live camera feeds to alert staff about unusual events.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the redevelopment is under ABSS. Statement 2 is incorrect; the capacity is 7 lakh passengers daily, not 5 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as per the details about the Exception Event Display-based AI control room.

Source: New Delhi Railway Station Redevelopment Under Amrit Bharat Scheme To Handle 7 Lakh Passengers Daily With 1,500 AI Cameras →
Q111.

What is the built-up area of the new station building planned for New Delhi railway station?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 90,000 sq. m
  • B.Approximately 1,09,000 sq. m✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Approximately 1,25,000 sq. m
  • D.Approximately 1,50,000 sq. m
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the new station building will have a built-up area of approximately 1,09,000 sq. m.

Source: New Delhi Railway Station Redevelopment Under Amrit Bharat Scheme To Handle 7 Lakh Passengers Daily With 1,500 AI Cameras →
Q112.

What is a key technological feature being integrated into the New Delhi station redevelopment for security purposes?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Blockchain-based ticketing system
  • B.1,500 AI-powered surveillance cameras✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Facial recognition at all entry gates
  • D.Drone-based perimeter monitoring
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Railway Minister stated that around 1,500 AI cameras will be installed at platforms, concourses, and other points, with an AI control room for real-time monitoring. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: New Delhi Railway Station Redevelopment Under Amrit Bharat Scheme To Handle 7 Lakh Passengers Daily With 1,500 AI Cameras →
Q113.

Which regional intergovernmental organization, formed in 1981, is mentioned in the article as being largely aligned with Washington for security needs?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Arab League
  • B.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)
  • D.OPEC
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that concerns about instability posed by Iran's revolution were among factors leading to the creation of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) in 1981. The GCC includes Saudi Arabia, UAE, Kuwait, Qatar, Oman, and Bahrain.

Source: Gulf-Iran Divide Since 1979 Revolution Drives GCC Alignment with US, Abraham Accords 2020, and Security Hedging →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical shifts discussed in the article:

1. The Gulf Arab states' move towards the US and Israel is solely driven by the Shia-Sunni sectarian divide with Iran.

2. The Abraham Accords, signed in 2020, saw the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain formally recognize Israel.

3. A China-brokered deal in 2023 permanently resolved the diplomatic rift between Saudi Arabia and Iran.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states the tensions go 'beyond the ideological Shia-Sunni divide' and include threats from Iran's armed forces, nuclear program, and hegemonic tendencies. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says the 2023 deal 'briefly restored diplomatic ties' but that Iranian attacks have since widened the divide.

Source: Gulf-Iran Divide Since 1979 Revolution Drives GCC Alignment with US, Abraham Accords 2020, and Security Hedging →
Q115.

In which year did the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain formally recognize Israel as part of the Abraham Accords, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1994
  • B.2015
  • C.2020✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'By 2020, the UAE and Bahrain became the first Arab countries to formally recognize Israel since Jordan in 1994 as part of the Abraham accords.' 1994 is the year Jordan recognized Israel, 2023 is the year of the China-brokered Saudi-Iran deal, and 2015 is not mentioned.

Source: Gulf-Iran Divide Since 1979 Revolution Drives GCC Alignment with US, Abraham Accords 2020, and Security Hedging →
Q116.

According to the article, what is a primary factor behind the Gulf Arab states' current strategy of 'hedging' or diversifying their security partnerships beyond the United States?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To completely replace US influence with Chinese dominance in the region.
  • B.Due to anxiety that the US might unilaterally withdraw from conflicts, leaving Iran dominant.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because the US has stopped all arms sales to Gulf Cooperation Council members.
  • D.To form a new military alliance specifically to invade Iran.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies the 'common anxiety' that the US will 'unilaterally declare victory and withdraw from the war — leaving the Iran regime not only standing but maintaining a chokehold on the Strait of Hormuz.' This fear, coupled with past perceived lack of US response (e.g., to Houthi attacks in 2019/2022), drives hedging. The other options are extreme or not supported by the text.

Source: Gulf-Iran Divide Since 1979 Revolution Drives GCC Alignment with US, Abraham Accords 2020, and Security Hedging →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 4 April 2026?▼

This page contains 116 current affairs questions from 4 April 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 4 April 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. The development of India's nuclear-powered submarine program, …
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear-po…
  3. Q3. As per the article, what is the displacement (tonnage) of the …
  4. Q4. is the primary strategic significance of inducting INS Aridama…
  5. Q5. Indian organization, mentioned in the article, was involved in…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding INS Aridaman: 1. …
  7. Q7. As per the article, what is the displacement tonnage of the ne…
  8. Q8. is the primary strategic significance of inducting a nuclear-p…
  9. Q9. ministry is responsible for the classification of districts af…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. INS …
  11. Q11. According to the news, how many districts in India were catego…
  12. Q12. is the primary strategic significance of commissioning INS Ari…
  13. Q13. body oversees the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIR…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
  15. Q15. According to the article, what is the financial outlay for the…
  16. Q16. is a primary strategic implication of India's 'No First Use' (…
  17. Q17. department under the Commerce and Industry Ministry is coordin…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas (A…
  19. Q19. According to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2…
  20. Q20. is a primary expected outcome of the directive to withdraw pen…
  21. Q21. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) falls primari…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed FCRA …
  23. Q23. According to the article, in which year was the Bill to amend …
  24. Q24. is a primary criticism, as per the article, of the proposed FC…
  25. Q25. As per the article, which body in Kerala is responsible for fo…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's developme…
  27. Q27. According to the article, what is the infant mortality rate (I…
  28. Q28. is identified as a primary constraint on Kerala's capacity to …
  29. Q29. As per the news, which state's Health Department issued the di…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the directive issu…
  31. Q31. According to the news, what is the emergency helpline number t…
  32. Q32. is the primary objective of the Karnataka Health Department's …
  33. Q33. political party in Taiwan, mentioned in the article, supports …
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding constraints on Chi…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what percentage of the world's most …
  36. Q36. is a primary reason, as discussed in the article, that constra…
  37. Q37. The Jan Vishwas initiative involves the review and amendment o…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Vishwas in…
  39. Q39. According to the article, how many cases in the Indian judicia…
  40. Q40. is the primary constitutional philosophy shift highlighted by …
  41. Q41. The 'Act East Policy', mentioned in the article as needing rei…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic shif…
  43. Q43. According to the article's analysis, what is the primary reaso…
  44. Q44. is the core strategic imperative for India regarding economic …
  45. Q45. space agency is the primary leader of the Artemis program ment…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis II mis…
  47. Q47. According to the article, how many years had passed since the …
  48. Q48. is the primary strategic significance of exploring the Moon's …
  49. Q49. regulatory body of China issued the draft rules to govern 'dig…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the draft regulati…
  51. Q51. Until what date is the draft regulation on digital humans open…
  52. Q52. is a primary objective of China's draft regulations on digital…
  53. Q53. ISRO centre is leading the recently announced Mission MITRA?
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Mission MITRA: 1.…
  55. Q55. According to the news, in which month and year is Mission MITR…
  56. Q56. is the primary rationale cited by ISRO for choosing Ladakh as …
  57. Q57. Under which article of the Constitution does the Supreme Court…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  59. Q59. In the Supreme Court case regarding the Punjab & Sind Bank man…
  60. Q60. was the core legal reason the Supreme Court gave for rejecting…
  61. Q61. Under which article of the Constitution do High Courts have th…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is the approximate amount of du…
  64. Q64. was the primary reason cited by the petitioners (colleges) for…
  65. Q65. The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria, menti…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. global he…
  67. Q67. According to the article, to how many countries did the U.S. G…
  68. Q68. is the primary risk associated with the U.S.'s rapid transitio…
  69. Q69. ministry's report is cited in the article regarding the number…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the 'brain drain' …
  71. Q71. According to the Reserve Bank of India's data mentioned in the…
  72. Q72. What, according to the article, is the fundamental solution pr…
  73. Q73. The Supreme Court judgment mentioned that a punishment borderi…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  75. Q75. According to the Supreme Court judgment, what was the specific…
  76. Q76. is the primary legal principle established by the Supreme Cour…
  77. Q77. was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India, as men…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the observations m…
  79. Q79. percentage of reservation for women as law officers did Justic…
  80. Q80. According to Justice Nagarathna, what is the primary reason ad…
  81. Q81. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution was the Right t…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Delhi H…
  83. Q83. On which date did the Delhi High Court bench deliver the judgm…
  84. Q84. was the primary rationale given by the Delhi High Court for ru…
  85. Q85. The Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC), mentioned in the…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran confli…
  87. Q87. According to the article, what was the approximate price of Br…
  88. Q88. is identified as the 'key reason' for Iran's air defence netwo…
  89. Q89. Indian business organization's 'Arab Desk' did basmati exporte…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news about bas…
  91. Q91. According to the article, approximately how much basmati rice …
  92. Q92. is the primary legal principle invoked by basmati exporters to…
  93. Q93. constitutional articles are primarily under examination by the…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala cas…
  95. Q95. will the nine-judge Supreme Court bench commence hearing the S…
  96. Q96. is one of the key constitutional questions framed by the nine-…
  97. Q97. The independence of which of the following constitutional bodi…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the observations m…
  99. Q99. was the first Dr Rajendra Prasad Memorial Lecture, mentioned i…
  100. Q100. According to Justice Nagarathna's lecture, what is the primary…
  101. Q101. regulatory body is primarily responsible for overseeing bankin…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the financial frau…
  103. Q103. According to the article, which bank's Sector 32 branch in Cha…
  104. Q104. was the primary technique used by the accused to obscure the m…
  105. Q105. central investigative agency has been requested by the Haryana…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the banking frauds…
  107. Q107. is the approximate amount of funds involved in the fraud case …
  108. Q108. was the primary method used to conceal the frauds in the cases…
  109. Q109. Under which railway zone does the New Delhi (NDLS) railway sta…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the redevelopment …
  111. Q111. is the built-up area of the new station building planned for N…
  112. Q112. is a key technological feature being integrated into the New D…
  113. Q113. regional intergovernmental organization, formed in 1981, is me…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical s…
  115. Q115. In which year did the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain formall…
  116. Q116. According to the article, what is a primary factor behind the …